CompTIA Network+ Practice Exam 1 (72 Questions)

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  • 1/72 Questions

    Which of the following devices operates at the network layer of the OSI model?

    • Access Point
    • Switch
    • Hub
    • Router
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CompTIA Network+ Practice Exam 1 (72 Questions) - Quiz
About This Quiz

This CompTIA Network+ Practice Exam assesses knowledge across various networking concepts and troubleshooting techniques. It covers topics like network devices, protocols, and performance issues, making it ideal for individuals preparing for the CompTIA Network+ certification.

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  • 2. 

    A client on your network has had no problems accessing the wireless network in the past, but recently she moved to a new office.  Since the move, she has had only intermittent network access. Which of the following is most likely the cause of the problem?

    • The SSID on the client is misconfigured

    • The client system has moved too far from the access point

    • The WEP settings are incorrect

    • The access point is using an omnidirectional antenna

    Correct Answer
    A. The client system has moved too far from the access point
    Explanation
    A wireless AP has a limited range in which it can send and receive data signals. When a client system moves out of this range, client network access will either fail or be inconsistent. Answers A and C are incorrect because a misconfigured SSID or incompatible WEP settings would prevent communication between the wireless AP and client. Answer D is incorrect because an omnidirectional antenna is the type of antenna that would be used in this setting.

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  • 3. 

    You are a network administrator managing a midsized network that uses a NetWare print server, a Windows application server, and a Linux firewall server.  One of your servers loses network connectivity.  You type ifconfig at the command line to determine whether the server has a valid IP address.  Which server has lost connectivity?

    • The firewall server

    • The print server

    • The application server

    • Ifconfig is not a valid command on any of these platforms

    Correct Answer
    A. The firewall server
    Explanation
    The ifconfig command is used on a Linux system to determine the system’s IP configuration. Answer B is incorrect because with NetWare, you use the config command to obtain information about network addresses. Answer C is incorrect because on a Windows system, the ipconfig command is used to view the networking configuration, including the IP address. Answer D is incorrect because the ifconfig command can be used on UNIX/Linux platforms to view the networking configuration.

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  • 4. 

    You are managing a network that uses both a UNIX server and a Windows 2000 server.  Which of the following protocols can you use to transfer files between the two servers?

    • Telnet

    • PPP

    • FTP

    • PPTP

    Correct Answer
    A. FTP
    Explanation
    FTP can be used to transfer files between Windows and UNIX systems. FTP is part of the TCP/IP protocol suite and is platform-independent. The Telnet utility is used to open a virtual terminal session on a remote host (answer A). PPP (answer B) is used to establish communications over a serial link. PPTP (answer D) is used to establish a secure link over a public network such as the Internet.

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  • 5. 

    A user complains that access to a web page is very slow.  What utility can you use to find the bottleneck?

    • Ping

    • Telnet

    • Tracert

    • Nbtstat

    Correct Answer
    A. Tracert
    Explanation
    tracert is a Windows command that can be used to display the full path between two systems, including the number of hops between the systems. The ping utility (answer A) can be used to test connectivity between two devices, but it only reports the time taken for the round-trip; it does not give information about how long it takes to complete each hop in the route. The Telnet utility (answer B) is used to open a virtual terminal session on a remote host. The nbtstat command (answer D) is used to view statistical information about a system’s NetBIOS status.

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  • 6. 

    During a busy administrative week, you install a new virus suite in your network of 55 computers, a new RAID array in one of the servers, and a new office suite on 25 of the computer systems.  After all the updates, you are experiencing system errors through-out the entire network.  What should you do to help isolate the problem?

    • Disable the RAID array

    • Uninstall the office suite

    • Check the virus suite vendor's website for system patches or service packs

    • Reinstall the virus software

    Correct Answer
    A. Check the virus suite vendor's website for system patches or service packs
    Explanation
    Because the system errors are over the entire network, it is likely that the cause of the problem lies with the virus suite, because it is installed on all computers. To troubleshoot such a problem, it would be a good idea to check for patches or updates on the vendor’s website. A problem with a RAID array (answer A) would affect only the server on which it is installed, not the entire network. Because the office suite (answer B) was installed on only some of the systems, it can be eliminated as a problem, because all the systems are affected. The virus software (answer D) appears to be the cause of the problem, but reinstalling it is unlikely to help.

