Network + Practice Test 2

1. A technician is called to a clients desktop for connection issues. Which of the following is the FIRST step the technician should take?

Check the LEDs on the NIC.

Re-install the OS.

Install a new NIC.

Reset the router.

The first step the technician should take is to check the LEDs on the NIC (Network Interface Card). This is important because the LEDs provide information about the network connection status. By checking the LEDs, the technician can determine if there is a physical connection issue between the desktop and the network, such as a loose cable or a faulty NIC. This step helps to narrow down the potential causes of the connection problem and allows the technician to proceed with further troubleshooting steps accordingly.

Explanation

The first step the technician should take is to check the LEDs on the NIC (Network Interface Card). This is important because the LEDs provide information about the network connection status. By checking the LEDs, the technician can determine if there is a physical connection issue between the desktop and the network, such as a loose cable or a faulty NIC. This step helps to narrow down the potential causes of the connection problem and allows the technician to proceed with further troubleshooting steps accordingly.

2. Which of the following utilities will produce the results printed below?
Tracing route to 172.30.0.78 over a maximum of 30 hops 1 <1 ms <1 ms172.30.0.78

Arp

Tracert

Ping

Netstat

The correct answer is tracert because tracert is a utility that is used to trace the route that packets take to reach a destination. In the given results, it shows the route to the IP address 172.30.0.78 over a maximum of 30 hops. The output also includes the latency (ms) for each hop in the route.

Explanation

The correct answer is tracert because tracert is a utility that is used to trace the route that packets take to reach a destination. In the given results, it shows the route to the IP address 172.30.0.78 over a maximum of 30 hops. The output also includes the latency (ms) for each hop in the route.

3. A technician wants to remotely log into an office computer using remote desktop. The technician needs to do this in a secure manner. Which of the following would accomplish this?

VPN

Telnet

VLAN

Tagged packets

A Virtual Private Network (VPN) would accomplish remote logging into an office computer in a secure manner. A VPN creates a secure and encrypted connection over a public network, such as the internet, allowing the technician to access the office computer securely from a remote location. This ensures that the data transmitted between the technician's device and the office computer is protected from unauthorized access or interception. Telnet, VLAN, and tagged packets do not provide the same level of security as a VPN.

Explanation

A Virtual Private Network (VPN) would accomplish remote logging into an office computer in a secure manner. A VPN creates a secure and encrypted connection over a public network, such as the internet, allowing the technician to access the office computer securely from a remote location. This ensures that the data transmitted between the technician's device and the office computer is protected from unauthorized access or interception. Telnet, VLAN, and tagged packets do not provide the same level of security as a VPN.

4. A technician is creating a patch cable to connect two PCs for file sharing. Which of the following cables should the technician uses ?

Straight

Loopback

Crossover

Rollover

A crossover cable should be used to connect two PCs for file sharing. Unlike a straight cable, which is used to connect a PC to a switch or router, a crossover cable allows the PCs to directly communicate with each other without the need for a network device. This is achieved by swapping the transmit and receive wires on one end of the cable, allowing the PCs to send and receive data effectively.

Explanation

A crossover cable should be used to connect two PCs for file sharing. Unlike a straight cable, which is used to connect a PC to a switch or router, a crossover cable allows the PCs to directly communicate with each other without the need for a network device. This is achieved by swapping the transmit and receive wires on one end of the cable, allowing the PCs to send and receive data effectively.

5. Which of the following tools will measure in Ohms?

Cable tester

Multimeter

TDR

Butt set

A multimeter is a versatile tool used to measure various electrical quantities, including resistance in Ohms. It typically has a dial or a setting specifically for measuring resistance, allowing users to accurately determine the resistance of a component or circuit. Cable testers are used to check the integrity and continuity of cables, TDR (Time Domain Reflectometer) is used to measure the length and impedance of transmission lines, and a butt set is a telephone line testing device. None of these tools are specifically designed to measure resistance in Ohms like a multimeter.

Explanation

A multimeter is a versatile tool used to measure various electrical quantities, including resistance in Ohms. It typically has a dial or a setting specifically for measuring resistance, allowing users to accurately determine the resistance of a component or circuit. Cable testers are used to check the integrity and continuity of cables, TDR (Time Domain Reflectometer) is used to measure the length and impedance of transmission lines, and a butt set is a telephone line testing device. None of these tools are specifically designed to measure resistance in Ohms like a multimeter.

6. A Network address of 220.100.100.100 with a subnet mask of 255.255.255.0 can be rewritten in classlessinterdomain routing notation (CIDR) as which of the following?

220.100.100.100 /24

220.100.100.100 /16

220.100.100.100 /8

220.100.100.100 /32

The given network address 220.100.100.100 with a subnet mask of 255.255.255.0 can be rewritten in CIDR notation as 220.100.100.100 /24. The subnet mask of 255.255.255.0 has 24 bits set to 1, indicating that the first 24 bits of the IP address are used for the network portion, and the remaining 8 bits are used for the host portion. Therefore, the CIDR notation for this network address would include the IP address followed by the slash and the number of bits used for the network portion, which is 24 in this case.

Explanation

The given network address 220.100.100.100 with a subnet mask of 255.255.255.0 can be rewritten in CIDR notation as 220.100.100.100 /24. The subnet mask of 255.255.255.0 has 24 bits set to 1, indicating that the first 24 bits of the IP address are used for the network portion, and the remaining 8 bits are used for the host portion. Therefore, the CIDR notation for this network address would include the IP address followed by the slash and the number of bits used for the network portion, which is 24 in this case.

7. Which of the following protocols provides a secure method to remotely administer a server?

HTTP

SFTP

SSH

Telnet

SSH (Secure Shell) is a protocol that provides a secure method to remotely administer a server. It encrypts the data transmitted over the network, ensuring confidentiality and integrity. Unlike Telnet, which transmits data in clear text, SSH encrypts the communication, making it resistant to eavesdropping and unauthorized access. Similarly, SFTP (Secure File Transfer Protocol) is a secure alternative to FTP, but it specifically deals with file transfers rather than remote administration. HTTP is a protocol used for web browsing and does not provide the necessary security measures for remote server administration.

Explanation

SSH (Secure Shell) is a protocol that provides a secure method to remotely administer a server. It encrypts the data transmitted over the network, ensuring confidentiality and integrity. Unlike Telnet, which transmits data in clear text, SSH encrypts the communication, making it resistant to eavesdropping and unauthorized access. Similarly, SFTP (Secure File Transfer Protocol) is a secure alternative to FTP, but it specifically deals with file transfers rather than remote administration. HTTP is a protocol used for web browsing and does not provide the necessary security measures for remote server administration.

8. Which of the following wireless security protocols supports the highest encryption standards?

3DES

WPA2

WPA

WEP

WPA2 supports the highest encryption standards among the given options. It uses the Advanced Encryption Standard (AES) algorithm, which is considered to be highly secure. WPA2 provides stronger protection against unauthorized access compared to WPA and WEP, which have known vulnerabilities. 3DES, although a strong encryption algorithm, is not a wireless security protocol. Therefore, WPA2 is the correct answer.

Explanation

WPA2 supports the highest encryption standards among the given options. It uses the Advanced Encryption Standard (AES) algorithm, which is considered to be highly secure. WPA2 provides stronger protection against unauthorized access compared to WPA and WEP, which have known vulnerabilities. 3DES, although a strong encryption algorithm, is not a wireless security protocol. Therefore, WPA2 is the correct answer.

9. Which of the following is considered a connection-oriented protocol?

UDP

SPX

TCP

IP

TCP (Transmission Control Protocol) is considered a connection-oriented protocol because it establishes a reliable and ordered connection between two devices before data transmission. It ensures that all packets are received in the correct order and without errors by using acknowledgments and retransmissions. TCP also provides flow control and congestion control mechanisms to optimize data transfer. In contrast, UDP (User Datagram Protocol) is a connectionless protocol that does not establish a dedicated connection and does not guarantee reliable delivery of packets. SPX (Sequenced Packet Exchange) is a connection-oriented protocol used in Novell NetWare networks, but it is not as widely used as TCP. IP (Internet Protocol) is a connectionless protocol responsible for addressing and routing packets in the Internet Protocol Suite.

Explanation

TCP (Transmission Control Protocol) is considered a connection-oriented protocol because it establishes a reliable and ordered connection between two devices before data transmission. It ensures that all packets are received in the correct order and without errors by using acknowledgments and retransmissions. TCP also provides flow control and congestion control mechanisms to optimize data transfer. In contrast, UDP (User Datagram Protocol) is a connectionless protocol that does not establish a dedicated connection and does not guarantee reliable delivery of packets. SPX (Sequenced Packet Exchange) is a connection-oriented protocol used in Novell NetWare networks, but it is not as widely used as TCP. IP (Internet Protocol) is a connectionless protocol responsible for addressing and routing packets in the Internet Protocol Suite.

10. Which of the following is correct when converting 192 to binary?

00110000

00001100

11000000

00000011b printers

The correct answer is 11000000. When converting 192 to binary, we start by dividing it by 2 repeatedly and noting the remainders. The remainders, from bottom to top, give us the binary representation of the number. In this case, 192 divided by 2 is 96 with a remainder of 0. Dividing 96 by 2 gives us 48 with a remainder of 0. Dividing 48 by 2 gives us 24 with a remainder of 0. Dividing 24 by 2 gives us 12 with a remainder of 0. Dividing 12 by 2 gives us 6 with a remainder of 0. Dividing 6 by 2 gives us 3 with a remainder of 0. Dividing 3 by 2 gives us 1 with a remainder of 1. Finally, dividing 1 by 2 gives us 0 with a remainder of 1. Putting all the remainders together, we get 11000000.

Explanation

The correct answer is 11000000. When converting 192 to binary, we start by dividing it by 2 repeatedly and noting the remainders. The remainders, from bottom to top, give us the binary representation of the number. In this case, 192 divided by 2 is 96 with a remainder of 0. Dividing 96 by 2 gives us 48 with a remainder of 0. Dividing 48 by 2 gives us 24 with a remainder of 0. Dividing 24 by 2 gives us 12 with a remainder of 0. Dividing 12 by 2 gives us 6 with a remainder of 0. Dividing 6 by 2 gives us 3 with a remainder of 0. Dividing 3 by 2 gives us 1 with a remainder of 1. Finally, dividing 1 by 2 gives us 0 with a remainder of 1. Putting all the remainders together, we get 11000000.

11. A technician is not able to ping a server by the FQDN but can by the IP. Which of the following should the technician check?

Ensure that WINS is configured

Ensure that the DNS is configured

Ensure the MAC address is correct

Ensure that the IP address is correct

The technician should check if the DNS is configured correctly because the FQDN (Fully Qualified Domain Name) is used to resolve domain names to IP addresses. If the technician is unable to ping the server using the FQDN but can do so using the IP address, it suggests that there may be an issue with the DNS configuration. The DNS translates the FQDN into the corresponding IP address, so if it is not configured properly, the server cannot be reached using the FQDN.

Explanation

The technician should check if the DNS is configured correctly because the FQDN (Fully Qualified Domain Name) is used to resolve domain names to IP addresses. If the technician is unable to ping the server using the FQDN but can do so using the IP address, it suggests that there may be an issue with the DNS configuration. The DNS translates the FQDN into the corresponding IP address, so if it is not configured properly, the server cannot be reached using the FQDN.

