CDC 3D152 Ure Volume 1

69 Questions | Total Attempts: 238

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3D152 Quizzes & Trivia

This is a quiz designed for all the network specialists and nerds out there. If you want to test your knowledge on this particular bunch of networking diagram facts take this quiz and find out how vast your knowledge is.


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    • A. 

      A. Amplitude modulation (AM) and frequency modulation (FM).

    • B. 

      B. Pulse code modulation (PCM) and frequency shift keying (FSK).

    • C. 

      C. Phase modulation (PM) and quadrature phase shift keying (QPSK).

    • D. 

      D. Pulse code modulation (PCM) and continuously variable slope delta (CVSD) modulation.

  • 2. 
    What converts analog signal information into an analog carrier signal?
    • A. 

      A. Delta modulation (DM).

    • B. 

      B. Digital modulation.

    • C. 

      C. Analog modulation.

    • D. 

      D. Adaptive modulation.

  • 3. 
    What converts analog signal information into a digital carrier signal?
    • A. 

      A. Delta modulation (DM).

    • B. 

      B. Analog modulation.

    • C. 

      C. Digital modulation.

    • D. 

      D. Adaptive modulation.

  • 4. 
    The information-carrying components that occur on either side of a carrier are called
    • A. 

      A. sidebands.

    • B. 

      B. sine waves.

    • C. 

      C. frequency translators.

    • D. 

      D. modulating frequencies.

  • 5. 
    Amplitude modulation (AM) requires a bandwidth that is
    • A. 

      A. twice that of the modulating signal.

    • B. 

      B. half that of the modulating signal.

    • C. 

      C. twice that of the carrier signal.

    • D. 

      D. half that of the carrier signal.

  • 6. 
    The upper sideband in a single-sideband suppressed carrier (SSBSC) modulation is eliminated by
    • A. 

      A. filtering.

    • B. 

      B. detection.

    • C. 

      C. compression.

    • D. 

      D. companding.

  • 7. 
    We can express the 6-to-1 improvement of the single-sideband suppressed carrier (SSBSC) modulation over conventional amplitude modulation (AM) as
    • A. 

      A. 2 decibels (dB) of improvement.

    • B. 

      B. 4 dB of improvement.

    • C. 

      C. 6 dB of improvement.

    • D. 

      D. 8 dB of improvement.

  • 8. 
    The only basic waveform in nature is a
    • A. 

      A. carrier wave.

    • B. 

      B. pure sine wave.

    • C. 

      C. resultant wave.

    • D. 

      D. composite wave.

  • 9. 
    A modulated waveform that contains a carrier plus two sidebands for each modulation frequency is a description of
    • A. 

      A. a phase modulation (PM).

    • B. 

      B. a pulse modulation.

    • C. 

      C. a frequency modulation (FM).

    • D. 

      D. an amplitude modulation (AM).

  • 10. 
    If 100 percent modulation is exceeded and there is distortion in the modulating signal, additional sidebands are generated. We identify these sidebands as what?
    • A. 

      A. Transmitted intelligence.

    • B. 

      B. Intensity of speech.

    • C. 

      C. Composite waves.

    • D. 

      D. Splatter.

  • 11. 
    The amount of deviation in a frequency modulation (FM) signal is directly proportional to the modulating signal's
    • A. 

      A. phase.

    • B. 

      B. amplitude.

    • C. 

      C. frequency.

    • D. 

      D. amplitude and frequency.

  • 12. 
    The amount of phase shift in a phase modulation (PM) signal is directly proportional to the 
    • A. 

      A. modulation index.

    • B. 

      B. rate of phase shift.

    • C. 

      C. frequency of the modulating signal.

    • D. 

      D. amplitude of the modulating signal.

  • 13. 
    What form of modulation is insensitive to signal variations?
    • A. 

      A. Delta

    • B. 

      B. Frequency shift keying (FSK).

    • C. 

      C. Pulse-amplitude modulation (PAM).

    • D. 

      D. Binary-phase sift keying or bi-phase shift keying (BPSK).

  • 14. 
    In quadrature-phase shift keying (QPSK) the radio frequency (RF) bandwidth for a quadriphase signal is what of that required by a bi-phase signal, given the same data rate.
    • A. 