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  • 7. 

    What utility would you use to check the IP configuration on a Windows Vista system?

    • Netstat

    • Winipcfg

    • Ping

    • Ipconfig

    Correct Answer
    A. Ipconfig
    Explanation
    The ipconfig utility can be used to view the TCP/IP configuration on a Windows 2000, Windows XP, Windows Vista, or Windows Server 2003 system. None of these operating systems support the graphical winipcfg utility (answer B). The netstat utility (answer A) is used to view protocol statistics information. The ping utility (answer C) is used to test the connectivity between two systems on a TCP/IP network.

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  • 8. 

    Which of the following services or protocols use SSH technology to provide additional security to communications? (Choose two)

    • SCP

    • SFTP

    • SNMP

    • SMTP

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. SCP
    A. SFTP
    Explanation
    Secure Shell (SSH) technology is used by both Secure Copy Protocol (SCP) and Secure File Transfer Protocol (SFTP). Answer C and D are incorrect because Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) and Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP) do not use SSH technology for additional security.

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  • 9. 

    Which of the following backup methods clear the archive bit? (Choose the two best answers)

    • Differential

    • Sequential

    • Full

    • Incremental

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Full
    A. Incremental
    Explanation
    Both the full and incremental backup methods clear the archive bit to indicate which data does and does not need to be backed up. In a differential backup (answer A), the archive bit is not cleared. Sequential (answer B) is not a type of backup.

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  • 10. 

    You are troubleshooting a server connectivity problem on your network.  A Windows Vista system is having trouble connecting to a Windows Server.  Which of the following commands would you use to display per-protocol statistics on the workstation system?

    • Arp -a

    • Arp -A

    • Nbtstat -s

    • Nbtstat -S

    • Netstat -s

    Correct Answer
    A. Netstat -s
    Explanation
    The netstat -s command can be used to display per-protocol statistics. The arp command (answers A and B) is used to view a list of the IP address-to-MAC address resolutions performed by the system. The nbtstat utility (answers C and D) is used to view protocol statistics for the NetBIOS protocol.

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  • 11. 

    You are working as a network administrator on a UNIX system.  The system uses dynamic name resolution.  What is used to dynamically resolve a hostname on a UNIX server?

    • TCP

    • ARP

    • DNS

    • UDP

    Correct Answer
    A. DNS
    Explanation
    DNS is a platform-independent protocol used to resolve hostnames to IP addresses. TCP (answer A) is a network-layer connection-oriented protocol. ARP (answer B) resolves IP addresses to MAC addresses. The UDP protocol (answer D) is a connectionless protocol and is part of the TCP/IP protocol suite.

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  • 12. 

    During the night, one of your servers powers down.  Upon reboot, print services do not load.  Which of the following would be the first step in the troubleshooting process?

    • Examine the server log files

    • Reboot the server

    • Reinstall the printer

    • Reinstall the printer software

    Correct Answer
    A. Examine the server log files
    Explanation
    In this scenario, your first step is to gather information by examining the server log files. When you have that information, you can proceed with the rest of the troubleshooting process. Rebooting the server (answer B) is unlikely to cure the problem. Before you reinstall the printer (answer C) or printer software (answer D), you should examine the log files to see if they report any problems.

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  • 13. 

    Which of the following standards uses UTP cable?

    • 100Base-TX

    • 10Base-FL

    • 100Base-UX

    • 10Base2

    Correct Answer
    A. 100Base-TX
    Explanation
    The 100Base-TX standard specifies twisted-pair UTP cable. Answer B is incorrect because 10Base-FL is a fiber standard and uses fiber-optic cable. There is no standard called 100Base-UX (answer C). 10Base2 (answer D) is an Ethernet networking standard that specifies thin coaxial cable.

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  • 14. 

    Which of the following utilities can be used to view the current protocol connections on a Windows system?

    • Ping

    • Netstat

    • Telnet

    • Tracert

    Correct Answer
    A. Netstat
    Explanation
    The netstat -a command can be used to display the current connections and listening ports. The ping utility (answer A) is used to test connectivity between two devices on a TCP/IP network. Telnet (answer C) is an application-level protocol that allows a virtual terminal session on a remote host. The tracert utility (answer D) allows a path to be traced between two hosts.