12. Which of the following is the default port for POP3?

21

80

110

25

The correct answer is 110. POP3 (Post Office Protocol version 3) is a protocol used for retrieving emails from a mail server. The default port for POP3 is 110. It is important to know the default port number when configuring email clients or troubleshooting email connectivity issues.

Explanation

The correct answer is 110. POP3 (Post Office Protocol version 3) is a protocol used for retrieving emails from a mail server. The default port for POP3 is 110. It is important to know the default port number when configuring email clients or troubleshooting email connectivity issues.

13. A scanner has determined the open ports on a network device. Assuming services are running on their default ports, which of the following ports will provide secure communications?

69

143

67

443

Port 443 is the correct answer because it is the default port for secure HTTP (HTTPS) communication. This port is commonly used for secure online transactions, such as e-commerce websites, online banking, and secure email communication. It uses SSL/TLS protocols to encrypt the data transmitted between the client and the server, ensuring secure and private communication.

Explanation

Port 443 is the correct answer because it is the default port for secure HTTP (HTTPS) communication. This port is commonly used for secure online transactions, such as e-commerce websites, online banking, and secure email communication. It uses SSL/TLS protocols to encrypt the data transmitted between the client and the server, ensuring secure and private communication.

14. 221.17.101.223/28 is an example of which kind of notation?

CIDR

DNS

Port Number

ARP

221.17.101.223/28 is an example of CIDR (Classless Inter-Domain Routing) notation. CIDR notation is used to represent IP addresses and their associated network prefixes. In this notation, the IP address is followed by a forward slash and the number of significant bits in the network prefix. In this case, the network prefix is /28, indicating that the first 28 bits of the IP address are the network address, while the remaining 4 bits are used for host addresses.

Explanation

221.17.101.223/28 is an example of CIDR (Classless Inter-Domain Routing) notation. CIDR notation is used to represent IP addresses and their associated network prefixes. In this notation, the IP address is followed by a forward slash and the number of significant bits in the network prefix. In this case, the network prefix is /28, indicating that the first 28 bits of the IP address are the network address, while the remaining 4 bits are used for host addresses.

15. A company is getting a new sales system that must remain secure and isolated. The network administrator needs to segregate network traffic for security reasons. Currently there is one addressing scheme 10.2.10.x, with a subnet mask of 255.255.255.0.Which of the following methods would BEST help in segregating the traffic?

Implementing a dedicated broadcast network

Implementing a dedicated multicast network

Changing the IP scheme to class C addresses

Creating a new subnet for this system

Creating a new subnet for this system would be the best method to segregate the network traffic. By creating a new subnet, the network administrator can separate the traffic for the new sales system from the rest of the network. This provides a higher level of security and isolation for the sales system, ensuring that it remains secure and protected.

Explanation

Creating a new subnet for this system would be the best method to segregate the network traffic. By creating a new subnet, the network administrator can separate the traffic for the new sales system from the rest of the network. This provides a higher level of security and isolation for the sales system, ensuring that it remains secure and protected.

16. Which of the following documentation would a network administrator need to update if they have just finished upgrading the firmware on all the switches within the LAN?

Wiring schematics

Logical network diagram

Physical network diagram

Baseline and configuration documentation

After upgrading the firmware on all the switches within the LAN, the network administrator would need to update the baseline and configuration documentation. This documentation contains the baseline configuration settings and any changes made to the network devices. By updating this documentation, the network administrator ensures that it accurately reflects the current state of the network after the firmware upgrade. This documentation is crucial for troubleshooting, future upgrades, and maintaining the network infrastructure.

Explanation

After upgrading the firmware on all the switches within the LAN, the network administrator would need to update the baseline and configuration documentation. This documentation contains the baseline configuration settings and any changes made to the network devices. By updating this documentation, the network administrator ensures that it accurately reflects the current state of the network after the firmware upgrade. This documentation is crucial for troubleshooting, future upgrades, and maintaining the network infrastructure.

17. A technician is sent to troubleshoot a connectivity issue on A company's web server. Which of the following is the NEXT step after verifying that one of the NICs has no LEDs flashing?

Re-install application.

Check for hardware conflicts or disabled devices.

Re-install drivers.

Check system properties for correct caching settings.

After verifying that one of the NICs has no LEDs flashing, the next step would be to check for hardware conflicts or disabled devices. This is important because it could indicate a problem with the network interface card or other hardware components that are causing the connectivity issue. By checking for hardware conflicts or disabled devices, the technician can identify any potential issues and resolve them to restore connectivity to the web server.

Explanation

After verifying that one of the NICs has no LEDs flashing, the next step would be to check for hardware conflicts or disabled devices. This is important because it could indicate a problem with the network interface card or other hardware components that are causing the connectivity issue. By checking for hardware conflicts or disabled devices, the technician can identify any potential issues and resolve them to restore connectivity to the web server.

18. A technician wants to see how many server connections are open on a client machine. Which of the following is the command to see these connections?

Dig

Netstat

Nslookup

Arp

Netstat is the correct command to see the open server connections on a client machine. Netstat (network statistics) is a command-line tool that displays active network connections, listening ports, and routing tables. It provides information about the network connections established by the computer, including the protocol used, local and remote IP addresses, and the state of the connection. By using the netstat command, the technician can easily view the open server connections on the client machine.

Explanation

Netstat is the correct command to see the open server connections on a client machine. Netstat (network statistics) is a command-line tool that displays active network connections, listening ports, and routing tables. It provides information about the network connections established by the computer, including the protocol used, local and remote IP addresses, and the state of the connection. By using the netstat command, the technician can easily view the open server connections on the client machine.

19. Which of the following network devices filters packets based on rules that have been configured for it?

Layer 2 switch

Firewall

Hub

Bridge

A firewall is a network device that filters packets based on rules that have been configured for it. It acts as a barrier between a trusted internal network and an untrusted external network, controlling the incoming and outgoing network traffic. By examining the source and destination addresses, ports, and protocols of each packet, the firewall can enforce security policies and block or allow traffic accordingly. This filtering capability allows the firewall to protect the network from unauthorized access, malicious attacks, and unwanted traffic.

Explanation

A firewall is a network device that filters packets based on rules that have been configured for it. It acts as a barrier between a trusted internal network and an untrusted external network, controlling the incoming and outgoing network traffic. By examining the source and destination addresses, ports, and protocols of each packet, the firewall can enforce security policies and block or allow traffic accordingly. This filtering capability allows the firewall to protect the network from unauthorized access, malicious attacks, and unwanted traffic.

20. Which of the following is a function of a NIC?

It filters frame packets

It captures keystrokes

It sends data to NonVolatile RAM

It transceives digital data

A NIC (Network Interface Card) is responsible for connecting a computer to a network. One of its main functions is to transceive digital data, meaning it both sends and receives data between the computer and the network. This allows the computer to communicate with other devices on the network and access the internet. The other options listed, such as filtering frame packets, capturing keystrokes, and sending data to NonVolatile RAM, are not functions typically performed by a NIC.

Explanation

A NIC (Network Interface Card) is responsible for connecting a computer to a network. One of its main functions is to transceive digital data, meaning it both sends and receives data between the computer and the network. This allows the computer to communicate with other devices on the network and access the internet. The other options listed, such as filtering frame packets, capturing keystrokes, and sending data to NonVolatile RAM, are not functions typically performed by a NIC.

21. A user reports that when the phone rings in their house the wireless on their laptops becomes disconnected. Which of the following BEST describes the issue?

The cordless phones are 2.4Ghz which interferes with wireless

The cordless phones are plugged into the RJ-11 jack

The cordless phones are 5.8Ghz which interferes with wireless

The cordless phones are plugged into same outlet as the router

The 2.4Ghz frequency used by the cordless phones is causing interference with the wireless connection on the laptops.

Explanation

The 2.4Ghz frequency used by the cordless phones is causing interference with the wireless connection on the laptops.

22. Which of the following would limit the availability of the types of sites that users on a LAN have access to?

A DNS server

A proxy server

A DC server

A DHCP server

A proxy server can limit the availability of the types of sites that users on a LAN have access to by acting as an intermediary between the users and the internet. It can be configured to block certain websites or categories of websites, effectively restricting the access of users to those sites. By filtering and controlling the traffic that passes through it, a proxy server can enforce access policies and prevent users from accessing specific websites or content.

Explanation

A proxy server can limit the availability of the types of sites that users on a LAN have access to by acting as an intermediary between the users and the internet. It can be configured to block certain websites or categories of websites, effectively restricting the access of users to those sites. By filtering and controlling the traffic that passes through it, a proxy server can enforce access policies and prevent users from accessing specific websites or content.

23. A network administrator is configuring a server to provide file sharing for offices across the company. Which of the following addresses would be acceptable to set on a device?

255.255.255.255

192.168.0.255

192.168.0.25

192.255.255.255

The IP address 192.168.0.25 would be acceptable to set on a device because it falls within the range of private IP addresses (192.168.0.0 to 192.168.255.255) which are commonly used for local area networks (LANs). This address can be assigned to a device in the office network to provide file sharing services.

Explanation

The IP address 192.168.0.25 would be acceptable to set on a device because it falls within the range of private IP addresses (192.168.0.0 to 192.168.255.255) which are commonly used for local area networks (LANs). This address can be assigned to a device in the office network to provide file sharing services.

24. Which of the following is an example of a valid MAC address for a workstation?

05:14:K9:07:B2:M4

FFFF.FFFF.FFFF

00:08:38:05:B5:F4

131.44.32.255

The given MAC address, 00:08:38:05:B5:F4, is a valid MAC address for a workstation. MAC addresses are unique identifiers assigned to network interfaces, and they consist of six groups of two hexadecimal digits separated by colons. The given MAC address follows this format and contains valid hexadecimal digits (0-9 and A-F). Therefore, it is a valid MAC address for a workstation.

Explanation

The given MAC address, 00:08:38:05:B5:F4, is a valid MAC address for a workstation. MAC addresses are unique identifiers assigned to network interfaces, and they consist of six groups of two hexadecimal digits separated by colons. The given MAC address follows this format and contains valid hexadecimal digits (0-9 and A-F). Therefore, it is a valid MAC address for a workstation.

25. Users are reporting that they can access Internet web pages but cannot access the internal company website. Which of the following is the MOST likely source of the problem?

The intranet server is down.

The intranet DNS entry isnonauthoritative.

The DNS address handed out by DHCP is incorrect.

The default gateway is incorrect.

Based on the information provided, the most likely source of the problem is that the intranet server is down. This is because users are able to access Internet web pages, which suggests that their internet connection is working fine. However, they are unable to access the internal company website, indicating that the issue lies with the internal server.

Explanation

Based on the information provided, the most likely source of the problem is that the intranet server is down. This is because users are able to access Internet web pages, which suggests that their internet connection is working fine. However, they are unable to access the internal company website, indicating that the issue lies with the internal server.