      A. four times.

    • B. 

      B. double.

    • C. 

      C. half.

    • D. 

      D. the same.

  • 15. 
    What is the main advantage of differential phase shift keying (DPSK)?
    • A. 

      A. Carrier presence is required to detect changes.

    • B. 

      B. It requires a less complex receiver than a basic phase shift keying (PSK) signal.

    • C. 

      C. It requires a more complex receiver than a basic PSK signal.

    • D. 

      D. The demodulator needs to detect changes in absolute phase values.

  • 16. 
    Which of the following is not considered an analog modulation techniques?
    • A. 

      A. pulse-amplitude modulation (PAM).

    • B. 

      B. pulse-duration modulation (PDM).

    • C. 

      C. pulse-position modulation (PPM).

    • D. 

      D. pulse-code modulation (PCM).

  • 17. 
    The form of pulse modulation in which the pulse is varied within a set range of positions is known is
    • A. 

      A. pulse-amplitude modulation (PAM).

    • B. 

      B. pulse-duration modulation (PDM).

    • C. 

      C. pulse-position modulation (PPM).

    • D. 

      D. pulse-code modulation (PCM).

  • 18. 
    Quantized analog modulation is actually
    • A. 

      A. pulse-amplitude modulation (PAM).

    • B. 

      B. pulse-duration modulation (PDM).

    • C. 

      C. less tolerant of noise than frequency modulation (FM).

    • D. 

      D. analog-to-digital conversion.

  • 19. 
    How many bits per character of a 16-step pulse-code modulation (PCM) system are used to describe the quantized analog sample?
    • A. 

      A. 3.

    • B. 

      B. 4.

    • C. 

      C. 5.

    • D. 

      D. 8.

  • 20. 
    The process of coding pulse code modulation (PCM) quantized pulses to make them a constant duration and amplitude is
    • A. 

      A. encoding.

    • B. 

      B. companding.

    • C. 

      C. uniform quantizing.

    • D. 

      D. nonuniform quantizing.

  • 21. 
    In Time Division Multiplexing (TDM), the transmitting multiplexer will put a bit or a byte from each of the incoming lines into a specifically allocated what?
    • A. 

      A. channel.

    • B. 

      B. trunk.

    • C. 

      C. time slot.

    • D. 

      D. port.

  • 22. 
    The two major types of frame structures are
    • A. 

      A. low speed and high speed.

    • B. 

      B. high speed and EBCDIC.

    • C. 

      C. CCITT and low speed.

    • D. 

      D. EBCDIC and CCITT.

  • 23. 
    The method of multiplexing the T1 multiplexer uses is 
    • A. 

      A. frequency division.

    • B. 

      B. binary division.

    • C. 

      C. pulse division.

    • D. 

      D. time division.

  • 24. 
    Wave-division multiplexing (WDM) creates the virtual channels for multiplexing them together for transmission by using different
    • A. 

      A. wavelengths or lambdas.

    • B. 

      B. wavelengths or gammas.

    • C. 

      C. frequencies or lambdas.

    • D. 

      D. frequencies or gammas.

  • 25. 
    The most common wave-division multiplexing (WDM) system uses how many wavelengths?
    • A. 

      A. One wavelength.

    • B. 

      B. Two wavelengths.

    • C. 

      C. Three wavelengths.

    • D. 

      D. Four wavelengths.

  • 26. 
    Individual pulses within a digital signal are
    • A. 

      A. bits.

    • B. 

      B. bytes.

    • C. 

      C. codes.

    • D. 

      D. blocks.

  • 27. 
    What unit is most commonly used in data systems to express signaling speed?
    • A. 

      A. Baud.

    • B. 

      B. Baudot.

    • C. 

      C. Sense interface.

    • D. 

      D. Bits per second.

  • 28. 
    Bit count integrity problems are primarily caused by
    • A. 

      A. impedance mismatch.

    • B. 

      B. system timing faults.

    • C. 

      C. improper equipment settings.

    • D. 

      D. changes in atmospheric conditions.

  • 29. 
    Three categories of synchronization used in digital data circuits are
    • A. 

