737 Flight Management, Nav

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737 Flight Management, Nav - Quiz

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Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    Magnetic variation stored in each IRS memory is between:

    • A.

      70 degrees 15'N to 70 degrees 15'S

    • B.

      73 degrees N to 60 degrees S.

    • C.

      82 degrees N to 82 degrees S.

    • D.

      78 degrees 25'N to 78 degrees 25'S.

    Correct Answer
    C. 82 degrees N to 82 degrees S.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 82 degrees N to 82 degrees S. This range indicates that the magnetic variation stored in each IRS memory can be between 82 degrees north and 82 degrees south. Magnetic variation refers to the difference between true north and magnetic north, and it can vary depending on the location on Earth. This answer suggests that the IRS memory can store magnetic variation values for any location within this range.

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  • 2. 

    The airplane is not certified for operations:

    • A.

      Above 78 degrees 15'N or below 78 degrees 15'S.

    • B.

      Above 73 degrees N or below 60 degrees S.

    • C.

      Above 82 degrees N or below 82 degrees S.

    • D.

      The airplane is certified for operations at all altitudes.

    Correct Answer
    C. Above 82 degrees N or below 82 degrees S.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Above 82 degrees N or below 82 degrees S." This answer states that the airplane is not certified for operations in latitudes above 82 degrees North or below 82 degrees South. This means that the airplane cannot safely operate in extreme polar regions. The other options do not mention these specific latitudes, so they are not relevant to the certification of the airplane for operations in those areas.

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  • 3. 

    When the FMC is not receiving required fuel data:

    • A.

      VNAV disengages and VNAV operation is not possible.

    • B.

      The scratchpad message "USING RSV FUEL" may be displayed.

    • C.

      The pilot is responsible for periodic entry of fuel weight in order to keep gross weight value current.

    • D.

      Both b and c are correct.

    Correct Answer
    D. Both b and c are correct.
    Explanation
    When the FMC is not receiving required fuel data, VNAV disengages and VNAV operation is not possible. Additionally, the scratchpad message "USING RSV FUEL" may be displayed. The pilot is responsible for periodically entering the fuel weight to ensure the gross weight value is up to date. Therefore, both options b and c are correct.

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  • 4. 

    With HDG SEL, engaged, selecting LNAV will:

    • A.

      Engage if the airplane is within 3 nm of the LNAV course, regardless of heading

    • B.

      Arm if the airplane is on an intercept heading of 90 degrees or more regardless of distance from the LNAV course.

    • C.

      Engage if the airplane is on an intercept heading of 90 degrees or less and the intercept will occur before the active waypoint.

    • D.

      Both a and c are correct.

    Correct Answer
    D. Both a and c are correct.
    Explanation
    When HDG SEL is engaged and LNAV is selected, it will engage if the airplane is within 3 nm of the LNAV course, regardless of the heading. Additionally, it will also engage if the airplane is on an intercept heading of 90 degrees or less and the intercept will occur before the active waypoint. Therefore, both options a and c are correct.

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  • 5. 

    An acceptable required time of arrival entry found on ACT RTA PROGRESS page 2/3 is

    • A.

      10/30/45.

    • B.

      10304.

    • C.

      10/30.5.

    • D.

      103045Z.

    Correct Answer
    D. 103045Z.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 103045Z because it follows the standard format for a required time of arrival entry. The "Z" at the end indicates that the time is in UTC (Coordinated Universal Time). The numbers "103045" represent the time in hours, minutes, and seconds (10:30:45).

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  • 6. 

    If an engine fails during flight:

    • A.

      Execution of the ENGINE OUT page disengages VNAV and all subsequent performance predictions are blanked.

    • B.

      Execution of the ENGINE OUT page disengages VNAV and all performance data must be reentered before VNAV can be reengaged.

    • C.

      The MOD ENGINE OUT CRZ page is information only. The execute light does not illuminate.

    • D.

      VNAV immediately disengages and cannot be reengaged.

