Viper Apg 5 Air Force’s Maintenance

100 Questions

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Viper Apg 5 Air Forces Maintenance

2AX5X Practice Test


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    Who is responsible for ensuring that good supply discipline is practiced?
    • A. 

      Base commanders

    • B. 

      Squadron commanders

    • C. 

      Supervisors at all levels

    • D. 

      Squadron QA section

  • 2. 
    Engines overhauled by depot are covered against defects in workmanship for
    • A. 

      200 hours of operation or one year from the date of receipt.

    • B. 

      100 hours of operation or one year from the date of receipt.

    • C. 

      200 hours of operation or six months from the date of receipt.

    • D. 

      100 hours of operation or six months from the date of receipt.

  • 3. 
    What are the Air Force’s maintenance capabilities in order of increasing capability?
    • A. 

      Departmental, intermediate, and field.

    • B. 

      Organizational, field, and intermediate

    • C. 

      Organizational, intermediate, and depot

    • D. 

      Departmental, organizational, and depot

  • 4. 
    What type of maintenance ensures that equipment is ready and available at the time of need?
    • A. 

      Unscheduled

    • B. 

      Preventive

    • C. 

      Corrective

    • D. 

      Protective

  • 5. 
    Where can you find a list of training courses available for an AFSC?
    • A. 

      CFETP, Part I

    • B. 

      AFJQS

    • C. 

      Command JQS

    • D. 

      CFETP, Part II

  • 6. 
    The TBA provides Air Force personnel with global, real-time
    • A. 

      Access to Distance Learning courseware

    • B. 

      Access to special certification roster criteria listings

    • C. 

      Visibility of available formal training courses Air Force–wide

    • D. 

      Visibility of personnel technical qualifications, certifications, and training statuses

  • 7. 
    Which TO outlines the procedures for entries on the AFTO Form 22?
    • A. 

      00-1-01

    • B. 

      00-5-1

    • C. 

      00-20 series

    • D. 

      00-25 series

  • 8. 
    Which maintenance stand has an adjustable height of 13 to 20 feet?
    • A. 

      B-1

    • B. 

      B-2

    • C. 

      B-4

    • D. 

      B-5

  • 9. 
    What is the maximum load, in pounds, that the model 4000 engine trailer can support?
    • A. 

      7,000

    • B. 

      8,000

    • C. 

      9,000

    • D. 

      10,000

  • 10. 
    The usable pressure range of the MC-1A air compressor is 0 to
    • A. 

      200 psi

    • B. 

      350 psi

    • C. 

      3,200 psi

    • D. 

      3,500 psi

  • 11. 
    The H-1 heater has an adjustable heat output that ranges from
    • A. 

      100 to 230 °F

    • B. 

      115 to 250 °F

    • C. 

      125 to 270 °F

    • D. 

      150 to 280 °F

  • 12. 
    What is the maximum tow speed for a C-10 air conditioner?
    • A. 

      5 mph

    • B. 

      10 mph

    • C. 

      15 mph

    • D. 

      20 mph

  • 13. 
    The FL-1D floodlight consists of two
    • A. 

      100 watt lamp fixtures

    • B. 

      1,000 watt lamp fixtures

    • C. 

      10,000 watt lamp fixtures

    • D. 

      100,000 watt lamp fixtures

  • 14. 
    What is the maximum towing speed of the FL-1D floodlight on smooth surfaces?
    • A. 

      5 mph

    • B. 

      10 mph

    • C. 

      15 mph

    • D. 

      20 mph

  • 15. 
    What is used to drive the MK-3A-1?
    • A. 

      A diesel engine

    • B. 

      An electric motor

    • C. 

      A gasoline engine

    • D. 

      A hydraulic motor

  • 16. 
    The MJ-2A reservoir holds what amount of fluid?
    • A. 

      19 gallons

    • B. 

      27 gallons

    • C. 

      30 gallons

    • D. 

      60 gallons

  • 17. 
    The MB-4 Coleman incorporates
    • A. 

      Two-wheel steering, two wheel drive.

    • B. 

      Two-wheel steering, four-wheel drive.

    • C. 