      A. synchronous, asynchronous, and isochronous.

    • B. 

      B. isochronous, asynchronous, bisynchronous.

    • C. 

      C. nonsynchronous, bisynchronous, and synchronous.

    • D. 

      D. asynchronous, bisynchronous, and nonsynchronous.

  • 30. 
    Which option is a characteristic of synchronous data operation?
    • A. 

      A. Timing pulses are transmitted within the signal stream.

    • B. 

      B. Start and stop pulses control data transmission.

    • C. 

      C. System timing is not of critical importance.

    • D. 

      D. All data bits are the same length in time.

  • 31. 
    A digital signal that contains synchronizing bits within the signal stream describes
    • A. 

      A. synchronous operation.

    • B. 

      B. asynchronous operation.

    • C. 

      C. synchronous and/or isochronous operation.

    • D. 

      D. asynchronous and/or synchronous operation.

  • 32. 
    In what type of signal is the information contained in the transition, and there is a transition from one state to the other only when a mark bit is sent?
    • A. 

      A. Non-return-to-zero (NRZ) level.

    • B. 

      B. Non-return-to-zero mark.

    • C. 

      C. Non-return-to-zero space.

    • D. 

      D. Return-to-zero level.

  • 33. 
    In what type of signal does the signal level move to one of the discrete signal levels, but returns to the zero level after a predetermined time?
    • A. 

      A. Non-return-to-zero (NRZ) level.

    • B. 

      B. Non-return-to-zero mark.

    • C. 

      C. Non-return-to-zero space.

    • D. 

      D. Return-to-zero.

  • 34. 
    Which statement best describes an alternate mark inversion (AMI) signal?
    • A. 

      A. The information is transmitted in three different voltage levels.

    • B. 

      B. A logic one is transmitted as positive voltage if the previous logic one was negative.

    • C. 

      C. The level always returns to zero for 50 percent of the bit cycle after every transition.

    • D. 

      D. Bipolar violations are intentionally inserted into a data signal to break up long strings of zeros.

  • 35. 
    Digital coding techniques such as binary with eight-zero substitution (B8ZS) are becoming more popular because they are designed to
    • A. 

      A. provide error-free signaling.

    • B. 

      B. operate at higher data rates.

    • C. 

      C. eliminate bipolar violations.

    • D. 

      D. maintain ones density standards.

  • 36. 
    Which statement best describes a binary with eight-zero substitution (B8ZS) signal?
    • A. 

      A. The information is transmitted in three different voltage levels.

    • B. 

      B. A logic one is transmitted as a positive voltage if the previous logic one was negative.

    • C. 

      C. The level always returns to zero for 50 percent of the bit cycle after every transition.

    • D. 

      D. Bipolar violations are intentionally inserted into a data signal to break up long strings of zeros.

  • 37. 
    The major difference between conditioned di-phase (CDI) and other schemes is the 
    • A. 

      A. lack of mid-bit transitions.

    • B. 

      B. use of mid-bit transitions for timing.

    • C. 

      C. data being encoded in the mid-bit transitions.

    • D. 

      D. voltage levels used for signaling the mid-bit transitions.

  • 38. 
    How many bits are in the D4 framing sequence?
    • A. 

      A. 8.

    • B. 

      B. 12.

    • C. 

      C. 24.

    • D. 

      D. 48

  • 39. 
    How many bits are in the extended superframe format (ESF) framing sequence?
    • A. 

      A. 8.

    • B. 

      B. 12.

    • C. 

      C. 24.

    • D. 

      D. 48.

  • 40. 
    What communications control signal uses a two-frequency dialing combination?
    • A. 

      A. Pulse dialing.

    • B. 

      B. Tone dialing.

    • C. 

      C. Digit dialing.

    • D. 

      D. Address dialing.

  • 41. 
    What communications information signal uses a continuous 350-Hz and 44-Hz frequency pair?
    • A. 

      A. Dial tone.

    • B. 

      B. Ringback signal.

    • C. 

      C. Off-hook alert.

    • D. 

      D. Call waiting.

  • 42. 
    What communications information signal uses a signal cycled on and off for 0.5 second and contains the generation of a 480-Hz and 620-Hz frequency pair?
    • A. 