    Correct Answer
    C. The MOD ENGINE OUT CRZ page is information only. The execute light does not illuminate.
    Explanation
    The correct answer states that the MOD ENGINE OUT CRZ page is only for informational purposes and that the execute light does not illuminate. This means that this page does not have any operational function and cannot be used to engage or disengage any system or feature. It is simply there to provide information to the pilot.

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  • 7. 

    Which data is available by line selecting the RTE DATA prompt on the ACT RTE LEGS page?

    • A.

      FMC calculated speed and altitude data for each waypoint.

    • B.

      Manually entered speed and altitude restrictions for each waypoint.

    • C.

      ETA and forecast wind data for cruising points.

    • D.

      All of the above are correct.

    Correct Answer
    C. ETA and forecast wind data for cruising points.
    Explanation
    By selecting the RTE DATA prompt on the ACT RTE LEGS page, the data available includes ETA (Estimated Time of Arrival) and forecast wind data for cruising points. This means that the system provides information about the expected arrival time at each waypoint along the route and also provides data on the forecasted wind conditions at those points.

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  • 8. 

    When an active database expires in flight, the expired database continues to be used until the active data is changed after landing.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    When an active database expires in flight, it means that the database's validity period has ended. However, the expired database continues to be used until the active data is changed after landing. This suggests that even though the database has expired, it can still be accessed and utilized until any modifications are made to the active data after landing. Therefore, the statement "True" is correct.

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  • 9. 

    When aligning the IRS between 78.25 N or S latitude:

    • A.

      Rotate the MSU switch from OFF to ALIGN.

    • B.

      Alignment time will vary from 5 minutes to seventeen minutes depending on airplane latitude.

    • C.

      The alignment process begins when the ON DC light illuminates and the ALIGN light extinguishes.

    • D.

      Airplane present position is not a required entry.

    Correct Answer
    B. Alignment time will vary from 5 minutes to seventeen minutes depending on airplane latitude.
    Explanation
    The correct answer states that the alignment time of the IRS (Inertial Reference System) will vary between 5 minutes and seventeen minutes depending on the latitude of the airplane. This means that the time it takes for the IRS to align itself and provide accurate navigation information will be different depending on how close the airplane is to the North or South poles. The closer the airplane is to the poles, the longer it will take for the alignment process to complete.

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  • 10. 

    The FMC supplies a default required navigation performance (RNP) value that:

    • A.

      Should not exceed actual navigation performance.

    • B.

      With RNP exceeded, the message FMC appeals on the scratch pad.

    • C.

      Is shown on the POS SHIFT page 3/3 only.

    • D.

      Is used for takeoff, enroute, oceanic, terminal, and approach phases of flight.

    Correct Answer
    D. Is used for takeoff, enroute, oceanic, terminal, and approach phases of flight.
    Explanation
    The FMC supplies a default required navigation performance (RNP) value that is used for all phases of flight, including takeoff, enroute, oceanic, terminal, and approach.

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  • 11. 

    What does the DES NOW prompt on the standard DES page provide?

    • A.

      Provides a DES NOW display in ACT or MOD mode.

    • B.

      Execution allows early initiation of a SPD descent at 1000 FPM until intercepting the computed path.

    • C.

      Execution allows early initiation of a SPD descent at the specified speed (ECON or manual).

    • D.

      Arms the DES NOW function and extinguishes the EXEC light

    Correct Answer
    B. Execution allows early initiation of a SPD descent at 1000 FPM until intercepting the computed path.
    Explanation
    The DES NOW prompt on the standard DES page allows for the early initiation of a speed descent at a rate of 1000 feet per minute (FPM) until intercepting the computed path. This means that the aircraft will begin descending at a predetermined speed and rate in order to reach the desired altitude or waypoint. This option provides a more efficient and controlled descent, allowing for smoother transitions and better fuel management.

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  • 12. 

    During an IRS alignment a flashing white ALIGN light indicates alignment cannot be completed due to IRS detection of:

    • A.

      A significant difference between previous and entered position.

    • B.

      An unreasonable present position.

    • C.

      A related IRS operating in the ALIGN mode.

    • D.

