Navy HM1 Advancement: Hospital Corpsman Test! Toughest Trivia Quiz

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Navy HM1 Advancement: Hospital Corpsman Test! Toughest Trivia Quiz - Quiz

This is undoubtedly the toughest trivia quiz for the Navy Hm1 Advancement: Hospital Corpsman Test! It is made up of past exam questions that most students had a hard time tackling and therefore, anyone who passes this specific test has little to worry about the final exam. Do give it a try and all the best as you continue with your revision for the exam.


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    In order for active duty personnel to be eligible for the command advancement program (CAP), they must be permanently or temporarily be assigned to a command for a minimum of how many consecutive days?

    • A.

      15

    • B.

      20

    • C.

      30

    • D.

      45

    Correct Answer
    C. 30
    Explanation
    Active duty personnel must be permanently or temporarily assigned to a command for a minimum of 30 consecutive days in order to be eligible for the command advancement program (CAP). This means that they need to serve at a particular command for a continuous period of 30 days before they can be considered for advancement through the program.

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  • 2. 

    What cranial nerve is responsible for eye movement, size of pupil & eye focus?

    • A.

      Oculomotor

    • B.

      Optic

    • C.

      Acoustic

    • D.

      Vagus

    Correct Answer
    A. Oculomotor
    Explanation
    The cranial nerve responsible for eye movement, size of pupil, and eye focus is the oculomotor nerve. This nerve controls the movement of the eye muscles, allowing the eyes to move in different directions and focus on objects at different distances. It also controls the size of the pupil, regulating the amount of light that enters the eye.

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  • 3. 

    In regards to supply, what type of measurement indicates the quantity of an item, over and above the operating level that should be maintained to ensure that operations will continue of replenishment supplies are not recieved on time?

    • A.

      Operating level

    • B.

      Safety level

    • C.

      Stockage objective

    • D.

      AMAL level

    Correct Answer
    B. Safety level
    Explanation
    The safety level is a type of measurement that indicates the quantity of an item that should be maintained over and above the operating level. It ensures that operations can continue even if replenishment supplies are not received on time. The safety level acts as a buffer to prevent disruptions in operations due to delays or uncertainties in the supply chain. It helps to mitigate the risks associated with stockouts and ensures that there is always a sufficient quantity of the item available to meet demand.

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  • 4. 

    What six-part form is used to requisition material that cannot be identified by an NSN, NATO stock number, or NICN other than permanent "LL"-coded NICN's?

    • A.

      DD 877

    • B.

      DD 1348

    • C.

      OPNAV 1348

    • D.

      OPNAV 1420.1

    Correct Answer
    B. DD 1348
    Explanation
    DD 1348 is the correct answer because it is the form used to requisition material that cannot be identified by an NSN, NATO stock number, or NICN other than permanent "LL"-coded NICN's. The other options, DD 877, OPNAV 1348, and OPNAV 1420.1, are not specifically designed for this purpose.

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  • 5. 

    For patients who present for non-emergency treatment without a valid ID card, within how many days must a valid ID be provided before the patient is referred for billing as a Civilian Humanitarian Non-Indigent?

    • A.

      30

    • B.

      35

    • C.

      40

    • D.

      45

    Correct Answer
    A. 30
    Explanation
    Patients who come in for non-emergency treatment without a valid ID card must provide a valid ID within 30 days before they can be referred for billing as a Civilian Humanitarian Non-Indigent.

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  • 6. 

    Upon the death of an active dury service member, commanding officers are required to write a condolence letter to the NOK within how many hours of a casualty?

    • A.

      12

    • B.

      24

    • C.

      48

    • D.

      72

    Correct Answer
    C. 48
    Explanation
    Upon the death of an active duty service member, commanding officers are required to write a condolence letter to the Next of Kin (NOK) within 48 hours of a casualty. This timeframe allows for timely communication and support to the family during a difficult time. It ensures that the NOK receives the necessary information and condolences as soon as possible after the loss of their loved one.

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  • 7. 

    Annual contracts are awarded to funeral directors serving the local area of activities anticipating how many deaths or more a year?

    • A.

      5

    • B.

      25

    • C.

      20

    • D.

      10

    Correct Answer
    D. 10
    Explanation
    Annual contracts are awarded to funeral directors serving the local area in anticipation of 10 or more deaths per year. This suggests that the local area has a relatively small population or a low death rate. Funeral directors are typically contracted to provide their services for a certain number of deaths, and in this case, it is expected that there will be at least 10 deaths in the area annually.

