737 Flight Management, Nav

53 Questions

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737 Flight Management, Nav

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Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    Magnetic variation stored in each IRS memory is between:
    • A. 

      70 degrees 15'N to 70 degrees 15'S

    • B. 

      73 degrees N to 60 degrees S.

    • C. 

      82 degrees N to 82 degrees S.

    • D. 

      78 degrees 25'N to 78 degrees 25'S.

  • 2. 
    The airplane is not certified for operations:
    • A. 

      Above 78 degrees 15'N or below 78 degrees 15'S.

    • B. 

      Above 73 degrees N or below 60 degrees S.

    • C. 

      Above 82 degrees N or below 82 degrees S.

    • D. 

      The airplane is certified for operations at all altitudes.

  • 3. 
    When the FMC is not receiving required fuel data:
    • A. 

      VNAV disengages and VNAV operation is not possible.

    • B. 

      The scratchpad message "USING RSV FUEL" may be displayed.

    • C. 

      The pilot is responsible for periodic entry of fuel weight in order to keep gross weight value current.

    • D. 

      Both b and c are correct.

  • 4. 
    With HDG SEL, engaged, selecting LNAV will:
    • A. 

      Engage if the airplane is within 3 nm of the LNAV course, regardless of heading

    • B. 

      Arm if the airplane is on an intercept heading of 90 degrees or more regardless of distance from the LNAV course.

    • C. 

      Engage if the airplane is on an intercept heading of 90 degrees or less and the intercept will occur before the active waypoint.

    • D. 

      Both a and c are correct.

  • 5. 
    An acceptable required time of arrival entry found on ACT RTA PROGRESS page 2/3 is
    • A. 

      10/30/45.

    • B. 

      10304.

    • C. 

      10/30.5.

    • D. 

      103045Z.

  • 6. 
    If an engine fails during flight:
    • A. 

      Execution of the ENGINE OUT page disengages VNAV and all subsequent performance predictions are blanked.

    • B. 

      Execution of the ENGINE OUT page disengages VNAV and all performance data must be reentered before VNAV can be reengaged.

    • C. 

      The MOD ENGINE OUT CRZ page is information only. The execute light does not illuminate.

    • D. 

      VNAV immediately disengages and cannot be reengaged.

  • 7. 
    • A. 

      FMC calculated speed and altitude data for each waypoint.

    • B. 

      Manually entered speed and altitude restrictions for each waypoint.

    • C. 

      ETA and forecast wind data for cruising points.

    • D. 

      All of the above are correct.

  • 8. 
    When an active database expires in flight, the expired database continues to be used until the active data is changed after landing.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 9. 
    When aligning the IRS between 78.25 N or S latitude:
    • A. 

      Rotate the MSU switch from OFF to ALIGN.

    • B. 

      Alignment time will vary from 5 minutes to seventeen minutes depending on airplane latitude.

    • C. 

      The alignment process begins when the ON DC light illuminates and the ALIGN light extinguishes.

    • D. 

      Airplane present position is not a required entry.

  • 10. 
    The FMC supplies a default required navigation performance (RNP) value that:
    • A. 

      Should not exceed actual navigation performance.

    • B. 

      With RNP exceeded, the message FMC appeals on the scratch pad.

    • C. 

      Is shown on the POS SHIFT page 3/3 only.

    • D. 

      Is used for takeoff, enroute, oceanic, terminal, and approach phases of flight.

  • 11. 
    What does the DES NOW prompt on the standard DES page provide?
    • A. 

      Provides a DES NOW display in ACT or MOD mode.

    • B. 

      Execution allows early initiation of a SPD descent at 1000 FPM until intercepting the computed path.

    • C. 

      Execution allows early initiation of a SPD descent at the specified speed (ECON or manual).

    • D. 

      Arms the DES NOW function and extinguishes the EXEC light

  • 12. 
    During an IRS alignment a flashing white ALIGN light indicates alignment cannot be completed due to IRS detection of:
    • A. 