      Both a and b are correct.

    Correct Answer
    D. Both a and b are correct.
    Explanation
    During an IRS alignment, a flashing white ALIGN light indicates that the alignment cannot be completed due to the IRS detecting either a significant difference between the previously entered position and the current position or an unreasonable present position. Therefore, both options a and b are correct.

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  • 13. 

    The transition altitude of the FMC PERF INIT page:

    • A.

      Displays 10,000 feet at FMC power up.

    • B.

      Changes after selecting a departure procedure with a different altitude.

    • C.

      Cannot be manually changed by the crew to a new altitude.

    • D.

      Is automatically entered when the TRIP/CRZ altitude is entered in the FMC

    Correct Answer
    B. Changes after selecting a departure procedure with a different altitude.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Changes after selecting a departure procedure with a different altitude." This means that the transition altitude displayed on the FMC PERF INIT page will be updated to reflect the altitude specified in the selected departure procedure. The transition altitude is the altitude at which the aircraft transitions from using the altimeter to using the standard pressure setting.

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  • 14. 

    Fuel onboard is automatically displayed as received from the airplane fuel summation unit and:

    • A.

      A valid fuel entry is xxx.xx.

    • B.

      Airplane zero fuel weight is not a required entry.

    • C.

      When FMC is not receiving the required fuel data, displayed dashes and manual fuel weight entry is not possible.

    • D.

      Normally the ZFW is entered from the airplane dispatch papers and the FMC calculates the airplane gross weight.

    Correct Answer
    D. Normally the ZFW is entered from the airplane dispatch papers and the FMC calculates the airplane gross weight.
    Explanation
    The correct answer explains that normally, the Zero Fuel Weight (ZFW) is entered from the airplane dispatch papers, and the Flight Management Computer (FMC) calculates the airplane's gross weight. This implies that the FMC relies on the ZFW input to determine the aircraft's weight and make accurate calculations for fuel consumption, performance, and other parameters. It also suggests that the FMC does not require the airplane's zero fuel weight as a mandatory entry.

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  • 15. 

    After completing the FMC CDU preflight actions, you look at the "POS INIT" page again. The "SET IRS POS" line is missing. What is required?

    • A.

      Nothing. This is a normal indication once both IRS's have entered the NAV mode.

    • B.

      Re-enter PPOS LAT/LONG into the FMC.

    • C.

      The alignment was not performed Cycle the IRS's to OFF and start a new alignment, then re-enter PPOS LAT/LONG.

    • D.

      Return to ALIGN, then NAV, and enter the PPOS LAT/LONG into the left or right IRS unit.

    Correct Answer
    A. Nothing. This is a normal indication once both IRS's have entered the NAV mode.
    Explanation
    The "SET IRS POS" line is missing on the "POS INIT" page because both IRS's have entered the NAV mode. This is a normal indication and does not require any action.

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  • 16. 

    When the FMC is not receiving the required fuel data information from the Fuel summation unit, a manual entry is possible

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    When the Flight Management Computer (FMC) is not receiving the necessary fuel data from the Fuel Summation Unit, a manual entry can be made. This means that if there is a problem with the automatic fuel information system, the pilot or operator can manually input the fuel data into the FMC. This allows the aircraft to continue operating with accurate fuel calculations and ensures that the FMC has the necessary information for flight planning and performance calculations.

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  • 17. 

    Which factor is not considered in the FMC TRIP/CRZ computation?

    • A.

      GROSS WEIGHT

    • B.

      COST INDEX

    • C.

      ORIGIN

    • D.

      RESERVES

    Correct Answer
    D. RESERVES
    Explanation
    The factor that is not considered in the FMC TRIP/CRZ computation is RESERVES. The FMC TRIP/CRZ computation takes into account factors such as GROSS WEIGHT, COST INDEX, and ORIGIN. However, RESERVES, which refers to the amount of fuel or other resources set aside for emergencies or unexpected situations, is not considered in this computation.

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  • 18. 

    What does MOD on an FMC page title indicate?

    • A.

      The route is MODem and up-to-date.