26. Which of the following devices allows segregation of collision domains but not broadcasting domains?

NIC

SWITCH

Hub

Router

A switch allows segregation of collision domains but not broadcasting domains. A collision domain is a network segment where collisions can occur if multiple devices try to transmit data at the same time. A switch creates separate collision domains for each of its ports, reducing the likelihood of collisions. On the other hand, a broadcasting domain is a network segment where broadcast messages are sent to all connected devices. Switches do not limit the broadcasting domain, as they forward broadcast messages to all connected devices. Therefore, a switch allows for the separation of collision domains while still allowing broadcast messages to be sent to all devices.

Explanation

A switch allows segregation of collision domains but not broadcasting domains. A collision domain is a network segment where collisions can occur if multiple devices try to transmit data at the same time. A switch creates separate collision domains for each of its ports, reducing the likelihood of collisions. On the other hand, a broadcasting domain is a network segment where broadcast messages are sent to all connected devices. Switches do not limit the broadcasting domain, as they forward broadcast messages to all connected devices. Therefore, a switch allows for the separation of collision domains while still allowing broadcast messages to be sent to all devices.

27. A network technician is assigned the task of connecting two switches in two different wiring closets. Which of the following cable types is the appropriate choice?

Crossover

Loopback

568A

Rollover

A crossover cable is the appropriate choice for connecting two switches in two different wiring closets. This type of cable allows for direct communication between the switches without the need for a separate network device, such as a hub or a router. It is designed to connect similar devices, such as two switches or two computers, by crossing over the transmit and receive wires. This enables the switches to send and receive data effectively, creating a direct link between them.

Explanation

A crossover cable is the appropriate choice for connecting two switches in two different wiring closets. This type of cable allows for direct communication between the switches without the need for a separate network device, such as a hub or a router. It is designed to connect similar devices, such as two switches or two computers, by crossing over the transmit and receive wires. This enables the switches to send and receive data effectively, creating a direct link between them.

28. A computer configured to use DHCP cannot locate a DHCP server. Automatic Private IP Address (APIPA)will assign which of the following addresses?

172.16.1.25

192.168.1.25

169.254.1.25

10.16.1.25

When a computer configured to use DHCP cannot locate a DHCP server, it will assign an Automatic Private IP Address (APIPA). APIPA uses the range of 169.254.0.0 to 169.254.255.255 for assigning IP addresses. Therefore, the correct answer is 169.254.1.25.

Explanation

When a computer configured to use DHCP cannot locate a DHCP server, it will assign an Automatic Private IP Address (APIPA). APIPA uses the range of 169.254.0.0 to 169.254.255.255 for assigning IP addresses. Therefore, the correct answer is 169.254.1.25.

29. Which of the following uses pointer records and A records?

NAT server

IPS

DNS server

IDS

A DNS server uses pointer records (PTR) and A records to map domain names to IP addresses and vice versa. A PTR record is used to map an IP address to a domain name, while an A record is used to map a domain name to an IP address. This allows the DNS server to translate human-readable domain names into machine-readable IP addresses, enabling communication between devices on a network.

Explanation

A DNS server uses pointer records (PTR) and A records to map domain names to IP addresses and vice versa. A PTR record is used to map an IP address to a domain name, while an A record is used to map a domain name to an IP address. This allows the DNS server to translate human-readable domain names into machine-readable IP addresses, enabling communication between devices on a network.

30. Which of the following network protocols is needed to ensure that users can type in a FQDN instead of the IP address?

DNS

WINS

IMAP4

FTP

DNS (Domain Name System) is the correct answer. DNS is a network protocol that translates domain names (FQDN - Fully Qualified Domain Names) into IP addresses. It allows users to type in a FQDN instead of the IP address when accessing websites or other network resources. DNS maintains a database of domain names and their corresponding IP addresses, making it easier for users to navigate the internet. WINS (Windows Internet Name Service) is a similar protocol used in older Windows networks, but DNS is the more commonly used and widely supported protocol. IMAP4 and FTP are unrelated protocols used for email and file transfer respectively.

Explanation

DNS (Domain Name System) is the correct answer. DNS is a network protocol that translates domain names (FQDN - Fully Qualified Domain Names) into IP addresses. It allows users to type in a FQDN instead of the IP address when accessing websites or other network resources. DNS maintains a database of domain names and their corresponding IP addresses, making it easier for users to navigate the internet. WINS (Windows Internet Name Service) is a similar protocol used in older Windows networks, but DNS is the more commonly used and widely supported protocol. IMAP4 and FTP are unrelated protocols used for email and file transfer respectively.

31. Which of the following layers of the OSI model does a network router perform traffic routing at?

Layer 3

Layer 4

Layer 2

Layer 5

A network router performs traffic routing at Layer 3 of the OSI model. Layer 3, also known as the network layer, is responsible for logical addressing and routing of data packets between different networks. Routers use IP addresses to determine the best path for forwarding packets to their destination. By examining the IP header, routers are able to make decisions on how to direct traffic based on network conditions and routing tables. Therefore, Layer 3 is the correct answer for this question.

Explanation

A network router performs traffic routing at Layer 3 of the OSI model. Layer 3, also known as the network layer, is responsible for logical addressing and routing of data packets between different networks. Routers use IP addresses to determine the best path for forwarding packets to their destination. By examining the IP header, routers are able to make decisions on how to direct traffic based on network conditions and routing tables. Therefore, Layer 3 is the correct answer for this question.

32. Which of the following is found in a layer two switch?

SSID settings

Routing protocols

DNS zones

VLAN settings

A layer two switch is responsible for forwarding data packets based on the MAC addresses. VLAN settings are typically found in a layer two switch. VLANs (Virtual Local Area Networks) allow for the segmentation and isolation of network traffic, improving network performance and security. By configuring VLAN settings on a layer two switch, network administrators can group devices into separate virtual networks, ensuring that traffic is only sent to intended recipients within the same VLAN. This helps to optimize network resources and enhance network management capabilities.

Explanation

A layer two switch is responsible for forwarding data packets based on the MAC addresses. VLAN settings are typically found in a layer two switch. VLANs (Virtual Local Area Networks) allow for the segmentation and isolation of network traffic, improving network performance and security. By configuring VLAN settings on a layer two switch, network administrators can group devices into separate virtual networks, ensuring that traffic is only sent to intended recipients within the same VLAN. This helps to optimize network resources and enhance network management capabilities.

33. Which of the following is a utility that translates the IP address to its physical network address?

Netstat

Arp

Rarp

Nslookup

The Address Resolution Protocol (ARP) is a utility that translates the IP address to its physical network address. It is used to map an IP address to a physical address (MAC address) on a local network. ARP is responsible for finding the MAC address of a device through its IP address, allowing communication between devices on the same network.

Explanation

The Address Resolution Protocol (ARP) is a utility that translates the IP address to its physical network address. It is used to map an IP address to a physical address (MAC address) on a local network. ARP is responsible for finding the MAC address of a device through its IP address, allowing communication between devices on the same network.

34. A technician needs to trace a wire that is in the wall. Which of the following is the BEST way for the technician to identify the wires location?

Media Tester

Continuity Tester

Tone Generator

Multimeter

A tone generator is the best way for a technician to identify the location of a wire in the wall. A tone generator is a device that can send a signal through the wire, producing an audible tone that can be detected using a tone probe. This allows the technician to follow the tone and trace the wire's path, even if it is hidden inside the wall. A media tester, continuity tester, and multimeter may have other uses in troubleshooting electrical systems, but they are not specifically designed for locating wires in walls.

Explanation

A tone generator is the best way for a technician to identify the location of a wire in the wall. A tone generator is a device that can send a signal through the wire, producing an audible tone that can be detected using a tone probe. This allows the technician to follow the tone and trace the wire's path, even if it is hidden inside the wall. A media tester, continuity tester, and multimeter may have other uses in troubleshooting electrical systems, but they are not specifically designed for locating wires in walls.

35. A user is trying to establish an FTP connection to a computer at home. The home computer is turned on and has Internet connectivity? however, they are unable to connect from the PC at work. The IP address that the user is trying to connect to is 192.168.1.125.Which of the following is the MOST likely problem?

The firewall at the office is blocking the outgoing connection.

FTP client is not installed in the work computer.

FTP server is not installed on the home computer.

The IP address of the home computer is not routable across the Internet.

The IP address 192.168.1.125 is a private IP address, which means it is not routable across the Internet. Private IP addresses are meant for local networks and cannot be directly accessed from the Internet. Therefore, the user is unable to establish an FTP connection to the home computer because the IP address is not routable.

Explanation

The IP address 192.168.1.125 is a private IP address, which means it is not routable across the Internet. Private IP addresses are meant for local networks and cannot be directly accessed from the Internet. Therefore, the user is unable to establish an FTP connection to the home computer because the IP address is not routable.

36. Which of the following protocols operates at the transport layer of the OSI model and is responsible for providing reliable, connection-oriented communication between applications?

ICMP

DHCP

TCP

ARP

TCP (Transmission Control Protocol) is a core protocol of the internet protocol suite. It ensures reliable data delivery through mechanisms like sequencing, acknowledgments, and flow control. This makes it suitable for applications that require guaranteed delivery of data, such as web browsing and file transfer.

Explanation

TCP (Transmission Control Protocol) is a core protocol of the internet protocol suite. It ensures reliable data delivery through mechanisms like sequencing, acknowledgments, and flow control. This makes it suitable for applications that require guaranteed delivery of data, such as web browsing and file transfer.

37. Which of the following routing protocols uses the next hop metric in deciding how to route traffic?

RIP

BGP

IGP

IS-IS

RIP (Routing Information Protocol) uses the next hop metric in deciding how to route traffic. RIP is a distance-vector routing protocol that uses hop count as its metric. Each router in the network maintains a routing table with the number of hops required to reach each destination network. When a router receives an update from a neighboring router, it compares the hop count metric and chooses the route with the lowest metric as the next hop for routing traffic. Therefore, RIP uses the next hop metric to determine the best path for routing traffic.

Explanation

RIP (Routing Information Protocol) uses the next hop metric in deciding how to route traffic. RIP is a distance-vector routing protocol that uses hop count as its metric. Each router in the network maintains a routing table with the number of hops required to reach each destination network. When a router receives an update from a neighboring router, it compares the hop count metric and chooses the route with the lowest metric as the next hop for routing traffic. Therefore, RIP uses the next hop metric to determine the best path for routing traffic.

38. A network technician has been asked to retrieve device statistics, information, and errors. Which of the following tools would the technician likely use?

TFTP

Packet sniffer

SNMP

SMTP

The network technician would likely use SNMP (Simple Network Management Protocol) to retrieve device statistics, information, and errors. SNMP is a protocol used for managing and monitoring network devices. It allows the technician to gather information from devices such as routers, switches, and servers, including performance data, error logs, and configuration details. By using SNMP, the technician can efficiently monitor and troubleshoot the network infrastructure.

Explanation

The network technician would likely use SNMP (Simple Network Management Protocol) to retrieve device statistics, information, and errors. SNMP is a protocol used for managing and monitoring network devices. It allows the technician to gather information from devices such as routers, switches, and servers, including performance data, error logs, and configuration details. By using SNMP, the technician can efficiently monitor and troubleshoot the network infrastructure.

39. On a Windows network, users are reporting that they cannot access any network resources. The userscan ping the IP address and connect to the network resource using the IP address. Which of the following is the cause of the problem?

The domain controller is not responding.

