What Do You Know About Hypertension Disease?

30 Questions | Total Attempts: 318

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Hypertension Quizzes & Trivia

This quiz is an introduction to hypertension and some of the agents for treatment and control. As you will see, when you progress through disease states in cardiology, these agents are utilized repeatedly.


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    Which of the following is the scenario for most individuals with hypertension?
    • A. 

      Reduced cardiac output

    • B. 

      Elevated cardiac output

    • C. 

      Reduced total peripheral resistance

    • D. 

      Elevated total peripheral resistance

  • 2. 
    Which of the following is a result of primary aldosteronism?
    • A. 

      Hyperkalemia

    • B. 

      Decreased sodium absorption

    • C. 

      Increased water retention

    • D. 

      Decreased extracellular fluid volume

  • 3. 
    What is the effect on serum potassium due to aldosterone?
    • A. 

      Increase

    • B. 

      Decrease

    • C. 

      No effect

  • 4. 
    Which of the following is false regarding beta-blockers?
    • A. 

      Heart rate decreases

    • B. 

      Renin release decreases

    • C. 

      At higher doses, they become more non-selective

    • D. 

      They reduce exercise performance

    • E. 

      All of the following are true

  • 5. 
    Which of the following is true regarding calcium channel blockers?
    • A. 

      Dihydropyridines are useful for the treatment of arrhythmias

    • B. 

      Smooth muscle of veins are not significantly affected

    • C. 

      They are useful in the treatment of coronary artery disease

    • D. 

      B and C

    • E. 

      All of the above

  • 6. 
    Angiotensin converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors are effective in treating hypertension because
    • A. 

      They prevent vascular smooth muscle contraction

    • B. 

      They prevent the secretion of aldosterone

    • C. 

      They prevent the reabsorption of sodium in the nephron

    • D. 

      A and B

    • E. 

      All of the above

  • 7. 
    According to JNC 8 guidelines, which of the following is the blood pressure goal for a 70 year old male with diabetes?
    • A. 

      < 140/90 mm Hg

    • B. 

      < 130/90 mm Hg

    • C. 

      < 140/80 mm Hg

    • D. 

      < 130/80 mm Hg

    • E. 

      < 150/90 mm Hg

  • 8. 
    In which part of the renal tubule is sodium NOT reabsorbed?
    • A. 

      Ascending Loop of Henle

    • B. 

      Proximal tubule

    • C. 

      Collecting Duct

    • D. 

      Descending Loop of Henle

    • E. 

      Distal tubule

  • 9. 
    When a carbonic anhydrase inhibitor is administered, what is the effect on the pH of the urine?
    • A. 

      Increase

    • B. 

      Decrease

    • C. 

      No effect

  • 10. 
    Which of the following is the correct mechanism of action for osmotic diuretics?
    • A. 

      Blocks the Na-K-2Cl symporter

    • B. 

      Blocks endogenous vasopressin receptors

    • C. 

      Increases osmolarity of tubular fluid

    • D. 

      Blocks Na-Cl symporter

    • E. 

      Blocks aldosterone receptors

  • 11. 
    Which of the following is NOT a side effect of loop diuretics?
    • A. 

      Hyperkalemia

    • B. 

      Hyperuricemia

    • C. 

      Hyponatremia

    • D. 

      Hypotension

    • E. 

      Volume depletion

  • 12. 
    Which of the following statements is false?
    • A. 

      Hydrochlorothiazide works in the distal tubule of the nephron

    • B. 

      Loop diuretics and thiazide diuretics are each contraindicated with potassium-sparing diuretics due to the risk of severe hyponatremia

    • C. 

      Vasopressin receptor antagonists cause sodium concentration to increase in the serum

    • D. 

      Spironolactone may block other steroid receptors

    • E. 

      Hydrochlorothiazide may be used in combination with angiotensin converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors

  • 13. 
    Which of the following is a negative feedback relationship?
    • A. 

      Urine volume and extracellular fluid volume

    • B. 

      Cardiac output and blood pressure

    • C. 

      Blood pressure and urine volume

    • D. 

