Navy HM1 Advancement: Hospital Corpsman Exam! Hardest Trivia Quiz

Reviewed by Editorial Team
The ProProfs editorial team is comprised of experienced subject matter experts. They've collectively created over 10,000 quizzes and lessons, serving over 100 million users. Our team includes in-house content moderators and subject matter experts, as well as a global network of rigorously trained contributors. All adhere to our comprehensive editorial guidelines, ensuring the delivery of high-quality content.
Learn about Our Editorial Process
| By Embrooks01
E
Embrooks01
Community Contributor
Quizzes Created: 4 | Total Attempts: 2,832
| Attempts: 629 | Questions: 49
Please wait...
Question 1 / 49
0 %
0/100
Score 0/100
1. Environmental pollution refers to what parts of our environment?

Explanation

Environmental pollution refers to the contamination and degradation of various components of our environment, including air, water, and soil. Air pollution refers to the release of harmful substances into the atmosphere, water pollution refers to the contamination of water bodies with pollutants, and soil pollution refers to the degradation of soil quality due to the presence of toxic substances. Therefore, the correct answer is "All of the above" as environmental pollution affects all these aspects of our environment.

Submit
Please wait...
About This Quiz
Navy HM1 Advancement: Hospital Corpsman Exam! Hardest Trivia Quiz - Quiz

Are you studying for the Navy Hm1 Advancement: Hospital Corpsman Exam? The quiz below is designed to see just how ready you are to sit and pass the... see moreexams. Do not let the fact that others have seen as the hardest trivia quiz deter you from giving it a try. All the best and check on your notes for the areas that might be problematic for you. see less

2. What color of piping is used to identify the ship's fire main system?

Explanation

The color red is used to identify the ship's fire main system. This is because red is a universally recognized color for indicating danger and emergencies. By using red piping, it helps to quickly and easily identify the fire main system on a ship, allowing for immediate action to be taken in case of a fire emergency.

Submit
3. SOAP note stands for what?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Subjective, Objective, Assessment, Plan." In a SOAP note, the subjective section includes the patient's complaints and symptoms, the objective section includes the healthcare provider's observations and measurements, the assessment section includes the diagnosis and evaluation of the patient's condition, and the plan section includes the proposed treatment and follow-up plan.

Submit
4. What UCMJ artical explains CO's non-judical punishment?

Explanation

The correct answer is Article 15. Article 15 of the Uniform Code of Military Justice (UCMJ) provides the authority for commanding officers to administer non-judicial punishment (NJP) to service members who have committed minor offenses. NJP is a disciplinary measure that allows commanders to address misconduct without going through a formal court-martial process. It is designed to maintain discipline and good order within the military while providing a fair and efficient means of addressing misconduct.

Submit
5. The EDVR is organized into how many sections?

Explanation

The EDVR is organized into 12 sections.

Submit
6. What is a monthly statement on activities enlisted personnel account, listing all individuals assigned and provides a summary of present and future manning?

Explanation

EDVR stands for Enlisted Distribution and Verification Report. It is a monthly statement that provides a summary of present and future manning for enlisted personnel. It lists all individuals assigned to a particular unit or organization and includes information about their assignments and activities. This report helps in tracking and managing the manpower resources within the enlisted personnel account.

Submit
7. Which two combat systems came into full use during WW II?

Explanation

During World War II, both radar and sonar systems were utilized extensively. Radar was used to detect and track enemy aircraft, allowing for early warning and effective defense. Sonar, on the other hand, was used to detect and track enemy submarines, enabling the Allied forces to locate and neutralize underwater threats. Both systems played crucial roles in enhancing the combat capabilities of the military during the war.

Submit
8. Before going over the side or aloft to work, you must obtain permission from whom?

Explanation

Before going over the side or aloft to work, you must obtain permission from the OOD (Officer of the Deck). The OOD is responsible for the safe operation and navigation of the ship and has the authority to grant or deny permission for crew members to perform tasks outside of the ship's normal operations. This ensures that proper safety protocols are followed and that the work being done does not interfere with the overall functioning of the ship.

Submit
9. What form is the Record of Immunizations?

Explanation

The Record of Immunizations is in the form of SF 601.