The DNS server is not resolving correctly.

The DHCP server is not assigning correct IP addresses.

The file server is offline.

The given answer is correct because the users are able to ping the IP address and connect to the network resource using the IP address, which indicates that the network connection is functioning properly. However, they are unable to access network resources by their hostname, suggesting a DNS resolution issue. DNS is responsible for resolving domain names to IP addresses, so if the DNS server is not resolving correctly, it would prevent users from accessing network resources by their hostname.

Explanation

The given answer is correct because the users are able to ping the IP address and connect to the network resource using the IP address, which indicates that the network connection is functioning properly. However, they are unable to access network resources by their hostname, suggesting a DNS resolution issue. DNS is responsible for resolving domain names to IP addresses, so if the DNS server is not resolving correctly, it would prevent users from accessing network resources by their hostname.

40. Which of the following cables has a solid Kevlar center to restrict it from making a 90 degree bend?

CAT6

CAT5

CAT5e

CAT3

CAT6 cables have a solid Kevlar center to restrict them from making a 90-degree bend. Kevlar is a strong and durable material that helps to maintain the shape and integrity of the cable, preventing it from bending too much. This is important because excessive bending can cause signal loss or damage to the cable. CAT6 cables are designed for high-speed data transmission and require more stringent specifications compared to CAT5, CAT5e, and CAT3 cables.

Explanation

CAT6 cables have a solid Kevlar center to restrict them from making a 90-degree bend. Kevlar is a strong and durable material that helps to maintain the shape and integrity of the cable, preventing it from bending too much. This is important because excessive bending can cause signal loss or damage to the cable. CAT6 cables are designed for high-speed data transmission and require more stringent specifications compared to CAT5, CAT5e, and CAT3 cables.

41. A technician is dispatched to a remote office to install a new NIC in a client computer. After successfully installing and configuring the operating system to recognize the device, the computer still cannot access the network. Which of the following would MOST likely be the problem?

The CAT5 cable is defective

The NIC is disabled in BIOS

The NIC is disabled in Device Manager

The RJ-11 jack is defective

The most likely problem is that the CAT5 cable is defective. Even though the NIC has been successfully installed and configured, if the cable connecting the computer to the network is defective, it will prevent the computer from accessing the network. The other options - NIC disabled in BIOS, NIC disabled in Device Manager, and defective RJ-11 jack - would not prevent the computer from accessing the network if the cable is functioning properly.

Explanation

The most likely problem is that the CAT5 cable is defective. Even though the NIC has been successfully installed and configured, if the cable connecting the computer to the network is defective, it will prevent the computer from accessing the network. The other options - NIC disabled in BIOS, NIC disabled in Device Manager, and defective RJ-11 jack - would not prevent the computer from accessing the network if the cable is functioning properly.

42. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of a wireless connection dropoff in a wireless G network?

Cellular interference

AM Radio

Cordless phones

FM Radio

Cordless phones are the most likely cause of a wireless connection dropoff in a wireless G network. Cordless phones operate on similar frequencies as wireless networks, and their signals can interfere with the Wi-Fi signal, causing the connection to drop. This interference can disrupt the communication between the wireless router and the connected devices, resulting in a dropoff in the wireless connection.

Explanation

Cordless phones are the most likely cause of a wireless connection dropoff in a wireless G network. Cordless phones operate on similar frequencies as wireless networks, and their signals can interfere with the Wi-Fi signal, causing the connection to drop. This interference can disrupt the communication between the wireless router and the connected devices, resulting in a dropoff in the wireless connection.

43. After deploying three large additional servers in a rack there are reports of network instability and other issues across all servers in the rack. It has been verified that there is sufficient power resources and network bandwidth. Which of the following should the technician check NEXT?

Cable tester

Certifier

Temperature monitor

Multimeter

The technician should check the temperature monitor next. The deployment of three large additional servers in the rack may have caused an increase in heat generation, leading to network instability and other issues. Monitoring the temperature will help identify if the servers are overheating, which can affect their performance and stability.

Explanation

The technician should check the temperature monitor next. The deployment of three large additional servers in the rack may have caused an increase in heat generation, leading to network instability and other issues. Monitoring the temperature will help identify if the servers are overheating, which can affect their performance and stability.

44. Which of the following are features of a DHCP server? (Select TWO)

Transferring files over the network

Dynamic IP addressing

Static IP address reservations

Resolving IP addresses to canonical names

Secure shell connections

A DHCP server is responsible for assigning IP addresses dynamically to devices on a network. This allows devices to obtain an IP address automatically without manual configuration. It also ensures efficient use of IP addresses by leasing them for a specific period of time and reclaiming them when they are no longer needed. Additionally, a DHCP server can provide static IP address reservations, which allow specific devices to always receive the same IP address. This is useful for devices that require a consistent IP address for services such as port forwarding or network printing.

Explanation

A DHCP server is responsible for assigning IP addresses dynamically to devices on a network. This allows devices to obtain an IP address automatically without manual configuration. It also ensures efficient use of IP addresses by leasing them for a specific period of time and reclaiming them when they are no longer needed. Additionally, a DHCP server can provide static IP address reservations, which allow specific devices to always receive the same IP address. This is useful for devices that require a consistent IP address for services such as port forwarding or network printing.

Submit

45. Which of the following is a disadvantage of static routing?

Unresponsive to changes.

High network utilization due to updates.

RIP updates will need to be transmitted via TCP.

Packet destination cannot be controlled.

Static routing is a method of network routing where the routes are manually configured by the network administrator. The disadvantage of static routing is that it is unresponsive to changes. This means that if there is a change in the network topology or a link failure, the static routes will not automatically update and the network will not be able to adapt to the new conditions. This can lead to suboptimal routing and network connectivity issues.

Explanation

Static routing is a method of network routing where the routes are manually configured by the network administrator. The disadvantage of static routing is that it is unresponsive to changes. This means that if there is a change in the network topology or a link failure, the static routes will not automatically update and the network will not be able to adapt to the new conditions. This can lead to suboptimal routing and network connectivity issues.

46. A company guest is requesting to use their personal laptop on the company wireless network. DHCP is configured correctly for wireless and a temporary WEP key is assigned. The laptop cannot connect to the network because:

This laptop is enabled for both 802.11b and 802.11g.

DNS server is not working properly.

The network is out of wireless connections.

MAC filtering is enabled on the WAP.

The laptop cannot connect to the network because MAC filtering is enabled on the WAP. MAC filtering is a security feature that only allows devices with specific MAC addresses to connect to the wireless network. Since the laptop's MAC address is not included in the list of allowed devices, it is unable to connect.

Explanation

The laptop cannot connect to the network because MAC filtering is enabled on the WAP. MAC filtering is a security feature that only allows devices with specific MAC addresses to connect to the wireless network. Since the laptop's MAC address is not included in the list of allowed devices, it is unable to connect.

47. Which of the following is port 123 commonly used for?

IMAP4

HTTPS

NTP

DNS

Port 123 is commonly used for NTP (Network Time Protocol). NTP is a protocol used for synchronizing the time on network devices. It allows devices to accurately maintain the same time by synchronizing with a time server. Port 123 is used for NTP communication between the client and the server.

Explanation

Port 123 is commonly used for NTP (Network Time Protocol). NTP is a protocol used for synchronizing the time on network devices. It allows devices to accurately maintain the same time by synchronizing with a time server. Port 123 is used for NTP communication between the client and the server.

48. Which of the following tools would be used to determine if the connection is punched down and there is noise coming across the cable?

Multimeter

Cable tester

Voltage event recorder

Protocol analyzer

A cable tester would be used to determine if the connection is punched down and there is noise coming across the cable. A cable tester is a tool specifically designed to test the integrity of network and communication cables. It can check for continuity, shorts, and other faults in the cable. By using a cable tester, one can easily identify if the connection is properly punched down and if there is any noise or interference present on the cable. This tool is commonly used by technicians to troubleshoot and maintain network connections.

Explanation

A cable tester would be used to determine if the connection is punched down and there is noise coming across the cable. A cable tester is a tool specifically designed to test the integrity of network and communication cables. It can check for continuity, shorts, and other faults in the cable. By using a cable tester, one can easily identify if the connection is properly punched down and if there is any noise or interference present on the cable. This tool is commonly used by technicians to troubleshoot and maintain network connections.

49. Which of the following tools would be used to establish a connection on a wall jack to connect to the desktop?

Multimeter

Snips

Punch down tool

Cable stripper

A punch down tool is used to establish a connection on a wall jack to connect to the desktop. This tool is specifically designed to terminate or connect wires to a punch down block or keystone jack. It allows for quick and efficient installation of network cables by securely seating the wires into the appropriate slots or terminals. The punch down tool ensures a reliable and stable connection between the wall jack and the desktop, enabling data transmission and network connectivity.

Explanation

A punch down tool is used to establish a connection on a wall jack to connect to the desktop. This tool is specifically designed to terminate or connect wires to a punch down block or keystone jack. It allows for quick and efficient installation of network cables by securely seating the wires into the appropriate slots or terminals. The punch down tool ensures a reliable and stable connection between the wall jack and the desktop, enabling data transmission and network connectivity.

50. Which of the following is part of the TCP/IP protocol suite?

UDP

IPX

NetBEUI

SPX

UDP (User Datagram Protocol) is indeed part of the TCP/IP protocol suite. TCP/IP is a set of protocols that allows computers to communicate over a network, and UDP is one of the protocols within this suite. It is a connectionless protocol that provides a simple and lightweight way to transmit data packets between devices. Unlike TCP, UDP does not provide reliable delivery or error checking, making it suitable for applications where speed and efficiency are more important than data integrity, such as streaming media or online gaming.

Explanation

UDP (User Datagram Protocol) is indeed part of the TCP/IP protocol suite. TCP/IP is a set of protocols that allows computers to communicate over a network, and UDP is one of the protocols within this suite. It is a connectionless protocol that provides a simple and lightweight way to transmit data packets between devices. Unlike TCP, UDP does not provide reliable delivery or error checking, making it suitable for applications where speed and efficiency are more important than data integrity, such as streaming media or online gaming.

51. DNS services are in a failed state on a network. Some users require FQDN to access specific services. A temporary solution would be to:

Create a local host file on the PC.

Release and renew DHCP.

Change the IP address of the specific services needed.

Change all domain relationships to WINS.

When DNS services are in a failed state on a network, creating a local host file on the PC can provide a temporary solution. A host file contains mappings of IP addresses to domain names, allowing the PC to resolve domain names locally without relying on DNS. By adding the necessary mappings to the host file, users can access specific services using their FQDNs even when DNS services are not functioning properly. This bypasses the need for DNS resolution and allows the PC to directly resolve the domain names using the information in the host file.

Explanation

When DNS services are in a failed state on a network, creating a local host file on the PC can provide a temporary solution. A host file contains mappings of IP addresses to domain names, allowing the PC to resolve domain names locally without relying on DNS. By adding the necessary mappings to the host file, users can access specific services using their FQDNs even when DNS services are not functioning properly. This bypasses the need for DNS resolution and allows the PC to directly resolve the domain names using the information in the host file.

52. Which of the following is the purpose of a packet sniffer?

Checks the route to a remote host.

Views network datagrams.

