Navedtra 14295 Hospital Corpsman Practice Test
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Textbook Assignment: “Physical Examinations,” chapter 11, pages 11-1 to 11-12; "Health Records," chapter 12, pages 12-1 to 12-25; "Supply," chapter 13, pages 13-1 to 13-21. For Advancement to HM2
- 1.Physical examinations of Navy and Marine Corps personnel, whether active or reserve, may be performed by which of the following?
- A.
Navy medical officers
- B.
DoD physicians
- C.
Credentialed civilian contract physicians
- D.
All the above
- 2.What entity is responsible for setting the physical standards for entry into the U.S. Navy?
- A.
Bureau of Naval Personnel
- B.
Department of Defense
- C.
Bureau of Naval Medicine
- D.
Chief of Naval Operations
- 3.All of the following are functions of a medical board EXCEPT
- A.
Evaluating and reporting on diagnosis
- B.
Selection of personnel for special duty
- C.
Planning for treatment, rehabilitation, or convalescence
- D.
Estimating the length of further disability
- 4.Family member screening is required even if a servicemember is accepting unaccompanied orders to an overseas duty station.
- A.
True
- B.
False
- 5.What report is used when a member is expected to return to full duty status after being placed on limited duty?
- A.
Limited Duty (LIMDU) Board
- B.
Formal Medical Board
- C.
Abbreviated Temporary Limited Duty (TLD) Medical Board
- D.
Physical Examination Board (PEB)
- 6.Which of the following steps is appropriate when a servicemember is found not fit for duty after an initial TLD period of 6 months, but has a favorable prognosis and is expected to be returned to duty within 4 more months?
- A.
Administrative separation
- B.
Extension of 4 months to his TLD
- C.
Initiation of a second and final 6-month TLD
- D.
Formal medical board
- 7.What is the maximum length of time an individual may be held on limited duty without convening a formal board?
- A.
8 Months
- B.
16 Months
- C.
1 Year
- D.
2 Years
- 8.Who is responsible for verifying the content of a medical board?
- A.
The attending physician
- B.
The LIMDU Coordinator
- C.
The Patient Administration Limited Duty Coordinator
- D.
The convening authority
- 9.A command endorsement is required on a formal medical board.
- A.
True
- B.
False
- 10.A Sailor reports for her periodic physical examination and states that no changes have occurred in her medical status since her last physical. What entry, if any, would be appropriate to put in block 25 of her SF 93, Report of Medical History?
- A.
"N/A"
- B.
"No changes"
- C.
"No significant interval history"
- D.
Nothing; leave block 25 blank
- 11.One method for testing near visual acuity is the
- A.
Snellen charts
- B.
Jaeger cards
- C.
Farnsworth lantern
- D.
Pseudoisochromatic plates
- 12.The preferred method for testing color vision is the
- A.
Snellen charts
- B.
Jaeger cards
- C.
Farnsworth lantern
- D.
Pseudoisochromatic plates
- 13.EKGs are performed routinely as part of a member’s physical examination once the member reaches the age of 35.
- A.
True
- B.
False
- 14.The health record of a military member may be used for which of the following purposes?
- A.
Aid in determining claims
- B.
Determine physical fitness
- C.
Provide data for medical statistics
- D.
All of the above
- 15.Of the following, which is NOT considered a major category of the primary medical record?
- A.
DREC
- B.
HREC
- C.
IREC
- D.
OREC
- 16.Secondary medical records, which are held separately from primary medical records, are not normally opened or maintained for active duty personnel. Under which of the following circumstances may a secondary medical record be established for an active member?
- A.
The member is to undergo surgery
- B.
The member is to go TAD for medical treatment
- C.
The member is under investigation for domestic abuse
- D.
The member is AWOL
- 17.What information should be included on the NAVMED 6150/20 of a member’s primary medical record with respect to the existence of a member’s secondary medical record?
- A.
Nature of secondary record
- B.
Patient’s diagnosis
- C.
Clinic name, address, and phone number
- D.