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  • 15. 

    Which of the following statements about the 10Mbps IEEE 802.3 network standards is incorrect?

    • There are 10Mbps networking standards for both UTP and fiber-optic cable

    • The 802.3 10Mbps network standards use a logical bus topology

    • Irrespective of the type of cable, the maximum length of a 10Mbps network segment is 185 meters

    • 10Mbps networking standards use a CSMA/CD media access method

    Correct Answer
    A. Irrespective of the type of cable, the maximum length of a 10Mbps network segment is 185 meters
    Explanation
    The various 10Mbps 802.3 networking standards have different maximum cable lengths. With 10Base-FL, a segment can be up to 2,000 meters. Using thin coaxial cabling, the 10Base2 standard specifies a maximum segment length of 185 meters. 10Mbps implementations of Ethernet on UTP are limited to 100 meters. All Ethernet standards use a Collision Sense Multiple Access/Collision Detection media access method. The 10Mbps 802.3 standards use a logical bus topology, although they can use physical star or physical bus topology.

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  • 16. 

    Which of the following is a connectionless protocol?

    • TCP

    • THC

    • IP

    • UDP

    Correct Answer
    A. UDP
    Explanation
    UDP is a connectionless protocol. TCP (answer A) is a connection-oriented protocol. IP (answer C) is also a connection-oriented protocol. THC (answer B) is not a valid protocol.

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  • 17. 

    Which of the following networking standards specifies a maximum segment length of 100 meters?

    • 10Base2

    • 10Base-FL

    • 10Base-YX

    • 10Base-T

    Correct Answer
    A. 10Base-T
    Explanation
    10Base-T has a maximum segment length of 100 meters. The maximum length of a 10Base2 segment (answer A) is 185 meters. The maximum length of a 10Base-FL segment (answer B) is 2,000 meters. Answer C is not a valid networking standard.

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  • 18. 

    Which copper-based medium offers speeds of up to 10Gbps and has a minimum of 250MHz of bandwidth?

    • Category 6b

    • Single-mode fiber

    • Multimode fiber

    • Category 6

    Correct Answer
    A. Category 6
    Explanation
    Category 6 high-performance UTP cable can transmit data up to 10Gbps. Category 6 has a minimum of 250MHz of bandwidth and specifies cable lengths of up to 100 meters, with 10/100/1000Mbps transfer, along with 10Gbps over shorter distances. Answers B and C are incorrect because they are not copper-based media, but fiber. Answer A is not a valid standard.

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  • 19. 

    You are experiencing a problem with a workstation, and you want to ping the local loopback.  Which of the following are ways to check your local TCP/IP configuration? (Choose the two best answers)

    • Ping host

    • Ping localhost

    • Ping 127.0.0.1

    • Ping 127.0.0.0

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Ping localhost
    A. Ping 127.0.0.1
    Explanation
    To verify the local IP configuration, you can either ping the localhost or use the IP address 127.0.0.1. The default hostname for a system is localhost, not host, which means that answer A is incorrect. Answer D is incorrect because this is the network address for the Class A loopback address, not a valid node loopback address.

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  • 20. 

    Which of the following network devices operates at the physical layer of the OSI model?

    • Router

    • Hub

    • Bridge

    • NIC

    Correct Answer
    A. Hub
    Explanation
    A network hub operates at the physical layer of the OSI model. A router operates at the network layer of the OSI model. A bridge operates at the data link layer of the OSI model. A NIC operates at the data link layer of the OSI model.

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  • 21. 

    You have been asked to implement a RAID solution on one of your company's servers.  You have two hard disks and two hard disk controllers.  Which of the following RAID levels could you implement?  (Choose the three best answers)

    • RAID 0

    • RAID 1

    • Disk duplexing

    • RAID 10

    • RAID 5

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. RAID 0
    A. RAID 1
    A. Disk duplexing
    Explanation
    With two hard disks and two controllers, you can implement RAID 0, RAID 1, and disk duplexing. RAID 5 (disk striping with parity; answer E) requires a minimum of three disks to be implemented. RAID 10 (answer D) is a combination of RAID 1 (disk mirroring) and RAID 0 (disk striping). RAID 10 requires a minimum of four disks.

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  • 22. 

    Which of the following is a Class B IP address?