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  • 8. 

    Notices are of short duration, and may not be in effect for more then how long?

    • A.

      30 days

    • B.

      45 days

    • C.

      180 days

    • D.

      1 year

    Correct Answer
    D. 1 year
    Explanation
    Notices are typically valid for a short period of time, but they can be effective for up to 1 year. This means that the information provided in the notice will remain valid and applicable for a maximum of 1 year before it may need to be updated or renewed.

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  • 9. 

    What paragraph of a notice is the cancellation paragraph if the notice cancels another directive?

    • A.

      1

    • B.

      2

    • C.

      3

    • D.

      4

    Correct Answer
    B. 2
    Explanation
    The cancellation paragraph in a notice is typically found in the second paragraph. This paragraph is used to inform recipients that a previous directive or notice is being cancelled or revoked. It serves as a clear and concise way to communicate the change or update and ensures that recipients are aware of the cancellation.

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  • 10. 

    If a live vaccine is to administered to a female of childbearing age, how long should you advise the female to avoid becoming pregnant following immunization of measles, mumps, smallpox or varicella?

    • A.

      1 month

    • B.

      3 months

    • C.

      6 months

    • D.

      1 year

    Correct Answer
    A. 1 month
    Explanation
    After receiving a live vaccine for diseases like measles, mumps, smallpox, or varicella, it is recommended for females of childbearing age to wait for 1 month before becoming pregnant. This waiting period is advised to ensure that any potential side effects or complications from the vaccine have subsided and to minimize any potential risks to the developing fetus.

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  • 11. 

    Multiple dose vials of yellow fever vaccine that are reconstitued, must be used within how long of reconstitution?

    • A.

      30 min

    • B.

      1 hour

    • C.

      2 hours

    • D.

      1 week

    Correct Answer
    B. 1 hour
    Explanation
    After reconstitution, multiple dose vials of yellow fever vaccine must be used within 1 hour. This is because once the vaccine is mixed with the diluent, it becomes susceptible to contamination and its potency may decrease over time. Therefore, it is important to administer the vaccine promptly to ensure its effectiveness.

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  • 12. 

    Where should health care providers document immunizations, toxoids, and other immunobiologicals that they administer?

    • A.

      PHS 731 (Yellow card)

    • B.

      Electronic database that reports to DEERS

    • C.

      Health records

    • D.

      All of the above

    Correct Answer
    D. All of the above
    Explanation
    Health care providers should document immunizations, toxoids, and other immunobiologicals that they administer in multiple places. The PHS 731 (Yellow card) is one place where this information should be documented. Additionally, it should be documented in an electronic database that reports to DEERS (Defense Enrollment Eligibility Reporting System). Finally, this information should also be documented in the patient's health records. Therefore, the correct answer is "All of the above."

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  • 13. 

    What dental class is a patient given if they have a current dental examination andrequrie non-urgent dental treatment or dental reevaluation for oral conditions, which are unlikely to result in dental emergencies within 12 months?

    • A.

      1

    • B.

      2

    • C.

      3

    • D.

      4

    Correct Answer
    B. 2
    Explanation
    A patient is given dental class 2 if they have a current dental examination and require non-urgent dental treatment or dental reevaluation for oral conditions, which are unlikely to result in dental emergencies within 12 months.

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  • 14. 

    What type of report is a measure of a unit's dental health & readiness?

    • A.

      Dental Class Report

    • B.

      ODR Report

    • C.

      SAMS Dental Report

    • D.

      AD-Hoc Report

    Correct Answer
    B. ODR Report
    Explanation
    The correct answer is ODR Report. An ODR Report is a type of report that measures a unit's dental health and readiness. It provides information on the oral health of the unit's members, including any dental issues or treatments needed. This report helps in assessing the overall dental readiness of the unit and allows for proper planning and allocation of resources for dental care.

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  • 15. 

    What phase of casulaty care management is the urgent initial surgery required to render a patient stabilized enough to withstand further movement to the next level of care?

    • A.

      Phase II-Forward Resuscitative Surgery

    • B.

      Phase III-Theater Hospitalization

    • C.

      Phase IV-En Route Care

    • D.

