Navigation (n)- Part 2

103 Questions

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Navigation Quizzes & Trivia

The use of a compass has been there for years now. It is mostly used in navigation of space and water vessels. Take up the navigation (n) - part 2 quizzes below and gauge how much you know.


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    The magnetic variation value of a given point on the Earth's surface can be obtained by
    • A. 

      (1) referring to the table of magnetic variation in the cockpit.

    • B. 

      (2) referring to the isogonic lines on aeronautical charts

    • C. 

      (3) calculating the angular difference between the meridian of a given point and the Greenwich meridian.

    • D. 

      (4) calculating the difference between magnetic and compass heading.

  • 2. 
    Lines on geographical charts joining points of equal magnetic variation, are called
    • A. 

      (1) izogonic lines.

    • B. 

      (2) agonic lines.

    • C. 

      (3) izoclinic lines.

    • D. 

      (4) izobars.

  • 3. 
    Lines on geographical charts joining points of a zero magnetic variation, are called
    • A. 

      (1) izogonic lines.

    • B. 

      (2) izoclinic lines.

    • C. 

      (3) agonic lines.

    • D. 

      (4) aclinic lines.

  • 4. 
    What is the magnetic variation of the area? (figure 14)
    • A. 

      (1) 50° 30' W.

    • B. 

      (2) 21° E.

    • C. 

      (3) 50° W.

    • D. 

      (4) 15° E.

  • 5. 
    When calculating magnetic direction from a given true direction, westerly variation shouldbe
    • A. 

      (1) added.

    • B. 

      (2) substracted.

    • C. 

      (3) multiplicated.

    • D. 

      (4) divided.

  • 6. 
    Magnetic course is calculated using the equation
    • A. 

      (1) true heading plus/minus magnetic variation.

    • B. 

      (2) true course plus/minus magnetic variation.

    • C. 

      (3) true course plus/minus compass deviation.

    • D. 

      (4) magnetic heading plus/minus compass deviation.

  • 7. 
    Magnetic heading is
    • A. 

      (1) true heading plus/minus variation.

    • B. 

      (2) true course plus/minus variation.

    • C. 

      (3) true course plus/minus deviation.

    • D. 

      (4) magnetic course plus/minus deviation.

  • 8. 
    Is it possible for a desired true track, true heading and actual true track to have the samevalue?
    • A. 

      (1) No, in no case.

    • B. 

      (2) Yes.

    • C. 

      (3) Yes, because these values are always equal.

    • D. 

      (4) This is possible only when flying in north or south direction.

  • 9. 
    When converting from true course to magnetic heading, a pilot should
    • A. 

      (1) subtract easterly variation and right wind correction angle.

    • B. 

      (2) add westerly variation and subtract left wind correction angle.

    • C. 

      (3) subtract westerly variation and add right wind correction angle.

  • 10. 
    Which element of the wind triangle has a null value if a magnetic heading equalscompass heading?
    • A. 

      (1) Magnetic dip.

    • B. 

      (2) Compass deviation.

    • C. 

      (3) Drift.

    • D. 

      (4) Magnetic variation.

  • 11. 
    Determine the compass heading for the following:true course ..................... 168°wind correction angle ........+6°variation .......................... 5°ECompass deviation tablemagn.dir. N 030 060 E 120 150 S 210 240 W 300 330deviation 0 0 1E 3E 2E 0 3W 1W 0 2E 1E 1E
    • A. 

      (1) 167°.

    • B. 

      (2) 177°.

    • C. 

      (3) 187°.

    • D. 

      (4) 171°.

  • 12. 
    The true heading for a flight between two points of a route is 270° and the windcorrection angle is -10°. What will be the true heading for a return flight between the same points?
    • A. 

      (1) 090°.

    • B. 

      (2) 180°.

    • C. 

      (3) 110°.

    • D. 

      (4) 120°.

  • 13. 
    The true course from the point A to the point B is (figure 14)
    • A. 

      (1) 031°.

    • B. 

      (2) 059°.

    • C. 

      (3) 239°.

    • D. 

      (4) 301°.

  • 14. 
    What is the true course of the route segment B-C? (figure 14)
    • A. 

      (1) 042°.

    • B. 