Submit
10. What form is the International Certificates of Vaccinations or "yellow card"?

Explanation

The International Certificates of Vaccinations or "yellow card" is in the form of PHS 731.

Submit
11. What are the two elements of a ship's organization?

Explanation

The two elements of a ship's organization are battle organization and administration organization. Battle organization refers to the structure and arrangement of personnel and resources during combat or warfare situations. Administration organization, on the other hand, pertains to the management and coordination of non-combat related tasks and functions, such as logistics, finance, and personnel management.

Submit
12. What is an SF 513?

Explanation

An SF 513 is a consultation sheet.

Submit
13. Who provides potable water from approved sources when a ship is berthed at a Naval facility?

Explanation

Naval Facilities Engineering Command (NAVFACENGCOM) provides potable water from approved sources when a ship is berthed at a Naval facility. This means that NAVFACENGCOM is responsible for ensuring that the water provided to the ship is safe and suitable for drinking. The Coast Guard, EPA, and MTF are not mentioned in relation to providing potable water in this context, so they are not the correct answer.

Submit
14. How often are periodic performance evals submitted for personnel in paygrades E3 and below?

Explanation

Personnel in paygrades E3 and below are evaluated annually. This means that their performance is assessed once a year. This evaluation process helps in determining their progress, identifying areas for improvement, and making decisions regarding promotions or salary adjustments. Quarterly evaluations would occur four times a year, monthly evaluations would occur twelve times a year, and bi-weekly evaluations would occur every two weeks, which are not applicable in this case. Therefore, the correct answer is annually.

Submit
15. What does Section 1 of the EDVR contain?

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

Submit
16. These muscles acting individually rotate the head left or right and acting together, bend the head toward the chest.

Explanation

The sternocleidomastoid muscle is responsible for rotating the head left or right when acting individually. When both sides of the muscle work together, they bend the head towards the chest.

Submit
17. Oral cancer is most commonly found in what areas?

Explanation

Oral cancer is most commonly found in the hard palate, floor of the mouth, lower lip, and tongue. These areas are frequently affected by oral cancer due to factors such as tobacco and alcohol use, poor oral hygiene, and viral infections. Tumors in these areas can cause symptoms like mouth sores, difficulty swallowing, and changes in speech. Early detection and treatment are crucial for improving outcomes in oral cancer patients.

Submit
18. What section of the EDVR contains the Personnel Status Summary?

Explanation

The Personnel Status Summary is located in Section 5 of the EDVR.

Submit
19. What type of appropriations are made for appropriations that require long lead time for planning and execution?

Explanation

Multiple year appropriations are made for appropriations that require long lead time for planning and execution. This type of appropriation allows for funds to be allocated over multiple fiscal years, providing the necessary resources for projects or programs that cannot be completed within a single year. By spreading the funding over multiple years, it allows for better planning and ensures a consistent flow of resources for long-term projects.

Submit
20. What results would you annotate on form DD 2808?

Explanation

Form DD 2808 is a medical examination form used by the Department of Defense to assess the medical fitness of individuals for military service. The form requires the annotation of various medical results. In this case, the correct answer is B & C, which means that both HIV results and G-6 PD results should be annotated on form DD 2808. This implies that individuals undergoing the medical examination need to provide their HIV test results as well as their G-6 PD test results for evaluation.

Submit
21. Which personnel are authorized to certify a closed space is safe to enter?

Explanation

Gas free engineers are authorized to certify a closed space is safe to enter. These engineers have the expertise and knowledge to assess and eliminate any potential hazards or risks associated with entering a closed space. They are trained to conduct thorough inspections, test for gas leaks, and ensure proper ventilation before granting permission to enter the space. Their certification provides assurance that the area is free from any dangerous gases or substances, making it safe for personnel to enter.

Submit
22. The M258A1 decon kit is used to decontaminate which agent?

Explanation

The M258A1 decon kit is used to decontaminate chemical agents. It is specifically designed for chemical decontamination purposes and is not suitable for decontaminating other types of agents such as nuclear, riot, or nerve agents.

Submit
23. What information would you find in section 10 of the EDVR?