      A significant difference between previous and entered position.

    • B. 

      An unreasonable present position.

    • C. 

      A related IRS operating in the ALIGN mode.

    • D. 

      Both a and b are correct.

  • 13. 
    The transition altitude of the FMC PERF INIT page:
    • A. 

      Displays 10,000 feet at FMC power up.

    • B. 

      Changes after selecting a departure procedure with a different altitude.

    • C. 

      Cannot be manually changed by the crew to a new altitude.

    • D. 

      Is automatically entered when the TRIP/CRZ altitude is entered in the FMC

  • 14. 
    Fuel onboard is automatically displayed as received from the airplane fuel summation unit and:
    • A. 

      A valid fuel entry is xxx.xx.

    • B. 

      Airplane zero fuel weight is not a required entry.

    • C. 

      When FMC is not receiving the required fuel data, displayed dashes and manual fuel weight entry is not possible.

    • D. 

      Normally the ZFW is entered from the airplane dispatch papers and the FMC calculates the airplane gross weight.

  • 15. 
    After completing the FMC CDU preflight actions, you look at the "POS INIT" page again. The "SET IRS POS" line is missing. What is required?
    • A. 

      Nothing. This is a normal indication once both IRS's have entered the NAV mode.

    • B. 

      Re-enter PPOS LAT/LONG into the FMC.

    • C. 

      The alignment was not performed Cycle the IRS's to OFF and start a new alignment, then re-enter PPOS LAT/LONG.

    • D. 

      Return to ALIGN, then NAV, and enter the PPOS LAT/LONG into the left or right IRS unit.

  • 16. 
    When the FMC is not receiving the required fuel data information from the Fuel summation unit, a manual entry is possible
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 17. 
    Which factor is not considered in the FMC TRIP/CRZ computation?
    • A. 

      GROSS WEIGHT

    • B. 

      COST INDEX

    • C. 

      ORIGIN

    • D. 

      RESERVES

  • 18. 
    What does MOD on an FMC page title indicate?
    • A. 

      The route is MODem and up-to-date.

    • B. 

      A modification is made to the active route or performance mode.

    • C. 

      The destination is MODESTO IAP.

    • D. 

      MOD is the name of the company route goes between BFI and MWH.

  • 19. 
    On the FMC RTE page, the origin airport will still have to be entered if the company route is entered.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 20. 
    Pushing the ACTIVATE key arms the route for execution as the active route.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 21. 
    On the FMC RTE page invalid VIA entries are:
    • A. 

      Airways and company routes which do contain the VIA waypoint of the previous line.

    • B. 

      Airways and company routes that are in the navigation database.

    • C. 

      Airways or company routes that are in their performance database.

    • D. 

      Airways or company routes which do not contain the TO waypoint of the previous line.

  • 22. 
    Selection of an ILS approach or runway from a DEPARTURES/ ARRIVALS page will automatically remove a previously selected approach or runway.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 23. 
    Arrivals can be selected on the FMC for either the origin or destination airport.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 24. 
    On the FIX page, radial/ distance from the fix, displays the radial and distance from the fix to the airplane. This information is continually updated as the airplane position changes.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 25. 
    The fuel quantity displayed on the FMC PROGRESS page 1 is:
    • A. 

      Wing tank fuel only.

    • B. 

      Center tank fuel only.

    • C. 

      Total fuel quantity remaining direct Born the feel summation unit.

    • D. 

      Total feel used since engine start, based on fuel inputs to the FMC.

  • 26. 
    Waypoints of the active RTE LEGS page can be entered and moved. This includes:
    • A. 

      Adding new waypoints.

    • B. 

      Removing existing waypoints.

    • C. 

      Resequencing existing waypoints.

    • D. 

      All of the above are correct.

  • 27. 
    The purpose of the FMC FIX INFO page is to:
    • A. 