    • 191.23.21.54

    • 125.123.123.2

    • 24.67.118.67

    • 255.255.255.0

    Correct Answer
    A. 191.23.21.54
    Explanation
    The first octet of a Class B address must be in the range 128 to 191. Answers B and C represent Class A addresses, which run from 1 to 126. Answer D is not a valid IP address; it is the subnet mask for a Class C network.

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  • 23. 
    What utility produces the output shown below? - ProProfs

    What utility produces the output shown below?

    • Netstat

    • Nbtstat

    • Ping

    • Tracert - R

    Correct Answer
    A. Netstat
    Explanation
    The netstat utility can be used to display protocol statistics and TCP/IP network connections. The nbtstat utility (answer B) shows statistical information about the NetBIOS over TCP/IP connections. The ping utility (answer C) is used to test the connectivity between two devices on a TCP/IP network. The tracert utility (answer D) traces the path between two hosts on a TCP/IP network.

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  • 24. 

    You have been called in to troubleshoot a problem with a newly installed e-mail application.  Internal users can communicate with each other via e-mail, but neither incoming nor outgoing Internet e-mail is working.  You suspect a problem with the port-blocking configuration of the firewall system that protects the Internet connection.  Which of the following ports would you allow to cure the problems with the email? (Choose the two best answers)

    • 20

    • 25

    • 80

    • 110

    • 443

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. 25
    A. 110
    Explanation
    TCP/IP port 25 is used by SMTP. TCP/IP port 110 is used by POP3. Because SMTP is used to send mail and POP3 is used to retrieve mail, ports 25 and 110 would need to be allowed for incoming and outgoing Internet email. TCP/IP port 20 (answer A) is used by FTP. TCP/IP port 80 (answer C) is used by HTTP. TCP/IP port 443 (answer E) is used by HTTPS.

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  • 25. 

    What is the default subnet mask for a Class B network?

    • 255.255.255.224

    • 255.255.255.0

    • 127.0.0.1

    • 255.255.0.0

    Correct Answer
    A. 255.255.0.0
    Explanation
    The default subnet mask for a Class B network is 255.255.0.0. Answer A is incorrect because it is not the default subnet mask for a Class B network. Answer B is not the default subnet mask for a Class B network; it is the default subnet mask for a Class C network. Answer C is the local loopback address.

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  • 26. 

    At which OSI layer does TCP operate?

    • Network

    • Transport

    • Session

    • Presentation

    Correct Answer
    A. Transport
    Explanation
    TCP operates at the transport layer of the OSI model. TCP does not operate at the network, session, or presentation layers.

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  • 27. 

    What is the basic purpose of a firewall system?

    • It provides a single point of access to the Internet

    • It caches commonly used web pages, thereby reducing the bandwidth demands on an Internet connection

    • It allows hostnames to be resolved to IP addresses

    • It protects one network from another by acting as an intermediary system

    Correct Answer
    A. It protects one network from another by acting as an intermediary system
    Explanation
    The purpose of a firewall system is to protect one network from another. One of the most common places to use a firewall is to protect a private network from a public one such as the Internet. Answer A is incorrect because although a firewall can provide a single point of access, that is not its primary purpose. Answer B more accurately describes the function of a proxy server. Answer C describes the function of a DNS server.

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  • 28. 

    E-mail and FTP work at which layer of the OSI model?

    • Application

    • Session

    • Presentation

    • User

    Correct Answer
    A. Application
    Explanation
    Both email and FTP work at the application layer of the OSI model. Email and FTP are application-layer protocols, not session or presentation layer protocols. User (answer D) is not a layer of the OSI model.

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  • 29. 

    What is the IPv6 equivalent of 127.0.0.1? (Choose two)

    • 0:0:0:0:0:0:0:1

    • 0:0:0:0:0:0:0:24

    • ::1

    • ::24

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. 0:0:0:0:0:0:0:1
    A. ::1
    Explanation
    The IPv4 address 127.0.0.1 is reserved as the loopback address. IPv6 has the same reservation. IPv6 address 0:0:0:0:0:0:0:1 is reserved as the loopback address. The address can also be shown using the :: notation with the 0s removed, resulting in ::1.

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  • 30. 