Each of the above
- 18.Custody of health records is generally vested in the medical department. On ships without a medical department representative, an individual retains custody of the record until which of the following times, if any?
- A.
Transfer
- B.
Transfer with verification every 6 months
- C.
Transfer with annual verification
- D.
Never
- 19.When a member is hospitalized in a foreign nation and the ship departs port, the health record is
- A.
Retained on board
- B.
Turned over to the hospital
- C.
Forwarded to the nearest U.S. consulate or embassy
- D.
Turned over to another U.S. vessel in port
- 20.Although considered privileged, release of information in the health record is required under the Freedom of Information Act.
- A.
True
- B.
False
- 21.Under which of the following circumstances may an individual’s medical information be released to his authorized representative(s)?
- A.
When verbally requested by the individual
- B.
Upon request of the representative when adequate proof of the individual’s death can be provided
- C.
Upon proof that the individual has been declared mentally incompetent
- D.
Both A and C above
- 22.A well-known and preeminent research group requests medical information to use as part of the basis of a study it is performing. What action, if any, should be taken prior to release?
- A.
Commanding officer of MTF should release information immediately
- B.
Commanding officer of MTF should check with the Judge Advocate General for advice
- C.
Commanding officer of MTC should forward the request to BUMED for guidance
- D.
None; an individual’s medical information may not be released for research
- 23.A health record is only opened in which of the following cases?
- A.
When a member returns to active duty from the retired list
- B.
When the original record has been lost
- C.
When first becoming a member of the naval service
- D.
In all the above cases
- 24.The health jackets of flag or general officers should be annotated to reflect their rank.
- A.
True
- B.
False
- 25.When a HREC is opened on a service member, the member should be directed to read and sign the Privacy Act Statement inside the back cover of the HREC.
- A.
True
- B.
False
- 26.What is the preferred form on which to record admission to the hospital?
- A.
SF 509, Medical Record-Progress Report
- B.
SF 600, Chronological Record of Medical Care
- C.
NAVMED 6150/4, Abstract of Service and Medical History
- D.
NAVMED 6150/20, Summary of Care
- 27.Sick call visits for poison ivy.
- A.
SF 600
- B.
SF 601
- C.
DD 1141
- D.
NAVMED 6150/2
- 28.Results of radiation monitoring.
- A.
SF 600
- B.
SF 601
- C.
DD 1141
- D.
NAVMED 6150/2
- 29.May be used for an active duty patient who is admitted to the hospital for less than 24 hours.
- A.
NAVMED 6150/4
- B.
SF 539
- C.
SF 601
- D.
DD 771
- 30.A record of prophylactic immunizations and sensitivity tests.
- A.
NAVMED 6150/4
- B.
SF 539
- C.
SF 601
- D.
DD 771
- 31.Which of the following documents should NEVER be filed in an individual’s HREC?
- A.
FM 8-33
- B.
PHS-731
- C.
SF 509
- D.
NAVMED 6100/1
- 32.In which of the following circumstance should the health record be verified?
- A.
Upon reporting
- B.
Upon transfer
- C.
At the time of a physical examination
- D.
In all of the above cases
- 33.Under which of the following circumstances would a member’s health record NOT be closed?
- A.
Transfers to a new duty station
- B.
Transfers to the Fleet Reserve
- C.
Placed on the retired list
- D.
Declared missing in action
- 34.On which of the following documents would a notation be made concerning an member’s status as a deserter?
- A.
SF 600
- B.
NAVMED 6100/1
- C.
NAVMED 6150/4
- D.
Both A and C
- 35.A copy of the HREC of a member separated for disability should be given to the member for presentation to the DVA so that the member’s claim can be processed expeditiously.
- A.
True
- B.
False
- 36.Which of the following types of appropriations is not normally used by the Navy?
- A.
Multiple-year
- B.
Annual
- C.
Conditinuing
- D.
Apportioning
- 37.At the end of the second quarter, what is done with the funds that have not been obligated in the previous quarter?
- A.
The funds are carried over into the next quarter
- B.
