Advanced Navigation Final Practice

90 Questions

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Navigation Quizzes & Trivia

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Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    Which of the following flight instruments are designed to operate in conjunction with ground-based radio frequency nav aids?
    • A. 

      GPS

    • B. 

      Magnetic Compass

    • C. 

      VOR

    • D. 

      Flux-gate Compass

  • 2. 
    With respect to the magnetic compass, deviation is defined as:
    • A. 

      The difference between true course and magnetic course

    • B. 

      Error introduced by magnetic fields local to the instrument

    • C. 

      Error introduced because of very high latitudes

    • D. 

      Compass tendency to "lead" turns in a southerly heading

  • 3. 
    Course lines derived from an aeronautical chart through the use of a plotter yield what type of direction?
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      Magnetic

    • C. 

      Mercator

    • D. 

      Great circle

  • 4. 
    On a chart with a scale of 1:500,000 approximately how many nautical miles are represented by 3 inches
    • A. 

      10

    • B. 

      23.7

    • C. 

      16

    • D. 

      20.5

  • 5. 
    An isogonic line with a value of 20(degrees) E would suggest a heading of what value in order to fly a course of 045 (Degrees) true? (assume no wind)
    • A. 

      025 true

    • B. 

      065 magnetic

    • C. 

      045 magnetic

    • D. 

      025 magnetic

  • 6. 
    What is the approximate difference between the Earth's circumference at the Prime Meridian and its circumference at the equator?
    • A. 

      14 statute miles

    • B. 

      23 nautical miles

    • C. 

      30 statute miles

    • D. 

      72 nautical miles

  • 7. 
    What is the approximate distance between two points on the Earth's surface located at 42 n/104 W, respectively?
    • A. 

      120 nm

    • B. 

      300 nm

    • C. 

      104 nm

    • D. 

      200 nm

  • 8. 
    How many degrees of longitude represent the distance between Greenwich, England and the International date line?
    • A. 

      90

    • B. 

      360

    • C. 

      270

    • D. 

      180

  • 9. 
    A course line that crosses all meridians at a constant angle is known as a:
    • A. 

      Rhumb line course

    • B. 

      Loxodrome

    • C. 

      Straight line on a Mercator Map

    • D. 

      All the above

  • 10. 
    Which choice of navigational chart would be most INAPPROPRIATE for use at the South Pole?
    • A. 

      Mercator Map

    • B. 

      Lambert Conformal Chart

    • C. 

      Azimuthal Equidistant Projection

    • D. 

      Transverse Cylindrical Projection

  • 11. 
    What minimum instruments would be necessary to navigate via "dead Reckoning"?
    • A. 

      Compass, watch , airspeed indicator

    • B. 

      Compass, directional gyro, DME

    • C. 

      GPS, heading indicator, altimeter

    • D. 

      Sextant, chronometer, bowditch

  • 12. 
    The major error affecting the gyroscopic heading indicator and its use in navigating is:
    • A. 

      Magnetic variation

    • B. 

      Apparent precession

    • C. 

      Rigidity in space

    • D. 

      Instrument error

  • 13. 
    If using a sectional chart with standard parallels equal to 33 20' N and 38 40' N, which of the following course lines would exhibit the highest conformality?
    • A. 

      Origin: 39 N/104 W Destination: 35 N/77 W

    • B. 

      Origin: 30 N/105 W Destination: 29 N/70 W

    • C. 

      Origin: 49 N/ Destination: 48 N/ 35 W

    • D. 

      Origin: 50 N/104 W Destination: 45 N/87 W

  • 14. 
    A DME/DME fix is less accurate than a VOR/DME fix
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

    • C. 

      There is no difference between the two

    • D. 

      Option 4

  • 15. 
    Which of the following methods of navigation would result in a great circle track?
    • A. 

      Follow the course given by a "direct to" from a GPS

    • B. 

      Track a single radial to a VOR

    • C. 

      Maintain a bearing to an NDB

    • D. 

      All the above

  • 16. 
    A VOR fix, without DME yields which information?
    • A. 

      Distance to the station

    • B. 

      Time to the station

    • C. 

      Azimuth and heading

    • D. 

