Mt Simulation Examination 5

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1. The best treatment for arboviruses is prevention

Explanation

The statement "the best treatment for arboviruses is prevention" is true. Arboviruses, such as Zika virus and West Nile virus, are primarily transmitted through mosquito bites. Currently, there are no specific antiviral treatments available for these viruses. Therefore, the most effective approach is to prevent mosquito bites by using insect repellents, wearing protective clothing, and eliminating breeding sites for mosquitoes. This emphasizes the importance of prevention strategies in controlling arbovirus infections.

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About This Quiz
Mt Simulation Examination 5 - Quiz

This is a Simulated Examination for Gulf Medtech/Labtech Examinations taken from Last Month's HAAD Feedbacks.
This examination contains 100 of the most UPDATED EXAMS from Abu Dhabi,... see moreKSA, and UAE.
Take this examination for 120 minutes. You need to get 86% to pass the HAAD. 60% to pass MOH, DHA, or Prometrics.
Please text 0919-286-29-29 in the Philippines or visit our website www. Rtonline. Weebly. Com THIS IS YOUR ASSESSMENT FOR ANY GULF RT EXAMINATIONS INCLUDING HAAD MT, SAUDI PROMETRICS, DUBAI DHA, AND UAE MOH. THE QUESTIONS HERE ARE TAKEN FROM THIS ACTUAL EXAMINATIONS, SO PASSING THIS ASSESSMENT EXAM WILL GIVE YOU A HIGH PROBABILITY OF PASSING THE SAID EXAMINATIONS see less

2. Viruses can result in acute death of the host.

Explanation

Pathogenesis can range from asymptomatic to acute death.

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3. The virus' structure is a:

Explanation

Icosahedron: A solid with 20 triangular faces and 12 vertices related by 2-, 3-, and 5-fold axes of symmetry.

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4. Transmission of Epstein-Barr Virus (EBV) can be direct, oral contact and contamination with saliva

Explanation

The transmission of Epstein-Barr Virus (EBV) can occur through direct oral contact and contamination with saliva. This means that the virus can be spread through activities such as kissing, sharing utensils or drinks, and even through coughing or sneezing. Therefore, the statement is true.

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5. Which of the following treatments are used for rhinoviruses?

Explanation

Antivirals and nasal sprays are used as treatments for rhinoviruses. Rhinoviruses are the most common cause of the common cold, and these treatments can help alleviate symptoms and reduce the duration of the illness. Antivirals work by inhibiting the replication of the virus, while nasal sprays can help relieve nasal congestion and inflammation. These treatments can be used to manage the symptoms of rhinovirus infections, but there is currently no specific cure for the virus itself.

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6. Which virus causes SARS?

Explanation

The correct answer is coronavirus. Coronavirus is the virus that causes Severe Acute Respiratory Syndrome (SARS). SARS is a viral respiratory illness that emerged in 2002 and caused a global outbreak. It is characterized by symptoms such as fever, cough, and difficulty breathing. The coronavirus responsible for SARS is known as SARS-CoV.

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7. Program cell death induced by some viruses during release has an antiviral effect

Explanation

Programmed cell death induced by some viruses during release has an antiviral effect because it helps limit viral replication and spread. When a virus infects a cell, it can trigger a process called apoptosis, which leads to the controlled death of the infected cell. This prevents the virus from using the cell's resources to replicate and helps contain the infection. Additionally, apoptosis can stimulate the immune system to recognize and eliminate infected cells. Therefore, programmed cell death induced by some viruses during release can be considered an antiviral defense mechanism.

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8. Hep A, B and C are all RNA viruses.

Explanation

Only Hep A and Hep C are RNA viruses. Hep B is a DNA virus.

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9. Owl's eye like inclusion body is seen with  

Explanation

Owl's eye like inclusion body is a characteristic finding in cytomegalovirus (CMV) infection. CMV is a common virus that can cause a variety of symptoms and complications, particularly in individuals with weakened immune systems. The owl's eye inclusion bodies are viral particles that can be seen within infected cells under a microscope. These inclusion bodies are named after their resemblance to the eyes of an owl, with a dark center surrounded by a clear halo. This finding is helpful in diagnosing CMV infection.

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10. Which of the following is not caused by arboviruses?

