Viper Apg 5 Air Force’s Maintenance
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Who is responsible for ensuring that good supply discipline is practiced?
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Base commanders
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Squadron commanders
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Supervisors at all levels
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Squadron QA section
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This quiz focuses on the Viper APG 5 Air Force's maintenance protocols. It assesses knowledge on supply discipline, maintenance capabilities, preventive maintenance, and personnel training visibility. Essential for supervisors and technicians in aerospace and military operations.
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- 2.
Engines overhauled by depot are covered against defects in workmanship for
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200 hours of operation or one year from the date of receipt.
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100 hours of operation or one year from the date of receipt.
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200 hours of operation or six months from the date of receipt.
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100 hours of operation or six months from the date of receipt.
Correct Answer
A. 100 hours of operation or one year from the date of receipt.Explanation
Engines that have been overhauled by the depot are protected against any defects in workmanship for a period of either 100 hours of operation or one year from the date they were received. This means that if any issues arise within this timeframe, the depot will be responsible for addressing and fixing them.Rate this question:
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- 3.
What are the Air Force’s maintenance capabilities in order of increasing capability?
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Departmental, intermediate, and field.
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Organizational, field, and intermediate
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Organizational, intermediate, and depot
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Departmental, organizational, and depot
Correct Answer
A. Organizational, intermediate, and depotExplanation
The correct answer is "Organizational, intermediate, and depot." This is because organizational maintenance refers to the basic level of maintenance performed by the unit or organization that operates the equipment. Intermediate maintenance is the next level, where more complex repairs and maintenance tasks are carried out. Depot maintenance is the highest level, involving major repairs, overhauls, and rebuilding of equipment. Therefore, the given order represents the increasing capability of the Air Force's maintenance capabilities.Rate this question:
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- 4.
What type of maintenance ensures that equipment is ready and available at the time of need?
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Unscheduled
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Preventive
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Corrective
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Protective
Correct Answer
A. PreventiveExplanation
Preventive maintenance is the type of maintenance that ensures equipment is ready and available when needed. It involves regularly inspecting, cleaning, and servicing equipment to prevent breakdowns and maintain optimal performance. By addressing potential issues before they occur, preventive maintenance helps to minimize downtime and increase the lifespan of equipment. This proactive approach helps to avoid costly repairs and ensures that equipment is always in good working condition, ready to be used when required.Rate this question:
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- 5.
Where can you find a list of training courses available for an AFSC?
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CFETP, Part I
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AFJQS
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Command JQS
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CFETP, Part II
Correct Answer
A. CFETP, Part IIExplanation
CFETP, Part II is the correct answer because CFETP stands for Career Field Education and Training Plan, which is a document that outlines the training requirements and courses for a specific Air Force Specialty Code (AFSC). Part II of the CFETP specifically provides a list of training courses available for that AFSC. Therefore, if someone is looking for a list of training courses available for a specific AFSC, they should refer to CFETP, Part II.Rate this question:
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- 6.
The TBA provides Air Force personnel with global, real-time
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Access to Distance Learning courseware
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Access to special certification roster criteria listings
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Visibility of available formal training courses Air Force–wide
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Visibility of personnel technical qualifications, certifications, and training statuses
Correct Answer
A. Visibility of personnel technical qualifications, certifications, and training statusesExplanation
The correct answer is "visibility of personnel technical qualifications, certifications, and training statuses." The TBA (Training Business Area) platform allows Air Force personnel to have access to information regarding their technical qualifications, certifications, and training statuses. This includes information about their skills, certifications they have obtained, and their current training progress. This visibility helps personnel track their own progress and allows supervisors and commanders to have a better understanding of their team's capabilities and readiness.Rate this question:
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- 7.
Which TO outlines the procedures for entries on the AFTO Form 22?
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00-1-01
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00-5-1
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00-20 series
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00-25 series
Correct Answer
A. 00-5-1Explanation
The correct answer is 00-5-1. This TO (Technical Order) outlines the procedures for entries on the AFTO Form 22. The other options, 00-1-01, 00-20 series, and 00-25 series, do not specifically pertain to the procedures for entries on the AFTO Form 22.Rate this question:
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- 8.
Which maintenance stand has an adjustable height of 13 to 20 feet?
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B-1
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B-2
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B-4
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B-5
Correct Answer
A. B-2Explanation
The B-2 maintenance stand has an adjustable height of 13 to 20 feet.Rate this question:
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- 9.