Explanation

Section 10 of the EDVR contains information about duty preferences that have been received and processed. This section provides details on the duty preferences that individuals have submitted and the status of their processing. It includes information on the preferences that have been received and successfully processed, as well as any updates or changes made to these preferences. This section is important for individuals who want to know the current status of their duty preferences and any updates related to them.

Submit
24. This form is used for outpatient care and provides a current, concise and comprehensive record of a patient's medical history?

Explanation

The SF 600 form is used for outpatient care and provides a current, concise, and comprehensive record of a patient's medical history. This form is commonly used in military healthcare settings to document medical visits, procedures, and treatments received by a patient. It helps healthcare providers have a complete understanding of the patient's medical background and aids in providing appropriate and effective care.

Submit
25. What form is used when a complete report of physical exam is required?

Explanation

The SF 88 form is used when a complete report of a physical exam is required. This form is specifically designed for medical professionals to document a thorough examination of an individual's physical health. It includes sections to record vital signs, medical history, physical findings, and other relevant information. This form is commonly used for military personnel, law enforcement officers, and other individuals who require a comprehensive physical examination as part of their job requirements.

Submit
26. Who is responsible for supply and treatment of potable water on board ships?

Explanation

The Engineering Department is responsible for the supply and treatment of potable water on board ships. This department is in charge of maintaining and operating the ship's systems, including the water supply and treatment systems. They ensure that the water on board is safe for consumption by the crew and passengers. This includes monitoring water quality, conducting regular tests, and performing necessary maintenance and repairs to ensure a continuous supply of potable water.

Submit
27. What form is the Privacy Act Statement in medical records?

Explanation

The correct answer is DD 2005. The Privacy Act Statement in medical records is in the form of DD 2005.

Submit
28. What nerve controls the diaphragm?

Explanation

The phrenic nerve controls the diaphragm. The diaphragm is the main muscle involved in the process of breathing. The phrenic nerve originates from the cervical spine and travels down to the diaphragm, providing the necessary motor and sensory innervation. When the phrenic nerve is stimulated, it causes the diaphragm to contract and move downward, allowing for inhalation. Therefore, the phrenic nerve plays a crucial role in the regulation of breathing and the functioning of the diaphragm.

Submit
29. What does a Random Sampling Inventory measure?

Explanation

A Random Sampling Inventory measures the stock record accuracy for a segment of material on hand. It helps to determine how accurately the inventory records match the actual physical inventory. This method involves randomly selecting a sample of items from the inventory and comparing the recorded quantities with the actual quantities counted. By doing so, it provides an estimate of the overall accuracy of the inventory records for that particular segment of material.

Submit
30. When a deserter is apprehended or surrenders, the CO must request the member's medical record from where?

Explanation

When a deserter is apprehended or surrenders, the CO must request the member's medical record from BUPERS. BUPERS stands for the Bureau of Naval Personnel, which is responsible for maintaining and managing the personnel records of Navy personnel. In this scenario, BUPERS would be the appropriate authority to request the deserter's medical record as they would have access to the necessary information and documentation.

Submit
31. Which of the following is NOT part of the alimentary canal?

Explanation

The alimentary canal is a long tube that starts from the mouth and ends at the anus, and it includes organs like the stomach and the mouth. The trachea, on the other hand, is a part of the respiratory system and is responsible for carrying air to and from the lungs. Therefore, the trachea is not part of the alimentary canal.

Submit
32. A burning fuel oil tank is classified as what class of fire?

Explanation

A burning fuel oil tank is classified as a Bravo class of fire. The Bravo class refers to fires involving flammable liquids such as gasoline, oil, and diesel fuel. These fires can be extremely dangerous and require special firefighting techniques, such as using foam or dry chemical extinguishers, to suppress the flames.

Submit
33. Cancerous, dark bluish-purple lesions that involve the blood vessels are what?

Explanation

Kaposi's sarcoma is a type of cancer that causes dark bluish-purple lesions on the skin. These lesions are caused by abnormal growth of blood vessels. Kaposi's sarcoma is commonly seen in individuals with weakened immune systems, such as those with HIV/AIDS. The condition can also affect other organs, including the lungs and gastrointestinal tract.

Submit
34. ________ affect the supportive and connective tissues of the jaw bones.