      A "line of position"

  • 17. 
    What is the approximate distance between point A (68 35' N / 44 40' W) and point B (75 50'N / 135 20'E) hint: you need no formulae!
    • A. 

      3700 nm

    • B. 

      2135nm

    • C. 

      4800nm

    • D. 

      6315 nm

  • 18. 
    What is the approximate course and distance between points A (25 N/90 W) and B (23 N/87 W)?
    • A. 

      Course = 126; Distance = 204 nm

    • B. 

      Course = 147; Distance = 336 nm

    • C. 

      Course = 310; Distance = 187nm

    • D. 

      Course = 275; Distance = 415nm

  • 19. 
    What is the approximate course and distance between points A (22 30'S/ 43 W) and B (20 40'S/45W)?
    • A. 

      Course=314;distance=157nm

    • B. 

      Course=213;distance=653nm

    • C. 

      Course=033;distance=314nm

    • D. 

      Course=258;distance =423nm

  • 20. 
    What is the great circle distance and beginning course between points A (42 N/104 W) and B(50 N/116 W)?
    • A. 

      Distance = 448nm;beginning course = 318

    • B. 

      Distance = 892nm;beginning course = 137

    • C. 

      Distance = 692nm;beginning course = 318

    • D. 

      Distance = 765nm; beginning course = 220

  • 21. 
    What is the great circle distance and beginning course between points A (75 N/2 E) and B (30 S/2 E)? Hint visualize route
    • A. 

      Distance = 6400 nm; beginning course = 280

    • B. 

      Distance = 2900 nm; beginning course = 130

    • C. 

      Distance 3500nm; beginning course = 000

    • D. 

      Distance 6300nm: beginning course = 180

  • 22. 
    What is your begging magnetic heading on a flight from the magnetic south pole (65 S/139 E) to Christchurch, New Zealand (44 33'S/172 40'E)? visualize the course
    • A. 

      Need the magnetic variation

    • B. 

      318 magnetic

    • C. 

      138 true

    • D. 

      000 magnetic

  • 23. 
    IF, at your present position, the sun is at its highst point in the sky (high noon), and the time is exactly 1800Z (UTC), what is your longitude?
    • A. 

      90 W

    • B. 

      180 W

    • C. 

      90 E

    • D. 

      60 E

  • 24. 
    A Rhumb line on an aeronautical sectional chart would appear as a curved line on a Mercator projection
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

    • C. 

      True, if drawn near equator

    • D. 

      None of the above

  • 25. 
    • A. 

      10 days

    • B. 

      27 days

    • C. 

      30 days

    • D. 

      157 days

  • 26. 
    The "celestial Sphere" is an imaginary , earth-concentric surface which is used as a reference system for the stars and planets
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

    • C. 

      Option 3

    • D. 

      Option 4

  • 27. 
    A celestial objects declination is
    • A. 

      Expressed in degrees north or south of the celestial equator

    • B. 

      Analogous to longitude on the earths surface

    • C. 

      Measured in a westerly direction

    • D. 

      All of the above

  • 28. 
    The sidereal hour angle (SHA) of a celestial object is
    • A. 

      A measure of time referenced to the "first point in Aries"

    • B. 

      Analogous to longitude on the earths surface

    • C. 

      Measured in a westerly direction

    • D. 

      All of the above

  • 29. 
    If the SHA of Vega ( a navigational star) equal 81 degrees and the Greenwich Hour Angle, Aries (GHA of Y) equals 116 degrees, what is the GHA of VEGA
    • A. 

      35 degrees

    • B. 

      17 degrees

    • C. 

      197 degrees

    • D. 

      163 degrees

  • 30. 
    The point where a ling from the celestial objects center to the center of the Earth crosses the Earths surface is known as its
    • A. 

      Celestial longitude

    • B. 

      Right hour of ascension

    • C. 

      Zenith

    • D. 

      Geographic Position

  • 31. 
    If the declination of Rigel ( a navigational star) is 8 degrees 15' S, what is the latitude of its geographic position (GP)?
    • A. 

      98 degrees 15' N

    • B. 

      8 degrees 15'S

    • C. 

      81 degrees 45' N

    • D. 

