Viper Apg 5 Air Force’s Maintenance
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2AX5X Practice Test
- 1.Who is responsible for ensuring that good supply discipline is practiced?
- A.
Base commanders
- B.
Squadron commanders
- C.
Supervisors at all levels
- D.
Squadron QA section
- 2.Engines overhauled by depot are covered against defects in workmanship for
- A.
200 hours of operation or one year from the date of receipt.
- B.
100 hours of operation or one year from the date of receipt.
- C.
200 hours of operation or six months from the date of receipt.
- D.
100 hours of operation or six months from the date of receipt.
- 3.What are the Air Force’s maintenance capabilities in order of increasing capability?
- A.
Departmental, intermediate, and field.
- B.
Organizational, field, and intermediate
- C.
Organizational, intermediate, and depot
- D.
Departmental, organizational, and depot
- 4.What type of maintenance ensures that equipment is ready and available at the time of need?
- A.
Unscheduled
- B.
Preventive
- C.
Corrective
- D.
Protective
- 5.Where can you find a list of training courses available for an AFSC?
- A.
CFETP, Part I
- B.
AFJQS
- C.
Command JQS
- D.
CFETP, Part II
- 6.The TBA provides Air Force personnel with global, real-time
- A.
Access to Distance Learning courseware
- B.
Access to special certification roster criteria listings
- C.
Visibility of available formal training courses Air Force–wide
- D.
Visibility of personnel technical qualifications, certifications, and training statuses
- 7.Which TO outlines the procedures for entries on the AFTO Form 22?
- A.
00-1-01
- B.
00-5-1
- C.
00-20 series
- D.
00-25 series
- 8.Which maintenance stand has an adjustable height of 13 to 20 feet?
- A.
B-1
- B.
B-2
- C.
B-4
- D.
B-5
- 9.What is the maximum load, in pounds, that the model 4000 engine trailer can support?
- A.
7,000
- B.
8,000
- C.
9,000
- D.
10,000
- 10.The usable pressure range of the MC-1A air compressor is 0 to
- A.
200 psi
- B.
350 psi
- C.
3,200 psi
- D.
3,500 psi
- 11.The H-1 heater has an adjustable heat output that ranges from
- A.
100 to 230 °F
- B.
115 to 250 °F
- C.
125 to 270 °F
- D.
150 to 280 °F
- 12.What is the maximum tow speed for a C-10 air conditioner?
- A.
5 mph
- B.
10 mph
- C.
15 mph
- D.
20 mph
- 13.The FL-1D floodlight consists of two
- A.
100 watt lamp fixtures
- B.
1,000 watt lamp fixtures
- C.
10,000 watt lamp fixtures
- D.
100,000 watt lamp fixtures
- 14.What is the maximum towing speed of the FL-1D floodlight on smooth surfaces?
- A.
5 mph
- B.
10 mph
- C.
15 mph
- D.
20 mph
- 15.What is used to drive the MK-3A-1?
- A.
A diesel engine
- B.
An electric motor
- C.
A gasoline engine
- D.
A hydraulic motor
- 16.The MJ-2A reservoir holds what amount of fluid?
- A.
19 gallons
- B.
27 gallons
- C.
30 gallons
- D.
60 gallons
- 17.The MB-4 Coleman incorporates
- A.
Two-wheel steering, two wheel drive.
- B.
Two-wheel steering, four-wheel drive.
- C.
Four-wheel steering, two-wheel drive
- D.
Four-wheel steering, four-wheel drive
- 18.What is the maximum governed speed of the MB-4 Coleman?
- A.
15 mph
- B.
20 mph
- C.
25 mph
- D.
55 mph
- 19.Why are aluminum alloy washers used with steel bolts on aluminum alloy parts in lowtorque applications?
- A.
Reduce shearing
- B.
Prevent vibration
- C.
Prevent corrosion
- D.
Reduce shimming
- 20.How are special bolts identified?
- A.
By a zinc-plated nickel steel covering
- B.
By a galvanized-plated steel covering
- C.
The bolt head is marked with a triangle
- D.
The bolt head is marked with the letter S
- 21.Which bolt is never used in areas where tension is present but is often used as pins in control systems?