What is the maximum load, in pounds, that the model 4000 engine trailer can support?
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7,000
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8,000
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9,000
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10,000
Correct Answer
A. 8,000Explanation
The model 4000 engine trailer can support a maximum load of 8,000 pounds.Rate this question:
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- 10.
The usable pressure range of the MC-1A air compressor is 0 to
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200 psi
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350 psi
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3,200 psi
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3,500 psi
Correct Answer
A. 3,200 psiExplanation
The usable pressure range of the MC-1A air compressor is 3,200 psi. This means that the compressor can operate within a pressure range of 0 to 3,200 psi. It is important to stay within this range to ensure the safe and efficient functioning of the compressor.Rate this question:
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- 11.
The H-1 heater has an adjustable heat output that ranges from
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100 to 230 °F
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115 to 250 °F
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125 to 270 °F
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150 to 280 °F
Correct Answer
A. 150 to 280 °FExplanation
The correct answer is 150 to 280 °F. This is because the H-1 heater has an adjustable heat output that can be set within this temperature range. This range allows for a wide variety of heating options, allowing users to choose the desired temperature for their specific needs.Rate this question:
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- 12.
What is the maximum tow speed for a C-10 air conditioner?
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5 mph
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10 mph
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15 mph
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20 mph
Correct Answer
A. 20 mphExplanation
The maximum tow speed for a C-10 air conditioner is 20 mph. This means that the air conditioner can be safely towed at a maximum speed of 20 miles per hour.Rate this question:
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- 13.
The FL-1D floodlight consists of two
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100 watt lamp fixtures
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1,000 watt lamp fixtures
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10,000 watt lamp fixtures
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100,000 watt lamp fixtures
Correct Answer
A. 1,000 watt lamp fixturesExplanation
The correct answer is 1,000 watt lamp fixtures. The FL-1D floodlight consists of two fixtures, each with a power capacity of 1,000 watts.Rate this question:
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- 14.
What is the maximum towing speed of the FL-1D floodlight on smooth surfaces?
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5 mph
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10 mph
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15 mph
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20 mph
Correct Answer
A. 20 mphExplanation
The maximum towing speed of the FL-1D floodlight on smooth surfaces is 20 mph.Rate this question:
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- 15.
What is used to drive the MK-3A-1?
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A diesel engine
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An electric motor
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A gasoline engine
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A hydraulic motor
Correct Answer
A. An electric motorExplanation
The MK-3A-1 is driven by an electric motor. This means that the vehicle is powered by electricity rather than other fuel sources such as diesel, gasoline, or hydraulic power. An electric motor is a common choice for vehicles as it provides efficient and reliable power, with the added benefit of being environmentally friendly compared to engines that burn fossil fuels.Rate this question:
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- 16.
The MJ-2A reservoir holds what amount of fluid?
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19 gallons
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27 gallons
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30 gallons
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60 gallons
Correct Answer
A. 27 gallonsExplanation
The MJ-2A reservoir holds 27 gallons of fluid.Rate this question:
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- 17.
The MB-4 Coleman incorporates
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Two-wheel steering, two wheel drive.
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Two-wheel steering, four-wheel drive.
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Four-wheel steering, two-wheel drive
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Four-wheel steering, four-wheel drive
Correct Answer
A. Four-wheel steering, four-wheel driveExplanation
The MB-4 Coleman incorporates four-wheel steering, which means that all four wheels can turn and steer the vehicle. This allows for better maneuverability and control, especially in tight spaces or off-road terrain. Additionally, the vehicle also has four-wheel drive, which means that power is distributed to all four wheels, providing better traction and stability, especially in challenging driving conditions.Rate this question:
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- 18.
What is the maximum governed speed of the MB-4 Coleman?
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15 mph
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20 mph
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25 mph
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55 mph
Correct Answer
A. 20 mphExplanation
The maximum governed speed of the MB-4 Coleman is 20 mph. This means that the vehicle is designed to operate at a maximum speed of 20 mph as set by the governing system. Going beyond this speed may not be safe or recommended for the vehicle.Rate this question:
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- 19.
Why are aluminum alloy washers used with steel bolts on aluminum alloy parts in lowtorque applications?