Verifies if a service is running on a remote host.

Verifies name to IP address resolution.

A packet sniffer is a tool used to capture and analyze network traffic. It allows users to view network datagrams, which are packets of data that are transmitted over a network. By capturing and analyzing these datagrams, users can gain insights into the network's behavior, identify any issues or anomalies, and troubleshoot network problems. A packet sniffer is not used to check the route to a remote host, verify if a service is running on a remote host, or verify name to IP address resolution.

Explanation

A packet sniffer is a tool used to capture and analyze network traffic. It allows users to view network datagrams, which are packets of data that are transmitted over a network. By capturing and analyzing these datagrams, users can gain insights into the network's behavior, identify any issues or anomalies, and troubleshoot network problems. A packet sniffer is not used to check the route to a remote host, verify if a service is running on a remote host, or verify name to IP address resolution.

53. Which of the following would be used before a technician crimps a connector to a UTP/STP cable?

Multimeter

Punch down tool

Cable tester

Cable stripper

A cable stripper would be used before a technician crimps a connector to a UTP/STP cable. A cable stripper is a tool that is used to remove the outer insulation of the cable, exposing the inner wires. By stripping the cable, the technician can properly insert the wires into the connector before crimping it. This ensures a secure and reliable connection between the cable and the connector.

Explanation

A cable stripper would be used before a technician crimps a connector to a UTP/STP cable. A cable stripper is a tool that is used to remove the outer insulation of the cable, exposing the inner wires. By stripping the cable, the technician can properly insert the wires into the connector before crimping it. This ensures a secure and reliable connection between the cable and the connector.

54. When determining responsibility for repair and maintenance of a T1, up to which of the following points is the local exchange carrier responsible for?

The smart jack

The central office

The point of demarcation

The router

The local exchange carrier is responsible for repair and maintenance up to the point of demarcation. The point of demarcation is the physical location where the responsibility for the telecommunications line shifts from the service provider to the customer. This means that any issues or repairs beyond the point of demarcation are the customer's responsibility. The smart jack, central office, and router are all components that may be located beyond the point of demarcation, and therefore, are not the responsibility of the local exchange carrier.

Explanation

The local exchange carrier is responsible for repair and maintenance up to the point of demarcation. The point of demarcation is the physical location where the responsibility for the telecommunications line shifts from the service provider to the customer. This means that any issues or repairs beyond the point of demarcation are the customer's responsibility. The smart jack, central office, and router are all components that may be located beyond the point of demarcation, and therefore, are not the responsibility of the local exchange carrier.

55. How many pairs are crossed in a crossover cable?

Three

Two

One

Four

A crossover cable is used to connect two similar devices, such as two computers or two switches, directly to each other. In this type of cable, the transmit (Tx) and receive (Rx) wires are crossed over, allowing the devices to communicate effectively. As there are only two pairs of wires in a crossover cable, the correct answer is two.

Explanation

A crossover cable is used to connect two similar devices, such as two computers or two switches, directly to each other. In this type of cable, the transmit (Tx) and receive (Rx) wires are crossed over, allowing the devices to communicate effectively. As there are only two pairs of wires in a crossover cable, the correct answer is two.

56. A network technician is installing a series of three access points to cover the entire wing of a building. Each access point has a wired connection and 802.11g is being used for the wireless transmission. Which of the following channels should be used for the access points?

Channels 7-1-1-1

Channels 1-6-11

Channels 1-3-5

Channels 2-4-6

Channels 1, 6, and 11 are the recommended channels to use for 802.11g wireless transmission. These channels do not overlap with each other, allowing for optimal coverage and minimizing interference between the access points. By using these channels, the network technician can ensure that the access points provide reliable and efficient wireless connectivity throughout the entire wing of the building.

Explanation

Channels 1, 6, and 11 are the recommended channels to use for 802.11g wireless transmission. These channels do not overlap with each other, allowing for optimal coverage and minimizing interference between the access points. By using these channels, the network technician can ensure that the access points provide reliable and efficient wireless connectivity throughout the entire wing of the building.

57. A technician is working on a new employees workstation in the accounting department? the workstation needs access to the accounting server. Currently the technician notices that the employee can only access the Internet. Which of the following would the technician need to verify?

Correct VPN setting

Correct VLAN setting

Correct DNS setting

Correct WINS setting

The technician would need to verify the correct VLAN setting. VLANs (Virtual Local Area Networks) are used to logically separate network traffic within a physical network. If the employee can only access the Internet but not the accounting server, it suggests that the workstation is not on the correct VLAN that allows access to the accounting server. By verifying the VLAN setting, the technician can ensure that the workstation is correctly configured to access the accounting server.

Explanation

The technician would need to verify the correct VLAN setting. VLANs (Virtual Local Area Networks) are used to logically separate network traffic within a physical network. If the employee can only access the Internet but not the accounting server, it suggests that the workstation is not on the correct VLAN that allows access to the accounting server. By verifying the VLAN setting, the technician can ensure that the workstation is correctly configured to access the accounting server.

58. Which of the following devices can be remotely looped for troubleshooting purposes?

A 66 block

A 110 block

A smart jack

A patch panel

A smart jack can be remotely looped for troubleshooting purposes. A smart jack is a device used in telecommunications that connects the customer's telephone line to the service provider's network. By remotely looping the smart jack, technicians can simulate a fault in the line and test the connectivity and performance remotely without needing physical access to the location. This allows for efficient troubleshooting and reduces the need for on-site visits, saving time and resources.

Explanation

A smart jack can be remotely looped for troubleshooting purposes. A smart jack is a device used in telecommunications that connects the customer's telephone line to the service provider's network. By remotely looping the smart jack, technicians can simulate a fault in the line and test the connectivity and performance remotely without needing physical access to the location. This allows for efficient troubleshooting and reduces the need for on-site visits, saving time and resources.

59. Which of the following tools will identify if a CAT5e cable is operating at optimal performance?

Toner probe

Multimeter

Certifier

Butt set

A certifier is a tool specifically designed to test and certify the performance of network cables, including CAT5e cables. It can measure various parameters such as signal quality, attenuation, crosstalk, and impedance to ensure that the cable is operating at optimal performance. By using a certifier, network technicians can accurately determine if the CAT5e cable meets the required industry standards and specifications for optimal data transmission.

Explanation

A certifier is a tool specifically designed to test and certify the performance of network cables, including CAT5e cables. It can measure various parameters such as signal quality, attenuation, crosstalk, and impedance to ensure that the cable is operating at optimal performance. By using a certifier, network technicians can accurately determine if the CAT5e cable meets the required industry standards and specifications for optimal data transmission.

60. Which of the following protocols allows email to be viewed while remaining on the email server?

SMTP

SSL

POP3

IMAP4

IMAP4 is the correct answer because it is a protocol that allows email to be viewed while remaining on the email server. Unlike POP3, which downloads emails to the local device, IMAP4 keeps the emails on the server and allows the user to access and manage them remotely. This is useful for users who access their email from multiple devices or who want to keep their emails stored centrally. SMTP is a protocol used for sending emails, while SSL is a security protocol used to encrypt data transmission.

Explanation

IMAP4 is the correct answer because it is a protocol that allows email to be viewed while remaining on the email server. Unlike POP3, which downloads emails to the local device, IMAP4 keeps the emails on the server and allows the user to access and manage them remotely. This is useful for users who access their email from multiple devices or who want to keep their emails stored centrally. SMTP is a protocol used for sending emails, while SSL is a security protocol used to encrypt data transmission.

61. Which of the following BEST describes the use of plenum cable?

Increases the cable signal

Decreases the cable signal

Reduces toxic gas released during a fire

Reduces the amount of EMI going to the cable

Plenum cable is specifically designed to reduce the amount of toxic gas released during a fire. It is commonly used in buildings where air circulation systems pass through the plenum space, which is the area above the drop ceiling or below the raised floor. In the event of a fire, regular cables can release toxic smoke and fumes, posing a significant risk to occupants. Plenum cables are made with fire-retardant materials that minimize the emission of toxic gases, ensuring the safety of individuals during emergencies.

Explanation

Plenum cable is specifically designed to reduce the amount of toxic gas released during a fire. It is commonly used in buildings where air circulation systems pass through the plenum space, which is the area above the drop ceiling or below the raised floor. In the event of a fire, regular cables can release toxic smoke and fumes, posing a significant risk to occupants. Plenum cables are made with fire-retardant materials that minimize the emission of toxic gases, ensuring the safety of individuals during emergencies.

62. Which of the following cable types allows for the maximum cable run distance?

Coaxial

Multi-mode fiber

Single-mode fiber

CAT3

Single-mode fiber allows for the maximum cable run distance compared to the other cable types listed. This is because single-mode fiber has a smaller core size and uses a single beam of light to transmit data, allowing for less signal loss and greater transmission distances. Coaxial cable, multi-mode fiber, and CAT3 cable have larger core sizes and are limited in their transmission distances.

Explanation

Single-mode fiber allows for the maximum cable run distance compared to the other cable types listed. This is because single-mode fiber has a smaller core size and uses a single beam of light to transmit data, allowing for less signal loss and greater transmission distances. Coaxial cable, multi-mode fiber, and CAT3 cable have larger core sizes and are limited in their transmission distances.

63. A router receives a packet with a destination address 72.44.69.254?however, no entry in the routing table exists for the network. Which of the following actions will the router take?

The packet will be queued while the router queries for an acceptable path to the destination.

The packet will be dropped as nonroutable.

The packet will be forwarded out until another router forwards the packet.

The packet will be forwarded to the next hop address of the default route.

When a router receives a packet with a destination address for which no entry exists in the routing table, it will follow the default route. The default route is a preconfigured path that the router uses when it doesn't have a specific route for the destination. In this case, the router will forward the packet to the next hop address specified in the default route, allowing it to reach its destination.

Explanation

When a router receives a packet with a destination address for which no entry exists in the routing table, it will follow the default route. The default route is a preconfigured path that the router uses when it doesn't have a specific route for the destination. In this case, the router will forward the packet to the next hop address specified in the default route, allowing it to reach its destination.

64. A network administrator has just installed a new frame-relay DS3 to connect an office to the corporate datacenter. Users report long load times for large documents hosted on fileservers in the datacenter. Which of the following tests would be MOST useful in identifying the problem?

A penetration test

A throughput test

Ping t

Ping f

A throughput test would be most useful in identifying the problem. A throughput test measures the amount of data that can be transmitted over a network within a given time period. By conducting a throughput test, the network administrator can determine if the network is capable of handling the load of large documents. If the test reveals low throughput, it would indicate that the network is causing the long load times for the users.

Explanation

A throughput test would be most useful in identifying the problem. A throughput test measures the amount of data that can be transmitted over a network within a given time period. By conducting a throughput test, the network administrator can determine if the network is capable of handling the load of large documents. If the test reveals low throughput, it would indicate that the network is causing the long load times for the users.

65. Which of the following is the length of a MAC address?

48bit

32bit

24bit

64bit

A MAC address is a unique identifier assigned to network interfaces for communication on a network. It consists of 48 bits, which are typically represented as a series of six pairs of hexadecimal digits (e.g., 00:1A:2B:3C:4D:5E). This length allows for a large number of possible unique addresses, ensuring that devices on a network can be uniquely identified.