      8 degrees 15'N

  • 32. 
    The zenith angle of a celestial objects is
    • A. 

      The angle between its GP and the observer, relative to the center of the earth

    • B. 

      The angle observed between the object and the vertical

    • C. 

      The complement of the objects altitude

    • D. 

      All the above

  • 33. 
    If using a VORTAC-based RNAV unit, "waypoints" are defined as:
    • A. 

      GPS- derived latitude/longitude

    • B. 

      Azimuth/distance fixes from VOR ground stations

    • C. 

      Identified fixes on a VORTAC chart

    • D. 

      Assumed DR positions

  • 34. 
    Which of the following would NOT be considered an RNAV system?
    • A. 

      GPS

    • B. 

      LORAN-C

    • C. 

      ADF

    • D. 

      DME/DME/FMS

  • 35. 
    RNAV systems provide present position and course to next waypoint
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

    • C. 

      Option 3

    • D. 

      Option 4

  • 36. 
    Track angle error (TKE) is by definition:
    • A. 

      Equal to, but opposite of crosswing correction angle

    • B. 

      The difference between actual track and heading

    • C. 

      Error introduced by variation of magnetic north

    • D. 

      The number of degrees and direction off course

  • 37. 
    The GPS constellation of 24 satellites is designed so that a minimum of how many satellites are always observable by a user anywhere on earth?
    • A. 

      12

    • B. 

      4

    • C. 

      6

    • D. 

      3

  • 38. 
    GPS receivers verify the usability of satellite signals through the implementation of RAIM. What does RAIM stand for?
    • A. 

      Random anomaly identification mechanism

    • B. 

      Receiver autonomous integrity monitoring

    • C. 

      Redundant automatic identity measures

    • D. 

      Redirected automatic internal monitoring

  • 39. 
    Without baro-aiding, what is the minimum number of satellites which must be in view of a GPS receiver to isolate a corrupt signal and remove it from the navigation solution?
    • A. 

      8

    • B. 

      6

    • C. 

      5

    • D. 

      4

  • 40. 
    Which of the following components need not be present in an inertial navigation system (INS)?
    • A. 

      An accelerometer

    • B. 

      A stable platform/reference system

    • C. 

      At least one VOR or GPS input

    • D. 

      An alignment procedure

  • 41. 
    Which of the following components is most critical to the overall system accuracy of a non-strapdown inertial navigation system (INS)?
    • A. 

      Accelerometer sensitivity

    • B. 

      Initial position fix

    • C. 

      Air data computer input

    • D. 

      CDU resolution

  • 42. 
    The difference between an inertial navigation systems (INS) and an inertial reference system (IRS) can be summarized as:
    • A. 

      The IRS provides attitude and heading information, but not navigational data

    • B. 

      The IRS provides only alignment data to the INS when in ALIGN mode

    • C. 

      The IRS can be selected to NAV only mode, but the INS can not

    • D. 

      The IRS collects taxes, but the INS only revokes visas

  • 43. 
    "Drift" as the term is applied to an inertial navigation system, is defined as:
    • A. 

      Precession of the vertically aligned gyro

    • B. 

      Change of position based on earths rotation

    • C. 

      The sum of all cumulative error

    • D. 

      The input to the INS from the "air data system"

  • 44. 
    Which of the following statements is true with respect to "drift" in an INS
    • A. 

      Drift is time dependent

    • B. 

      Laser ring stabilized systems demonstrate a standard drift of .2 nm/hr

    • C. 

      Drift is more critical to a slower airplane

    • D. 

      All of the above

  • 45. 
    What essential information is necessary for the alignment of an INS
    • A. 

      Present position and heading

    • B. 

      Current temp and atmospheric pressure

    • C. 

      Exact Zulu time

    • D. 

      Proposed altitude en route

  • 46. 
    When utilizing GPS, from how many satellites is it necessary to receive a good signal to determine an accurate positional fix in 3 dimensions?
    • A. 

      2

    • B. 

      4

    • C. 

      6

    • D. 

      Option 4

  • 47. 
    Prior to may 2000, civil users of the global positioning system where provided with a degraded signal. This practice of decreasing precision was known as
    • A. 

      Phase shift impedance

    • B. 

      Security masking

    • C. 