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Reduce shearing
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Prevent vibration
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Prevent corrosion
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Reduce shimming
Correct Answer
A. Prevent corrosionExplanation
Aluminum alloy washers are used with steel bolts on aluminum alloy parts in low-torque applications to prevent corrosion. When two different metals come into contact, such as aluminum and steel, a chemical reaction called galvanic corrosion can occur. This can lead to the deterioration of the metals and weaken the overall structure. By using aluminum alloy washers, it creates a barrier between the aluminum and steel, preventing direct contact and reducing the risk of corrosion.Rate this question:
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- 20.
How are special bolts identified?
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By a zinc-plated nickel steel covering
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By a galvanized-plated steel covering
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The bolt head is marked with a triangle
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The bolt head is marked with the letter S
Correct Answer
A. The bolt head is marked with the letter SExplanation
Special bolts are identified by marking the bolt head with the letter S. This marking helps distinguish special bolts from regular bolts and allows for easy identification during assembly or maintenance processes. The other options mentioned, such as zinc-plated nickel steel covering or galvanized-plated steel covering, are not specific to special bolts and may be used for regular bolts as well. Therefore, the marking of the letter S on the bolt head is the most reliable and consistent method of identifying special bolts.Rate this question:
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- 21.
Which bolt is never used in areas where tension is present but is often used as pins in control systems?
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Stud
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Clevis
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Eyebolt
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Hexhead
Correct Answer
A. ClevisExplanation
A clevis is a type of fastener that is commonly used in control systems as pins. It is often used to connect linkages or rods to other components. Unlike bolts, which are used to provide tension and hold objects together, clevises are not designed to handle tension. Therefore, they are never used in areas where tension is present. This makes the clevis the correct answer for this question.Rate this question:
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- 22.
Which bolt has a recessed head and is used in high-tension applications?
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A stud
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An eyebolt
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A hexhead
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An internal wrenching type
Correct Answer
A. An internal wrenching typeExplanation
An internal wrenching type bolt has a recessed head and is used in high-tension applications. The recessed head allows for the use of a specialized tool, such as an Allen wrench, to tighten or loosen the bolt. This type of bolt is commonly used in industries where high tension is required, such as construction, automotive, and aerospace. The recessed head provides a secure and reliable connection, making it ideal for applications where safety and stability are crucial.Rate this question:
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- 23.
Left-hand threads on a turnbuckle can be identified by the
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Knurl beside the fork
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Groove by the cable eye
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Knurl beside the pin eye
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Groove on the end of the barrel
Correct Answer
A. Groove on the end of the barrelExplanation
Left-hand threads on a turnbuckle can be identified by the groove on the end of the barrel. This groove is a distinguishing feature that indicates the presence of left-hand threads. The other options mentioned, such as the knurl beside the fork, groove by the cable eye, and knurl beside the pin eye, do not provide any information about the thread direction. Therefore, the groove on the end of the barrel is the correct indicator for identifying left-hand threads on a turnbuckle.Rate this question:
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- 24.
The allowable limit for nicks and scratches on a straight section of aircraft tubing is no deeper than
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10 percent of wall thickness
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15 percent of wall thickness
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20 percent of wall thickness
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25 percent of wall thickness
Correct Answer
A. 15 percent of wall thicknessExplanation
The correct answer is 15 percent of wall thickness. This means that the allowable limit for nicks and scratches on a straight section of aircraft tubing should not be deeper than 15 percent of the wall thickness. This ensures that the structural integrity of the tubing is maintained and that any damages do not compromise the safety of the aircraft.Rate this question:
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- 25.
What part of a cannon plug completes the electrical circuit?
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Metal shells
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Connector halves
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Dielectric contacts
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Pin-and-socket contacts
Correct Answer
A. Pin-and-socket contactsExplanation
Pin-and-socket contacts complete the electrical circuit in a cannon plug. These contacts consist of pins on one connector half and corresponding sockets on the other half. When the plug is inserted, the pins and sockets make contact, allowing the flow of electricity through the circuit. The metal shells provide structural support and protection, while the connector halves hold the pins and sockets in place. The dielectric contacts act as insulators, preventing the pins and sockets from touching each other and causing a short circuit.Rate this question:
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- 26.
Prior to using a torque wrench, cycle the torque wrench through the breakaway torque at the
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Maximum setting at least four times.