Explanation

A MAC address is a unique identifier assigned to network interfaces for communication on a network. It consists of 48 bits, which are typically represented as a series of six pairs of hexadecimal digits (e.g., 00:1A:2B:3C:4D:5E). This length allows for a large number of possible unique addresses, ensuring that devices on a network can be uniquely identified.

66. All printers on a network are network printers with server hosted queues. A user reports that they cannot print. The dispatched technician verifies that all jobs sent from the users computer to the network printer fail. Which of the following would be an appropriate NEXT step?

Reboot the print server.

Power cycle the switch.

Try the printer from another PC.

Replace the printer.

The appropriate next step would be to try the printer from another PC. By doing this, the technician can determine if the issue is specific to the user's computer or if it is a problem with the printer itself. If the printer works fine from another PC, then the problem is likely with the user's computer and further troubleshooting can be done. If the printer still does not work from another PC, then it may indicate a problem with the printer and further steps can be taken to resolve the issue.

Explanation

The appropriate next step would be to try the printer from another PC. By doing this, the technician can determine if the issue is specific to the user's computer or if it is a problem with the printer itself. If the printer works fine from another PC, then the problem is likely with the user's computer and further troubleshooting can be done. If the printer still does not work from another PC, then it may indicate a problem with the printer and further steps can be taken to resolve the issue.

67. A network administrator has been receiving work orders about poor voice quality crossing a branch T1.The cause is determined to be users running high bandwidth file sharing applications across the T1 sending large packets delaying the smaller voice streams. Which of the following would improve voice quality?

Install a content caching proxy at the branch to reduce inbound WAN traffic.

Configure traffic shaping to reduce the bandwidth available to the file sharing application.

Configure a separate VLAN for the IP phones.

Upgrade switches to provide higher bandwidth ports for workstations and IP phones.

Configuring traffic shaping to reduce the bandwidth available to the file sharing application would improve voice quality. By limiting the bandwidth allocated to the file sharing application, the network administrator can ensure that the voice streams are not delayed by the large packets generated by the file sharing application. This will prioritize the voice traffic and prevent it from being affected by the high bandwidth file sharing application, resulting in improved voice quality.

Explanation

Configuring traffic shaping to reduce the bandwidth available to the file sharing application would improve voice quality. By limiting the bandwidth allocated to the file sharing application, the network administrator can ensure that the voice streams are not delayed by the large packets generated by the file sharing application. This will prioritize the voice traffic and prevent it from being affected by the high bandwidth file sharing application, resulting in improved voice quality.

68. A network engineer for a company has issued the 10.44.210.0/24 network for a branch office. The network administrator for the branch has three separate VLANs for voice, workstations, and servers. There are approximately 50 end user workstations, 50 IP phones that require addressing, and a dozen servers. How should the network administrator use the block allocated to the branch?

Subnet the block into /26s and assign one to each VLAN

Do not subnet the block? use the /24 for all VLANs.

The administrator must request more networks and use the networks given so far for the servers and workstation VLANs.

Subnet the block into /25s and assign one to each voice and workstation VLANs.

The network administrator should subnet the block into /26s and assign one to each VLAN. This will provide enough IP addresses for each VLAN while efficiently utilizing the given block. Subnetting into /26s will create 4 subnets, which is sufficient for the three VLANs (voice, workstations, and servers) and allows for future expansion if needed.

Explanation

The network administrator should subnet the block into /26s and assign one to each VLAN. This will provide enough IP addresses for each VLAN while efficiently utilizing the given block. Subnetting into /26s will create 4 subnets, which is sufficient for the three VLANs (voice, workstations, and servers) and allows for future expansion if needed.

69. Which of the following would a network administrator MOST likely configure on a workstation to block certain websites and ports?

Network-based firewall

Antivirus service

Host-based firewall

Port scanner

A network administrator would most likely configure a host-based firewall on a workstation to block certain websites and ports. A host-based firewall is a software application that runs on an individual computer and can be customized to control inbound and outbound network traffic. By configuring the host-based firewall, the network administrator can specify rules to block access to specific websites and ports, providing an additional layer of security for the workstation.

Explanation

A network administrator would most likely configure a host-based firewall on a workstation to block certain websites and ports. A host-based firewall is a software application that runs on an individual computer and can be customized to control inbound and outbound network traffic. By configuring the host-based firewall, the network administrator can specify rules to block access to specific websites and ports, providing an additional layer of security for the workstation.

70. In the OSI model, which of the following layers would be the cause of a session timeout while browsing the web?

Layer 5

Layer 7

Layer 3

Layer 2

Layer 5 of the OSI model, also known as the Session layer, is responsible for establishing, maintaining, and terminating connections between applications. It manages the session between the client and the server. A session timeout occurs when there is no activity or communication between the client and server for a specified period of time. Therefore, if a session timeout occurs while browsing the web, it is likely caused by an issue at Layer 5, where the session is managed.

Explanation

Layer 5 of the OSI model, also known as the Session layer, is responsible for establishing, maintaining, and terminating connections between applications. It manages the session between the client and the server. A session timeout occurs when there is no activity or communication between the client and server for a specified period of time. Therefore, if a session timeout occurs while browsing the web, it is likely caused by an issue at Layer 5, where the session is managed.

71. The function of a tone generator is to generate a tone to test:

Continuity

Signal strength.

Impedance

Signal feedback.

A tone generator is used to generate a continuous tone, which can be used to test the continuity of a circuit or a cable. It helps in identifying any breaks or interruptions in the flow of electrical current through the circuit. By connecting the tone generator to one end of the circuit and using a probe or a receiver at the other end, one can trace the path of the tone and determine if there are any breaks or faults in the circuit. Therefore, the correct answer is continuity.

Explanation

A tone generator is used to generate a continuous tone, which can be used to test the continuity of a circuit or a cable. It helps in identifying any breaks or interruptions in the flow of electrical current through the circuit. By connecting the tone generator to one end of the circuit and using a probe or a receiver at the other end, one can trace the path of the tone and determine if there are any breaks or faults in the circuit. Therefore, the correct answer is continuity.

72. Which of the following is the standard data transmission rate for an OC3 line?

51.84Mbps

44.74Mbps

622.08Mbps

155.52Mbps

The standard data transmission rate for an OC3 line is 155.52Mbps.

Explanation

The standard data transmission rate for an OC3 line is 155.52Mbps.

73. Which of the following techniques would increase the bandwidth for network transmission by joining together multiple connections into one logical connection?

Bonding

Supernetting

Broadcasting

Traffic shaping

Bonding is a technique that increases the bandwidth for network transmission by combining multiple connections into one logical connection. This allows for increased data transfer rates and improved network performance. By bonding multiple connections, the overall bandwidth is increased, providing faster and more efficient data transmission. This technique is commonly used in scenarios where high bandwidth is required, such as in data centers or for streaming media applications.

Explanation

Bonding is a technique that increases the bandwidth for network transmission by combining multiple connections into one logical connection. This allows for increased data transfer rates and improved network performance. By bonding multiple connections, the overall bandwidth is increased, providing faster and more efficient data transmission. This technique is commonly used in scenarios where high bandwidth is required, such as in data centers or for streaming media applications.

74. Which of the following is a routable public class A address?

10.0.0.255

19.16.18.255

10.0.0.10

19.16.18.1

The answer 19.16.18.1 is a routable public class A address because it falls within the range of 1.0.0.0 to 126.0.0.0, which is reserved for class A network addresses. Class A addresses are used for large networks and can support a large number of devices. The other options, 10.0.0.255 and 10.0.0.10, are private IP addresses from the class A range reserved for internal networks. The address 19.16.18.255 is also not a routable public address as it falls outside the valid range for class A addresses.

Explanation

The answer 19.16.18.1 is a routable public class A address because it falls within the range of 1.0.0.0 to 126.0.0.0, which is reserved for class A network addresses. Class A addresses are used for large networks and can support a large number of devices. The other options, 10.0.0.255 and 10.0.0.10, are private IP addresses from the class A range reserved for internal networks. The address 19.16.18.255 is also not a routable public address as it falls outside the valid range for class A addresses.

75. A technician is extending a data circuit to the other side of the building. Which of the following would the technician set up at the new location?

EMI

MDF

IDF

ESD

The technician would set up an IDF (Intermediate Distribution Frame) at the new location. An IDF is a centralized point where network connections are terminated and distributed to various devices within a building or campus. It allows for easier management and troubleshooting of network connections in a localized area.

Explanation

The technician would set up an IDF (Intermediate Distribution Frame) at the new location. An IDF is a centralized point where network connections are terminated and distributed to various devices within a building or campus. It allows for easier management and troubleshooting of network connections in a localized area.

76. Which of the following tools enables the technician to trace cables in multiple pair wiring?

Cable tester

Multimeter

Butt set

Toner probe

A toner probe is a tool that enables a technician to trace cables in multiple pair wiring. It works by sending a tone through the cable, which can then be detected by a receiver. The technician can use the receiver to follow the tone and locate the specific cable they are looking for. This is especially useful in situations where there are many cables running together and it can be difficult to visually trace them. A toner probe is a common tool used in network and telecommunications installations and troubleshooting.

Explanation

A toner probe is a tool that enables a technician to trace cables in multiple pair wiring. It works by sending a tone through the cable, which can then be detected by a receiver. The technician can use the receiver to follow the tone and locate the specific cable they are looking for. This is especially useful in situations where there are many cables running together and it can be difficult to visually trace them. A toner probe is a common tool used in network and telecommunications installations and troubleshooting.

77. A user is having intermittent problems connecting to their network shares. A network technician is able to determine that there is a problem within the network cabling in between the workstation and the switch. All other users are able to connect successfully to the network. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause?

Patch cable is a crossover cable instead of straight-through.

Cable is not punched down at the punch panel.

Cable has been cut somewhere within the wall.

Crosstalk and interference are occurring.

The most likely cause for the intermittent problems connecting to the network shares is crosstalk and interference. Crosstalk refers to the phenomenon where signals from one cable interfere with signals in another cable, leading to data corruption or loss. Interference can occur due to electromagnetic interference (EMI) from nearby electrical devices or radio frequency interference (RFI) from other wireless devices. These issues can disrupt the transmission of data between the workstation and the switch, resulting in intermittent connectivity problems.

Explanation

The most likely cause for the intermittent problems connecting to the network shares is crosstalk and interference. Crosstalk refers to the phenomenon where signals from one cable interfere with signals in another cable, leading to data corruption or loss. Interference can occur due to electromagnetic interference (EMI) from nearby electrical devices or radio frequency interference (RFI) from other wireless devices. These issues can disrupt the transmission of data between the workstation and the switch, resulting in intermittent connectivity problems.

78. Which of the following access methods is used for wireless medium access?

CSMA / CD

PPPoE

CSMA / CA

PPTP

CSMA/CA (Carrier Sense Multiple Access with Collision Avoidance) is the correct answer. CSMA/CA is a medium access control protocol used in wireless networks to avoid collisions between multiple devices trying to access the same channel simultaneously. It works by requiring devices to first sense the channel and check if it is idle before transmitting data. If the channel is busy, the device waits for a random period of time before attempting to transmit again, reducing the chance of collisions. This method is commonly used in Wi-Fi networks to ensure efficient and reliable communication.