      Venous return and cardiac output

  • 14. 
    In someone undergoing treatment for hypertension, why does blood pressure ultimately decrease to normal?
    • A. 

      Metabolic autoregulation

    • B. 

      Diuretic action on blood vessels

    • C. 

      Cardiac output increases

    • D. 

      A and C

    • E. 

      All of the above

  • 15. 
    If a 65 year old male has a blood pressure of 140/86 mm Hg, what is his mean blood pressure?
    • A. 

      158 mm Hg

    • B. 

      104 mm Hg

    • C. 

      110 mm Hg

    • D. 

      95 mm Hg

    • E. 

      113 mm Hg

  • 16. 
    What effect does the rostral ventrolateral medulla have on blood pressure?
    • A. 

      Increase

    • B. 

      Decrease

    • C. 

      No effect

  • 17. 
    What is the mechanism of action of alpha-methyldopa and clonidine?
    • A. 

      Beta-1 agonist

    • B. 

      Beta-1 antagonist

    • C. 

      Alpha-1 agonist

    • D. 

      Alpha-2 agonist

    • E. 

      Alpha-2 antagonist

  • 18. 
    If a ganglionic blocking agent were administered, heart rate would _______ and cardiac output will _______
    • A. 

      Increase; increase

    • B. 

      Increase; decrease

    • C. 

      Decrease; decrease

    • D. 

      Decrease; increase

    • E. 

      There will be no effect on EITHER heart rate OR cardiac output

  • 19. 
    Which of the following is true regarding alpha-blockers?
    • A. 

      Orthostatic hypotension may be a concern

    • B. 

      They are widely used to alleviate the symptoms of benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH)

    • C. 

      They decrease cardiac output and total peripheral resistance

    • D. 

      A and B

    • E. 

      All of the above

  • 20. 
    Which of the following is true regarding administration of a non-selective alpha-2 antagonist?
    • A. 

      Cardiac output increases

    • B. 

      Heart rate increases

    • C. 

      Heart rate decreases

    • D. 

      Norepinephrine secretion in the synapse decreases

    • E. 

      There is no effect on vascular smooth muscle

  • 21. 
    The following are possible side effects of beta-blockers EXCEPT
    • A. 

      Fatigue

    • B. 

      Hyperglycemia

    • C. 

      Bronchospasm

    • D. 

      Palpitations if withdrawn too quickly

  • 22. 
    With regards to smooth muscle contraction, which of the following is true?
    • A. 

      There is not sufficient calcium in the sarcoplasmic reticulum to initiate a contraction

    • B. 

      Cacium is removed through a potassium-calcium exchange transporter

    • C. 

      Norepinephrine and angiotensin II are agonists when opening the sarcoplasmic membrane calcium channels

    • D. 

      A and C

    • E. 

      All of the above

  • 23. 
    Which of the following is true regarding hydralazine?
    • A. 

      It interferes with the release of calcium from the sarcoplasmic reticulum

    • B. 

      Reflex tachycardia is a concern

    • C. 

      Can be combined with an inhibitor of the renin-angiotensin system

    • D. 

      A and C

    • E. 

      All of the above

  • 24. 
    How does the mechanism of action of minoxidil lead to a decrease in blood pressure?
    • A. 

      It opens the potassium channels to allow potassium to enter the smooth muscle cell, thereby depolarizing the cell

    • B. 

      It opens the potassium channels to allow potassium to enter the smooth muscle cell, thereby hyperpolarizing the cell

    • C. 

      It opens the potassium channels to allow potassium to exit the smooth muscle cell, thereby depolarizing the cell

    • D. 

      It opens the potassium channels to allow potassium to exit the smooth muscle cell, thereby hyperpolarizing the cell

  • 25. 
    Which of the following is false regarding nitrates?
    • A. 

      They relax smooth muscle

    • B. 

      They decrease intracellular concentrations of nitric oxide

    • C. 

      They are contraindicated with concurrent use of phosphodiesterase type 5 inhibitors

    • D. 

      Long-term adminsitration of sodium nitroprusside may lead to cyanide poisoning

    • E. 

      Nitrates have a short duration of action due to rapid metabolism

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