    • B.

      A modification is made to the active route or performance mode.

    • C.

      The destination is MODESTO IAP.

    • D.

      MOD is the name of the company route goes between BFI and MWH.

    Correct Answer
    B. A modification is made to the active route or performance mode.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "A modification is made to the active route or performance mode." This is indicated by the MOD on an FMC page title. It suggests that a change or adjustment has been made to the current route or the performance mode of the aircraft.

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  • 19. 

    On the FMC RTE page, the origin airport will still have to be entered if the company route is entered.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    On the FMC RTE page, the origin airport does not have to be entered if the company route is entered. This is because the company route already includes the origin airport as part of the pre-defined route. Therefore, there is no need to manually enter the origin airport again.

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  • 20. 

    Pushing the ACTIVATE key arms the route for execution as the active route.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Pushing the ACTIVATE key is the action that enables the route to be executed as the active route. This suggests that when the ACTIVATE key is pressed, the system acknowledges the route and prepares it for execution. Therefore, the statement "Pushing the ACTIVATE key arms the route for execution as the active route" is true.

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  • 21. 

    On the FMC RTE page invalid VIA entries are:

    • A.

      Airways and company routes which do contain the VIA waypoint of the previous line.

    • B.

      Airways and company routes that are in the navigation database.

    • C.

      Airways or company routes that are in their performance database.

    • D.

      Airways or company routes which do not contain the TO waypoint of the previous line.

    Correct Answer
    D. Airways or company routes which do not contain the TO waypoint of the previous line.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Airways or company routes which do not contain the TO waypoint of the previous line." This means that on the FMC RTE page, if an airway or company route does not include the TO waypoint from the previous line, it is considered an invalid VIA entry. This is important because the VIA entries are used to define the route that the aircraft will follow, and if there is a missing TO waypoint, it could result in an incorrect or incomplete flight plan.

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  • 22. 

    Selection of an ILS approach or runway from a DEPARTURES/ ARRIVALS page will automatically remove a previously selected approach or runway.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    When selecting an ILS approach or runway from a DEPARTURES/ ARRIVALS page, the system automatically removes any previously selected approach or runway. This means that only one approach or runway can be selected at a time, ensuring that the pilot or air traffic controller is focused on a single option and avoids any confusion or conflicting instructions. Therefore, the statement is true.

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  • 23. 

    Arrivals can be selected on the FMC for either the origin or destination airport.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    The statement is true because on the Flight Management Computer (FMC), pilots have the ability to select and view the arrivals for either the origin or destination airport. This allows them to plan and prepare for the approach and landing phase of the flight, ensuring a smooth and efficient arrival at the chosen airport.

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  • 24. 

    On the FIX page, radial/ distance from the fix, displays the radial and distance from the fix to the airplane. This information is continually updated as the airplane position changes.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    The statement is true because on the FIX page, the radial and distance from the fix to the airplane are displayed. This information is constantly updated to reflect any changes in the airplane's position.

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  • 25. 

    The fuel quantity displayed on the FMC PROGRESS page 1 is:

    • A.

      Wing tank fuel only.

    • B.

      Center tank fuel only.

    • C.

      Total fuel quantity remaining direct Born the feel summation unit.

    • D.

      Total feel used since engine start, based on fuel inputs to the FMC.

    Correct Answer
    C. Total fuel quantity remaining direct Born the feel summation unit.
    Explanation
    The fuel quantity displayed on the FMC PROGRESS page 1 is the total fuel quantity remaining, directly from the fuel summation unit. This means that the displayed value represents the total amount of fuel remaining in all tanks, including both the wing tanks and the center tank. It does not indicate the total fuel used since engine start or the fuel quantity in any specific tank.

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  • 26. 

    Waypoints of the active RTE LEGS page can be entered and moved. This includes:

    • A.

      Adding new waypoints.

    • B.

      Removing existing waypoints.

    • C.

      Resequencing existing waypoints.

    • D.

      All of the above are correct.