Explanation

CSMA/CA (Carrier Sense Multiple Access with Collision Avoidance) is the correct answer. CSMA/CA is a medium access control protocol used in wireless networks to avoid collisions between multiple devices trying to access the same channel simultaneously. It works by requiring devices to first sense the channel and check if it is idle before transmitting data. If the channel is busy, the device waits for a random period of time before attempting to transmit again, reducing the chance of collisions. This method is commonly used in Wi-Fi networks to ensure efficient and reliable communication.

79. A network technician discovers that the phone company has installed the smart jack in the wrong location. It needs to be moved 75 feet (23 meters) to the computer room. Which of the following should be requested?

A replacement smart jack

A 66 block extension

A demarc extension

A 110 block extension

A demarc extension should be requested in this situation. A demarc extension is used to extend the demarcation point, which is the point where the responsibility for the phone line changes from the phone company to the customer. In this case, the smart jack was installed in the wrong location, so a demarc extension would allow the smart jack to be moved to the correct location in the computer room, 75 feet away. This would ensure that the phone line is properly connected to the customer's equipment in the computer room.

Explanation

A demarc extension should be requested in this situation. A demarc extension is used to extend the demarcation point, which is the point where the responsibility for the phone line changes from the phone company to the customer. In this case, the smart jack was installed in the wrong location, so a demarc extension would allow the smart jack to be moved to the correct location in the computer room, 75 feet away. This would ensure that the phone line is properly connected to the customer's equipment in the computer room.

80. Remote users are having problems accessing files from a file server. Which of the following should a technician check FIRST?

User accounts

Access rights

Network resources

Connectivity

The technician should check connectivity first because if there is a problem with the network connection, it could be causing the remote users to have trouble accessing files from the file server. By checking connectivity, the technician can ensure that there are no issues with the network that could be impacting the ability to access files. Once connectivity is confirmed, the technician can then move on to checking user accounts, access rights, and network resources if necessary.

Explanation

The technician should check connectivity first because if there is a problem with the network connection, it could be causing the remote users to have trouble accessing files from the file server. By checking connectivity, the technician can ensure that there are no issues with the network that could be impacting the ability to access files. Once connectivity is confirmed, the technician can then move on to checking user accounts, access rights, and network resources if necessary.

81. Which of the following is the maximum number of wire pairs that can be used in an RJ-11 connector?

8

2

6

4

An RJ-11 connector is commonly used for telephone connections and typically has 6 positions and 4 contacts. Each wire pair requires 2 contacts, so the maximum number of wire pairs that can be used in an RJ-11 connector is 2.

Explanation

An RJ-11 connector is commonly used for telephone connections and typically has 6 positions and 4 contacts. Each wire pair requires 2 contacts, so the maximum number of wire pairs that can be used in an RJ-11 connector is 2.

82. A user has a small network of four computers that they want to connect to a single cable modem. Which of the following devices would allow the user to do this?

Four port wireless router

Four port switch

Four port hub

Four port WAP

A four port wireless router would allow the user to connect their small network of four computers to a single cable modem. A wireless router combines the functionality of a router, which directs network traffic, and a wireless access point, which allows wireless devices to connect to the network. The four ports on the router would allow the user to directly connect their four computers to the router, providing them with internet access through the cable modem.

Explanation

A four port wireless router would allow the user to connect their small network of four computers to a single cable modem. A wireless router combines the functionality of a router, which directs network traffic, and a wireless access point, which allows wireless devices to connect to the network. The four ports on the router would allow the user to directly connect their four computers to the router, providing them with internet access through the cable modem.

83. A network administrator is summarizing the following IP address ranges into a single route for redistribution into the network core: 192.168.0.0 /24 192.168.1.0 /24 192.168.2.0 /24 192.168.3.0 /24 Which of the following IP summary addresses will represent the listed network ranges without including any ranges not listed?

192.168.0.0 /21

192.168.0.0 /23

192.168.0.0 /16

192.168.0.0 /22

The correct answer is 192.168.0.0 /22 because it includes all the listed network ranges (192.168.0.0, 192.168.1.0, 192.168.2.0, and 192.168.3.0) without including any ranges not listed. The /22 subnet mask allows for a larger range of IP addresses compared to the other options, making it the most suitable choice for summarizing the given IP address ranges.

Explanation

The correct answer is 192.168.0.0 /22 because it includes all the listed network ranges (192.168.0.0, 192.168.1.0, 192.168.2.0, and 192.168.3.0) without including any ranges not listed. The /22 subnet mask allows for a larger range of IP addresses compared to the other options, making it the most suitable choice for summarizing the given IP address ranges.

84. Which of the following properties describes a rate at which bits are transmitted over a WAN link?

Transmission speed

Baud rate

Frequency

Throughput

The correct answer is "Transmission speed". Transmission speed refers to the rate at which bits are transmitted over a WAN (Wide Area Network) link. It measures the amount of data that can be transmitted in a given amount of time, usually expressed in bits per second (bps). Baud rate, on the other hand, refers to the number of signal changes per second in a communication channel, while frequency refers to the number of cycles per second in a signal. Throughput, on the other hand, refers to the actual amount of data that is successfully transmitted over a network.

Explanation

The correct answer is "Transmission speed". Transmission speed refers to the rate at which bits are transmitted over a WAN (Wide Area Network) link. It measures the amount of data that can be transmitted in a given amount of time, usually expressed in bits per second (bps). Baud rate, on the other hand, refers to the number of signal changes per second in a communication channel, while frequency refers to the number of cycles per second in a signal. Throughput, on the other hand, refers to the actual amount of data that is successfully transmitted over a network.

85. A technician has tested a cable and has established it can successfully send and receive signals. Which of the following tools can be used to check the speed and condition of the signal?

Toner probe

Voltage event recorder

Protocol analyzer

TDR

A Time Domain Reflectometer (TDR) can be used to check the speed and condition of the signal in a cable. TDR works by sending a signal down the cable and measuring the time it takes for the signal to reflect back. This information can then be used to determine the length of the cable, identify any impedance mismatches or faults, and assess the overall quality of the signal. It is a commonly used tool in network troubleshooting and cable testing.

Explanation

A Time Domain Reflectometer (TDR) can be used to check the speed and condition of the signal in a cable. TDR works by sending a signal down the cable and measuring the time it takes for the signal to reflect back. This information can then be used to determine the length of the cable, identify any impedance mismatches or faults, and assess the overall quality of the signal. It is a commonly used tool in network troubleshooting and cable testing.

86. Which of the following cable types transmits data over 100Mbps per direction?

100Base-TX

10Base-T

100Base-T

10GBase-T

10GBase-T is the correct answer because it is a cable type that can transmit data over 100Mbps per direction. The "10G" in 10GBase-T stands for 10 Gigabit, indicating that it is capable of transmitting data at a speed of 10 Gigabits per second. This is significantly faster than the other cable types listed, such as 100Base-TX and 100Base-T, which have a maximum speed of 100Mbps. 10Base-T, on the other hand, has a maximum speed of 10Mbps, making it even slower than the other options. Therefore, 10GBase-T is the only cable type listed that meets the requirement of transmitting data over 100Mbps per direction.

Explanation

10GBase-T is the correct answer because it is a cable type that can transmit data over 100Mbps per direction. The "10G" in 10GBase-T stands for 10 Gigabit, indicating that it is capable of transmitting data at a speed of 10 Gigabits per second. This is significantly faster than the other cable types listed, such as 100Base-TX and 100Base-T, which have a maximum speed of 100Mbps. 10Base-T, on the other hand, has a maximum speed of 10Mbps, making it even slower than the other options. Therefore, 10GBase-T is the only cable type listed that meets the requirement of transmitting data over 100Mbps per direction.

87. Which of the following WAN technologies uses thirty 64Kbps channels?

ATM

T-1

E-1

MPLS

E-1 is the correct answer because it is a WAN technology that uses thirty 64Kbps channels. E-1 is a digital transmission format commonly used in Europe and other parts of the world. It provides a total bandwidth of 2.048 Mbps, which is divided into thirty 64Kbps channels. These channels can be used for voice, data, or video transmission over long distances.

Explanation

E-1 is the correct answer because it is a WAN technology that uses thirty 64Kbps channels. E-1 is a digital transmission format commonly used in Europe and other parts of the world. It provides a total bandwidth of 2.048 Mbps, which is divided into thirty 64Kbps channels. These channels can be used for voice, data, or video transmission over long distances.

88. Which of the following is the BEST reason to implement QoS when realtime applications are in use in the network?

Increase network reliability.

Prioritize delay sensitive traffic.

Increase network bandwidth of delay sensitive traffic.

Prioritize bulk traffic.

Implementing Quality of Service (QoS) is crucial when using real-time applications in a network because it allows for the prioritization of delay-sensitive traffic. Real-time applications, such as video conferencing or VoIP, require low latency and minimal packet loss to function effectively. By implementing QoS, network administrators can allocate higher priority and resources to these types of applications, ensuring that they receive the necessary bandwidth and reduced delay, thus improving the overall quality and performance of real-time applications on the network.

Explanation

Implementing Quality of Service (QoS) is crucial when using real-time applications in a network because it allows for the prioritization of delay-sensitive traffic. Real-time applications, such as video conferencing or VoIP, require low latency and minimal packet loss to function effectively. By implementing QoS, network administrators can allocate higher priority and resources to these types of applications, ensuring that they receive the necessary bandwidth and reduced delay, thus improving the overall quality and performance of real-time applications on the network.

89. Which of the following items changes the encryption key on a users session after a set period of time?

TKIP

AES

RADIUS

WEP

TKIP (Temporal Key Integrity Protocol) is a security protocol used in Wi-Fi networks. It is designed to enhance the security of WEP (Wired Equivalent Privacy) encryption. One of the key features of TKIP is that it periodically changes the encryption key on a user's session after a set period of time. This helps to prevent potential attackers from collecting enough data to crack the encryption key and gain unauthorized access to the network. AES (Advanced Encryption Standard) is another encryption algorithm used in Wi-Fi networks, but it does not have the same key rotation feature as TKIP. RADIUS (Remote Authentication Dial-In User Service) is a networking protocol used for authentication, authorization, and accounting. WEP (Wired Equivalent Privacy) is an older and less secure encryption protocol that has been largely replaced by TKIP and AES.

Explanation

TKIP (Temporal Key Integrity Protocol) is a security protocol used in Wi-Fi networks. It is designed to enhance the security of WEP (Wired Equivalent Privacy) encryption. One of the key features of TKIP is that it periodically changes the encryption key on a user's session after a set period of time. This helps to prevent potential attackers from collecting enough data to crack the encryption key and gain unauthorized access to the network. AES (Advanced Encryption Standard) is another encryption algorithm used in Wi-Fi networks, but it does not have the same key rotation feature as TKIP. RADIUS (Remote Authentication Dial-In User Service) is a networking protocol used for authentication, authorization, and accounting. WEP (Wired Equivalent Privacy) is an older and less secure encryption protocol that has been largely replaced by TKIP and AES.

90. When connecting two devices for data on a vertical cross connect, which of the following cables would be used to connect those devices?