- A.
Stud
- B.
Clevis
- C.
Eyebolt
- D.
Hexhead
- 22.Which bolt has a recessed head and is used in high-tension applications?
- A.
A stud
- B.
An eyebolt
- C.
A hexhead
- D.
An internal wrenching type
- 23.Left-hand threads on a turnbuckle can be identified by the
- A.
Knurl beside the fork
- B.
Groove by the cable eye
- C.
Knurl beside the pin eye
- D.
Groove on the end of the barrel
- 24.The allowable limit for nicks and scratches on a straight section of aircraft tubing is no deeper than
- A.
10 percent of wall thickness
- B.
15 percent of wall thickness
- C.
20 percent of wall thickness
- D.
25 percent of wall thickness
- 25.What part of a cannon plug completes the electrical circuit?
- A.
Metal shells
- B.
Connector halves
- C.
Dielectric contacts
- D.
Pin-and-socket contacts
- 26.Prior to using a torque wrench, cycle the torque wrench through the breakaway torque at the
- A.
Maximum setting at least four times.
- B.
Maximum setting at least six times
- C.
Lowest setting at least four times
- D.
Lowest setting at least six times
- 27.Bench stock levels are established to provide a
- A.
15-day usage
- B.
30-day usage
- C.
60-day usage
- D.
90-day usage
- 28.Which DD forms are easily identified by their green margins and letters?
- A.
1577-2 and 1577-3
- B.
1576 and 1576-1
- C.
1574 and 1574-1
- D.
1575 and 1575-1
- 29.Which inspection is due on the accrual of a set number of flying or operating hours, or at the expiration of a calendar period specified in the applicable aircraft-specific –6 technical order and is a thorough inspection of the entire aerospace vehicle?
- A.
Phased
- B.
Periodic
- C.
Isochronal
- D.
Hourly postflight
- 30.Which inspection concept uses specified calendar intervals to build a schedule and consists of the home station check, major, and minor inspections?
- A.
Phased
- B.
Periodic
- C.
Isochronal
- D.
Hourly Postflight
- 31.Which inspection examines areas, components, and systems to a degree beyond -6 technical order inspection requirements?
- A.
Phased
- B.
Periodic
- C.
Isochronal
- D.
Programmed Depot Maintenance
- 32.Minimum aircraft inspection requirements are outlined in
- A.
Sequence charts
- B.
Inspection workcards
- C.
-06 work unit code manuals
- D.
-6 technical order inspection manuals
- 33.Which inspection is usually performed just prior to takeoff and may include operational checks of some systems?
- A.
In progress
- B.
PR
- C.
TH
- D.
EOR
- 34.The TH inspection is normally performed
- A.
Prior to going on alert and again before flight after completion of the alert period
- B.
After flights when a turn-around sortie or continuation flight is scheduled
- C.
Immediately prior to a BPO
- D.
After the last flight of a specified flying period
- 35.Which inspection is required if an aircraft is idle for more than 30 or 90 days? a. Phase.
- A.
Phase
- B.
Special
- C.
Calendar
- D.
Acceptance
- 36.Which inspection ensures the completeness of historical documents?
- A.
Phase
- B.
Special
- C.
Calendar
- D.
Acceptance
- 37.Atmospheric pressure at sea level is
- A.
14.7 psi
- B.
17.4 psi
- C.
29.92 psi
- D.
29.29 psi
- 38.A barometer is designed to measure pressure in
- A.
Pounds per square inch(psi)
- B.
Inches of mercury
- C.
Milibars of alcohol
- D.
Ounces of air
- 39.The majority of aircraft circuit protection devices are normally located
- A.
In the aircraft cabin
- B.
In the nose wheel well
- C.
In the utility compartments
- D.
As far as possible frm the unit being protected
- 40.What term describes current that reverses its direction at regularly recurring intervals?
- A.
Direct
- B.
Inductive
- C.
Reversing
- D.
Alternating
- 41.The methods used to cool brushless alternating current (AC) generators are
- A.
Blast air and ram air
- B.
Engine oil and blast air
- C.
Blast air and generator oil
- D.