Explanation

Sarcomas are a type of cancer that can affect the supportive and connective tissues of the jaw bones. These malignant tumors can arise from different types of soft tissues, such as muscle, fat, blood vessels, or bone. Sarcomas in the jaw bones can cause pain, swelling, difficulty in chewing or speaking, and may require surgical removal or other treatments like radiation or chemotherapy. It is important to diagnose and treat sarcomas early to prevent further spread and damage to the jaw bones and surrounding tissues.

Submit
35. What article of the UCMJ deals specifically with drug offenses?

Explanation

Article 112a of the UCMJ deals specifically with drug offenses. This article outlines the punishments and penalties for various drug-related offenses committed by military personnel. It covers offenses such as possession, distribution, and use of illegal drugs, as well as the possession and distribution of drug paraphernalia. This article is important in maintaining discipline and ensuring the safety and readiness of the military forces.

Submit
36. The Shock Trauma Platoon (STP) has how many patients holding beds in its pure form?

Explanation

The Shock Trauma Platoon (STP) has 10 patients holding beds in its pure form.

Submit
37. What form reflects any changes in condition and the results of the treatments?

Explanation

The SF 509-Progress Notes form reflects any changes in condition and the results of the treatments. This form is commonly used in medical settings to document the progress of a patient's treatment. It allows healthcare professionals to track the patient's condition over time, including any improvements or worsening of symptoms, as well as the effectiveness of the treatments provided. By documenting these changes and results, the SF 509-Progress Notes form helps ensure continuity of care and facilitates communication between healthcare providers.

Submit
38. Section 3 of the EDVR contains what?

Explanation

Section 3 of the EDVR contains the Alpha roster.

Submit
39. What is the maximum effective range of discharge hoses when connected to the FP-180?

Explanation

The maximum effective range of discharge hoses when connected to the FP-180 is 100 ft. This means that the discharge hoses can reach a maximum distance of 100 ft when connected to the FP-180.

Submit
40. Section 2 of the EDVR contains what?

Explanation

Section 2 of the EDVR contains perspective losses. This suggests that the EDVR, whatever it may be, has different sections that cover various topics or aspects. In this particular section, the focus is on perspective losses, indicating that it provides information or details about situations or factors that result in a loss of perspective. The other options, perspective gains, NEC billets, and age, are not mentioned in this section and are therefore not the correct answer.

Submit
41. What is an SF 522 used for?

Explanation

The SF 522 form is used to request the administration of anesthesia and the performance of operations. This form is typically used in medical settings where anesthesia is required for surgical procedures. It serves as a formal request to the appropriate medical personnel to administer anesthesia and perform the necessary operations. The SF 522 helps ensure that the anesthesia and surgical procedures are carried out safely and in accordance with established protocols.

Submit
42. What is the primary lifting device of an aircraft?

Explanation

The primary lifting device of an aircraft is the wings. The wings generate lift by creating a pressure difference between the upper and lower surfaces, allowing the aircraft to overcome gravity and stay airborne. The fuselage, on the other hand, provides the main structure of the aircraft and houses the cockpit, passengers, cargo, and other essential components. While the engine and propeller play crucial roles in providing thrust and propulsion, they do not directly contribute to the generation of lift.

Submit
43. This is usually found in the oral region of salivary glands, most often the palate and appears as a lump or bulge under mucosa?

Explanation

Adenocarcinoma is the correct answer because it is a type of cancer that commonly occurs in the oral region of salivary glands, particularly in the palate. It presents as a lump or bulge under the mucosa. Carcinoma refers to any type of cancer, but it is not specific to the oral region or salivary glands. Wheal refers to a raised, itchy area on the skin, which is not relevant to the given context. Sarcoma is a type of cancer that originates in connective tissues, not salivary glands.

Submit
44. Where are family advocacy records maintained?

Explanation

Family advocacy records are maintained at the Family Service Center. This is where information related to family advocacy, such as counseling and support services for military families, is documented and stored. The Family Service Center is a dedicated facility that provides assistance and resources to servicemembers and their families, making it the most appropriate location for maintaining these records.

Submit
45. Does this form provide a brief, accurate account of the care and treatment given_______?