Explanation

caused by corona virus

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11. Which best describes viruses?

Explanation

Viruses are microscopic infectious agents that consist of genetic material (either RNA or DNA) enclosed in a protein coat. They are not considered living organisms as they cannot reproduce or carry out metabolic activities on their own. Instead, viruses rely on host cells to replicate and cause infection. The answer "contain double or single stranded RNA or DNA" accurately describes the genetic material found in viruses.

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12. Viruses can replicate in the:

Explanation

Viruses can replicate in both the cytoplasm and nucleus of a host cell. Some viruses replicate solely in the cytoplasm, while others replicate in the nucleus. The location of replication depends on the type of virus and its specific life cycle. Viruses that replicate in the cytoplasm usually do not require access to the host cell's nucleus, as they can utilize the host cell's machinery in the cytoplasm to replicate. On the other hand, viruses that replicate in the nucleus require access to the host cell's nucleus to access the necessary cellular machinery for replication.

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13. Match the following types of persistent infections with the definitions below: Chronic infections, latent infections.
1. Virus is detectable in tissue samples, multiplying at a slow rate; symptoms mild or absent.
2. After a lytic cycle, virus enters a dormant phase; generally not detectable, no symptoms; can reactivate and result in recurrent infections.

Explanation

The given answer is correct because it correctly matches the types of persistent infections with their corresponding definitions. Chronic infections are characterized by the virus being detectable in tissue samples and multiplying at a slow rate, while symptoms may be mild or absent. On the other hand, latent infections occur after a lytic cycle where the virus enters a dormant phase, making it generally not detectable and without symptoms. However, it can reactivate and result in recurrent infections.

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14. Which treatment option is specifically activated by HSV induced thymidine kinase enzyme

Explanation

Acyclovir is the correct answer because it is specifically activated by the HSV induced thymidine kinase enzyme. This enzyme is produced by the herpes simplex virus (HSV), and it is responsible for converting acyclovir into its active form. Once activated, acyclovir inhibits the replication of the virus by blocking the viral DNA synthesis. Therefore, acyclovir is an effective treatment option for HSV infections. Famciclovir, penciclovir, and valacyclovir are also antiviral medications used to treat HSV infections, but they are not specifically activated by the HSV induced thymidine kinase enzyme. Topical medications may be used to relieve symptoms but are not specific treatment options for HSV infections.

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15. Herpesviruses are large enveloped icosahedral dsDNA

Explanation

Herpesviruses are indeed large enveloped icosahedral dsDNA viruses. This means that they have a double-stranded DNA genome and are enclosed in an envelope. The term "icosahedral" refers to their shape, which is a polyhedron with 20 triangular faces. These characteristics are typical of herpesviruses, making the statement true.

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16. Poliviruses and arboviruses can cause flaccid paralysis

Explanation

Polioviruses and arboviruses are known to cause flaccid paralysis. Polioviruses are responsible for causing polio, a viral infection that can lead to muscle weakness and paralysis. Arboviruses, which include viruses like West Nile virus and Zika virus, are transmitted by arthropods such as mosquitoes and can also cause flaccid paralysis in some cases. Therefore, the statement that polioviruses and arboviruses can cause flaccid paralysis is true.

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17. What enzyme is used in the replication of progeny genomic RNA molecules?

Explanation

Viral specific RNA polymerase is the correct answer because it is the enzyme used in the replication of progeny genomic RNA molecules. RNA polymerase is responsible for synthesizing RNA strands by catalyzing the formation of phosphodiester bonds between nucleotides. In the case of viral replication, viral specific RNA polymerase is required as it is specific to the viral genome and can accurately replicate the viral RNA. Bacterial specific RNA polymerase and bacterial specific DNA ligase are not relevant to the replication of viral RNA molecules.

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18. HBV has an unusual genome containing both double- and single-stranded DNA

Explanation

HBV stands for Hepatitis B virus, which is a virus that infects the liver. The genome of HBV is indeed unusual because it contains both double-stranded DNA and single-stranded DNA. Most viruses have either double-stranded or single-stranded DNA, but HBV has both. This unique genome structure allows HBV to replicate in a complex manner and contributes to its ability to persist in the body for long periods of time. Therefore, the statement "HBV has an unusual genome containing both double- and single-stranded DNA" is true.