      Selective availability

    • D. 

      The forgetful solution

  • 48. 
    Who is responsible for the maintenance of the space and control segments of the GPS
    • A. 

      Department of homeland security

    • B. 

      DOD

    • C. 

      FAA

    • D. 

      FCC

  • 49. 
    Are GPS VFR waypoints identified on a sectional chart?
    • A. 

      Yes

    • B. 

      No

    • C. 

      Only when coincident with ground based GPS waypoints

    • D. 

      Option 4

  • 50. 
    Can a pilot use GPS VFR waypoints when filing a flight plan?
    • A. 

      Only for a VFR flight plan

    • B. 

      No

    • C. 

      Only as part of an IFR flight plan

    • D. 

      Option 4

  • 51. 
    Which of the following best defines the term "course"
    • A. 

      The magnetic heading minus variation

    • B. 

      The intended direction of flight

    • C. 

      The direction aircraft is traveling

    • D. 

      Option 4

  • 52. 
    When using a GPS for navigation, "desired course" can be best defined as:
    • A. 

      The great circle route between two waypoints

    • B. 

      The track over the ground between two waypoints

    • C. 

      The direction to the next waypoint

    • D. 

      Option 4

  • 53. 
    Bearing is best defined as
    • A. 

      The direction to the waypoint

    • B. 

      The track over the ground between two waypoints

    • C. 

      The direction the aircraft is traveling

    • D. 

      Option 4

  • 54. 
    Track is best defined as
    • A. 

      The direction to the waypoint

    • B. 

      The heading adjusted for wind correction

    • C. 

      The course actually achieved

    • D. 

      Option 4

  • 55. 
    Heading is best defined as
    • A. 

      The direction the aircraft is traveling

    • B. 

      The direction the aircraft is pointing

    • C. 

      The track over the ground between two waypoints

    • D. 

      Option 4

  • 56. 
    RAIM messages are calculated and broadcast by the GPS satellite
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

    • C. 

      Option 3

    • D. 

      Option 4

  • 57. 
    GDOP is defined as
    • A. 

      General determination of position

    • B. 

      Geometric dilution of precision

    • C. 

      Ground based DME operations

    • D. 

      Option 4

  • 58. 
    GPS NOTAM's, if desired, must be specifically requested from the FSS during a standard briefing
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

    • C. 

      Option 3

    • D. 

      Option 4

  • 59. 
    DME and GPS distances will always be the same
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

    • C. 

      Option 3

    • D. 

      Option 4

  • 60. 
    Overriding an automatically selected sensitivity during a GPS approach will
    • A. 

      Cancel the approach mode annunciation

    • B. 

      Require flying point-to-point on the approach to comly with the published approach procedure

    • C. 

      Have no effect if the approach is flown manually

    • D. 

      Option 4

  • 61. 
    If a visual descent point (VDP) is published on a GPS approach, it
    • A. 

      Will not be included in the sequence of waypoints

    • B. 

      Will be coded in the waypoint sequence and identified using ATD

    • C. 

      Must be included in the normal waypoints

    • D. 

      Option 4

  • 62. 
    Authorization to conduct any GPS operation under IFR requires that
    • A. 

      The equipment be approved in a supplemental type certificate (STC)

    • B. 

      The pilot must review appropriate weather, aircraft flight manual (AFM) and operation of the particular receiver

    • C. 

      Procedures must be established for use in the event that the loss of RAIM capability is predicted to occur

    • D. 

      Option 4

  • 63. 
    When using a non- WAAS capable GPS for navigation and instrument approaches, a required alternate airport must have
    • A. 

      An approved instrument approach procedure, besides GPS, that is expected to be operational and available at the ETA

    • B. 

      A GPS approach that is expected to be operational and available at the ETA

    • C. 

      Authorization to fly approaches under IFR using GPS avionics

    • D. 

      Option 4

  • 64. 
    If receiver Autonomous Integrity Monitoring (RAIM) is not available when setting up for GPS approach, the pilot should:
    • A. 

      Continue to the MAP and hold until the satellites are recaptured

    • B. 

      Proceed as cleared to the IAF and hold until satellite reception is satisfactory

    • C. 