    While reviewing the security logs for your server, you notice that a user on the Internet has attempted to access your internal mail server.  Although it appears that the user's attempts were unsuccessful, you are very concerned about the possibility that your systems might be compromised.  Which of the following solutions are you most likely to implement?

    • A more secure password policy

    • A firewall system at the connection point to the Internet

    • File-level encryption

    • Kerberos authentication

    Correct Answer
    A. A firewall system at the connection point to the Internet
    Explanation
    To prevent unauthorized access to a private network from the Internet, you can use a firewall server to restrict outside access. Implementing a more secure password policy (answer A) is a good idea, but it is not the best choice. Implementing a file-level encryption system (answer C) is a good idea, but it is not the best choice. Kerberos (answer D) is an authentication system, not a method to prevent unauthorized access to the system.

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  • 31. 

    Which of the following pieces of information is not likely to be supplied via DHCP?

    • IP address

    • NetBIOS computer name

    • Subnet mask

    • Default gateway

    Correct Answer
    A. NetBIOS computer name
    Explanation
    The NetBIOS computer name is not supplied to client systems by a DHCP server.

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  • 32. 

    While troubleshooting a network connectivity problem, you notice that the network card in your system is operating at 10Mbps in half-duplex mode.  At what speed is the network operating?

    • 2.5 Mbps

    • 5 Mbps

    • 10 Mbps

    • 11 Mbps

    Correct Answer
    A. 10 Mbps
    Explanation
    Because the NIC is functioning at half-duplex 10Mbps, the transfer rate is 10Mbps.

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  • 33. 

    Which of the following is a valid IPv6 address?

    • 42DE:7E55:63F2:21AA:CBD4:D773

    • 42CD:7E55:63F2:21GA:CBD4:D773:CC21:554F

    • 42DE:7E55:63F2:21AA

    • 42DE:7E55:63F2:21AA:CBD4:D773:CC21:554F

    Correct Answer
    A. 42DE:7E55:63F2:21AA:CBD4:D773:CC21:554F
    Explanation
    IPv6 uses a 128-bit address, which is expressed as eight octet pairs in hexadecimal format, separated by colons. Because it is hexadecimal, only numbers and the letters A through F can be used.

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  • 34. 

    While troubleshooting a network connectivity problem on a Windows Server system, you need to view a list of the IP addresses that have been resolved to MAC addresses.  What command would you use to do this?

    • Arp -a

    • Nbtstat -a

    • Arp -d

    • Arp -s

    Correct Answer
    A. Arp -a
    Explanation
    The arp -a command is used to display the IP addresses that have been resolved to MAC addresses. The nbtstat command (answer B) is used to view protocol statistics for NetBIOS connections. arp -d (answer C) is used to delete entries in the ARP cache. The arp -s command (answer D) allows you to add static entries to the ARP cache.

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  • 35. 

    Which of the following statements best describes RAID 5?

    • A RAID 5 array consists of at least two drives. Pairity information is written across both drives to provide fault tolerance

    • A RAID 5 array consists of at least three drives and distributes parity information across all the drives in the array

    • A RAID 5 array consists of at least three drives and stores the parity information on a single drive

    • A RAID 5 array consists of at least four drives. The first and last drives in the array are used to store parity information

    Correct Answer
    A. A RAID 5 array consists of at least three drives and distributes parity information across all the drives in the array
    Explanation
    A RAID 5 array consists of at least three hard disks, and it stripes parity information across all disks in the array. Answer A is incorrect because RAID 5 (disk striping with parity) requires at least three drives. Answer C is incorrect because the parity information is stored in a stripe across all three drives in the array, not on a single drive. RAID 5 requires only three drives, which makes answer D incorrect.

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  • 36. 

    Which of the following IEEE specifications does CSMA/CD relate to?

    • 802.11b

    • 802.2

    • 802.5

    • 802.3

    Correct Answer
    A. 802.3
    Explanation
    CSMA/CD relates to the IEEE specification 802.3. The 802.11b standard (answer A) describes wireless LAN networking. The 802.2 standard (answer B) defines the media access methods for various networking standards. The 802.5 standard (answer C) defines token ring networking.

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  • 37. 

    While you are troubleshooting a sporadic network connectivity problem on a Windows Vista system, a fellow technician suggests that you run the ping -t command.  What is the purpose of this command?