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19. By mid-life, 90-95% of all people are infected with Epstein-Barr Virus (EBV)

Explanation

The given statement is true. Epstein-Barr Virus (EBV) is a common virus that infects the majority of people by mid-life. It is estimated that 90-95% of individuals are infected with EBV by this stage. EBV is primarily transmitted through saliva and can cause various illnesses, including infectious mononucleosis (mono). While most people infected with EBV do not experience any symptoms or only have mild symptoms, the virus can lead to more severe complications in some individuals, such as certain types of cancer.

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20. Which of the following is likely to accumulate in the brain and spinal cord?

Explanation

Prions are likely to accumulate in the brain and spinal cord. Prions are misfolded proteins that can cause other normal proteins to also misfold, leading to the accumulation of abnormal proteins in the brain and spinal cord. This accumulation can result in neurodegenerative diseases such as Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease and mad cow disease. Unlike viruses, prions do not have DNA or RNA, and they are not enveloped. Therefore, prions have a higher likelihood of accumulating in the brain and spinal cord compared to the other options listed.

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21. Replication of DNA viruses typically occurs in the:

Explanation

The correct answer is nucleus. Replication of DNA viruses typically occurs in the nucleus of the host cell. This is because the DNA of the virus needs to access the host cell's machinery for replication, transcription, and translation, which are all processes that primarily occur in the nucleus. The nucleus also provides a protected environment for the replication process, ensuring the integrity of the viral DNA.

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22. Hyper angina is best described by which of the following conditions?

Explanation

enterovirus 71 and coxsackievirus type A16 cause hand foot and mouth disease

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23. Rhinovirus can infect with which of the following conditions

Explanation

Rhinovirus can infect through aerosol and direct contact, as well as with a small inoculum. This means that the virus can be transmitted through respiratory droplets in the air, as well as through direct contact with infected surfaces or individuals. Additionally, even a small amount of the virus can lead to infection. Therefore, the correct answer is A & C.

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24. Flaviviridae may be the most likely cause of which of the following

Explanation

Flaviviridae is a family of viruses that includes the West Nile virus and several other viruses that can cause encephalitis. Encephalitis is inflammation of the brain, and both West Nile virus and Flaviviridae are known to be common causes of this condition. Therefore, the correct answer is A & B, as Flaviviridae may be the most likely cause of encephalitis and West Nile virus. Dengue fever, another disease caused by Flaviviridae, is not specifically mentioned in the question as a likely cause of encephalitis.

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25. Parvoviruses only cause disease in animals.

Explanation

Causes distemper in cats, enteric disease in dogs, fatal cardiac infection in puppies
B19 cause of erythema infectiosum (fifth disease); rash of childhood

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26. Antigenic SHIFT (recombination of whole genes or DNA segments) is what causes pandemics with Influenza A

Explanation

Antigenic shift refers to the recombination of whole genes or DNA segments in the Influenza A virus. This process can lead to the emergence of new strains of the virus that are significantly different from previous strains, making them more likely to cause pandemics. This is because the human immune system may have limited or no pre-existing immunity to these new strains, allowing them to spread rapidly and cause widespread illness. Therefore, the statement that antigenic shift causes pandemics with Influenza A is true.

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27. Which of the following is true about arboviruses?

Explanation

Arboviruses can cause asymptomatic infections, meaning that individuals infected with these viruses may not show any symptoms. This is one of the characteristics of arboviruses, along with their ability to be transmitted through arthropod vectors like mosquitoes and ticks. The answer choice "can cause asymptomatic infection" accurately describes this characteristic of arboviruses.

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28. Interferons are best described by which of the following?

Explanation

Interferons are proteins that are produced by cells in response to viral infections. They play a crucial role in the immune response by inhibiting the replication of viruses and regulating the immune system. One of the main functions of interferons is to inhibit protein synthesis mechanisms in infected cells, preventing the virus from replicating and spreading. This helps to limit the viral infection and promote the immune response against the virus.

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29. HSV-2 can only be spread when lesions are visible.