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Maximum setting at least six times
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Lowest setting at least four times
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Lowest setting at least six times
Correct Answer
A. Maximum setting at least six timesExplanation
It is important to cycle the torque wrench through the breakaway torque at the maximum setting multiple times before using it. This helps to ensure that the wrench is calibrated correctly and that any initial resistance or sticking is overcome. By doing this at least six times, it provides a more thorough check and reduces the chances of any inaccuracies in the torque readings.Rate this question:
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- 27.
Bench stock levels are established to provide a
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15-day usage
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30-day usage
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60-day usage
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90-day usage
Correct Answer
A. 30-day usageExplanation
Bench stock levels are established to provide a buffer of inventory that can be readily accessed in case of unexpected demand or supply disruptions. A 30-day usage level would ensure that there is enough stock available to cover a month's worth of usage, allowing for flexibility and reducing the risk of stockouts. This level strikes a balance between having enough inventory on hand and minimizing excess inventory costs.Rate this question:
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- 28.
Which DD forms are easily identified by their green margins and letters?
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1577-2 and 1577-3
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1576 and 1576-1
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1574 and 1574-1
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1575 and 1575-1
Correct Answer
A. 1577-2 and 1577-3Explanation
DD forms 1577-2 and 1577-3 are easily identified by their green margins and letters.Rate this question:
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- 29.
Which inspection is due on the accrual of a set number of flying or operating hours, or at the expiration of a calendar period specified in the applicable aircraft-specific –6 technical order and is a thorough inspection of the entire aerospace vehicle?
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Phased
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Periodic
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Isochronal
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Hourly postflight
Correct Answer
A. PeriodicExplanation
The correct answer is "Periodic." A periodic inspection is due either after a set number of flying or operating hours or at the expiration of a calendar period specified in the aircraft-specific technical order. This inspection is a thorough examination of the entire aerospace vehicle.Rate this question:
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- 30.
Which inspection concept uses specified calendar intervals to build a schedule and consists of the home station check, major, and minor inspections?
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Phased
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Periodic
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Isochronal
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Hourly Postflight
Correct Answer
A. IsochronalExplanation
The correct answer is isochronal. Isochronal inspections use specified calendar intervals to build a schedule and consist of the home station check, major, and minor inspections. These inspections are conducted at regular intervals to ensure that the aircraft is maintained and in proper working condition.Rate this question:
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- 31.
Which inspection examines areas, components, and systems to a degree beyond -6 technical order inspection requirements?
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Phased
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Periodic
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Isochronal
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Programmed Depot Maintenance
Correct Answer
A. Programmed Depot MaintenanceExplanation
Programmed Depot Maintenance is the correct answer because it involves a comprehensive inspection of areas, components, and systems that goes beyond the requirements specified in technical order inspections. This type of maintenance is typically conducted at fixed intervals or as part of a scheduled maintenance program to ensure the overall readiness and reliability of the equipment or system being inspected.Rate this question:
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- 32.
Minimum aircraft inspection requirements are outlined in
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Sequence charts
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Inspection workcards
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-06 work unit code manuals
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-6 technical order inspection manuals
Correct Answer
A. Inspection workcardsExplanation
The correct answer is Inspection workcards. Inspection workcards are a type of documentation that outlines the minimum aircraft inspection requirements. They provide a step-by-step guide for inspectors to follow during the inspection process. These workcards ensure that all necessary inspections are conducted and help maintain the safety and airworthiness of the aircraft.Rate this question:
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- 33.
Which inspection is usually performed just prior to takeoff and may include operational checks of some systems?
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In progress
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PR
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TH
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EOR
Correct Answer
A. EORExplanation
EOR stands for Engine-Off Run-up, which is an inspection usually performed just prior to takeoff. During this inspection, operational checks of some systems are conducted to ensure they are functioning properly before the aircraft takes off.Rate this question:
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- 34.
The TH inspection is normally performed
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Prior to going on alert and again before flight after completion of the alert period
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After flights when a turn-around sortie or continuation flight is scheduled
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Immediately prior to a BPO
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After the last flight of a specified flying period
Correct Answer
A. After flights when a turn-around sortie or continuation flight is scheduledExplanation
The TH inspection is performed after flights when a turn-around sortie or continuation flight is scheduled. This means that the inspection is conducted after the completion of each flight, but only if there is another flight scheduled immediately after. This ensures that the aircraft is thoroughly inspected and any necessary maintenance or repairs can be carried out before the next flight. It helps to ensure the safety and airworthiness of the aircraft before it takes off again.Rate this question:
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- 35.