      (2) 142°.

    • C. 

      (3) 222°.

    • D. 

      (4) 302°.

  • 15. 
    What is the magnetic course from the point C to the point A? (figure 14)
    • A. 

      (1) 155°.

    • B. 

      (2) 170°.

    • C. 

      (3) 185°.

    • D. 

      (4) 190°.

  • 16. 
    Determine the true course between the point D and the point E. (figure 15)
    • A. 

      (1) 057°.

    • B. 

      (2) 123°.

    • C. 

      (3) 237°.

    • D. 

      (4) 303°.

  • 17. 
    The true course of the route segment E-F is (figure 15)
    • A. 

      (1) 260°.

    • B. 

      (2) 100°.

    • C. 

      (3) 080°.

    • D. 

      (4) 070°.

  • 18. 
    What is the true course of the route segment F-D? (figure 15)
    • A. 

      (1) 288°.

    • B. 

      (2) 252°.

    • C. 

      (3) 198°.

    • D. 

      (4) 018°.

  • 19. 
    What is the magnetic course of the route segment A-B? (figure 14)
    • A. 

      (1) 171°.

    • B. 

      (2) 286°.

    • C. 

      (3) 301°.

    • D. 

      (4) 316°.

  • 20. 
    What is the magnetic course from the point B to the point C? (figure 14)
    • A. 

      (1) 027°.

    • B. 

      (2) 042°.

    • C. 

      (3) 057°.

    • D. 

      (4) 142°.

  • 21. 
    What is the magnetic course from the point C to the point A? (figure 14)
    • A. 

      (1) 155°.

    • B. 

      (2) 170°.

    • C. 

      (3) 185°.

    • D. 

      (4) 190°.

  • 22. 
    The magnetic course of the route segment D-E is (figure 15)
    • A. 

      (1) 303°.

    • B. 

      (2) 322°.

    • C. 

      (3) 314°.

    • D. 

      (4) 292°.

  • 23. 
    Determine the magnetic course for a flight from the point E to the point F. (figure 15)
    • A. 

      (1) 069°.

    • B. 

      (2) 089°.

    • C. 

      (3) 091°.

    • D. 

      (4) 279°.

  • 24. 
    The magnetic course of the route segment F-D is (figure 15)
    • A. 

      (1) 087°.

    • B. 

      (2) 187°.

    • C. 

      (3) 198°.

    • D. 

      (4) 209°.

  • 25. 
    Determine the magnetic heading for a flight from the point A to the point B, if the trueairspeed (TAS) is 105 kts and the wind is 045°/30 kts.
    • A. 

      (1) 332°.

    • B. 

      (2) 317°.

    • C. 

      (3) 302°.

    • D. 

      (4) 011°.

  • 26. 
    What magnetic heading should a pilot maintain in order to stay on the flight segmentB-C, if the true airspeed (TAS) is 90 kts and the wind is 300°/20 kts? (figure 14)
    • A. 

      (1) 014°.

    • B. 

      (2) 029°.

    • C. 

      (3) 030°.

    • D. 

      (4) 043°.

  • 27. 
    Determine the magnetic heading for the flight segment C-A, if the true airspeed (TAS) is110 kts and the wind is 090°/25 kts. (figure 14)
    • A. 

      (1) 172°.

    • B. 

      (2) 168°.

    • C. 

      (3) 157°.

    • D. 

      (4) 142°.

  • 28. 
    Determine the magnetic heading for a flight from the point D to the point E, if the trueairspeed (TAS) is 115 kts and the wind is 200°/35 kts. (figure 15)
    • A. 

      (1) 275°.

    • B. 

      (2) 286°.

    • C. 

      (3) 297°.

    • D. 

      (4) 303°.

  • 29. 
    Determine the magnetic heading for the flight segment E-F, if the true airspeed (TAS) is125 kts and the wind is 360°/40 kts. (figure 15)
    • A. 

      (1) 051°.

    • B. 

      (2) 055°.

    • C. 

      (3) 062°.

    • D. 

      (4) 073°.

  • 30. 
    Determine the magnetic heading for the flight segment F-D, if the true airspeed (TAS) is100 kts and the wind is 260°/30 kts. (figure 15)
    • A. 