Explanation

active lesions most significant source; genital herpes can be transmitted in the absence of lesions

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30. Exposure to dengue fever serotype provides lifelong immunity

Explanation

Exposure to a specific serotype of dengue fever provides lifelong immunity because the immune system develops antibodies against that particular serotype. Once the immune system has encountered a specific serotype, it can recognize and effectively fight against it in the future. This immunity is long-lasting and protects against subsequent infections by the same serotype, providing lifelong immunity.

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31. Viruses can survive outside of the cell.

Explanation

Viruses are obligate intracellular pathogens. They lack metabolic and protein synthesis machinery.

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32. Match the following terms with the definitions below: Host Range, Susceptibility.

1. The capacity of a cell, tissue, or species to support virus replication - qualitatative measurement - number of receptor molecules and ability of host cell to support virus replciation.
2. The cells, tissues, species that a virus can productively infect - absolute measurement - determined by receptor availability for virus binding/entry and presence of intracellular cell factors to support virus replication.

Explanation

The correct answer is Susceptibility = 1, Host Range = 2. This is because the first definition provided matches the term "Susceptibility," which refers to the capacity of a cell, tissue, or species to support virus replication. The second definition matches the term "Host Range," which refers to the cells, tissues, or species that a virus can productively infect. Therefore, the correct match is Susceptibility = 1 and Host Range = 2.

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33. Enveloped viruses may enter the host cell through:

Explanation

Enveloped viruses have a lipid envelope surrounding their protein coat. This envelope allows them to fuse with the host cell's plasma membrane, enabling the virus to enter the cell. Fusion with the plasma membrane is a common mechanism used by enveloped viruses to gain entry into the host cell and initiate infection. Penetration through the plasma membrane is not a typical mode of entry for enveloped viruses.

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34. Which Influenza Envelope Proteins  assist in viral budding and release

Explanation

Neuraminidase (N) is the correct answer because it is an influenza envelope protein that assists in viral budding and release. Neuraminidase plays a crucial role in the life cycle of the influenza virus by cleaving sialic acid from host cells, allowing the newly formed viral particles to be released and spread to other cells. Hemagglutinin (H) is another influenza envelope protein, but its main function is to facilitate viral entry into host cells, not viral release. M2 is a transmembrane protein that is involved in the viral entry process, but it does not play a role in viral budding and release.

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35. Which places are the first sites of enterovirus infection

Explanation

The correct answer is intestine and oropharynx. Enteroviruses are primarily transmitted through the fecal-oral route, meaning they enter the body through the mouth after coming into contact with contaminated feces. The intestine and oropharynx are the initial sites of infection because they are the first areas the virus encounters after ingestion. From there, the virus can potentially spread to other parts of the body, such as the blood stream, lymphatic system, and skin.

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36. Phage (virus)  mediated transfer of host DNA from one cell to another is known as

Explanation

Transduction is the process in which a phage (virus) transfers host DNA from one cell to another. This transfer occurs when the phage infects a host cell and incorporates the host DNA into its own viral genome. When the phage then infects another host cell, it transfers this incorporated DNA, resulting in the transfer of genetic material from one cell to another. Transformation, transcription, and integration are not accurate terms for this specific process.

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37. Which of the following inhibits early steps of viral replication and helps to prevent reinfection?

Explanation

The correct answer is antibody response. Antibodies are proteins produced by the immune system in response to an infection. They bind to specific viral proteins and prevent the virus from entering and infecting host cells. This inhibits the early steps of viral replication and helps to prevent reinfection. Antibodies can also neutralize viruses by blocking their ability to infect cells. Overall, the antibody response is an important defense mechanism against viral infections.

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38. Which is not a DNA virus ? 

Explanation

HCV is not a DNA virus. It is a RNA virus. DNA viruses replicate their genetic material using DNA polymerase, while RNA viruses use RNA polymerase. Therefore, HCV, being an RNA virus, does not fit the category of DNA viruses.

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39. Which property allows corona virus to mutate and adapt during epidemics?

Explanation

The property that allows the coronavirus to mutate and adapt during epidemics is the synthesis of mRNA in short templates. This means that the virus can quickly generate different versions of its genetic material, allowing it to adapt to new environments and evade the immune system. By synthesizing mRNA in short templates, the virus can introduce errors and variations in its genetic code, leading to the production of different proteins and potentially new strains of the virus.