    • It shows the route taken by a packet to reach the destination host

    • It shows how long, in seconds, the packet takes to reach the destination

    • It allows the number of ping messages to be specified

    • It pings the remote host continually until it is stopped

    Correct Answer
    A. It pings the remote host continually until it is stopped
    Explanation
    The ping -t command is used to send continuous ping requests to a remote system. The ping request continues until it is stopped manually. The traceroute utility (answer A) shows the route taken by a packet to reach the destination host. The ping command (answer B) shows how long a packet takes to complete the round-trip from the host to the destination. Answer C is incorrect because the ping command with the -n switch allows the number of ping messages to be specified.

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  • 38. 

    Which of the following IEEE wireless standards uses the 5 GHz RF range?

    • 802.11g

    • Infrared

    • 802.11a

    • 802.11b

    Correct Answer
    A. 802.11a
    Explanation
    The IEEE 802.11a wireless standard specifies 5GHz as the RF transmission range. Answers A and D are incorrect because the IEEE wireless standards 802.11b/g both use the 2.4GHz RF range. Answer B, infrared wireless transmissions, also use the 2.4GHz RF.

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  • 39. 
    What type of physical topology is shown in this figure? - ProProfs

    What type of physical topology is shown in this figure?

    • Star

    • Ring

    • Bus

    • Mesh

    Correct Answer
    A. Star
    Explanation
    The figure shows a star topology.

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  • 40. 

    A remote user reports that she is having a problem connecting to the corporate network over her DSL connection.  She can connect to the Internet and browse web pages, but she can't connect to the corporate remote-access gateway.  Which troubleshooting step would you perform first?

    • Check the corporate remote-access gateway to see if it is running and operating correctly

    • Have the user reboot her system

    • Have the user reconfigure the IP address on her system to one of the address ranges used on the internal corporate network, and then try again

    • Have the user power-cycle the DSL modem and try again

    Correct Answer
    A. Check the corporate remote-access gateway to see if it is running and operating correctly
    Explanation
    In this scenario, you would first check the remote-access gateway to see if it is running and operating correctly. Because the user can browse web pages, this is not a connectivity problem. Answer B is incorrect because, although rebooting the system might help, the system appears to be working correctly, so rebooting it is unlikely to cure the problem. The IP address configuration appears to be working, because the user can access web pages, so answer C is incorrect. The Internet connection appears to be working, so cycling the power on the DSL modem, as described in answer D, is unlikely to help.

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  • 41. 

    You have installed a web-based database system on your PC so that you can enter troubleshooting information and retrieve it from any location on the network.  Your system's IP address is 192.168.1.164.  You are not overly concerned about security, but as a basic measure, you allocate the web server application a port number of 9191 rather than the default port of 80.  Assuming that you are working from another system on the network, what would you type into the address bar of a web browser to access the database?

    • Http://192.168.1.164.9191

    • Http://192.168.1.164/9191

    • Http://192.168.1.164//9191

    • Http://192.168.1.164:9191

    Correct Answer
    A. Http://192.168.1.164:9191
    Explanation
    To specify a TCP/IP port other than the default of 80, simply append the port number to the end of the address, using a colon (:) to separate the two.

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  • 42. 

    Which of the following IEEE standards has the highest maximum transmission speeds?

    • 802.3ae

    • 802.3xr

    • 802.3.z

    • 802.3u

    Correct Answer
    A. 802.3ae
    Explanation
    The IEEE 802.3ae standard defines 10Gbps networking standards such as 10Gbase-LR and 10Gbase-SR. Answer B is incorrect because there is no IEEE 802.3xr standard. Answer C, 802.3z, defines gigabit Ethernet standards such as 1000Base-LX and 1000Base-SX. 802.3u (answer D) defines fast Ethernet standards such as 100Base-TX and 100Base-FX.

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  • 43. 

    Which of the following best describes the function of PoE??

    • Routes data to PPP ports

    • Provides power over twisted pair cable

    • Increases speeds of twisted pair cable

    • Trunks switch ports

    Correct Answer
    A. Provides power over twisted pair cable
    Explanation
    The purpose of Power over Ethernet (PoE) is to allow electrical power to be transmitted over twisted pair Ethernet cable. The power is transferred, along with data, to provide power to remote devices. These devices may include remote switches, wireless access points, Voice Over IP (VoIP) equipment, and more.