      Phase V-Care Outside Theater

    Correct Answer
    A. Phase II-Forward Resuscitative Surgery
    Explanation
    Phase II-Forward Resuscitative Surgery is the correct answer because it involves the urgent initial surgery required to stabilize a patient before they can be moved to the next level of care. This phase focuses on providing immediate life-saving interventions and stabilizing the patient's condition to ensure they are able to withstand further movement and receive appropriate care.

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  • 16. 

    A food borne disease outbreak occurs when how many number of people or more experience a similar illness after ingestion of a common food?

    • A.

      1

    • B.

      2

    • C.

      3

    • D.

      4

    Correct Answer
    B. 2
    Explanation
    A food borne disease outbreak occurs when two or more people experience a similar illness after ingesting a common food. This indicates that there is a common source of contamination in the food that is causing the illness. By identifying the specific food and source of contamination, appropriate measures can be taken to prevent further spread of the disease and ensure food safety.

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  • 17. 

    All food service employees must recieve a minimum of how many hours of initial food safety training?

    • A.

      1

    • B.

      2

    • C.

      3

    • D.

      4

    Correct Answer
    D. 4
    Explanation
    Food service employees must receive a minimum of 4 hours of initial food safety training. This training ensures that employees have the necessary knowledge and skills to handle and prepare food safely, reducing the risk of foodborne illnesses. It covers topics such as proper hygiene practices, temperature control, cross-contamination prevention, and food storage. By completing this training, employees can contribute to maintaining a safe and healthy environment for both themselves and the customers they serve.

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  • 18. 

    When inspecting fish, what would indicate that the fish is fresh?

    • A.

      Cloudy, red boarded eyes

    • B.

      Bright red gills; clear, prominent eyes

    • C.

      Elastic flesh

    • D.

      Both B & C

    Correct Answer
    D. Both B & C
    Explanation
    Both bright red gills and clear, prominent eyes are indicators of fresh fish. Bright red gills suggest that the fish has a good oxygen supply and is in good health. Clear, prominent eyes indicate that the fish is not old or deteriorating. Elastic flesh is also a sign of freshness as it shows that the fish is still firm and has not started to spoil. Therefore, options B and C, which include both bright red gills and elastic flesh, are correct answers for indicating fresh fish.

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  • 19. 

    All meats & cheeses must be consumed within how many calender days after opening?

    • A.

      1

    • B.

      4

    • C.

      7

    • D.

      10

    Correct Answer
    C. 7
    Explanation
    All meats and cheeses must be consumed within 7 calendar days after opening to ensure freshness and prevent the growth of harmful bacteria. After this time, the quality and safety of the products may deteriorate, increasing the risk of foodborne illnesses. It is important to follow proper storage and handling guidelines to maintain the quality and safety of perishable food items.

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  • 20. 

    What species of cockroach is similar in appearance to the American cockroach, except that the adults have a yellow strip along one third of the outside margin of the forewings?

    • A.

      Austrailian cockroach

    • B.

      German cockroach

    • C.

      Brown-banded cockroach

    • D.

      Florida woods cockroach

    Correct Answer
    A. Austrailian cockroach
    Explanation
    The Australian cockroach is similar in appearance to the American cockroach, but can be distinguished by the presence of a yellow strip along one third of the outside margin of the forewings. This characteristic sets it apart from the other options, such as the German cockroach, Brown-banded cockroach, and Florida woods cockroach, which do not have this specific feature.

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  • 21. 

    What is the most common indoor species of cockroach, especially in and around food service spaces & facilities?

    • A.

      American cockroach

    • B.

      German cockroach

    • C.

      Oriental cockroach

    • D.

      Surinam cockroach

    Correct Answer
    B. German cockroach
    Explanation
    The German cockroach is the most common indoor species of cockroach, particularly in and around food service spaces and facilities. This species is known for its ability to adapt to various environments and reproduce quickly, making it a common pest in kitchens, restaurants, and other areas where food is prepared or stored. Its small size and ability to hide in cracks and crevices also contribute to its prevalence in indoor spaces.

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  • 22. 

    In support of military weight control programs, each military dining facility will reduced calorie menus of how many calories a day?

    • A.

      1200-1300

    • B.

      1300-1400

    • C.

      1400-1500

    • D.

      1500-1600

    Correct Answer
    D. 1500-1600
    Explanation
    Military weight control programs support the reduction of calorie intake to help maintain a healthy weight among military personnel. The correct answer of 1500-1600 calories per day suggests that military dining facilities offer menus with this calorie range. This range is likely considered appropriate for individuals who are looking to manage their weight while still meeting their nutritional needs. By providing lower-calorie options, military dining facilities can contribute to the overall success of weight control programs within the military.