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40. Which of the following methods of virus DX, relies on comparison of acute phase and covalescent phases titers?

Explanation

Serological studies involve the analysis of blood samples to detect the presence of antibodies produced by the immune system in response to a viral infection. In the case of virus DX, comparing the titers (levels) of antibodies during the acute phase (when the virus is actively replicating) and the convalescent phase (when the person is recovering) can provide valuable information. This comparison helps determine if the antibody levels have increased, indicating a recent infection, or if they have remained stable or decreased, suggesting a past infection or immunity. Therefore, serological studies are the method that relies on the comparison of acute phase and convalescent phase titers in virus DX.

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41. What is the core?

Explanation

The core refers to the nucleic acid and the surrounding protein shell. This means that the core of a virus consists of genetic material (nucleic acid) and a protective protein coat (protein shell). These components are essential for the replication and survival of the virus.

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42. Which of the following are unique viral enzymes that are targeted for treatment?

Explanation

Human immunodeficiency virus type I (HIV-I) reverse transcriptase and herpes simplex virus (HSV) thymidine kinase.

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43.  Which of the following has the largest genome of all human viruses

Explanation

single linear dsDNA molecule of 130-300 kb with hairpins at either end

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44. Viruses can be isolated from clinical samples by cultivation in all of the following except

Explanation

Virus can be grown only in CELLULAR medium

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45. Which of the following is the most common arbovirus induced disease worldwide?

Explanation

Dengue fever is the most common arbovirus-induced disease worldwide. It is caused by the dengue virus, which is transmitted to humans through the bite of infected Aedes mosquitoes. Dengue fever is prevalent in tropical and subtropical regions, particularly in urban areas. Symptoms of dengue fever include high fever, severe headache, joint and muscle pain, rash, and in severe cases, it can lead to dengue hemorrhagic fever or dengue shock syndrome. Dengue fever affects millions of people each year, making it the most widespread arbovirus-induced disease globally.

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46. Which of the following descriptions fit a virus that replicates through a DNA intermediate?

Explanation

RNA dependent DNA polymerase

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47. Which of the following small poxes is most viruletn

Explanation

Variola major – highly virulent, caused toxemia, shock, and intravascular coagulation

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48. Which HSV-1 produces fever blisters, cold sores and is the most common recurrent HSV-1 infection

Explanation

Herpetic gingivostomatitis – infection of oropharynx in young children; fever, sore throat, swollen lymph nodes
Herpetic keratitis – ocular herpes – inflammation of eye; gritty feeling in the eye, conjunctivitis, sharp pain, and sensitivity to light

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49. A patient presents with a mild upper respiratory illness. The most common cause of this acute illness is ?

Explanation

Rhinovirus is the most common cause of mild upper respiratory illness. Rhinoviruses are a type of common cold virus and are responsible for causing the majority of colds in humans. They are highly contagious and easily spread through respiratory droplets. Symptoms of a rhinovirus infection include a runny or stuffy nose, sneezing, sore throat, and coughing. While poliovirus, coxsackievirus, and arbovirus can also cause respiratory illnesses, they are not as commonly associated with mild upper respiratory infections as rhinovirus.

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50. Which of the following is not a herpesvirus?

Explanation

Adenovirus is not a herpesvirus. Herpesviruses are a family of DNA viruses that cause various infections in humans. Herpes simplex 1 and 2, varicella zoster virus, Epstein-Barr virus, and roseola are all examples of herpesviruses. Adenovirus, on the other hand, belongs to the Adenoviridae family and causes respiratory and gastrointestinal infections, conjunctivitis, and other illnesses.

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51. A patient presents with poliovirus infection and is hospitalized for 4 days. On the second day she appears to have recovered with all labs within normal limits except that she is still shedding polivirus. this is problematic because of which of the following possibilities?

Explanation

If a patient is still shedding poliovirus even after appearing to have recovered from the infection, it means that they can still transmit the virus to others. This is problematic because it can lead to the spread of the virus and potentially cause epidemics.

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52. Which lesions are most likely associated with low-risk types of genital HPV?