      (1) 224°.

    • B. 

      (2) 217°.

    • C. 

      (3) 202°.

    • D. 

      (4) 213°.

  • 31. 
    An aircraft overflies point A at time 14:30 with TAS 95 kts. If the wind in this area isreported as 090°/20 kt what will be ETA at point B?
    • A. 

      (1) 14:35.

    • B. 

      (2) 14:40.

    • C. 

      (3) 14:44.

    • D. 

      (4) 14:49.

  • 32. 
    Determine the estimated time on route for the flight segment C-A, if the wind is 200°/25kts and the true airspeed is 100 kts. (figure 14)
    • A. 

      (1) 52 min.

    • B. 

      (2) 45 min.

    • C. 

      (3) 38 min.

    • D. 

      (4) 34 min.

  • 33. 
    Determine the estimated time on route for a flight from the airport D to the airport E. Thewind aloft is 090°/20 kts and the true airspeed is 95 kts. Add 7 minutes for takeoff and landing. (figure 15)
    • A. 

      (1) 18 min.

    • B. 

      (2) 20 min.

    • C. 

      (3) 22 min.

    • D. 

      (4) 30 min.

  • 34. 
    What is the ETE of the route segment E-F, if the TAS is 108 kts and the wind 250°/30kts? (figure 15)
    • A. 

      (1) 9 min.

    • B. 

      (2) 11 min.

    • C. 

      (3) 13 min.

    • D. 

      (4) 15 min.

  • 35. 
    An aircraft overflies point F at 07:46. What is the estimated time over point D, if the trueairspeed is 103 kts and the wind 360°/40 kts? (figure 15)
    • A. 

      (1) 07:35.

    • B. 

      (2) 07:55.

    • C. 

      (3) 07:58.

    • D. 

      (4) 08:01.

  • 36. 
    If a true heading of 135° results in a ground track of 130° and a true airspeed of 135knots results in a groundspeed of 140 knots, the wind would be from
    • A. 

      (1) 019° and 12 knots.

    • B. 

      (2) 200° and 13 knots.

    • C. 

      (3) 246° and 13 knots.

  • 37. 
    On a cross-country flight, point A is crossed at 1500 hours and the plan is to reach pointB at 1530 hours. Use the following information to determine the indicated airspeed required toreach point B on schedule.Distance between A and B ................... 70 NMForecast wind .............................. 310°/15 ktPressure altitude ............................... 8,000 ftAmbient temperature ........................... -10 °CTrue course ........................................... 270°The required indicated airspeed would be approximately
    • A. 

      (1) 126 knots.

    • B. 

      (2) 137 knots.

    • C. 

      (3) 152 knots.

  • 38. 
    Which statement is true about homing when using ADF? 
    • A. 

      (1) Homing is a practical navigational method, usable for flying to and away from the NDB station.

    • B. 

      (2) Homing allows flying along curved path only, which leads to the NDB station.

    • C. 

      (3) Homing requires an ADF with the automatic or at least manually adjusting compass rose.

  • 39. 
    To use an VHF/DF facilities for assistance in location an aircraft's position, the aircraftmust have a
    • A. 

      (1) VHF transmitter and receiver.

    • B. 

      (2) 4096-code transponder.

    • C. 

      (3) VOR receiver and DME.

  • 40. 
    An NDB normally transmits on which frequency band?
    • A. 

      (1) 190 to 535 KHz.

    • B. 

      (2) 400 to 1020 Hz.

    • C. 

      (3) 962 to 1213 MHz.

  • 41. 
    If you are 30 miles from the NDB transmitter and the ADF indicates 3° off course, howmany miles off course are you?
    • A. 

      (1) 1.5 miles.

    • B. 

      (2) 3 miles.

    • C. 

      (3) 6 miles.

  • 42. 
    Which is true regarding tracking on a desired bearing when using ADF during crosswindconditions?
    • A. 

      (1) To track outbound, heading corrections should be made away from the ADF pointer.

    • B. 

      (2) When on the desired track outbound with the proper drift correction established, the ADF pointer will be deflected to the windward side of the tail position.

    • C. 

      (3) When on the desired track inbound with the proper drift correction established, the ADF pointer will be deflected to the windward side of the nose position.