Generator oil and engine oil
- 42.The output of the constant speed drive (CSD) used to drive a 60/80 kilovolt ampere (KVA) generator is approximately
- A.
4,000 revolutions per minute(RPM)
- B.
6,000 RPM
- C.
8,000 RPM
- D.
10,000 RPM
- 43.The three states of matter are
- A.
Liquids, gases, and minerals
- B.
Gases, solids, and minerals
- C.
Gases, solids, and organic
- D.
Liquids, gases, and solids
- 44.Who was among the first to study the compressibility of gases?
- A.
Hook
- B.
Boyle
- C.
Pascal
- D.
Charles
- 45.Turbulence affects fluid-flow in a hydraulic line by
- A.
Increasing velocity and viscosity
- B.
Increasing volume and displacement
- C.
Creating resistance and loss of energy
- D.
Creating resistance and energy increase
- 46.The purpose of a hydraulic motor is to convert hydraulic pressure into
- A.
Rotary mechanical motion
- B.
Kinetik flow motion
- C.
Straight-line motion
- D.
Fluid locomotion
- 47.How is the piston installed in an accumulator?
- A.
In either direction
- B.
Hollow end towards the air side of the accumulator
- C.
Hollow end toward the fluid side of the accumulator
- D.
Drilled passage toward the air side of the accumulator
- 48.The size of one micron is four
- A.
Tenths of an inch
- B.
Thousandths of an inch
- C.
Millionths of an inch
- D.
Billionths of an inch
- 49.In a hydraulic system, the hydraulic manifold provides a location where the
- A.
Return lines can join together
- B.
Pressure lines can join together
- C.
Common fluid lines can come together
- D.
Hydraulic test stand can be connected
- 50.A manual poppet-type selector valve is in a working position when the camshaft is rotated to
- A.
Seat all four of the poppets
- B.
Unseat all four of the poppets
- C.
Seat both of the pressure poppets
- D.
Unseat one pressure poppet and one return poppet
- 51.The advantage of an electrically controlled solenoid valve is its
- A.
Reduced weight
- B.
Increased weight
- C.
Ability to reduce turbulence
- D.
Ability to increase turbulance
- 52.The difference between a selector valve and a servo valve is that the
- A.
Selector valve has four ports
- B.
Selector valve is more complex
- C.
Servo valve controls fluid-flow
- D.
Servo valve is electrically operated
- 53.The purpose of the torsion links on a main landing gear is to
- A.
Reduce oscillation during extension
- B.
Reduce oscillation during retraction
- C.
Allow the inner cylinder to rotate within the outer cylinder
- D.
Prevent the inner cylinder from rotating within the outer cylinder
- 54.What prevents the lock solenoid from energizing when the nose landing gear is off center?
- A.
Safety relay
- B.
Safety switch
- C.
Centering relay
- D.
Centering switch
- 55.What position must the landing gear control handle be in before emergency extension of the landing gear?
- A.
UP
- B.
DN
- C.
AUX
- D.
EMERG
- 56.Brake fade is defined as a gradual braking action
- A.
Loss due to overheating
- B.
Increase due to overheating
- C.
Loss due to pressure increase
- D.
Increase due to pressure reduction
- 57.A major disadvantage of multiple disc brakes is that they
- A.
Warp when overheated
- B.
Shatter during hard landings
- C.
Must be adjusted after each landing
- D.
Do not provide maximum stopping grip
- 58.The purpose of the antiskid system is to
- A.
Reduce friction between the wheel and tire
- B.
Increase friction between the wheel and tire
- C.
Prevent wheel skid by applying pressure to the skidding wheel
- D.
Prevent wheel skid by releasing pressure from the skidding wheel
- 59.Aircraft wheels are normally constructed of
- A.
Steel and/or titanium alloys
- B.
Chromium and/or titanium alloys
- C.
Paladium and/or aluminum alloys
- D.
Magnesium and/or aluminum alloys
- 60.What maintains an airtight seal between split wheel halves?
- A.
A rubber liner
- B.
An O-ring seal
- C.
A phenolic ring
- D.
Machined mated surfaces
- 61.What prevents tire explosion from excessive heat buildup?
- A.