      Four-wheel steering, two-wheel drive

    • D. 

      Four-wheel steering, four-wheel drive

  • 18. 
    What is the maximum governed speed of the MB-4 Coleman?
    • A. 

      15 mph

    • B. 

      20 mph

    • C. 

      25 mph

    • D. 

      55 mph

  • 19. 
    Why are aluminum alloy washers used with steel bolts on aluminum alloy parts in lowtorque applications?
    • A. 

      Reduce shearing

    • B. 

      Prevent vibration

    • C. 

      Prevent corrosion

    • D. 

      Reduce shimming

  • 20. 
    How are special bolts identified?
    • A. 

      By a zinc-plated nickel steel covering

    • B. 

      By a galvanized-plated steel covering

    • C. 

      The bolt head is marked with a triangle

    • D. 

      The bolt head is marked with the letter S

  • 21. 
    Which bolt is never used in areas where tension is present but is often used as pins in control systems?
    • A. 

      Stud

    • B. 

      Clevis

    • C. 

      Eyebolt

    • D. 

      Hexhead

  • 22. 
    Which bolt has a recessed head and is used in high-tension applications?
    • A. 

      A stud

    • B. 

      An eyebolt

    • C. 

      A hexhead

    • D. 

      An internal wrenching type

  • 23. 
    Left-hand threads on a turnbuckle can be identified by the
    • A. 

      Knurl beside the fork

    • B. 

      Groove by the cable eye

    • C. 

      Knurl beside the pin eye

    • D. 

      Groove on the end of the barrel

  • 24. 
    The allowable limit for nicks and scratches on a straight section of aircraft tubing is no deeper than
    • A. 

      10 percent of wall thickness

    • B. 

      15 percent of wall thickness

    • C. 

      20 percent of wall thickness

    • D. 

      25 percent of wall thickness

  • 25. 
    What part of a cannon plug completes the electrical circuit?
    • A. 

      Metal shells

    • B. 

      Connector halves

    • C. 

      Dielectric contacts

    • D. 

      Pin-and-socket contacts

  • 26. 
    Prior to using a torque wrench, cycle the torque wrench through the breakaway torque at the
    • A. 

      Maximum setting at least four times.

    • B. 

      Maximum setting at least six times

    • C. 

      Lowest setting at least four times

    • D. 

      Lowest setting at least six times

  • 27. 
    Bench stock levels are established to provide a
    • A. 

      15-day usage

    • B. 

      30-day usage

    • C. 

      60-day usage

    • D. 

      90-day usage

  • 28. 
    Which DD forms are easily identified by their green margins and letters?
    • A. 

      1577-2 and 1577-3

    • B. 

      1576 and 1576-1

    • C. 

      1574 and 1574-1

    • D. 

      1575 and 1575-1

  • 29. 
    Which inspection is due on the accrual of a set number of flying or operating hours, or at the expiration of a calendar period specified in the applicable aircraft-specific –6 technical order and is a thorough inspection of the entire aerospace vehicle?
    • A. 

      Phased

    • B. 

      Periodic

    • C. 

      Isochronal

    • D. 

      Hourly postflight

  • 30. 
    Which inspection concept uses specified calendar intervals to build a schedule and consists of the home station check, major, and minor inspections?
    • A. 

      Phased

    • B. 

      Periodic

    • C. 

      Isochronal

    • D. 

      Hourly Postflight

  • 31. 
    Which inspection examines areas, components, and systems to a degree beyond -6 technical order inspection requirements?
    • A. 

      Phased

    • B. 

      Periodic

    • C. 

      Isochronal

    • D. 

      Programmed Depot Maintenance

  • 32. 
    Minimum aircraft inspection requirements are outlined in
    • A. 

      Sequence charts

    • B. 

      Inspection workcards

    • C. 

      -06 work unit code manuals

    • D. 

      -6 technical order inspection manuals

  • 33. 
    Which inspection is usually performed just prior to takeoff and may include operational checks of some systems?
    • A. 

      In progress

    • B. 

      PR

    • C. 

      TH

    • D. 

      EOR

  • 34. 
    The TH inspection is normally performed
    • A. 