Which inspection is required if an aircraft is idle for more than 30 or 90 days? a. Phase.
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Phase
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Special
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Calendar
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Acceptance
Correct Answer
A. CalendarExplanation
If an aircraft is idle for more than 30 or 90 days, a calendar inspection is required. This type of inspection is based on the number of days that the aircraft has been idle, rather than the number of flight hours or cycles. It is important to perform this inspection to ensure that the aircraft remains airworthy and to identify any potential issues that may have arisen during the period of inactivity.Rate this question:
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- 36.
Which inspection ensures the completeness of historical documents?
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Phase
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Special
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Calendar
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Acceptance
Correct Answer
A. AcceptanceExplanation
Acceptance inspection is a process that ensures the completeness of historical documents. This type of inspection involves reviewing and verifying all the necessary documents to ensure that they are complete and accurate. It is an important step in the documentation process to ensure that all relevant information is included and nothing is missing. By conducting an acceptance inspection, organizations can ensure the integrity and reliability of their historical documents.Rate this question:
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- 37.
Atmospheric pressure at sea level is
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14.7 psi
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17.4 psi
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29.92 psi
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29.29 psi
Correct Answer
A. 14.7 psiExplanation
Atmospheric pressure at sea level is commonly measured as 14.7 psi. This value represents the force exerted by the weight of the atmosphere on a given area at sea level. It is a standard reference point used in various fields, such as meteorology, aviation, and engineering. The pressure decreases as altitude increases, so this value specifically refers to the pressure at sea level.Rate this question:
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- 38.
A barometer is designed to measure pressure in
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Pounds per square inch(psi)
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Inches of mercury
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Milibars of alcohol
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Ounces of air
Correct Answer
A. Inches of mercuryExplanation
A barometer is designed to measure pressure, and the most commonly used unit for measuring pressure is inches of mercury. This unit is based on the height of a column of mercury that is supported by the atmospheric pressure. As the atmospheric pressure changes, the height of the mercury column also changes, allowing for the measurement of pressure. Therefore, inches of mercury is the correct unit for measuring pressure using a barometer.Rate this question:
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- 39.
The majority of aircraft circuit protection devices are normally located
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In the aircraft cabin
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In the nose wheel well
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In the utility compartments
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As far as possible frm the unit being protected
Correct Answer
A. In the aircraft cabinExplanation
Aircraft circuit protection devices are typically located in the aircraft cabin to ensure easy access and maintenance. Placing them in the cabin allows for quick identification and replacement of faulty devices, reducing downtime and improving the overall safety of the aircraft. Additionally, locating these devices in the cabin ensures that they are protected from extreme environmental conditions, such as temperature fluctuations and moisture, which could potentially affect their performance.Rate this question:
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- 40.
What term describes current that reverses its direction at regularly recurring intervals?
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Direct
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Inductive
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Reversing
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Alternating
Correct Answer
A. AlternatingExplanation
Alternating current (AC) is a type of electric current that reverses its direction at regularly recurring intervals. This means that the flow of electric charge periodically changes direction, moving back and forth. AC is commonly used in homes and businesses for electrical power transmission and distribution, as it is more efficient for long-distance transmission. It is also used in many electronic devices, such as appliances and electronics, as it allows for the easy transformation of voltage levels.Rate this question:
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- 41.
The methods used to cool brushless alternating current (AC) generators are
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Blast air and ram air
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Engine oil and blast air
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Blast air and generator oil
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Generator oil and engine oil
Correct Answer
A. Engine oil and blast airExplanation
The correct answer is "Engine oil and blast air." Brushless AC generators require cooling methods to prevent overheating. Engine oil is used to cool the generator's internal components, such as the rotor and stator windings. It helps dissipate heat and maintain optimal operating temperatures. Blast air is also used to cool the generator externally. It is directed towards the generator to remove heat and improve overall cooling efficiency. Combining engine oil and blast air cooling methods ensures effective cooling of the generator, preventing damage and ensuring its proper functioning.Rate this question:
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- 42.