Vent holes
- B.
Blowout caps
- C.
Wheel valve stems
- D.
Thermal relief plugs
- 62.What the type of bearings is used on aircraft wheels?
- A.
Flat roller
- B.
Straight ball
- C.
Tapered roller
- D.
Recessed cone
- 63.The main parts of an aircraft tire are the tread and sidewall,
- A.
Cord body, and beads
- B.
Valve core, and beads
- C.
Cord body, vent holes
- D.
Valve core, and cord body
- 64.The primary force an airfoil has to defeat is
- A.
Lift
- B.
Drag
- C.
Thrust
- D.
Weight
- 65.The force that acts upward at a right angle to the direction of the relative wind is
- A.
Lift
- B.
Drag
- C.
Thrust
- D.
Weight
- 66.The force that acts parallel to the relative wind is
- A.
Lift
- B.
Drag
- C.
Gravity
- D.
Weight
- 67.The stress that resists the force tending to cause one layer of material to slide over an adjacent layer is called
- A.
Bending
- B.
Tension
- C.
Torsion
- D.
Shear
- 68.What is the design that uses any combination of longerons, stringers, bulkheads and frames in the construction of the fuselage called?
- A.
Fuselage
- B.
Longerons
- C.
Monocoque
- D.
Semi-monocoque
- 69.Liquid oxygen (LOX) converts to gaseous oxygen (GOX) at an expansion ratio of
- A.
600 to 1
- B.
680 to 1
- C.
800 to 1
- D.
860 to 1
- 70.What does the molecular sieve oxygen generating system (MSOGS) concentrator supply to the OXYGEN regulator control panel?
- A.
16 man-minutes of oxygen
- B.
93 percent oxygen-enriched gas
- C.
97 percent nitrogen-enriched gas
- D.
100 percent oxygen-enriched gas
- 71.Except during servicing, the liquid oxygen (LOX) system’s combination fill, buildup, and vent valve is always in the
- A.
Fill position
- B.
Vent position
- C.
Normal position
- D.
Buildup position
- 72.Bleed air is usually taken from which part of the engine section?
- A.
Intake
- B.
Turbine
- C.
Exhaust
- D.
Compressor
- 73.Aircraft engine temperature and pressure as it applies to the bleed air system is determined by the
- A.
Ambient pressure and ambient temperature
- B.
Engine throttle setting and ambient altitude
- C.
Ambient pressure and engine throttle setting
- D.
Engine throttle setting and ambient temperature
- 74.The ducting for high-pressure/high-temperature air-conditioning is usually made of
- A.
Titanium
- B.
Aluminum
- C.
Stainless steel
- D.
Aluminum/nickel alloy
- 75.What tool do you use to ensure alignment and sealing when installing a V-band clamp on air-conditioning ducting?
- A.
Screwdriver
- B.
Center punch
- C.
Rawhide mallet
- D.
Ball peen hammer
- 76.What type of high-pressure/high-temperature ducting does not require a gasket?
- A.
Clamp flange
- B.
Bolted flange
- C.
Beaded flange
- D.
Compressible flange
- 77.The crush-type gasket used in aircraft ducting is made of
- A.
Fiber and fiberglass
- B.
Fiberglass and neoprene, or rubber
- C.
A soft aluminum, or fiber and metal mesh
- D.
A soft aluminum, and fiber reinforced rubber or plastic
- 78.What prevents fiberglass fabric ducts from swelling when the aircraft climbs to high altitudes?
- A.
Thermal compensators
- B.
Expansion bellows
- C.
Puckered flaps
- D.
Vent holes
- 79.What aircraft air conditioning system component is a radiator that cold ram air passes through in order to cool the hot bleed air from the engine(s)?
- A.
Primary heat exchanger
- B.
Air cycle machine
- C.
Water separator
- D.
Air cooler
- 80.The rapid cooling of bleed air causes
- A.
The air pressure to increase
- B.
Moisture to condense in the form of fog
- C.
Ice to form in the secondary heat exchanger
- D.
A loss of pressure as it exits the air cycle machine compressor
- 81.The low atmospheric pressure found at extremely high altitudes can cause a person’s blood vessels to
- A.