CAT5e

Fiber

Coaxial

CAT6

Fiber cables would be used to connect two devices for data on a vertical cross connect. Fiber cables are known for their high bandwidth and ability to transmit data over long distances without loss of signal quality. They are commonly used in networking environments where high-speed and reliable data transmission is required.

Explanation

Fiber cables would be used to connect two devices for data on a vertical cross connect. Fiber cables are known for their high bandwidth and ability to transmit data over long distances without loss of signal quality. They are commonly used in networking environments where high-speed and reliable data transmission is required.

91. A network technician is connecting through the console port to configure a switch. Which of the following ports would be used to transfer configuration files from the switch?

TCP 110

UDP 67

UDP 69

TCP 69

The correct answer is UDP 69. UDP (User Datagram Protocol) is a connectionless protocol that allows for the transfer of data packets without establishing a connection. In this scenario, the network technician would use UDP port 69 to transfer configuration files from the switch. TCP (Transmission Control Protocol) ports 110 and 69 are not commonly used for file transfers, and UDP port 67 is typically used for DHCP (Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol) communication.

Explanation

The correct answer is UDP 69. UDP (User Datagram Protocol) is a connectionless protocol that allows for the transfer of data packets without establishing a connection. In this scenario, the network technician would use UDP port 69 to transfer configuration files from the switch. TCP (Transmission Control Protocol) ports 110 and 69 are not commonly used for file transfers, and UDP port 67 is typically used for DHCP (Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol) communication.

92. Two PCs have been assigned the following IP addresses, subnet mask, and default gateway:PC1 192.168.100.20 255.255.255.240 No DG PC2 192.168.100.10 255.255.255.240 192.168.100.1 Assuming all network devices including the switch the PCs are connected to, network cabling, and the default gateway are all functioning which of the following will occur when PC1 attempts to transfer a file to PC2?

PC1 will not be able to communicate with PC2 since PC2 is in a different subnet and PC1 does not have a default gateway configured.

PC1 will perform an ARP broadcast to resolve PC2s IP address to MAC address since both PCs have the same subnet mask and communication will occur.

PC1 and PC2 will not be able to communicate since both PCs must have the same default gateway.

PC1 will send traffic to the default gateway at 192.168.100.1 since PC2 is in a different subnet and communication will occur.

Both PC1 and PC2 are in the same subnet. The subnet mask 255.255.255.240 allows for 16 IP addresses, from 192.168.100.0 to 192.168.100.15. Both 192.168.100.20 and 192.168.100.10 fall within this range. Therefore, they are in the same subnet. When PC1 attempts to transfer a file to PC2, it will first check if PC2 is in the same subnet. Since it is, PC1 doesn’t need a default gateway to reach PC2. PC1 will use the ARP protocol to resolve PC2’s IP address to its MAC address. Once it has the MAC address, PC1 can send the file directly to PC2 over the local network. The fact that PC1 doesn’t have a default gateway configured doesn’t prevent it from communicating with other devices in the same subnet. The default gateway is only needed when sending packets to a different subnet. Since PC1 and PC2 are in the same subnet, the default gateway isn’t involved in this file transfer. So, the lack of a default gateway on PC1 doesn’t affect this communication. Therefore, the statement “PC1 will perform an ARP broadcast to resolve PC2’s IP address to MAC address since both PCs have the same subnet mask and communication will occur” is correct.

Explanation

Both PC1 and PC2 are in the same subnet. The subnet mask 255.255.255.240 allows for 16 IP addresses, from 192.168.100.0 to 192.168.100.15. Both 192.168.100.20 and 192.168.100.10 fall within this range. Therefore, they are in the same subnet. When PC1 attempts to transfer a file to PC2, it will first check if PC2 is in the same subnet. Since it is, PC1 doesn’t need a default gateway to reach PC2. PC1 will use the ARP protocol to resolve PC2’s IP address to its MAC address. Once it has the MAC address, PC1 can send the file directly to PC2 over the local network. The fact that PC1 doesn’t have a default gateway configured doesn’t prevent it from communicating with other devices in the same subnet. The default gateway is only needed when sending packets to a different subnet. Since PC1 and PC2 are in the same subnet, the default gateway isn’t involved in this file transfer. So, the lack of a default gateway on PC1 doesn’t affect this communication. Therefore, the statement “PC1 will perform an ARP broadcast to resolve PC2’s IP address to MAC address since both PCs have the same subnet mask and communication will occur” is correct.

93. When connecting two devices for voice on a vertical connect, which of the following cables would be used to connect the two devices?

Cross-connect wire

25 pair cable

CAT3

CAT5

A 25 pair cable would be used to connect two devices for voice on a vertical connect. This type of cable consists of multiple pairs of wires, typically 25 pairs, which allows for multiple connections to be made between devices. Each pair of wires can be used for a separate voice connection, making it suitable for connecting two devices for voice communication.

Explanation

A 25 pair cable would be used to connect two devices for voice on a vertical connect. This type of cable consists of multiple pairs of wires, typically 25 pairs, which allows for multiple connections to be made between devices. Each pair of wires can be used for a separate voice connection, making it suitable for connecting two devices for voice communication.

94. Which of the following is the maximum distance a 10GBase-EW connection can transmit with one repeater?

10,000 meters (32,808 feet)

80,000 meters (262,467 feet)

20,000 meters (65,616 feet)

40,000 meters (131,233 feet)

The correct answer is 80,000 meters (262,467 feet). 10GBase-EW is a type of Ethernet technology that can transmit data at a rate of 10 gigabits per second. With the use of one repeater, it can transmit data up to a maximum distance of 80,000 meters or 262,467 feet.

Explanation

The correct answer is 80,000 meters (262,467 feet). 10GBase-EW is a type of Ethernet technology that can transmit data at a rate of 10 gigabits per second. With the use of one repeater, it can transmit data up to a maximum distance of 80,000 meters or 262,467 feet.

95. A new segment needs to be added to a network to provide access for 64 servers. Which of the following subnets will provide the needed access and still conserve IP addresses?

192.168.1.0/25

192.168.1.0/26

192.168.1.0/23

192.168.1.0/24

The subnet 192.168.1.0/25 will provide the needed access for 64 servers while still conserving IP addresses. This subnet has a subnet mask of 255.255.255.128, which allows for 128 IP addresses. Since 64 servers are needed, this subnet will provide enough IP addresses for all the servers while still leaving some addresses available for other devices or future expansion.

Explanation

The subnet 192.168.1.0/25 will provide the needed access for 64 servers while still conserving IP addresses. This subnet has a subnet mask of 255.255.255.128, which allows for 128 IP addresses. Since 64 servers are needed, this subnet will provide enough IP addresses for all the servers while still leaving some addresses available for other devices or future expansion.

96. Which of the following would be an appropriate use of an EGP?

Unequal cost load balancing over a switched network.

Advertising a /24 to an upstream provider.

Periodic updates to neighbors on the LAN.

Routing between VLANs on an Ethernet network.

An Exterior Gateway Protocol (EGP) is used to exchange routing information between different autonomous systems (AS) in the Internet. Advertising a /24 (a block of 256 IP addresses) to an upstream provider would be an appropriate use of an EGP as it allows the organization to announce its IP address range to the provider, enabling traffic to be routed to the organization's network. This is a common practice for organizations that want to make their network accessible to the wider Internet.

Explanation

An Exterior Gateway Protocol (EGP) is used to exchange routing information between different autonomous systems (AS) in the Internet. Advertising a /24 (a block of 256 IP addresses) to an upstream provider would be an appropriate use of an EGP as it allows the organization to announce its IP address range to the provider, enabling traffic to be routed to the organization's network. This is a common practice for organizations that want to make their network accessible to the wider Internet.

97. Which of the following is the FIRST criterion used to select a nexthop from the routing table?

Lowest administrative distance

Greatest number of hops

Most precise matching prefix

The BGP route

The first criterion used to select a nexthop from the routing table is the most precise matching prefix. This means that the router will look for the entry in the routing table that has the longest prefix match with the destination IP address. By selecting the most precise matching prefix, the router ensures that it chooses the most specific route to reach the destination, which helps in efficient and accurate routing.

Explanation

The first criterion used to select a nexthop from the routing table is the most precise matching prefix. This means that the router will look for the entry in the routing table that has the longest prefix match with the destination IP address. By selecting the most precise matching prefix, the router ensures that it chooses the most specific route to reach the destination, which helps in efficient and accurate routing.

98. A company requires a hub and spoke WAN solution. Which of the following are BEST suited to meet this need? (Select THREE).

ISDN

MPLS

Framerelay

ATM

DOCSIS

MPLS, Frame Relay, and ATM are the best options for a hub and spoke WAN solution. MPLS (Multiprotocol Label Switching) is a scalable and efficient solution that can prioritize traffic and provide secure connections. Frame Relay is a cost-effective option that allows for the creation of virtual circuits and supports multiple protocols. ATM (Asynchronous Transfer Mode) is a high-speed solution that can handle large amounts of data and provide reliable connections. ISDN and DOCSIS are not as well-suited for a hub and spoke WAN solution as they are more commonly used for different purposes.

Explanation

MPLS, Frame Relay, and ATM are the best options for a hub and spoke WAN solution. MPLS (Multiprotocol Label Switching) is a scalable and efficient solution that can prioritize traffic and provide secure connections. Frame Relay is a cost-effective option that allows for the creation of virtual circuits and supports multiple protocols. ATM (Asynchronous Transfer Mode) is a high-speed solution that can handle large amounts of data and provide reliable connections. ISDN and DOCSIS are not as well-suited for a hub and spoke WAN solution as they are more commonly used for different purposes.

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99. PPTP is a combination of which of the following protocols? (Select TWO).

PPP

POP3

PPPoE

TCP

TCP/IP

PPTP (Point-to-Point Tunneling Protocol) is a combination of PPP (Point-to-Point Protocol) and TCP/IP (Transmission Control Protocol/Internet Protocol). PPP is used for establishing a direct connection between two nodes, while TCP/IP is the suite of protocols used for communication over the internet. Therefore, PPTP combines the features of both protocols to create a secure and encrypted tunnel for data transmission. POP3 (Post Office Protocol 3) and PPPoE (Point-to-Point Protocol over Ethernet) are not part of the PPTP protocol. TCP (Transmission Control Protocol) is a transport protocol, but it is not directly involved in the PPTP protocol.

Explanation

PPTP (Point-to-Point Tunneling Protocol) is a combination of PPP (Point-to-Point Protocol) and TCP/IP (Transmission Control Protocol/Internet Protocol). PPP is used for establishing a direct connection between two nodes, while TCP/IP is the suite of protocols used for communication over the internet. Therefore, PPTP combines the features of both protocols to create a secure and encrypted tunnel for data transmission. POP3 (Post Office Protocol 3) and PPPoE (Point-to-Point Protocol over Ethernet) are not part of the PPTP protocol. TCP (Transmission Control Protocol) is a transport protocol, but it is not directly involved in the PPTP protocol.

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100. A remote user cannot connect to the office via VPN. The user has established Internet connectivity. Which of the following is the MOST likely next step in troubleshooting?

Reinstall the VPN client at the remote computer.

Determine if the VPN service is running at the office.

Power cycle the VPN concentrator at the office.

Determine if the user has the correct VPN address and password.

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Explanation

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