      Prior to going on alert and again before flight after completion of the alert period

    • B. 

      After flights when a turn-around sortie or continuation flight is scheduled

    • C. 

      Immediately prior to a BPO

    • D. 

      After the last flight of a specified flying period

  • 35. 
    Which inspection is required if an aircraft is idle for more than 30 or 90 days? a. Phase.
    • A. 

      Phase

    • B. 

      Special

    • C. 

      Calendar

    • D. 

      Acceptance

  • 36. 
    Which inspection ensures the completeness of historical documents?
    • A. 

      Phase

    • B. 

      Special

    • C. 

      Calendar

    • D. 

      Acceptance

  • 37. 
    Atmospheric pressure at sea level is
    • A. 

      14.7 psi

    • B. 

      17.4 psi

    • C. 

      29.92 psi

    • D. 

      29.29 psi

  • 38. 
    A barometer is designed to measure pressure in
    • A. 

      Pounds per square inch(psi)

    • B. 

      Inches of mercury

    • C. 

      Milibars of alcohol

    • D. 

      Ounces of air

  • 39. 
    The majority of aircraft circuit protection devices are normally located
    • A. 

      In the aircraft cabin

    • B. 

      In the nose wheel well

    • C. 

      In the utility compartments

    • D. 

      As far as possible frm the unit being protected

  • 40. 
    What term describes current that reverses its direction at regularly recurring intervals?
    • A. 

      Direct

    • B. 

      Inductive

    • C. 

      Reversing

    • D. 

      Alternating

  • 41. 
    The methods used to cool brushless alternating current (AC) generators are
    • A. 

      Blast air and ram air

    • B. 

      Engine oil and blast air

    • C. 

      Blast air and generator oil

    • D. 

      Generator oil and engine oil

  • 42. 
    The output of the constant speed drive (CSD) used to drive a 60/80 kilovolt ampere (KVA) generator is approximately
    • A. 

      4,000 revolutions per minute(RPM)

    • B. 

      6,000 RPM

    • C. 

      8,000 RPM

    • D. 

      10,000 RPM

  • 43. 
    The three states of matter are
    • A. 

      Liquids, gases, and minerals

    • B. 

      Gases, solids, and minerals

    • C. 

      Gases, solids, and organic

    • D. 

      Liquids, gases, and solids

  • 44. 
    Who was among the first to study the compressibility of gases?
    • A. 

      Hook

    • B. 

      Boyle

    • C. 

      Pascal

    • D. 

      Charles

  • 45. 
    Turbulence affects fluid-flow in a hydraulic line by
    • A. 

      Increasing velocity and viscosity

    • B. 

      Increasing volume and displacement

    • C. 

      Creating resistance and loss of energy

    • D. 

      Creating resistance and energy increase

  • 46. 
    The purpose of a hydraulic motor is to convert hydraulic pressure into
    • A. 

      Rotary mechanical motion

    • B. 

      Kinetik flow motion

    • C. 

      Straight-line motion

    • D. 

      Fluid locomotion

  • 47. 
    How is the piston installed in an accumulator?
    • A. 

      In either direction

    • B. 

      Hollow end towards the air side of the accumulator

    • C. 

      Hollow end toward the fluid side of the accumulator

    • D. 

      Drilled passage toward the air side of the accumulator

  • 48. 
    The size of one micron is four
    • A. 

      Tenths of an inch

    • B. 

      Thousandths of an inch

    • C. 

      Millionths of an inch

    • D. 

      Billionths of an inch

  • 49. 
    In a hydraulic system, the hydraulic manifold provides a location where the
    • A. 

      Return lines can join together

    • B. 

      Pressure lines can join together

    • C. 

      Common fluid lines can come together

    • D. 

      Hydraulic test stand can be connected

  • 50. 
    A manual poppet-type selector valve is in a working position when the camshaft is rotated to
    • A. 

      Seat all four of the poppets

    • B. 

      Unseat all four of the poppets

    • C. 

      Seat both of the pressure poppets

    • D. 

      Unseat one pressure poppet and one return poppet

  • 51. 
    The advantage of an electrically controlled solenoid valve is its
    • A. 

      Reduced weight

    • B. 