    Correct Answer
    D. All of the above are correct.
    Explanation
    The given statement explains that on the active RTE LEGS page, users have the ability to perform various actions with waypoints. They can add new waypoints, remove existing waypoints, and resequence the order of existing waypoints. Therefore, all of the options mentioned are correct.

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  • 27. 

    The purpose of the FMC FIX INFO page is to:

    • A.

      Identify waypoint fixes for display on the navigation display.

    • B.

      Copy fix information into the route, if desired.

    • C.

      Allow page access via the INFO key.

    • D.

      Both a and b are correct.

    Correct Answer
    D. Both a and b are correct.
    Explanation
    The FMC FIX INFO page serves two purposes. Firstly, it identifies waypoint fixes that are to be displayed on the navigation display. This helps pilots to visually track their aircraft's position and progress along the flight route. Secondly, it allows pilots to copy fix information into the route, if desired. This feature enables pilots to easily incorporate fixes into their flight plan, enhancing navigation accuracy. Therefore, both options a and b are correct as they accurately describe the functions of the FMC FIX INFO page.

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  • 28. 

    The SELECT DESIRED WPT page is automatically displayed when the FMC encounters more than one location for the same waypoint name after a waypoint entry

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    When the Flight Management Computer (FMC) encounters multiple locations for the same waypoint name after a waypoint entry, the SELECT DESIRED WPT page is automatically displayed. This page allows the pilot to select the desired waypoint from the list of options. Therefore, the statement "True" is correct.

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  • 29. 

    To climb in the shortest horizontal distance, MAX ANGLE should be selected on this FMC page:

    • A.

      CRZ.

    • B.

      PROG.

    • C.

      CLB.

    • D.

      PERF.

    Correct Answer
    C. CLB.
    Explanation
    To climb in the shortest horizontal distance, the MAX ANGLE should be selected on the CLB (Climb) page of the FMC (Flight Management Computer). This setting allows the aircraft to climb at the steepest possible angle, which results in the shortest distance covered horizontally during the climb. By selecting this option, the aircraft can efficiently gain altitude while minimizing the distance traveled.

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  • 30. 

    On the FMC CDU, how is the MOD CRZ CLB page automatically displayed?

    • A.

      Entering a higher CRZ ALT on line 1L of the CRZ page.

    • B.

      Pressing the CLB Mode Key during cruise.

    • C.

      Entering a higher cruising altitude in the STEP TO line on the CRZ page.

    • D.

      All of the above are correct.

    Correct Answer
    A. Entering a higher CRZ ALT on line 1L of the CRZ page.
    Explanation
    When a pilot enters a higher CRZ ALT (cruising altitude) on line 1L of the CRZ (cruise) page on the FMC CDU (Flight Management Computer Control Display Unit), the MOD CRZ CLB (Modified Cruise Climb) page is automatically displayed. This page allows the pilot to input a different climb profile for the aircraft during cruise, such as a higher climb rate or a different speed schedule. Pressing the CLB Mode Key during cruise and entering a higher cruising altitude in the STEP TO line on the CRZ page are not correct explanations for the automatic display of the MOD CRZ CLB page.

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  • 31. 

    On the cruise page, the Turbulence N1 (TURB N1):

    • A.

      Is line selected to the scratch pad on the Cruise page and transferred to the N1 LIMIT page for activation and execution.

    • B.

      Is executed on the Cruise page.

    • C.

      Displays proper N1 for turbulence penetration. Value is for reference only. It not commanded to the autothrottle.

    • D.

      Is the minimum speed commanded by tile autothrottle during all flight conditions to ensure safe penetration when it is encountered.

    Correct Answer
    C. Displays proper N1 for turbulence penetration. Value is for reference only. It not commanded to the autothrottle.
    Explanation
    The correct answer states that the Turbulence N1 (TURB N1) displays the proper N1 for turbulence penetration, but this value is only for reference and is not commanded to the autothrottle. This means that the displayed N1 value is not used to control the autothrottle, but rather serves as a reference for the pilots to understand the appropriate N1 setting for turbulence penetration.

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  • 32. 