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  • 23. 

    What stage of dental development is known as histodifferentiation?

    • A.

      Bud stage

    • B.

      Cap stage

    • C.

      Bell stage

    • D.

      Calcification stage

    Correct Answer
    B. Cap stage
    Explanation
    During the cap stage of dental development, histodifferentiation occurs. This is the stage where the tooth germ forms a cap-like structure over the dental papilla. Histodifferentiation refers to the process in which the cells within the tooth germ differentiate into the different types of tissues that make up the tooth, such as enamel, dentin, and pulp. Therefore, the cap stage is known as histodifferentiation stage.

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  • 24. 

    When primary teeth get ready to fall out & make way for eruption of permanent teeth, they go through a process called what?

    • A.

      Eruption

    • B.

      Apposition

    • C.

      Exfoliation

    • D.

      Calcification

    Correct Answer
    C. Exfoliation
    Explanation
    Exfoliation is the correct answer because it refers to the natural process of shedding primary teeth to make way for the eruption of permanent teeth. During exfoliation, the roots of the primary teeth gradually dissolve, causing them to become loose and eventually fall out. This allows the permanent teeth to move into their proper positions in the mouth.

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  • 25. 

    When teeth have more than one root, what is the region where the roots separate called?

    • A.

      Furcation

    • B.

      Separation

    • C.

      Apical foramen

    • D.

      Cementum

    Correct Answer
    A. Furcation
    Explanation
    When teeth have more than one root, the region where the roots separate is called the furcation. The furcation is the area where the roots of a tooth divide, forming separate branches. This region is important for dental health as it can be susceptible to periodontal disease and requires proper cleaning and maintenance to prevent complications.

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  • 26. 

    What type of mucosa is found on the inside of the lips, cheeks, vestibule, soft palate and under the tongue?

    • A.

      Gingival mucosa

    • B.

      Lining mucosa

    • C.

      Soft mucosa

    • D.

      Epithelial mucosa

    Correct Answer
    B. Lining mucosa
    Explanation
    Lining mucosa is the correct answer because it is the type of mucosa that is found on the inside of the lips, cheeks, vestibule, soft palate, and under the tongue. Lining mucosa is characterized by its thin and non-keratinized epithelium, which allows for flexibility and movement in these areas. It also contains numerous minor salivary glands, which contribute to the moist environment of the oral cavity.

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  • 27. 

    Trenchmouth is another name for what type of dental infection?

    • A.

      Marginal gingivitis

    • B.

      Periodontal abcess

    • C.

      Necrotizing ulcerative ginigivitis

    • D.

      Pericoronitis

    Correct Answer
    C. Necrotizing ulcerative ginigivitis
    Explanation
    Trenchmouth, also known as necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis, is a type of dental infection characterized by severe gum inflammation, ulcers, and necrosis. It is often associated with poor oral hygiene and can cause pain, bad breath, and bleeding gums. Prompt treatment is necessary to prevent further complications and restore oral health.

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  • 28. 

    If a patient present to the dental clinic with signs of heavy plaque & calculus depostis, ginvival inflammation, localized or generalized gingival bleeding ulcerated or cratered papilla, or tooth mobility, what should you expect?

    • A.

      Pericoronitis

    • B.

      Stomatitis

    • C.

      Periodontal abcess

    • D.

      Periodontitis

    Correct Answer
    D. Periodontitis
    Explanation
    If a patient presents with signs of heavy plaque and calculus deposits, gingival inflammation, localized or generalized gingival bleeding, ulcerated or cratered papilla, or tooth mobility, the expected condition would be periodontitis. Periodontitis is a severe form of gum disease that occurs when inflammation and infection spread from the gums to the surrounding structures, including the periodontal ligament and the alveolar bone. It can lead to tooth loss if left untreated.

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  • 29. 

    Tricare Prime is available for active duty & families in distant US locations, typically how many miles or more from a military treatment facility?

    • A.

      25 miles

    • B.

      50 miles

    • C.

      45 miles

    • D.

      75 miles

    Correct Answer
    B. 50 miles
    Explanation
    Tricare Prime is a healthcare program available for active duty and their families who are located in distant US locations. To be eligible for Tricare Prime, individuals must be located at least 50 miles or more away from a military treatment facility. This requirement ensures that individuals who are located far from a facility can still access necessary medical services through Tricare Prime.