      Increased weight

    • C. 

      Ability to reduce turbulence

    • D. 

      Ability to increase turbulance

  • 52. 
    The difference between a selector valve and a servo valve is that the
    • A. 

      Selector valve has four ports

    • B. 

      Selector valve is more complex

    • C. 

      Servo valve controls fluid-flow

    • D. 

      Servo valve is electrically operated

  • 53. 
    The purpose of the torsion links on a main landing gear is to
    • A. 

      Reduce oscillation during extension

    • B. 

      Reduce oscillation during retraction

    • C. 

      Allow the inner cylinder to rotate within the outer cylinder

    • D. 

      Prevent the inner cylinder from rotating within the outer cylinder

  • 54. 
    What prevents the lock solenoid from energizing when the nose landing gear is off center?
    • A. 

      Safety relay

    • B. 

      Safety switch

    • C. 

      Centering relay

    • D. 

      Centering switch

  • 55. 
    What position must the landing gear control handle be in before emergency extension of the landing gear?
    • A. 

      UP

    • B. 

      DN

    • C. 

      AUX

    • D. 

      EMERG

  • 56. 
    Brake fade is defined as a gradual braking action
    • A. 

      Loss due to overheating

    • B. 

      Increase due to overheating

    • C. 

      Loss due to pressure increase

    • D. 

      Increase due to pressure reduction

  • 57. 
    A major disadvantage of multiple disc brakes is that they
    • A. 

      Warp when overheated

    • B. 

      Shatter during hard landings

    • C. 

      Must be adjusted after each landing

    • D. 

      Do not provide maximum stopping grip

  • 58. 
    The purpose of the antiskid system is to
    • A. 

      Reduce friction between the wheel and tire

    • B. 

      Increase friction between the wheel and tire

    • C. 

      Prevent wheel skid by applying pressure to the skidding wheel

    • D. 

      Prevent wheel skid by releasing pressure from the skidding wheel

  • 59. 
    Aircraft wheels are normally constructed of
    • A. 

      Steel and/or titanium alloys

    • B. 

      Chromium and/or titanium alloys

    • C. 

      Paladium and/or aluminum alloys

    • D. 

      Magnesium and/or aluminum alloys

  • 60. 
    What maintains an airtight seal between split wheel halves?
    • A. 

      A rubber liner

    • B. 

      An O-ring seal

    • C. 

      A phenolic ring

    • D. 

      Machined mated surfaces

  • 61. 
    What prevents tire explosion from excessive heat buildup?
    • A. 

      Vent holes

    • B. 

      Blowout caps

    • C. 

      Wheel valve stems

    • D. 

      Thermal relief plugs

  • 62. 
    What the type of bearings is used on aircraft wheels?
    • A. 

      Flat roller

    • B. 

      Straight ball

    • C. 

      Tapered roller

    • D. 

      Recessed cone

  • 63. 
    The main parts of an aircraft tire are the tread and sidewall,
    • A. 

      Cord body, and beads

    • B. 

      Valve core, and beads

    • C. 

      Cord body, vent holes

    • D. 

      Valve core, and cord body

  • 64. 
    The primary force an airfoil has to defeat is
    • A. 

      Lift

    • B. 

      Drag

    • C. 

      Thrust

    • D. 

      Weight

  • 65. 
    The force that acts upward at a right angle to the direction of the relative wind is
    • A. 

      Lift

    • B. 

      Drag

    • C. 

      Thrust

    • D. 

      Weight

  • 66. 
    The force that acts parallel to the relative wind is
    • A. 

      Lift

    • B. 

      Drag

    • C. 

      Gravity

    • D. 

      Weight

  • 67. 
    The stress that resists the force tending to cause one layer of material to slide over an adjacent layer is called
    • A. 

      Bending

    • B. 

      Tension

    • C. 

      Torsion

    • D. 

      Shear

  • 68. 
    What is the design that uses any combination of longerons, stringers, bulkheads and frames in the construction of the fuselage called?
    • A. 

      Fuselage

    • B. 

      Longerons

    • C. 

      Monocoque

    • D. 