  • 43. 
    As shown by ADF A, the relative bearing TO the station is (figure 22)
    • A. 

      (1) 030°.

    • B. 

      (2) 210°.

    • C. 

      (3) 240°.

  • 44. 
    As shown by ADF B, the relative bearing TO the station is (figure 22)
    • A. 

      (1) 190°.

    • B. 

      (2) 235°.

    • C. 

      (3) 315°.

  • 45. 
    As shown by ADF D, the relative bearing TO the station is (figure 22)
    • A. 

      (1) 020°.

    • B. 

      (2) 060°.

    • C. 

      (3) 340°.

  • 46. 
    As shown by ADF E, the relative bearing TO the station is (figure 21)
    • A. 

      (1) 045°.

    • B. 

      (2) 180°.

    • C. 

      (3) 315°.

  • 47. 
    As shown by ADF F, the relative bearing TO the station is (figure 21)
    • A. 

      (1) 090°.

    • B. 

      (2) 180°.

    • C. 

      (3) 270°.

  • 48. 
    As shown by ADF G, the relative bearing TO the station is (figure 21)
    • A. 

      (1) 090°.

    • B. 

      (2) 180°.

    • C. 

      (3) 270°.

  • 49. 
    As shown by ADF A, the magnetic bearing TO the station is (figure 22)
    • A. 

      (1) 030°.

    • B. 

      (2) 180°.

    • C. 

      (3) 210°.

  • 50. 
    If receiving ADF indication B, what magnetic heading should the aircraft be turned to flydirectly to the NDB station? (figure 22)
    • A. 

      (1) 010°.

    • B. 

      (2) 145°.

    • C. 

      (3) 190°.

  • 51. 
    If receiving ADF indication B, what approximate magnetic heading should the aircraft beturned to intercept the 180° bearing TO the station? (figure 22)
    • A. 

      (1) 040°.

    • B. 

      (2) 160°.

    • C. 

      (3) 220°.

  • 52. 
    If an ADF indicator in the cockpit corresponds to the figure C, the magnetic bearingFROM the station is (figure 22)
    • A. 

      (1) 025°.

    • B. 

      (2) 115°.

    • C. 

      (3) 295°.

  • 53. 
    Which of the figures corresponds to an ADF indicator of an aircraft, flying TO the stationwith a right crosswind? (figure 22)
    • A. 

      (1) A.

    • B. 

      (2) B.

    • C. 

      (3) D.

  • 54. 
    What is the magnetic bearing FROM the station of an aircraft with an ADF indication,depicted in figure A? (figure 22)
    • A. 

      (1) 030°.

    • B. 

      (2) 150°.

    • C. 

      (3) 180°.

  • 55. 
    On a magnetic heading of 320° and with an ADF indication as figure H, the magneticbearing TO the station is (figure 21)
    • A. 

      (1) 005°.

    • B. 

      (2) 185°.

    • C. 

      (3) 225°.

  • 56. 
    On a magnetic heading of 035° and with an ADF indication as figure I, the magneticbearing TO the station is (figure 21)
    • A. 

      (1) 035°.

    • B. 

      (2) 180°.

    • C. 

      (3) 215°.

  • 57. 
    On a magnetic heading of 120° and with an ADF indication as figure J, the magneticbearing TO the station is (figure 21)
    • A. 

      (1) 045°.

    • B. 

      (2) 165°.

    • C. 

      (3) 270°.

  • 58. 
    If the magnetic bearing of an aircraft TO the station is 240°, what is the magneticheading if the ADF indicator corresponds to the figure J? (figure 21)
    • A. 

      (1) 045°.

    • B. 

      (2) 105°.

    • C. 

      (3) 195°.

  • 59. 
    If the magnetic bearing of an aircraft TO the station is 030°, what is the magneticheading if the ADF indicator corresponds to the figure K? (figure 21)
    • A. 

      (1) 060°.

    • B. 

      (2) 120°.

    • C. 

      (3) 270°.

  • 60. 
    If the magnetic bearing of an aircraft TO the station is 135°, what is the magneticheading if the ADF indicator corresponds to the figure L? (figure 21)
    • A. 

      (1) 135°.

    • B. 

      (2) 270°.