    The RTE LEGS pages are used to manage route restrictions and modify the route.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    The statement is true because the RTE LEGS pages are indeed used to manage route restrictions and modify the route. These pages provide a platform for users to input and update information regarding any restrictions or modifications that need to be made to a particular route. This allows for efficient management and adjustment of routes as needed.

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  • 33. 

    Airways, such as V2, can be entered on the FMC RTE page.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Airways, such as V2, can be entered on the FMC RTE page. This statement is true. The FMC (Flight Management Computer) allows pilots to enter the planned route for their flight. This includes waypoints, airways, and other navigational information. Airways are predefined routes that aircraft can follow, typically between navigational aids or waypoints. By entering the desired airway, such as V2, on the FMC RTE page, pilots can ensure that their aircraft follows the designated route during the flight.

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  • 34. 

    In the FMC a lateral offset may be specified up to 99.9 miles. Some legs are invalid for offset. One of these is:

    • A.

      Beginning of a flight plan waypoint

    • B.

      Discontinuity.

    • C.

      PPOS holding pattern.

    • D.

      Course change greater than 90 degrees.

    Correct Answer
    B. Discontinuity.
    Explanation
    A discontinuity refers to a gap or break in the flight plan where there is no defined route or waypoint. When a lateral offset is specified in the FMC, it is used to deviate from the planned route by a certain distance. However, this offset cannot be applied at a discontinuity since there is no specific point or route to deviate from. Therefore, a discontinuity is considered invalid for applying a lateral offset.

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  • 35. 

    During cruise, the primary FMC pages are:

    • A.

      RTE LEGS, PROGRESS, CRZ, and INTC CRS.

    • B.

      FMC NAV, PROGRESS, CRZ.

    • C.

      RTE LEGS, PROGRESS and CRZ.

    • D.

      NAV STATUS, PROGRESS, and RTE LEGS.

    Correct Answer
    C. RTE LEGS, PROGRESS and CRZ.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "RTE LEGS, PROGRESS and CRZ." During cruise, the primary FMC pages are RTE LEGS, which displays the planned route and waypoints, PROGRESS, which provides information on the current position, fuel, and time remaining, and CRZ, which allows the pilot to input and monitor cruise altitude, speed, and fuel settings. These pages are essential for monitoring and managing the aircraft's progress and navigation during the cruise phase of the flight.

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  • 36. 

    In the VNAV descent mode, the path mode controls descent to fly a vertical path which complies with altitude and speed restrictions in the flight path.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    The VNAV descent mode is designed to control the descent of an aircraft by following a predetermined vertical path that adheres to specific altitude and speed restrictions along the flight path. This mode ensures that the aircraft descends in a manner that is compliant with the required parameters, enhancing safety and efficiency during the descent phase of the flight. Therefore, the statement is true.

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  • 37. 

    The FMC Advisory Message "DRAG REQUIRED" indicates the airplane is 10 knots or more above the FMC target speed or within 5 knots of Vmo/ Mmo.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    The FMC Advisory Message "DRAG REQUIRED" indicates that the airplane is flying at a speed that is 10 knots or more above the FMC target speed or within 5 knots of the maximum operating speed (Vmo) or maximum Mach operating speed (Mmo). This message is a warning to the pilot that the airplane is flying too fast and that drag needs to be increased to slow down and maintain a safe speed. Therefore, the statement "True" is the correct answer.

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  • 38. 

    The FMC Advisory Message "BUFFET ALERT" indicates:

    • A.

      Current conditions result in a maneuver margin less than specified.

    • B.

      Clear air turbulence has been detected in the immediate flight path.

    • C.

      The airplane is in a partial or full stall.

    • D.

      The crew's dinner is being prepared in the galley.

    Correct Answer
    A. Current conditions result in a maneuver margin less than specified.
    Explanation
    The FMC Advisory Message "BUFFET ALERT" indicates that the current conditions result in a maneuver margin less than specified. This means that the aircraft is experiencing turbulence or other atmospheric conditions that are causing it to become unstable or difficult to control. The message is a warning to the pilots that they may need to take corrective action to maintain control of the aircraft.