      Semi-monocoque

  • 69. 
    Liquid oxygen (LOX) converts to gaseous oxygen (GOX) at an expansion ratio of
    • A. 

      600 to 1

    • B. 

      680 to 1

    • C. 

      800 to 1

    • D. 

      860 to 1

  • 70. 
    What does the molecular sieve oxygen generating system (MSOGS) concentrator supply to the OXYGEN regulator control panel?
    • A. 

      16 man-minutes of oxygen

    • B. 

      93 percent oxygen-enriched gas

    • C. 

      97 percent nitrogen-enriched gas

    • D. 

      100 percent oxygen-enriched gas

  • 71. 
    Except during servicing, the liquid oxygen (LOX) system’s combination fill, buildup, and vent valve is always in the
    • A. 

      Fill position

    • B. 

      Vent position

    • C. 

      Normal position

    • D. 

      Buildup position

  • 72. 
    Bleed air is usually taken from which part of the engine section?
    • A. 

      Intake

    • B. 

      Turbine

    • C. 

      Exhaust

    • D. 

      Compressor

  • 73. 
    Aircraft engine temperature and pressure as it applies to the bleed air system is determined by the
    • A. 

      Ambient pressure and ambient temperature

    • B. 

      Engine throttle setting and ambient altitude

    • C. 

      Ambient pressure and engine throttle setting

    • D. 

      Engine throttle setting and ambient temperature

  • 74. 
    The ducting for high-pressure/high-temperature air-conditioning is usually made of
    • A. 

      Titanium

    • B. 

      Aluminum

    • C. 

      Stainless steel

    • D. 

      Aluminum/nickel alloy

  • 75. 
    What tool do you use to ensure alignment and sealing when installing a V-band clamp on air-conditioning ducting?
    • A. 

      Screwdriver

    • B. 

      Center punch

    • C. 

      Rawhide mallet

    • D. 

      Ball peen hammer

  • 76. 
    What type of high-pressure/high-temperature ducting does not require a gasket?
    • A. 

      Clamp flange

    • B. 

      Bolted flange

    • C. 

      Beaded flange

    • D. 

      Compressible flange

  • 77. 
    The crush-type gasket used in aircraft ducting is made of
    • A. 

      Fiber and fiberglass

    • B. 

      Fiberglass and neoprene, or rubber

    • C. 

      A soft aluminum, or fiber and metal mesh

    • D. 

      A soft aluminum, and fiber reinforced rubber or plastic

  • 78. 
    What prevents fiberglass fabric ducts from swelling when the aircraft climbs to high altitudes?
    • A. 

      Thermal compensators

    • B. 

      Expansion bellows

    • C. 

      Puckered flaps

    • D. 

      Vent holes

  • 79. 
    What aircraft air conditioning system component is a radiator that cold ram air passes through in order to cool the hot bleed air from the engine(s)?
    • A. 

      Primary heat exchanger

    • B. 

      Air cycle machine

    • C. 

      Water separator

    • D. 

      Air cooler

  • 80. 
    The rapid cooling of bleed air causes
    • A. 

      The air pressure to increase

    • B. 

      Moisture to condense in the form of fog

    • C. 

      Ice to form in the secondary heat exchanger

    • D. 

      A loss of pressure as it exits the air cycle machine compressor

  • 81. 
    The low atmospheric pressure found at extremely high altitudes can cause a person’s blood vessels to
    • A. 

      Shrink

    • B. 

      Rupture

    • C. 

      Contract

    • D. 

      Collapse

  • 82. 
    What maintains pressure if the dual-differential cabin pressure regulator fails during flight?
    • A. 

      The outflow valves

    • B. 

      A manual controller

    • C. 

      The cabin altitude selector

    • D. 

      A positive pressure relief valve

  • 83. 
    The normal connection for thermal switches in a fire warning system is in series with
    • A. 

      Each other only

    • B. 

      The power souce and with the warning lights

    • C. 

      Each other and in parallel with the power source

    • D. 

      The warning light and parallel with each other

  • 84. 
    The direct current (DC) voltage supplied to the lights in a photoelectric circuit is pulsed at a rate of
    • A. 

      10 HZ

    • B. 