Explanation

The correct answer is SF 502 because it is the only option that is relevant to the question. SF 501, SF 603, and SF 5 do not provide any information about the care and treatment given. SF 502 is the only form that is likely to contain a brief and accurate account of the care and treatment provided.

Submit
46. This form is used for the provisional anatomic diagnosis and completed the autopsy protocol.

Explanation

The given answer, SF 503, is the correct option because it is the form used for the provisional anatomic diagnosis and completing the autopsy protocol. This form is specifically designed for documenting the initial diagnosis made during the autopsy process and for recording all the necessary information related to the autopsy. Therefore, SF 503 is the most appropriate choice for the given situation.

Submit
47. What year was the first underwater launch of a Polaris guided missile successful?

Explanation

In 1960, the first underwater launch of a Polaris guided missile was successful. This marked a significant achievement in military technology and demonstrated the capability of launching missiles from submarines.

Submit
48. When a family advocacy record is closed, you must keep it at the MTF for how long?

Explanation

When a family advocacy record is closed, it must be kept at the MTF (Medical Treatment Facility) for a period of 4 years. This is to ensure that the record is accessible if needed for any future reference or legal purposes. Keeping the record for this duration allows for sufficient time to address any potential issues or concerns that may arise after the closure of the record.

Submit
49. What is a NAVMED 6150/2, Special Duty Medical Abstract, used for?

Explanation

The NAVMED 6150/2, Special Duty Medical Abstract, is used to document the physical qualifications, special training, and periodic exams of members designated for special duty such as aviation, dive, submarine, and other similar roles. This form helps to ensure that individuals in these specialized positions meet the necessary medical requirements and are fit to perform their duties safely and effectively.

Submit
View My Results

Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Mar 22, 2023 +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 22, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Aug 26, 2009
    Quiz Created by
    Embrooks01
Cancel
  • All
    All (49)
  • Unanswered
    Unanswered ()
  • Answered
    Answered ()
Environmental pollution refers to what parts of our environment?
What color of piping is used to identify the ship's fire main...
SOAP note stands for what?
What UCMJ artical explains CO's non-judical punishment?
The EDVR is organized into how many sections?
What is a monthly statement on activities enlisted personnel account,...
Which two combat systems came into full use during WW II?
Before going over the side or aloft to work, you must obtain...
What form is the Record of Immunizations?
What form is the International Certificates of Vaccinations or...
What are the two elements of a ship's organization?
What is an SF 513?
Who provides potable water from approved sources when a ship is...
How often are periodic performance evals submitted for personnel in...
What does Section 1 of the EDVR contain?
These muscles acting individually rotate the head left or right and...
Oral cancer is most commonly found in what areas?
What section of the EDVR contains the Personnel Status Summary?
What type of appropriations are made for appropriations that require...
What results would you annotate on form DD 2808?
Which personnel are authorized to certify a closed space is safe to...
The M258A1 decon kit is used to decontaminate which agent?
What information would you find in section 10 of the EDVR?
This form is used for outpatient care and provides a current, concise...
What form is used when a complete report of physical exam is required?
Who is responsible for supply and treatment of potable water on board...
What form is the Privacy Act Statement in medical records?
What nerve controls the diaphragm?
What does a Random Sampling Inventory measure?
When a deserter is apprehended or surrenders, the CO must request the...
Which of the following is NOT part of the alimentary canal?
A burning fuel oil tank is classified as what class of fire?
Cancerous, dark bluish-purple lesions that involve the blood vessels...
________ affect the supportive and connective tissues of the jaw...
What article of the UCMJ deals specifically with drug offenses?
The Shock Trauma Platoon (STP) has how many patients holding beds in...
What form reflects any changes in condition and the results of the...
Section 3 of the EDVR contains what?
What is the maximum effective range of discharge hoses when connected...
Section 2 of the EDVR contains what?
What is an SF 522 used for?
What is the primary lifting device of an aircraft?
This is usually found in the oral region of salivary glands, most...
Where are family advocacy records maintained?
Does this form provide a brief, accurate account of the care and...
This form is used for the provisional anatomic diagnosis and completed...
What year was the first underwater launch of a Polaris guided...
When a family advocacy record is closed, you must keep it at the MTF...
What is a NAVMED 6150/2, Special Duty Medical Abstract, used for?
Alert!

Advertisement