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  • 30. 

    What Tricare plan offers the greatest flexibility in choosing a provider, but will also involve greater out-of-pocket expenses for the patient?

    • A.

      Tricare Extra

    • B.

      Tricare Prime

    • C.

      Tricare Standard

    • D.

      Tricare Remote

    Correct Answer
    C. Tricare Standard
    Explanation
    Tricare Standard offers the greatest flexibility in choosing a provider because it allows beneficiaries to see any authorized provider without a referral. However, this flexibility comes with greater out-of-pocket expenses for the patient, as they are responsible for cost-sharing, deductibles, and co-payments. Unlike Tricare Prime, which requires beneficiaries to use a primary care manager and obtain referrals for specialty care, Tricare Standard allows patients to seek care from any provider in the Tricare network. Tricare Remote is not mentioned in the question and does not offer the same level of flexibility or out-of-pocket expenses as Tricare Standard.

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  • 31. 

    What Tricare plan is an HMO-type health care plan that covers all uniformed service members?

    • A.

      Tricare Standard

    • B.

      Tricare Prime

    • C.

      Tricare Basic

    • D.

      Tricare Remote

    Correct Answer
    B. Tricare Prime
    Explanation
    Tricare Prime is an HMO-type health care plan that covers all uniformed service members. This plan provides comprehensive coverage and requires beneficiaries to choose a primary care manager (PCM) who coordinates their healthcare needs. Under Tricare Prime, beneficiaries are encouraged to receive care from network providers, and referrals are required for specialty care. This plan offers a range of benefits and is a popular choice among service members for its comprehensive coverage and cost-effectiveness.

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  • 32. 

    What includes all measures taken by the chain of command & the military helath system to promote, imporve, conserve or restore the mental or physical well-being of personnel across the range of military operations?

    • A.

      Healthy, Fit Force

    • B.

      Health Care Policy

    • C.

      Force Medical Protection

    • D.

      Force Health Protection

    Correct Answer
    D. Force Health Protection
    Explanation
    Force Health Protection includes all measures taken by the chain of command and the military health system to promote, improve, conserve, or restore the mental or physical well-being of personnel across the range of military operations. This encompasses various aspects such as preventive medicine, medical surveillance, deployment health assessments, and medical support during operations. Force Health Protection aims to ensure the health and readiness of military personnel by providing comprehensive healthcare services and implementing policies and programs that prioritize their well-being.

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  • 33. 

    Which OCONUS MTF has a personnel augmentation and bed expansion requirement?

    • A.

      Okinawa

    • B.

      Yokosuka

    • C.

      Guam

    • D.

      All of the above

    Correct Answer
    D. All of the above
    Explanation
    All of the above is the correct answer because all three locations (Okinawa, Yokosuka, and Guam) have a personnel augmentation and bed expansion requirement. This means that each of these overseas military treatment facilities (MTFs) needs additional staff and beds to meet the healthcare needs of the military personnel stationed there.

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  • 34. 

    Service members of the rank E4 and below will be approved for overseas orders if their debt to income ratio does not exceed what percentage?

    • A.

      25

    • B.

      30

    • C.

      40

    • D.

      50

    Correct Answer
    B. 30
    Explanation
    Service members of the rank E4 and below will be approved for overseas orders if their debt to income ratio does not exceed 30%. This means that if their debt payments are less than 30% of their total income, they will be eligible for overseas orders. It is important for service members to manage their debts responsibly in order to maintain their eligibility for overseas assignments.

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  • 35. 

    What TSP fund is invested in a bond index fund that tracks the Lehman Brothers US Aggregate (LBA) index?

    • A.

      G

    • B.

      I

    • C.

      F

    • D.

      S

    Correct Answer
    C. F
    Explanation
    The correct answer is F. The F fund is invested in a bond index fund that tracks the Lehman Brothers US Aggregate (LBA) index.

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  • 36. 

    If you wanted to take money out of your TSP account, what could you do?

    • A.

      A loan

    • B.

      An in service withdrawal

    • C.

      A post separation withdrawal

    • D.