      Select another type approach using another type of navigation aid

    • D. 

      Option 4

  • 65. 
    You are planning an IFR flight using airways, and you notice there us a NOTAM that one of the VOR's is out of service. You are equipped with a non-WAAS IFR GPS with a current database. Can you fly this flight as planned?
    • A. 

      Yes, as long as you have an IFR certified GPS, the ground based navaids are not required to be operational

    • B. 

      Yes, as long as you are in radar contact

    • C. 

      No, unless equipped with a WAAS GPS certified under TSO-C145a or TSO-C146a, the groynd based navaids must be operational

    • D. 

      Option 4

  • 66. 
    A GPS missed approach requires that the pilot take action to sequence the receiver
    • A. 

      Over the MAWP

    • B. 

      After the MAWP

    • C. 

      Just prior to the MAWP

  • 67. 
    If the missed approach is not activated, the GPS receiver will display
    • A. 

      An extension of the outbound final approach course, and the ATD will increase from the MAWP

    • B. 

      A desired track to the holding fix

    • C. 

      An extension of the inbound final approach course, and the ATD will increase

    • D. 

      Option 4

  • 68. 
    Missed approach routing in which the first track is via a course rather than direct to the next waypoint requires
    • A. 

      That the GPS receiver will be placed in the "direct to" mode

    • B. 

      Manual intervention by the pilot, but will not be required if RAIM is avialable

    • C. 

      Additional action by the operator to set the course

    • D. 

      Option 4

  • 69. 
    If flying a published GPS departure,
    • A. 

      The data base will contain all the transition or departures from all the runways

    • B. 

      And if the RAIM is available, manual intervention by the pilot should not be required

    • C. 

      The GPS receiver must be set to terminal course deviation indicator sensitivity

    • D. 

      Option 4

  • 70. 
    In general, can an approved GPS unit be used for IFR operations in place of ADF and/or DME equipment?
    • A. 

      Yes

    • B. 

      No

    • C. 

      ADF, but not DME

    • D. 

      DME, but not ADF

  • 71. 
    Your destination airport has an ILS approach , and you observe the notation "ADF Required" on the approach chart. You have an ILS receiver, but are not equipped with an ADF. You do have an IFR certified GPS, however, the databse expired three days ago. Can you fly this ILS approach?
    • A. 

      Yes, you can substitute your IFR GPS for ADF and the database need not be current because you are not using the GPS for primary navigation on the ILS.

    • B. 

      No, you cannot substitute your IFR GPS for ADF with an expired database

    • C. 

      Yes, as long as you receive vectors to the final approach course

    • D. 

      Option 4

  • 72. 
    What actions would be required to skip a waypoint in a published approach and proceed instead to the next waypoint?
    • A. 

      Edit the flight plan be deleting the waypoint you wish to skip

    • B. 

      Select "Direct TO" and enter waypoint to which you wish to proceed

    • C. 

      Switch to OBS mode

    • D. 

      You cannot skip a waypoint that is part of a published approach procedure

  • 73. 
    If using a garmin 430 GPS unit, on what page would you find rhe valid dates for the navigation data bas?
    • A. 

      The first startup screen that requires user interaction

    • B. 

      The instrument panel self test screen

    • C. 

      Aux, page 3 (setup)

    • D. 

      Any of the above

  • 74. 
    You have a VFR GPS and a single nav/com in your airplane. How would you preform the 30 day VOR check?
    • A. 

      Use an airborne checkpoint specified in the airport/facilities directory

    • B. 

      With the VOR receiver tuned to a nearby station, use the GPS to go Direct-To to the VOR, and confirm the GPS desired track to the VOR waypoint is within 4 degrees of the course selected on the VOR indicator

    • C. 

      If youre equipped with either a panel mount VFR or IFR GPS , then no there is no need to preform the 30 day VOR check

    • D. 

      Option 4

  • 75. 
    How would you determine whether or not your panel-mounted GPS is WAAS capable?
    • A. 

      Check for compliance in AC 90-100a

    • B. 

      Look in the aircraft AFM

    • C. 

      There will be a placard on the panel near the GPS unit

    • D. 