      A. Dial tone.

    • B. 

      B. Busy signal.

    • C. 

      C. Off-hook alert.

    • D. 

      D. Call waiting.

  • 43. 
    What communications supervisory signal uses a continuous application of direct current voltage for signaling?
    • A. 

      A. Record warning.

    • B. 

      B. Fast busy signal.

    • C. 

      C. Loop-start.

    • D. 

      D. E and M.

  • 44. 
    When is the voltage applied in loop-start signaling?
    • A. 

      A. When dial tone is present.

    • B. 

      B. On-hook condition.

    • C. 

      C. Off-hook condition.

    • D. 

      D. During the ringback signal.

  • 45. 
    In common associated signaling (CAS), what is the seventh bit in frames 6 and 12 used to convey signaling information known as?
    • A. 

      A. Bit robbing.

    • B. 

      B. Bit stuffing.

    • C. 

      C. Frame correction.

    • D. 

      D. Frame enhancement.

  • 46. 
    In what common channel signaling (CCS) mode are the messages relating to signaling between two points conveyed directly interconnecting these signaling points?
    • A. 

      A. Associated mode.

    • B. 

      B. Nonassociated mode.

    • C. 

      C. Quasi-associated mode.

    • D. 

      D. Multi-associated mode.

  • 47. 
    What are the two principle weighting characteristics in use with telecommunication circuit noise?
    • A. 

      A. Institute of Electronic and Electrical Engineers and CCITT psophometric.

    • B. 

      B. Noise analysis and CCITT psophometric.

    • C. 

      C. CCITT psophometric and C-message.

    • D. 

      D. C-message and noise analysis.

  • 48. 
    While timing makes sure the equipment is sending and receiving bits at the same time intervals, synchronization makes sure that the
    • A. 

      A. receive equipment timing is set properly.

    • B. 

      B. transmit equipment timing is set properly.

    • C. 

      C. receive equipment can find its place in the bit stream.

    • D. 

      D. transmit equipment can find its place in the bit stream.

  • 49. 
    What term is associated with the delay or lag introduced in the application of voltage from one section to the next?
    • A. 

      A. Latency.

    • B. 

      B. Phase delay.

    • C. 

      C. Propagation constant.

    • D. 

      D. Phase delay distortion.

  • 50. 
    Attenuation distortion is caused by
    • A. 

      A. a line loss for the various frequency components comprising a voice transmission.

    • B. 

      B. the line loss, the distance of transmission lines, and faults in the transmission cables.

    • C. 

      C. faults in the transmission cables and the number of splices in the line varying with the frequency.

    • D. 

      D. differing attenuation rates for the various frequency components comprising a voice frequency transmission.

  • 51. 
    Jamming a portion of the frequency spectrum is an example of 
    • A. 

      A. electronic combat.

    • B. 

      B. electronic protection.

    • C. 

      C. electronic attack.

    • D. 

      D. electronic warfare support.

  • 52. 
    The definition of electronic attack can be found in which publication?
    • A. 

      A. Air Force Doctrine Document 2-5.1.

    • B. 

      B. Air Force Instruction 10-101.

    • C. 

      C. Air Force Policy Memorandum 2-1.

    • D. 

      D. Air Force Manual 2-5.1.

  • 53. 
    Any actions we take to protect our forces, facilities, and equipment for electronic action that can destroy or degrade our capabilities is considered
    • A. 

      A. electronic combat.

    • B. 

      B. electronic protection.

    • C. 

      C. electronic attack.

    • D. 

      D. electronic warfare support.

  • 54. 
    Varying the pulse repetition frequency on a radar set is an example of 
    • A. 

      A. electronic combat.

    • B. 

      B. electronic attack.

    • C. 

      C. electronic protection.

    • D. 

      D. electronic warfare support.

  • 55. 
    Electronic warfare support includes devices such as
    • A. 

      A. anti-radiation missiles and directed energy weapons.

    • B. 

      B intelligence platforms and noise jamming systems.

    • C. 

      C. radar warning receivers and intelligence systems.

    • D. 