      All of the above

    Correct Answer
    D. All of the above
    Explanation
    All of the options mentioned (loan, in service withdrawal, and post separation withdrawal) are valid ways to take money out of a TSP account. A loan allows you to borrow money from your TSP account, which you must repay with interest. An in-service withdrawal allows you to withdraw money while still employed, subject to certain conditions and restrictions. A post-separation withdrawal allows you to withdraw money from your TSP account after leaving federal service. Therefore, all of the options mentioned are correct ways to take money out of a TSP account.

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  • 37. 

    By law, you must withdraw your entire TSP account or being receiving monthly payments by the TSP withdrawal deadline, which is April 1 of the year after you have reached what age?

    • A.

      59 1/2

    • B.

      65

    • C.

      70

    • D.

      70 1/2

    Correct Answer
    D. 70 1/2
    Explanation
    By law, individuals must withdraw their entire TSP account or begin receiving monthly payments by the TSP withdrawal deadline, which is April 1 of the year after they have reached the age of 70 1/2. This requirement is known as the required minimum distribution (RMD) and is designed to ensure that individuals start withdrawing funds from their retirement accounts in order to pay taxes on the distributions. Failing to comply with the RMD rules can result in penalties from the IRS.

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  • 38. 

    On an MC circuit, how do you know when a certain station is ready to receive communication?

    • A.

      A blinking red light

    • B.

      A steady red light

    • C.

      A blinking green light

    • D.

      A steady green light

    Correct Answer
    B. A steady red light
    Explanation
    A steady red light indicates that a certain station is ready to receive communication on an MC circuit. This is because a steady red light typically signifies that the station is in a standby or ready state, indicating that it is prepared to receive incoming communication.

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  • 39. 

    Who, on March 31 1854, signed a treaty with Japan that opened Japan's ports to American trade and provisioning of ships?

    • A.

      Commodore Matthew Perry

    • B.

      Capt Isaac Hull

    • C.

      Capt H. L. Hunley

    • D.

      John Paul Jones

    Correct Answer
    A. Commodore Matthew Perry
    Explanation
    Commodore Matthew Perry signed a treaty with Japan on March 31, 1854, which opened Japan's ports to American trade and provisioning of ships. He played a crucial role in establishing diplomatic relations between the United States and Japan, ending Japan's policy of isolation. Perry's negotiation skills and naval power were instrumental in convincing the Japanese government to enter into this treaty, which had a significant impact on Japan's future economic and political development.

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  • 40. 

    Of the following, who do you NOT salute?

    • A.

      Foreign Military Officers

    • B.

      Vice President

    • C.

      Medal of Honor recipients

    • D.

      Public Health Service Officers

    Correct Answer
    B. Vice President
    Explanation
    The Vice President is not saluted because they are a civilian position and not a member of the military. Saluting is a military tradition used to show respect and acknowledgement of a superior officer. While the Vice President holds a high-ranking position in the government, they do not hold a military rank and therefore are not saluted.

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  • 41. 

    A Senior Master Sergeant in the Air Force is equivilent to what Navy rank?

    • A.

      Petty Officer First Class

    • B.

      Chief Petty Officer

    • C.

      Senior Chief Petty Officer

    • D.

      Master Chief Petty Officer

    Correct Answer
    C. Senior Chief Petty Officer
    Explanation
    A Senior Master Sergeant in the Air Force is equivalent to the rank of Senior Chief Petty Officer in the Navy. Both ranks represent senior enlisted personnel in their respective branches.

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  • 42. 

    Of the following, which would you find annotated in your service record on your Page 4?

    • A.

      Emergency data

    • B.

      TSP allocations

    • C.

      PRT failure

    • D.

      Awards

    Correct Answer
    D. Awards
    Explanation
    On Page 4 of a service record, one would find information about the awards received by the individual. This page typically includes details about any commendations, medals, or honors that the person has been recognized with during their service. It serves as a record of their achievements and accomplishments in the military or any other service.

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  • 43. 

    Involuntary allotments from a Navy member's pay usually means what?

    • A.

      Finacial responsibility

    • B.

      Finacial irresponsibility

    • C.

      PSD mistake

    • D.

      Member purchased a savings bond

    Correct Answer
    B. Finacial irresponsibility
    Explanation
    Involuntary allotments from a Navy member's pay usually indicate financial irresponsibility. This means that the member is not managing their finances properly, resulting in the need for their pay to be deducted for certain expenses or debts. It suggests that the member may have made poor financial decisions or failed to meet their financial obligations, leading to the need for these involuntary deductions.

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  • 44. 

    What is the broad course of action designed to achieve national ojectives in support of national interests?