    • C. 

      (3) 360°.

  • 61. 
    Choose the correct sequence of procedures in the cockpit for flying inbound to the VORstation.a) Rotate the OBS selector knob to center the CDI needle with TO indication.b) Check the identification signal.c) Check for proper frequency selected.d) Turn the aircraft into the heading, equal to the radial selected on the OBS.
    • A. 

      (1) b, c, a, d

    • B. 

      (2) d, a, b, c

    • C. 

      (3) a, b, c, d

    • D. 

      (4) c, b, a, d

  • 62. 
    VOR radials are
    • A. 

      (1) magnetic directions.

    • B. 

      (2) compass directions.

    • C. 

      (3) true directions.

    • D. 

      (4) relative bearings.

  • 63. 
    An aircraft has a DME reading 120 miles from a VOR station and a CDI indication isone-fifth of a full deflection to one side. Approximately how many miles off the course centerline isthe aircraft?
    • A. 

      (1) 1,5 NM.

    • B. 

      (2) 3,0 NM.

    • C. 

      (3) 6,7 NM.

  • 64. 
    When using a VOR for navigation, station passage is indicated
    • A. 

      (1) when the OFF flag appears.

    • B. 

      (2) when the TO-FROM flag begins to flicker.

    • C. 

      (3) when the first full-scale deflection of the CDI.

    • D. 

      (4) by the first complete reversal of the TO-FROM indicator.

  • 65. 
    Which situation would result in reverse sensing of a VOR receiver?
    • A. 

      (1) Flying a heading that is reciprocal to the bearing selected on the OBS.

    • B. 

      (2) Setting the OBS to a bearing that is 90° from the bearing on which the aircraft is located.

    • C. 

      (3) Failing to change the OBS from the selected inbound course to the outbound course after passing the station.

  • 66. 
    To track outbound on the 180 radial of a VOR station, the recommended procedure is toset the OBS to
    • A. 

      1) 360° and make heading corrections toward the CDI needle.

    • B. 

      (2) 180° and make heading corrections away from the CDI needle.

    • C. 

      (3) 180° and make heading corrections toward the CDI needle.

  • 67. 
    To track inbound on the 215 radial of a VOR station, the recommended procedure is toset the OBS to
    • A. 

      (1) 215° and make heading corrections toward the CDI needle.

    • B. 

      (2) 215° and make heading corrections away from the CDI needle.

    • C. 

      (3) 035° and make heading corrections toward the CDI needle.

  • 68. 
    With a VOR/ILS receiver set to a VOR frequency, how many degrees does full deflectionof a CDI to one side represent?
    • A. 

      (1) 5°.

    • B. 

      (2) 10°.

    • C. 

      (3) 20°.

  • 69. 
    An aircraft 60 miles from a VOR station has a CDI indication one-fifth deflection, thisrepresents a course centerline deviation of approximately
    • A. 

      (1) 6 miles.

    • B. 

      (2) 2 miles.

    • C. 

      (3) 1 mile.

  • 70. 
    Which airplane(s) correspond(s) to the VOR indicator V? (figure 23)
    • A. 

      (1) Airplane 2 only.

    • B. 

      (2) Airplane 6 only.

    • C. 

      (3) Airplanes 5 and 8.

  • 71. 
    Which airplane(s) correspond(s) to the VOR indicator X? (figure 23)
    • A. 

      (1) Airplanes 1 and 3.

    • B. 

      (2) Airplanes 3 and 7.

    • C. 

      (3) Airplane 7 only.

  • 72. 
    Which airplane(s) correspond(s) to the VOR indicator U? (figure 23)
    • A. 

      (1) Airplanes 1 and 2.

    • B. 

      (2) Airplane 2 only.

    • C. 

      (3) Airplane 6 only.

  • 73. 
    Which presentation of a VOR indicator corresponds to airplanes 8? (figure 23)
    • A. 

      (1) T.

    • B. 

      (2) V.

    • C. 

      (3) W.

  • 74. 
    Which presentation of a VOR indicator corresponds to airplanes 5 and 7? (figure 23)
    • A. 

      (1) T and X.

    • B. 

      (2) V and X.

    • C. 

      (3) W and Z.