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  • 44. 

    Which of the following is the IPv6 equivalent to IPv4 automatic 169.254.0.0 APIPA addressing?

    • Link local

    • Site local

    • Global address

    • Unicast

    Correct Answer
    A. Link local
    Explanation
    IPv6 link-local addresses are automatically configured on all interfaces in an IPv6-based network. This automatic configuration is equivalent to the 169.254.0.0 automatically assigned IPv4 addressing using APIPA. The prefix used for a link-local address is fe80::.

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  • 45. 

    You are tasked with specifying a way to connect two buildings across a parking lot.  The distance between the two buildings is 78 meters.  An underground wiring duct exists between the two buildings, although there are concerns about using it because it also houses high-voltage electrical cables.  The budget for the project is very tight, but your manager still wants you to specify the most suitable solution.  Which of the following cable types would you recommend?

    • Fiber-optic

    • UTP

    • Thin coax

    • STP

    Correct Answer
    A. Fiber-optic
    Explanation
    Fiber-optic cable provides the most resistance to EMI and therefore is often used in environments that have a risk of interference. Although it is inexpensive, UTP cable (answer B) and thin coax (answer C) have very low resistance to EMI; therefore, they should not be run near high-voltage electric cables. STP (answer D) has a good level of resistance to EMI, but it is still not as resistant as fiber-optic. Not factoring in the cost, fiber-optic is the most suitable solution.

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  • 46. 

    Which of the address types sends data to all systems on a subnet or network instead of single hosts?

    • Multicast

    • Unicast

    • Broadcast

    • Anycast

    Correct Answer
    A. Broadcast
    Explanation
    IPv4 broadcast addresses are IP address that can target all systems on a subnet or network instead of single hosts. In other words, a broadcast message goes to everyone on the network or to a specific network segment. Answer A, multicast, sends data to an entire identified group of network users. Answer B, unicast, sends data to a specific system. Answer D is incorrect because anycast is not a valid networking term.

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  • 47. 
    A user informs you that she can’t access the Internet from her system. When you visit her, you run the ipconfig /all utility and see the following information. What is the most likely reason the user is having problems accessing the Internet? - ProProfs

    A user informs you that she can’t access the Internet from her system. When you visit her, you run the ipconfig /all utility and see the following information. What is the most likely reason the user is having problems accessing the Internet?

    • The system is on a different subnet than the DNS servers

    • DHCP is not enabled

    • The subnet is incorrect

    • The default gateway setting is not configured

    Correct Answer
    A. The default gateway setting is not configured
    Explanation
    The most likely cause of the problem is that the default gateway is not configured. Answer A is incorrect because from the output it appears that the DNS servers are on the same subnet as this system. Answer B does not apply because addressing is configured statically, so there is no DHCP service. This is not a problem, however. Answer C is incorrect because the subnet mask is the correct default subnet mask for a Class C network.

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  • 48. 

    Your ISP account manager suggests that it might be appropriate for you to install a DNS server internally. Which of the following functions does the DNS server perform?

    • It performs network address translation services

    • It streamlines the resolution of NetBIOS names to IP addresses

    • It allows some hostname-to-IP address resolutions to occur internally

    • It allows users to retrieve Internet web pages more quickly

    Correct Answer
    A. It allows some hostname-to-IP address resolutions to occur internally
    Explanation
    DNS allows hostname resolutions to occur internally. In most cases, companies use a DNS server provided by the ISP. In some cases, however, it might be appropriate to have a DNS server on the internal network. Answer A is incorrect because NAT is normally a function of firewall or proxy servers. Answer B describes the purpose of a WINS server. Answer D describes the function of a proxy server.

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  • 49. 

    Which of the following is not one of the private address ranges?

    • 192.168.x.x

    • 10.x.x.x

    • 172.16.x.x

    • 224.181.x.x

    Correct Answer
    A. 224.181.x.x
    Explanation
    Private address ranges are designed for use on private networks. The ranges are 10.x.x.x, 172.16.x.x to 172.32.x.x, and 192.168.x.x. Therefore, answers A, B, and C are all valid private IP address ranges.

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Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Mar 20, 2023 +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 20, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Aug 20, 2010
    Quiz Created by
    Nevermore42

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