The funds are carried over into the next year
- C.
The funds are returned to the Treasury
- D.
The funds are placed in the command’s welfare and recreation fund
- 38.The shipboard medical OPTAR may be used to purchase all of the following items EXCEPT
- A.
X-ray units and film processors
- B.
Medical books and publications
- C.
Gun bags
- D.
Litters and stretchers
- 39.Which of the following characteristics could designate an item as controlled equipage?
- A.
High cost
- B.
Liable to pilferage
- C.
Required for ship’s mission
- D.
Each of the above
- 40.The first four digits of a National Stock Number are known as the
- A.
Federal Supply Classification code
- B.
Federal Stock number
- C.
National Identification number
- D.
Cognizance symbol
- 41.How many digits are in a National Stock Number?
- A.
9
- B.
10
- C.
12
- D.
13
- 42.In which of the following would you find handling or storage codes, a brief description of each item, and a crossreference of NINs and NSNs?
- A.
Management Data List (MDL)
- B.
Identification List (IL)
- C.
Authorized Medical Allowance List (AMAL)
- D.
Naval Supply System Command Manual
- 43.The quantity of an item required to support operations between the time a requisition is submitted and receipt of material.
- A.
Stockage objective
- B.
Identification List (IL)
- C.
Operating level
- D.
Requisitioning objective
- 44.The minimum amount of an item of material required to support operations.
- A.
Stockage objective
- B.
Identification List (IL)
- C.
Operating level
- D.
Requisitioning objective
- 45.What is the name of the standard computer supply management system used by shipboard medical departments?
- A.
Shipboard Automated Medical Supply
- B.
SNAP Automated Medical System
- C.
Supply Automated Medical System
- D.
Shipboard Automated Management System
- 46.Medical journals and books may be ordered on which of the following forms?
- A.
DD Form 1149, Requisition and Invoice/Shipping Document
- B.
NAVSUP Form 1250-1, Single-Line Item Requisition Document (manual)
- C.
DD Form 1348m, DOD Single-Line Item Requisition Document (mechanical)
- D.
DD Form 1348m, Non-NSN Requisition (manual)
- 47.Who assigns the Urgency of Need Designator (UND) on a requisition?
- A.
Activity requiring the material
- B.
Supply depot
- C.
Stock point
- D.
Inventory control point
- 48.What is the purpose of a Report of Discrepancy, SF 364?
- A.
To determine the cause of a discrepancy
- B.
To effect corrective action on a discrepancy
- C.
To prevent recurrence of a discrepancy
- D.
All of the above
- 49.Whenever possible and where space permits, aisles in stowage areas should be at least how wide?
- A.
18 in
- B.
24 in
- C.
30 in
- D.
36 in
- 50.All of the following locations aboard ship are appropriate stowage areas for hazardous material EXCEPT
- A.
Below the full-load water line
- B.
Adjacent to a magazine
- C.
Near either end of the ship
- D.
Behind watertight doors
- 51.Alcohol should be stowed in a locked container in the paint and flammable liquid storeroom.
- A.
True
- B.
False
- 52.What is the primary purpose of an inventory?
- A.
To locate missing items
- B.
To determine what items are in a storeroom
- C.
To ensure balance on hand match stock record cards
- D.
To balance the OPTAR
- 53.Differences between on-hand quantity, location of stock, or other stock record data should be reconciled in accordance with what publication?
- A.
NAVSUP 1114
- B.
NAVSUP P-437
- C.
NAVSUP P-485
- D.
NAVSUPINST 4200.85
- 54.How often must inventory of controlled substances be conducted?
- A.
Weekly
- B.
Quarterly
- C.
Monthly
- D.
Semiannually
- 55.In what document would you find the contents of each contingency block outlined?
- A.
AMAL
- B.
MAP
- C.
MMART Manual
- D.
SPRINT
- 56.At a minimum, how often should all AMALs be reviewed?
- A.
Monthly
- B.
Quarterly
- C.
Semiannually
- D.
Annually
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