  • 75. 
    Which of the following statements, regarding a DME operation, is correct?
    • A. 

      (1) When flying directly above the DME facility, the pilot reads on the DME indicator in the cockpit a zero distance.

    • B. 

      (2) If we move the DME switch in the cockpit to HOLD, all readings are reset to zero.

    • C. 

      (3) The frequency of a DME receiver in the aircraft is being adjusted automatically when we set a VOR or ILS frequency.

  • 76. 
    Which distance is displayed by a DME indicator?
    • A. 

      (1) Slant-range distance in statute miles.

    • B. 

      (2) Slant-range distance in nautical miles.

    • C. 

      (3) The distance from the aircraft to a point at the same altitude directly above the DME ground facility.

  • 77. 
    What is the DME reading if an aircraft is directly over a VOR/DME station at the altitudeof 6,000 ft AGL?
    • A. 

      (1) 0.

    • B. 

      (2) 1.

    • C. 

      (3) 1,3.

  • 78. 
    The slant-range error of a DME is greatest at
    • A. 

      (1) low altitudes directly over the facility.

    • B. 

      (2) high altitudes directly over the facility.

    • C. 

      (3) high altitudes and high range from the facility.

  • 79. 
    When using a DME one must take into account that the device shows
    • A. 

      (1) the aircraft's ground speed.

    • B. 

      (2) the closing rate of the aircraft relative to the DME ground facility.

    • C. 

      (3) the slant-range between the aircraft and the DME ground facility.

    • D. 

      (4) both answers 2 and 3 are correct.

  • 80. 
    If a pilot moves the DME switch to HOLD
    • A. 

      (1) the DME stays tuned to the present station if a pilot selects another VOR or ILS.

    • B. 

      (2) the present DME reading get "frozen" until a new frequency of a VOR or ILS is selected.

    • C. 

      (3) all DME indications reset to zero.

  • 81. 
    Directions of airways on the Jeppesen radionavigational chart in Appendix are (figure 16)
    • A. 

      (1) true directions.

    • B. 

      (2) magnetic directions.

    • C. 

      (3) loksodromic directions.

    • D. 

      (4) compass directions.

  • 82. 
    What is a direct distance between DOL VOR and the intersection PODET on the airwayB5? (figure 16)
    • A. 

      (1) 34 NM.

    • B. 

      (2) 34 km.

    • C. 

      (3) 50 NM.

    • D. 

      (4) 69 NM.

  • 83. 
    What is the shortest route distance between ILB VOR and the intersection ISTRI south ofKFT VOR? (figure 16)
    • A. 

      (1) 45 NM.

    • B. 

      (2) 45 km.

    • C. 

      (3) 57 NM.

    • D. 

      (4) 69 NM.

  • 84. 
    What is the meaning of the number 6000 below the name of the airway B5 on the routesegment ZAG VOR-KFT VOR? (figure 16)
    • A. 

      (1) MEA. Minimum Enroute Altitude

    • B. 

      (2) Transition altitude.

    • C. 

      (3) MORA.

    • D. 

      (4) MSA.

  • 85. 
    If the atmospheric pressure QNH is 1030 hPa, what is the lowest fligh level that could beplanned for an IFR flight on the route segment VOR GRZ-VOR ILB? (figure 16)
    • A. 

      (1) FL80.

    • B. 

      (2) FL85.

    • C. 

      (3) FL90.

    • D. 

      (4) FL95.

  • 86. 
    MEA on the route segment VOR DOL-VOR GRZ is (figure 16)
    • A. 

      (1) 9.000 ft.

    • B. 

      (2) 9.000 m.

    • C. 

      (3) FL160.

    • D. 

      (4) 8.000 ft.

  • 87. 
    MORA on the route segment NDB MEL-VOR ZAG is
    • A. 

      (1) 5,000 ft.

    • B. 

      (2) 8,000 ft.

    • C. 

      (3) 4,400 ft

    • D. 

      (4) Maximum 8,000 ft; minimum 5,000 ft.

  • 88. 
    On the route segment ARLON-RADLY of A15 airway, the mark 9000a stands for (figure 16)
    • A. 

      (1) MSA.

    • B. 

      (2) MEA.

    • C. 

      (3) MORA.