      Identify waypoint fixes for display on the navigation display.

    • B. 

      Copy fix information into the route, if desired.

    • C. 

      Allow page access via the INFO key.

    • D. 

      Both a and b are correct.

  • 28. 
    The SELECT DESIRED WPT page is automatically displayed when the FMC encounters more than one location for the same waypoint name after a waypoint entry
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 29. 
    To climb in the shortest horizontal distance, MAX ANGLE should be selected on this FMC page:
    • A. 

      CRZ.

    • B. 

      PROG.

    • C. 

      CLB.

    • D. 

      PERF.

  • 30. 
    On the FMC CDU, how is the MOD CRZ CLB page automatically displayed?
    • A. 

      Entering a higher CRZ ALT on line 1L of the CRZ page.

    • B. 

      Pressing the CLB Mode Key during cruise.

    • C. 

      Entering a higher cruising altitude in the STEP TO line on the CRZ page.

    • D. 

      All of the above are correct.

  • 31. 
    On the cruise page, the Turbulence N1 (TURB N1):
    • A. 

      Is line selected to the scratch pad on the Cruise page and transferred to the N1 LIMIT page for activation and execution.

    • B. 

      Is executed on the Cruise page.

    • C. 

      Displays proper N1 for turbulence penetration. Value is for reference only. It not commanded to the autothrottle.

    • D. 

      Is the minimum speed commanded by tile autothrottle during all flight conditions to ensure safe penetration when it is encountered.

  • 32. 
    The RTE LEGS pages are used to manage route restrictions and modify the route.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 33. 
    Airways, such as V2, can be entered on the FMC RTE page.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 34. 
    In the FMC a lateral offset may be specified up to 99.9 miles. Some legs are invalid for offset. One of these is:
    • A. 

      Beginning of a flight plan waypoint

    • B. 

      Discontinuity.

    • C. 

      PPOS holding pattern.

    • D. 

      Course change greater than 90 degrees.

  • 35. 
    During cruise, the primary FMC pages are:
    • A. 

      RTE LEGS, PROGRESS, CRZ, and INTC CRS.

    • B. 

      FMC NAV, PROGRESS, CRZ.

    • C. 

      RTE LEGS, PROGRESS and CRZ.

    • D. 

      NAV STATUS, PROGRESS, and RTE LEGS.

  • 36. 
    In the VNAV descent mode, the path mode controls descent to fly a vertical path which complies with altitude and speed restrictions in the flight path.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 37. 
    The FMC Advisory Message "DRAG REQUIRED" indicates the airplane is 10 knots or more above the FMC target speed or within 5 knots of Vmo/ Mmo.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 38. 
    The FMC Advisory Message "BUFFET ALERT" indicates:
    • A. 

      Current conditions result in a maneuver margin less than specified.

    • B. 

      Clear air turbulence has been detected in the immediate flight path.

    • C. 

      The airplane is in a partial or full stall.

    • D. 

      The crew's dinner is being prepared in the galley.

  • 39. 
    The FMC Alerting Message "SELECT MODE AFTER. RTA" means:
    • A. 

      RTA mode has been discontinued due to sequencing of the RTA waypoint.

    • B. 

      The RTA time does not fall within the earliest and latest takeoff time.

    • C. 

      RTA mode has been discontinued because the RTA waypoint has been removed from the Flight Plan.

    • D. 

      Both a and c are correct.

  • 40. 
    In the RTA navigation mode, after RTA waypoint entry, the CDU initially displays:
    • A. 

      Current ETA based on the active flight plan

    • B. 

      Performance parameters at the time of waypoint entry.

    • C. 

      Desired RTA and may not be overwritten.

    • D. 

      Both a and b are correct.

  • 41. 
    Speed restriction (SPD REST) displays the most restrictive of the following speeds:
    • A. 

      Destination airport speed minus 5 knots.

    • B. 

      Waypoint speed restriction if greater than 200 knots.