Shrink
- B.
Rupture
- C.
Contract
- D.
Collapse
- 82.What maintains pressure if the dual-differential cabin pressure regulator fails during flight?
- A.
The outflow valves
- B.
A manual controller
- C.
The cabin altitude selector
- D.
A positive pressure relief valve
- 83.The normal connection for thermal switches in a fire warning system is in series with
- A.
Each other only
- B.
The power souce and with the warning lights
- C.
Each other and in parallel with the power source
- D.
The warning light and parallel with each other
- 84.The direct current (DC) voltage supplied to the lights in a photoelectric circuit is pulsed at a rate of
- A.
10 HZ
- B.
100 HZ
- C.
200 HZ
- D.
400 HZ
- 85.A liquid fire extinguishing agent douses a fire by
- A.
Releasing a fine mist wapor
- B.
Excluding oxygen from the area
- C.
Removing nitrogen from the area
- D.
Dispersing a large amount of liquid
- 86.In a liquid-agent fire extinguisher container, why is the frangible disc undercut into pie-shaped sections?
- A.
Break cleanly into small pieces
- B.
Allow undistributed fluid flow through the system
- C.
Enable the pieces to pass easily through the strainer
- D.
Prevent small pieces from passing through the strainer
- 87.What is usually located at the lowest point in a fuel tank?
- A.
Sump and drain
- B.
Pump and drain
- C.
Pressure relief valve
- D.
Fuel-level control valve
- 88.Wing tanks are
- A.
Bladder-type tanks that conform to the vacant cavity within the wing
- B.
Lightweight, aluminum tanks inserted into empty wing cavities
- C.
Sealed-off parts of the wing structure
- D.
Soft, malleable plastic tanks
- 89.What type of fuel pump must have a fuel- and vapor-proof housing?
- A.
Jet
- B.
Ejector
- C.
Top-mounted centrifugal pump with variable-speed hydraulic drive
- D.
Centrifugal pump with electrically driven, direct current (DC), series-wound motor
- 90.The arrow stamped on the body of a fuel system check valve indicates the
- A.
Direction of free flow
- B.
Direction of restricted flow
- C.
Location of the drilled hole in the valve
- D.
Location of the manufacturer’s data block
- 91.Another name for the disc type valve in a fuel system is
- A.
Butterfly
- B.
Swivel vane
- C.
Sliding gate
- D.
Swinging disc
- 92.What most likely controls the automatic pump shutoff when all fuel is depleted from a fuel tank?
- A.
Float valves
- B.
Float switches
- C.
Toggle switches
- D.
Pressure switched
- 93.What capacitance-type, fuel-indicating system component allows for changes in fuel density?
- A.
Inductor
- B.
Capacitor
- C.
Compensator
- D.
Potentiometer
- 94.A well-designed aircraft fuel system will ensure
- A.
Positive and negative fuel-flow
- B.
Negative fuel-flow under all conditions
- C.
Positive fuel-flow under positive conditions
- D.
Positive and reliable fuel-flow under all conditions
- 95.The three methods of transferring fuel are gravity flow
- A.
Air pressure, and pump
- B.
Check, and air pressure
- C.
Pump, and hydromechanical
- D.
Hydromechanical, and air pressure
- 96.The most prevalent method of refueling for ground servicing is
- A.
Nozzle
- B.
Top-off
- C.
Single-point
- D.
Over-the-wing
- 97.The air-refueling (A/R) receptacle is operated
- A.
Hydraulically, but controlled electrically
- B.
Electrically, but controlled hydraulically
- C.
Electrically, but controlled pneumatically
- D.
Hydraulically but controlled pneumatically
- 98.What type of foreign particle appears in the fuel in a crystalline, granular, or glasslike form?
- A.
Rust
- B.
Sand and dust
- C.
Brass shavings
- D.
Aluminum or magnesium compounds
- 99.How are fuel leaks categorized?
- A.
Major and minor
- B.
Class 1 through 5
- C.
Class A through D
- D.
Internal and external
- 100.The resistance of an object to change its motion is a property of matter called
- A.
Energy
- B.
Inertia
- C.
Friction
- D.
Potential
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