      D. directed energy weapons and radar warning receivers.

  • 56. 
    When a multimeter has three input terminal jacks, which jack is always used?
    • A. 

      A. Voltage terminal.

    • B. 

      B. Common terminal.

    • C. 

      C. Voltage and current terminal.

    • D. 

      D. Common and current terminal.

  • 57. 
    When using a multimeter, which mode should be used if the reading is unreadable due to fluctuations?
    • A. 

      A. Range.

    • B. 

      B. Frequency.

    • C. 

      C. Display hold.

    • D. 

      D. Minimum/maximum (MIN/MAX)

  • 58. 
    When using a multimeter, which mode should be used if the reading fluctuates and a more accurate reading is desired?
    • A. 

      A. Minimum/maximum (MIN/MAX).

    • B. 

      B. Display hold.

    • C. 

      C. Frequency.

    • D. 

      D. Range.

  • 59. 
    When using an ohmmeter to take a resistance reading, what preliminary precaution should you take?
    • A. 

      A. Properly seat the test lead into the current input terminal jack.

    • B. 

      B. Disconnect the power from the circuit being tested.

    • C. 

      C. Place the meter in the "frequency" mode.

    • D. 

      D. Set the range for maximum reading.

  • 60. 
    What principle of operation does the time domain reflectometer use to test cables?
    • A. 

      A. Amplitude.

    • B. 

      B. Frequency.

    • C. 

      C. Audio.

    • D. 

      D. Radar.

  • 61. 
    Which push-buttons would you select to get 125-ohm (Ω) impedance on the time domain reflectometer.
    • A. 

      A. 50Ω, 75Ω, and 125Ω.

    • B. 

      B. 75Ω and 125Ω.

    • C. 

      C. 50Ω and 125Ω.

    • D. 

      D. 50Ω and 75Ω.

  • 62. 
    What is the power that is reflected back to an optical source in the time domain reflectometer (TDR)?
    • A. 

      A. Reflection.

    • B. 

      B. Backscatter.

    • C. 

      C. Scatter coefficient.

    • D. 

      D. Reflection coefficient.

  • 63. 
    What are the two major sections of a bit error rate test (BERT) set?
    • A. 

      A. Emitter and detector.

    • B. 

      B. Emitter and receiver.

    • C. 

      C. Transmitter and detector generator.

    • D. 

      D. Transmitter and receiver.

  • 64. 
    Which section of a bit error rate test (BERT) set measures the received test pattern?
    • A. 

      A. Transmitter.

    • B. 

      B. Emitter.

    • C. 

      C. Detector.

    • D. 

      D. Receiver.

  • 65. 
    What type of framing format should you use to conduct a bit error rate test (BERT) on a T1 circuit configured for binary with eight-zero substitution (B8ZS) coding?
    • A. 

      A. Extended superframe.

    • B. 

      B. Alternate mark inversion.

    • C. 

      C. Return-to-zero.

    • D. 

      D. Superframe.

  • 66. 
    When performing a bit error rate test (BERT), what determines the size of a test pattern segment?
    • A. 

      A. The total number of bits in the test pattern.

    • B. 

      B. The total number of bytes that represent the bits test pattern.

    • C. 

      C. The number of bits that can represent the total number of bits in the test pattern.

    • D. 

      D. The number of bits in the number of bytes that are equally divided into the test pattern.

  • 67. 
    What type of error is the result of two successive logic one pulses of the same polarity in violation of alternate mark inversion coding rules?
    • A. 

      A. Cyclic redundancy check.

    • B. 

      B. Bipolar violation.

    • C. 

      C. Bit slip.

    • D. 

      D. Frame.

  • 68. 
    On a breakout box, how many RS-232 key interface signals can be monitored and accessed individually?
    • A. 

      A. 12.

    • B. 

      B. 20.

    • C. 

      C. 24.

    • D. 

      D. 25.

  • 69. 
    The purpose of the miniature ON/OFF switches on a breakout box is to 
    • A. 

      A. measure the individual interface signals.

    • B. 

      B. change the voltage of individual interface signals.

    • C. 

      C. allow the interruption of the individual interface conductors.

    • D. 

      D. allow the cross-patching of the individual interface conductors.