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  • 39. 

    The FMC Alerting Message "SELECT MODE AFTER. RTA" means:

    • A.

      RTA mode has been discontinued due to sequencing of the RTA waypoint.

    • B.

      The RTA time does not fall within the earliest and latest takeoff time.

    • C.

      RTA mode has been discontinued because the RTA waypoint has been removed from the Flight Plan.

    • D.

      Both a and c are correct.

    Correct Answer
    D. Both a and c are correct.
    Explanation
    The FMC Alerting Message "SELECT MODE AFTER. RTA" means that both options a and c are correct. This means that RTA mode has been discontinued due to sequencing of the RTA waypoint, and it has also been discontinued because the RTA waypoint has been removed from the Flight Plan.

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  • 40. 

    In the RTA navigation mode, after RTA waypoint entry, the CDU initially displays:

    • A.

      Current ETA based on the active flight plan

    • B.

      Performance parameters at the time of waypoint entry.

    • C.

      Desired RTA and may not be overwritten.

    • D.

      Both a and b are correct.

    Correct Answer
    D. Both a and b are correct.
    Explanation
    In the RTA navigation mode, the CDU initially displays both the current ETA based on the active flight plan and the performance parameters at the time of waypoint entry. This means that the CDU provides information about the estimated time of arrival as well as the performance data relevant to the specific waypoint. Both of these options are correct and are displayed simultaneously on the CDU.

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  • 41. 

    Speed restriction (SPD REST) displays the most restrictive of the following speeds:

    • A.

      Destination airport speed minus 5 knots.

    • B.

      Waypoint speed restriction if greater than 200 knots.

    • C.

      Minimum flaps up maneuvering speed.

    • D.

      Minimum flap restriction speed.

    Correct Answer
    C. Minimum flaps up maneuvering speed.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is the minimum flaps up maneuvering speed. This is because the speed restriction (SPD REST) displays the most restrictive of the given speeds, and the minimum flaps up maneuvering speed is typically the most restrictive speed among the options provided.

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  • 42. 

    Vertical Path Parameters (FPA, V/B, V/S) display which of the following parameters related to the present vertical path:

    • A.

      FPA-actual flight path angle based on flight plan ground speed and vertical speed.

    • B.

      V/B vertical bearing direct from present position of the WPT/ALT line.

    • C.

      V/S-the required vertical speed to fly the displayed FPA.

    • D.

      Blank if there is no entry on the FPA/VS line.

    Correct Answer
    B. V/B vertical bearing direct from present position of the WPT/ALT line.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is V/B, which stands for vertical bearing direct from the present position of the WPT/ALT line. This parameter indicates the angle between the vertical path and the direction from the current position to the desired waypoint or altitude. It helps the pilot in maintaining the correct vertical navigation by providing information on the alignment of the aircraft with the desired path.

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  • 43. 

    When airplane gross weight is not available from the EMC, the Approach Ref page will be:

    • A.

      Flashing.

    • B.

      Blank.

    • C.

      Box prompts.

    • D.

      INVALID".

    Correct Answer
    C. Box prompts.
    Explanation
    When the airplane gross weight is not available from the EMC (Electronic Maintenance Computer), the Approach Ref page will display box prompts. This means that the system is prompting the user to manually enter the necessary gross weight information in order to calculate the approach reference speeds and other relevant data. This ensures that the aircraft's performance calculations are accurate and tailored to its specific weight.

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  • 44. 

    What information is available with the IRS mode selector in ATT?

    • A.

      Only attitude information.

    • B.

      Only heading information.

    • C.

      Only attitude and heading information.

    • D.

      Only altitude information.

    Correct Answer
    C. Only attitude and heading information.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Only attitude and heading information." The IRS mode selector in ATT provides information related to both attitude and heading. This means that it provides data about the aircraft's orientation (attitude) and the direction it is pointing (heading). It does not provide information about altitude or any other parameters.

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  • 45. 

    During the PRELIMINARY COCKPIT PREPARATION, the IRS Mode Selectors are positioned to:

    • A.