The output of the constant speed drive (CSD) used to drive a 60/80 kilovolt ampere (KVA) generator is approximately
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4,000 revolutions per minute(RPM)
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6,000 RPM
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8,000 RPM
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10,000 RPM
Correct Answer
A. 8,000 RPMExplanation
The correct answer is 8,000 RPM. The constant speed drive (CSD) is used to drive a 60/80 kilovolt ampere (KVA) generator. The output of the CSD is approximately 8,000 revolutions per minute (RPM).Rate this question:
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- 43.
The three states of matter are
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Liquids, gases, and minerals
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Gases, solids, and minerals
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Gases, solids, and organic
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Liquids, gases, and solids
Correct Answer
A. Liquids, gases, and solidsExplanation
The three states of matter are liquids, gases, and solids. Liquids have a definite volume but no definite shape, gases have no definite volume or shape, and solids have both a definite volume and shape. Minerals and organic substances are not states of matter, but rather types of substances. Therefore, the correct answer is liquids, gases, and solids.Rate this question:
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- 44.
Who was among the first to study the compressibility of gases?
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Hook
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Boyle
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Pascal
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Charles
Correct Answer
A. BoyleExplanation
Boyle was among the first to study the compressibility of gases. His work, known as Boyle's Law, states that the volume of a gas is inversely proportional to its pressure, when the temperature is held constant. This groundbreaking study laid the foundation for understanding the behavior of gases and was a significant contribution to the field of physics.Rate this question:
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- 45.
Turbulence affects fluid-flow in a hydraulic line by
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Increasing velocity and viscosity
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Increasing volume and displacement
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Creating resistance and loss of energy
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Creating resistance and energy increase
Correct Answer
A. Creating resistance and loss of energyExplanation
Turbulence in a hydraulic line disrupts the smooth flow of fluid, causing resistance to the movement of the fluid. This resistance leads to a loss of energy as the fluid encounters obstacles and irregularities in the flow path. Therefore, turbulence creates both resistance and a decrease in energy efficiency within the hydraulic system.Rate this question:
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- 46.
The purpose of a hydraulic motor is to convert hydraulic pressure into
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Rotary mechanical motion
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Kinetik flow motion
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Straight-line motion
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Fluid locomotion
Correct Answer
A. Rotary mechanical motionExplanation
A hydraulic motor is designed to convert the pressure of a hydraulic fluid into rotary mechanical motion. This means that it takes the energy from the fluid and uses it to generate rotational movement. This type of motion is commonly used in various applications, such as in industrial machinery, vehicles, and construction equipment. By converting hydraulic pressure into rotary mechanical motion, hydraulic motors can power various types of machinery and perform tasks that require rotational movement.Rate this question:
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- 47.
How is the piston installed in an accumulator?
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In either direction
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Hollow end towards the air side of the accumulator
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Hollow end toward the fluid side of the accumulator
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Drilled passage toward the air side of the accumulator
Correct Answer
A. Hollow end towards the air side of the accumulatorExplanation
The piston is installed in an accumulator with the hollow end towards the air side of the accumulator. This is because the air side of the accumulator is typically pressurized, and the hollow end of the piston allows for the movement of air and the compression of the gas inside the accumulator. Placing the hollow end towards the fluid side of the accumulator would not allow for proper pressurization and operation of the accumulator. Similarly, a drilled passage towards the air side of the accumulator would not serve the purpose of pressurizing the gas. Therefore, the correct installation is with the hollow end towards the air side.Rate this question:
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- 48.
The size of one micron is four
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Tenths of an inch
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Thousandths of an inch
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Millionths of an inch
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Billionths of an inch
Correct Answer
A. Millionths of an inchExplanation
One micron is a unit of length equal to one millionth of an inch. It is a very small measurement, indicating that it takes one million microns to make up an inch.Rate this question:
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- 49.
In a hydraulic system, the hydraulic manifold provides a location where the
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Return lines can join together
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Pressure lines can join together
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Common fluid lines can come together
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Hydraulic test stand can be connected
Correct Answer
A. Common fluid lines can come togetherExplanation
The hydraulic manifold in a hydraulic system serves as a central point where multiple fluid lines can converge. It allows for the common fluid lines to come together, ensuring efficient flow and distribution of hydraulic fluid throughout the system. This helps in simplifying the design and installation of the system, as well as facilitating maintenance and troubleshooting processes.Rate this question:
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Mar 18, 2023Quiz Edited by
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Dec 10, 2013Quiz Created by
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