  • 89. 
    The MEA on the route segment VOR ZAG-PODET of B5 airway is (figure 16)
    • A. 

      (1) Not specified.

    • B. 

      (2) 7,200 ft MSL.

    • C. 

      (3) 6,000 ft MSL.

    • D. 

      (4) 7,200 ft AGL.

  • 90. 
    What is the meaning of the frequency 127.8 in the oval window, found on theradionavigational chart near Rijeka airport and approximately 45 NM east of NDB KO? (figure 16)
    • A. 

      (1) Radar Zagreb.

    • B. 

      (2) Terminal Control Zagreb.

    • C. 

      (3) ATIS Zagreb.

    • D. 

      (4) VOLMET Zagreb.

  • 91. 
    When flying in the vicinity of Klagenfurt airport, a pilot will normally obtain a meteo datafor the surrounding airports by (figure 16)
    • A. 

      (1) listening to the voice transmittion of the VOR KFT.

    • B. 

      (2) questioning Klagenfurt Tower.

    • C. 

      (3) questioning the radar.

    • D. 

      (4) listening to the VOLMET broadcast at frequency 122.27 MHz.

  • 92. 
    When flying in the vicinity of island Cres, a pilot will normally obtain a meteo data by (figure 16)
    • A. 

      (1) listening on the frequency 127.8 MHz.

    • B. 

      (2) calling Control/Radar Zagreb on the frequency 124.8 MHz or 129.65 MHz.

    • C. 

      (3) calling Rijeka Tower or Pulj Tower.

  • 93. 
    Waypoints data in a GPS database (with the exception of users waypoints) could beupdated by
    • A. 

      (1) a respective software house only.

    • B. 

      (2) a pilot, however when in-flight only.

    • C. 

      (3) a pilot on ground only, when the device is stationary.

  • 94. 
    A CDI deviation needle on the GPS electronic screen in the cockpit shows a deviationfrom the desired track in
    • A. 

      (1) arc degrees.

    • B. 

      (2) arc degrees or distance units, depends on pilot's discretion.

    • C. 

      (3) distance units.

  • 95. 
    Similarly to a VOR, the accuracy of a GPS in great extend depends on the distance tothe point selected.
    • A. 

      (1) True.

    • B. 

      (2) False.

  • 96. 
    A GPS leads an aircraft on route along
    • A. 

      (1) great circle. (Shortest distance)

    • B. 

      (2) passive curve.

    • C. 

      (3) heading line.

    • D. 

      (4) rhumb line.

  • 97. 
    Which directions are normally selected when setting a GPS?
    • A. 

      (1) True directions.

    • B. 

      (2) Compass directions.

    • C. 

      (3) Magnetic directions.

  • 98. 
    A GPS signal reception in great extend depends on the aircraft's altitude. This statementis
    • A. 

      (1) true.

    • B. 

      (2) false.

  • 99. 
    When working with a GPS one must know that
    • A. 

      (1) it is necessary to type in manually geographic coordinates of the aircraft's parking position.

    • B. 

      (2) the device automatically determines the aircraft's present position in geographic coordinates.

    • C. 

      (3) the device is able to determine navigational parameters relative only to those fixes, which are in a theoretical sight of view.

  • 100. 
    Which map datum should be selected at GPS initialization?
    • A. 

      (1) EUROPE.

    • B. 

      (2) NAD83.

    • C. 

      (3) WGS84.

  • 101. 
    Which velocity is measured in principle by every GPS instrument?
    • A. 

      (1) True Air Speed.

    • B. 

      (2) Ground Speed.

    • C. 

      (3) Vertical Speed.

    • D. 

      (4) Wind Speed.

  • 102. 
    A GPS signal may be interrupted when transmitting on VHF frequencies
    • A. 

      (1) 121.15 MHz, 121.17 MHz in 121.20 MHz.

    • B. 

      (2) 131.25 MHz in 131.30 MHz.

    • C. 

      (3) Both answers are correct.

  • 103. 
    In a RNAV mode, the lateral deflection of the CDI indicates
    • A. 

      (1) degrees left or right of course.

    • B. 

      (2) statute miles left or right of course.

    • C. 

      (3) nautical miles left or right of course.