      ALIGN.

    • B.

      NAV.

    • C.

      ATT.

    • D.

      ON.

    Correct Answer
    B. NAV.
    Explanation
    During the preliminary cockpit preparation, the IRS (Inertial Reference System) Mode Selectors are positioned to "NAV" which stands for Navigation. This means that the system is set to the navigation mode, allowing the IRS to provide accurate position and navigation information to the aircraft. The NAV mode is crucial for the aircraft to determine its position, track, and other important navigation parameters during the flight.

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  • 46. 

    When the IRS's are operating in the normal navigation mode they provide:

    • A.

      Attitude and true and magnetic heading.

    • B.

      Acceleration, vertical speed, and ground speed.

    • C.

      Track, present position, and wind data.

    • D.

      All of the above

    Correct Answer
    D. All of the above
    Explanation
    When the IRS (Inertial Reference System) is operating in the normal navigation mode, it provides attitude and true and magnetic heading, acceleration, vertical speed, and ground speed, as well as track, present position, and wind data. In other words, all of the given options are correct. The IRS is a navigation system used in aircraft to determine its position, attitude, and other important parameters for navigation purposes.

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  • 47. 

    A fast realignment should be complete in:

    • A.

      30 seconds.

    • B.

      1 minute.

    • C.

      5 minutes.

    • D.

      10 minutes.

    Correct Answer
    A. 30 seconds.
    Explanation
    A fast realignment should be complete in 30 seconds because it is designed to be a quick and efficient process. Realignment typically refers to adjusting or repositioning something, and in this context, it is likely referring to realigning a piece of equipment or machinery. The fact that it should be done in a short timeframe suggests that it is a simple and routine task that can be accomplished swiftly.

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  • 48. 

    When does an IRS automatically enter the navigation mode?

    • A.

      The mode selector is moved from OFF to ALIGN and 10 minutes have elapsed.

    • B.

      The mode selector is in NAV, present position entered, and alignment is complete.

    • C.

      The mode selector is moved from ATT to NAV and alignment is complete.

    • D.

      When all of the information is available for normal operations in the ALIGN mode.

    Correct Answer
    B. The mode selector is in NAV, present position entered, and alignment is complete.
  • 49. 

    Which of the following is not a major component of the inertial system?

    • A.

      Air data inertial reference units (ADIRU).

    • B.

      Inertial system display unit (ISDU).

    • C.

      Instrument Display Unit (IDU) transfer switch.

    • D.

      Mode select unit (MSU)

    Correct Answer
    C. Instrument Display Unit (IDU) transfer switch.
    Explanation
    The inertial system is a navigation system that uses inertial sensors to provide accurate position, velocity, and attitude information. The major components of the inertial system include the Air data inertial reference units (ADIRU), which combine air data and inertial data, the Inertial system display unit (ISDU), which displays the information from the ADIRU, and the Mode select unit (MSU), which allows the pilot to select different modes of operation. The Instrument Display Unit (IDU) transfer switch is not a major component of the inertial system, as it is not directly involved in the navigation function but rather in the transfer of information between different instrument display units.

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  • 50. 

    If the FAULT light on the IRS Mode Selector Unit illuminates, it indicates:

    • A.

      The IRS is NOT in ALIGN mode.

    • B.

      An entry of an invalid present position.

    • C.

      A system fault affecting the related IRS ATT and/or NAV mode has been detected.

    • D.

      That DC power for the respective IRS is not normal.

    Correct Answer
    C. A system fault affecting the related IRS ATT and/or NAV mode has been detected.
    Explanation
    The FAULT light on the IRS Mode Selector Unit illuminates when a system fault affecting the related IRS ATT and/or NAV mode has been detected. This means that there is an issue with the IRS system that is responsible for the aircraft's attitude and navigation modes. It could indicate a malfunction or failure in the IRS system, which needs to be addressed and fixed before further operation.

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Quiz Review Timeline +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 21, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Feb 04, 2019
    Quiz Created by
    Vitalgrados
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