    • A.

      National objectives

    • B.

      National interests

    • C.

      National strategy

    • D.

      National power

    Correct Answer
    C. National strategy
    Explanation
    A national strategy refers to the comprehensive plan or approach that a country adopts to achieve its national objectives and protect its national interests. It outlines the broad course of action that the country will take to address various challenges and opportunities, both domestically and internationally. A national strategy takes into account factors such as national security, economic development, diplomacy, and other aspects of governance. It serves as a guiding framework for decision-making and resource allocation, ensuring that the country's actions and policies are aligned with its long-term goals and interests.

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  • 45. 

    How many months before an enlisted individuals EAOS/PRD, does the Command Career Counselor ensure that a sailor meets any prerequisites for transfer?

    • A.

      5-6 months

    • B.

      10-12 months

    • C.

      4-1 months

    • D.

      12-24 months

    Correct Answer
    C. 4-1 months
    Explanation
    The Command Career Counselor ensures that a sailor meets any prerequisites for transfer 4-1 months before their EAOS/PRD. This timeframe allows enough time for the sailor to complete any necessary requirements or qualifications before their transfer. It ensures that the sailor is prepared and meets all the necessary criteria for a smooth transition to their next assignment.

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  • 46. 

    What provides all enlisted sailors the opportunity for optimal development of their professional skills, both military & technical, thereby enhancing unit readiness, individual upward mobility, job satisfaction & ultimately the retention of better-qualified sailors?

    • A.

      Career Assessment Board

    • B.

      Career Development Board

    • C.

      Career Appraisal Board

    • D.

      Career Focus Assessment

    Correct Answer
    B. Career Development Board
    Explanation
    The Career Development Board provides all enlisted sailors with the opportunity to develop their professional skills, both military and technical. This board enhances unit readiness, individual upward mobility, job satisfaction, and ultimately the retention of better-qualified sailors. It is a platform that focuses on assessing and guiding sailors in their career paths, ensuring they have the necessary skills and knowledge to excel in their roles.

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  • 47. 

    How often should all personnel who have access to classified information recieve a refresher briefing that is designed to enhance security awareness?

    • A.

      Every 6 months

    • B.

      Once a year

    • C.

      Every 2 years

    • D.

      Every 5 years

    Correct Answer
    B. Once a year
    Explanation
    Personnel who have access to classified information should receive a refresher briefing once a year to enhance their security awareness. This frequency ensures that individuals stay updated on the latest security protocols and remain vigilant in protecting classified information. Regular briefings help reinforce security measures, address any emerging threats or vulnerabilities, and remind personnel of their responsibilities in safeguarding classified information. It also provides an opportunity to refresh their knowledge and skills related to handling sensitive data, ensuring the highest level of security is maintained throughout the year.

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  • 48. 

    What Naval message precedence is reserved for messages that funish essential information for the conduct of operations in progress?

    • A.

      Routine

    • B.

      Flash

    • C.

      Priority

    • D.

      Immediate

    Correct Answer
    C. Priority
    Explanation
    Priority is the correct answer because it is a naval message precedence that is reserved for messages that furnish essential information for the conduct of operations in progress. This means that these messages are of high importance and need to be delivered quickly to ensure the smooth continuation of ongoing operations.

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  • 49. 

    What part of a Naval message begins on the line following the classification line or the passing instruction line when it is used?

    • A.

      Subject

    • B.

      Reference

    • C.

      From

    • D.

      Nothing follows the classification line

    Correct Answer
    A. Subject
    Explanation
    The subject of a Naval message begins on the line following the classification line or the passing instruction line when it is used. This is the part of the message that provides a brief summary or description of the main topic or purpose of the message. It helps the recipient quickly understand the content and importance of the message.

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  • 50. 

    What is considered the most important form of performance feedback?

    • A.

      Constructive criticism

    • B.

      Negative feed back

    • C.

      360 degree feedback

    • D.

      Positive feedback

    Correct Answer
    D. Positive feedback
    Explanation
    Positive feedback is considered the most important form of performance feedback because it helps to motivate and reinforce desired behaviors and achievements. It recognizes and highlights the strengths and successes of an individual, which can boost confidence and morale. Positive feedback also encourages continued improvement and performance excellence. It creates a positive work environment and fosters a culture of appreciation and recognition.

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Quiz Review Timeline +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 20, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Aug 28, 2009
    Quiz Created by
    Embrooks01
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