      Turn on the GPS and check the databse version

  • 76. 
    If, during an RNAV (GPS) approach your GPS mode annunciator indicates "LNAV+V" which are the lowest  minimums that you may use for the approach?
    • A. 

      LPV

    • B. 

      LNAV/VNAV

    • C. 

      LNAV

    • D. 

      Circling

  • 77. 
    Unless a specified time period is requested, FSS briefers will provide RAIM information for what period?
    • A. 

      Every 6 hours

    • B. 

      The current 24 hr period, beginning at 0000z

    • C. 

      From one hour before to one hour after ETA

    • D. 

      Option 4

  • 78. 
    Does VNAV capability provide glide slope information during a GPS approach?
    • A. 

      Yes

    • B. 

      No

    • C. 

      Only if RAIM is functioning

    • D. 

      Option 4

  • 79. 
    What is meant by RNP?
    • A. 

      Required navigational performance

    • B. 

      Reduced navigational precision

    • C. 

      Redundant navigational parameters

    • D. 

      Option 4

  • 80. 
    What are the appropriate standard U.S RNP levels for approach, terminal, and enroute phases of flight, respectively?
    • A. 

      .5 nm; 1 nm; 3nm

    • B. 

      1nm; 3nm; 5nm

    • C. 

      .3nm; 1nm; 2nm

    • D. 

      Option 4

  • 81. 
    What are the approximate position accuracy limits for an IFR approved TSO-C129a GPS system?
    • A. 

      Horizontal position accuracy < 10 feet (3m)

    • B. 

      Vertical position accuracy = 74 feet (23m)

    • C. 

      Horizontal position accuracy < 15 feet (4.5 m)

    • D. 

      Vertical position accuracy < 15 feet (4.5m)

  • 82. 
    What is meant by the term "HFOM" in a TSO-C146a GPS unit?
    • A. 

      High frequency outer marker

    • B. 

      Horizontal figure of merit

    • C. 

      "hand-held function only" mode

    • D. 

      Hazardous flight over mountains

  • 83. 
    "DOP" stands for dilution of precision, and has a value of from 1 to 10. What causes an increase in the value for DOP?
    • A. 

      Loss of satellite signal

    • B. 

      An error detected in a space vehicles ephemeris data

    • C. 

      An unfavorable satellite position

    • D. 

      Loss of the WAAS ground station signal

  • 84. 
    Which of the following data is not proived by the air data computer utilized by the Garmin 1000 (cessna Nav III package)?
    • A. 

      Ground speed

    • B. 

      Vertical speed

    • C. 

      Outside air temp

    • D. 

      Pressure altitude

  • 85. 
    An AHRS, with respect to aircraft systems, refer to
    • A. 

      Air data resolution system

    • B. 

      Attitude heading reference system

    • C. 

      Automatic high resolution sounder

    • D. 

      Automatied heads-up reference system

  • 86. 
    Does the AHRS installed in the garmin 1000 (Cessna Nav III) system require an operational GPS for accurate heading information?
    • A. 

      Yes

    • B. 

      No

    • C. 

      Yes, and the GPS must have valid database

    • D. 

      No, if the autopilot is operational

  • 87. 
    An integrated AHRS system utilizing an air data computer would not be affected by pitot ice
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

    • C. 

      Option 3

    • D. 

      Option 4

  • 88. 
    The four principal components of any FMS are:
    • A. 

      GPS, ILS, INS, and VOR's

    • B. 

      CDU, FMC, navigational database, and performance database

    • C. 

      PFD, MFD< EADI, and MCP

    • D. 

      FMA, MCO, EHSI< and FMC

  • 89. 
    When programming the FMS, which of the following CDU pages or PFD displays would not be appropriate for reviewing the planned flight route prior to takeoff?
    • A. 

      The electronic horizontal situation indicator (EHSI)

    • B. 

      The "Route Legs Page" of the FMS

    • C. 

      The electronic attitude director indicator (EADI)

    • D. 

      The "PERF INIT" page on the FMS

  • 90. 
    Which of the following systems is utilized by the FMS for position information?
    • A. 

      Conventional radio navigation aids (VOR/DME)

    • B. 

      Inertial reference systems

    • C. 

      GPS

    • D. 

      Any or all of the above