    • C. 

      Minimum flaps up maneuvering speed.

    • D. 

      Minimum flap restriction speed.

  • 42. 
    Vertical Path Parameters (FPA, V/B, V/S) display which of the following parameters related to the present vertical path:
    • A. 

      FPA-actual flight path angle based on flight plan ground speed and vertical speed.

    • B. 

      V/B vertical bearing direct from present position of the WPT/ALT line.

    • C. 

      V/S-the required vertical speed to fly the displayed FPA.

    • D. 

      Blank if there is no entry on the FPA/VS line.

  • 43. 
    When airplane gross weight is not available from the EMC, the Approach Ref page will be:
    • A. 

      Flashing.

    • B. 

      Blank.

    • C. 

      Box prompts.

    • D. 

      INVALID".

  • 44. 
    What information is available with the IRS mode selector in ATT?
    • A. 

      Only attitude information.

    • B. 

      Only heading information.

    • C. 

      Only attitude and heading information.

    • D. 

      Only altitude information.

  • 45. 
    During the PRELIMINARY COCKPIT PREPARATION, the IRS Mode Selectors are positioned to:
    • A. 

      ALIGN.

    • B. 

      NAV.

    • C. 

      ATT.

    • D. 

      ON.

  • 46. 
    When the IRS's are operating in the normal navigation mode they provide:
    • A. 

      Attitude and true and magnetic heading.

    • B. 

      Acceleration, vertical speed, and ground speed.

    • C. 

      Track, present position, and wind data.

    • D. 

      All of the above

  • 47. 
    A fast realignment should be complete in:
    • A. 

      30 seconds.

    • B. 

      1 minute.

    • C. 

      5 minutes.

    • D. 

      10 minutes.

  • 48. 
    When does an IRS automatically enter the navigation mode?
    • A. 

      The mode selector is moved from OFF to ALIGN and 10 minutes have elapsed.

    • B. 

      The mode selector is in NAV, present position entered, and alignment is complete.

    • C. 

      The mode selector is moved from ATT to NAV and alignment is complete.

    • D. 

      When all of the information is available for normal operations in the ALIGN mode.

  • 49. 
    Which of the following is not a major component of the inertial system?
    • A. 

      Air data inertial reference units (ADIRU).

    • B. 

      Inertial system display unit (ISDU).

    • C. 

      Instrument Display Unit (IDU) transfer switch.

    • D. 

      Mode select unit (MSU)

  • 50. 
    If the FAULT light on the IRS Mode Selector Unit illuminates, it indicates:
    • A. 

      The IRS is NOT in ALIGN mode.

    • B. 

      An entry of an invalid present position.

    • C. 

      A system fault affecting the related IRS ATT and/or NAV mode has been detected.

    • D. 

      That DC power for the respective IRS is not normal.

  • 51. 
    During the PRELIMINARY COCKPIT PREPARATION the pilot accidentally moves the IRS Mode Selector switch from OFF to ATT instead of from OFF to NAV. How can normal IRS operation be regained?
    • A. 

      Switch to OFF, wait for ALIGN tights to extinguish, then perform full alignment procedures.

    • B. 

      Switch directly to NAV from the ATT position.

    • C. 

      Switch to the ALIGN position then to NAV.

    • D. 

      Switch to the OFF position for 1 minute and then to ATT.

  • 52. 
    On which CDU page is the ground speed displayed?
    • A. 

      PROGRESS page 1.

    • B. 

      CRUISE.

    • C. 

      POS REF page 2/3.

    • D. 

      POS INIT page 1.

  • 53. 
    An entry of .720 for descent into the TGT SPD line on the FMC ECON PATH DES page will:
    • A. 

      Change the descent mode to a M .720 SPD DES.

    • B. 

      Change the page title to display M .720 PATH DES.

    • C. 

      Result in VNAV disengagement.

    • D. 

      Result in VNAV and LNAV disengagement.