      100 HZ

    • C. 

      200 HZ

    • D. 

      400 HZ

  • 85. 
    A liquid fire extinguishing agent douses a fire by
    • A. 

      Releasing a fine mist wapor

    • B. 

      Excluding oxygen from the area

    • C. 

      Removing nitrogen from the area

    • D. 

      Dispersing a large amount of liquid

  • 86. 
    In a liquid-agent fire extinguisher container, why is the frangible disc undercut into pie-shaped sections?
    • A. 

      Break cleanly into small pieces

    • B. 

      Allow undistributed fluid flow through the system

    • C. 

      Enable the pieces to pass easily through the strainer

    • D. 

      Prevent small pieces from passing through the strainer

  • 87. 
    What is usually located at the lowest point in a fuel tank?
    • A. 

      Sump and drain

    • B. 

      Pump and drain

    • C. 

      Pressure relief valve

    • D. 

      Fuel-level control valve

  • 88. 
    Wing tanks are
    • A. 

      Bladder-type tanks that conform to the vacant cavity within the wing

    • B. 

      Lightweight, aluminum tanks inserted into empty wing cavities

    • C. 

      Sealed-off parts of the wing structure

    • D. 

      Soft, malleable plastic tanks

  • 89. 
    What type of fuel pump must have a fuel- and vapor-proof housing?
    • A. 

      Jet

    • B. 

      Ejector

    • C. 

      Top-mounted centrifugal pump with variable-speed hydraulic drive

    • D. 

      Centrifugal pump with electrically driven, direct current (DC), series-wound motor

  • 90. 
    The arrow stamped on the body of a fuel system check valve indicates the
    • A. 

      Direction of free flow

    • B. 

      Direction of restricted flow

    • C. 

      Location of the drilled hole in the valve

    • D. 

      Location of the manufacturer’s data block

  • 91. 
    Another name for the disc type valve in a fuel system is
    • A. 

      Butterfly

    • B. 

      Swivel vane

    • C. 

      Sliding gate

    • D. 

      Swinging disc

  • 92. 
    What most likely controls the automatic pump shutoff when all fuel is depleted from a fuel tank?
    • A. 

      Float valves

    • B. 

      Float switches

    • C. 

      Toggle switches

    • D. 

      Pressure switched

  • 93. 
    What capacitance-type, fuel-indicating system component allows for changes in fuel density?
    • A. 

      Inductor

    • B. 

      Capacitor

    • C. 

      Compensator

    • D. 

      Potentiometer

  • 94. 
    A well-designed aircraft fuel system will ensure
    • A. 

      Positive and negative fuel-flow

    • B. 

      Negative fuel-flow under all conditions

    • C. 

      Positive fuel-flow under positive conditions

    • D. 

      Positive and reliable fuel-flow under all conditions

  • 95. 
    The three methods of transferring fuel are gravity flow
    • A. 

      Air pressure, and pump

    • B. 

      Check, and air pressure

    • C. 

      Pump, and hydromechanical

    • D. 

      Hydromechanical, and air pressure

  • 96. 
    The most prevalent method of refueling for ground servicing is
    • A. 

      Nozzle

    • B. 

      Top-off

    • C. 

      Single-point

    • D. 

      Over-the-wing

  • 97. 
    The air-refueling (A/R) receptacle is operated
    • A. 

      Hydraulically, but controlled electrically

    • B. 

      Electrically, but controlled hydraulically

    • C. 

      Electrically, but controlled pneumatically

    • D. 

      Hydraulically but controlled pneumatically

  • 98. 
    What type of foreign particle appears in the fuel in a crystalline, granular, or glasslike form?
    • A. 

      Rust

    • B. 

      Sand and dust

    • C. 

      Brass shavings

    • D. 

      Aluminum or magnesium compounds

  • 99. 
    How are fuel leaks categorized?
    • A. 

      Major and minor

    • B. 

      Class 1 through 5

    • C. 

      Class A through D

    • D. 

      Internal and external

  • 100. 
    The resistance of an object to change its motion is a property of matter called
    • A. 

      Energy

    • B. 

      Inertia

    • C. 

      Friction

    • D. 

      Potential