Explanation

Plantar warts and flat warts are non-genital types of HPV. CIN 3 is caused by genital HPV of the high-risk type. Genital HPV types 6 and 11 can cause a rare condition known as recurrent respiratory papillomatosis, in which warts form on the larynx or other areas of the respiratory tract. HPV is acquired through oral-genital sexual contact, or when a mother with genital warts passes it to her baby during childbirth.

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53. Enteroviruses are spread through which of the following routes

Explanation

Enteroviruses are spread through fecal-oral contamination, which means that the virus is transmitted when someone ingests food or water that has been contaminated with fecal matter containing the virus. This can occur through poor hygiene practices, such as not washing hands properly after using the toilet. Once ingested, the virus can then infect the digestive system and cause illness.

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54. What type of immunity is most responsible for fighting viral infections?

Explanation

Cell-mediated immunity is most responsible for fighting viral infections. This type of immunity involves the activation of T-cells, which directly attack and destroy infected cells. T-cells recognize viral antigens presented on the surface of infected cells and initiate an immune response to eliminate the virus. This response is particularly effective against intracellular pathogens like viruses. Humoral immunity, on the other hand, primarily deals with extracellular pathogens and involves the production of antibodies to neutralize viruses. Innate immunity provides immediate, non-specific defense mechanisms against a wide range of pathogens but may not be as effective against specific viral infections.

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55. Which of the following  is true about diagnosis of picornoviruses?

Explanation

Cell cultures are used for the diagnosis of picornoviruses. This is because picornoviruses cannot be grown on chocolate agar plates, and reverse transcription PCR is often ineffective for their diagnosis. Cell cultures provide a suitable environment for the replication of picornoviruses, allowing for their detection and identification. Season, climate, and epidemics are irrelevant to the diagnosis process.

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56. Primary replication of the virus takes place before spread. This happens with:

Explanation

Hematogenous spread refers to the spread of the virus through the bloodstream. In the context of the given question, it suggests that the primary replication of the virus occurs before it spreads through the bloodstream. This means that the virus first replicates in a specific location, such as the respiratory tract or another site of initial infection, before entering the bloodstream and spreading to other parts of the body.

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57. Which type of influenza only undergoes antigenic drift and is not known to undergo antigenic shift

Explanation

Type B influenza only undergoes antigenic drift and is not known to undergo antigenic shift. Antigenic drift refers to small genetic changes in the virus over time, leading to minor variations in the surface proteins. This allows the virus to evade the immune system and cause seasonal outbreaks. On the other hand, antigenic shift occurs when two different strains of influenza virus infect the same host and exchange genetic material, resulting in a completely new strain that can cause pandemics. Type B influenza primarily affects humans and seals, and its genetic changes are more gradual, making it less likely to cause major shifts in the virus.

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58. Which of the following is a site of entrance for arboviruses but not enteroviruses?

Explanation

Capillaries are tiny blood vessels that connect arterioles and venules. They are a site of entrance for arboviruses, which are transmitted by arthropods such as mosquitoes and ticks. Arboviruses enter the body through the bite of an infected arthropod and then travel through the bloodstream, infecting various organs and tissues. On the other hand, enteroviruses typically enter the body through ingestion, meaning they are ingested through contaminated food or water. Therefore, capillaries are a site of entrance for arboviruses but not enteroviruses.

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59. Virus spikes are commonly associated with which of the following?

Explanation

Glycoproteins are commonly associated with virus spikes. Virus spikes are protein structures that extend from the surface of a virus and play a crucial role in the virus's ability to infect host cells. These spikes are often composed of glycoproteins, which are proteins that have attached carbohydrate molecules. The glycoproteins on virus spikes allow the virus to attach to specific receptors on the surface of host cells, enabling the virus to enter and infect the cell. Therefore, glycoproteins are closely associated with virus spikes and their ability to infect host cells.

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60. Which of the following occurs in the acute phase of viral infection but not in the latent phase?

Explanation

In the acute phase of viral infection, the virus actively replicates and produces a large number of progeny viruses. This rapid replication leads to the characteristic symptoms of viral infection. However, during the latent phase, the virus remains dormant and does not actively replicate. Therefore, multiple rounds of replication occur in the acute phase of viral infection but not in the latent phase.

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61. What is a capsid?

Explanation

A capsid is the major protein component of the shell of the core. It is the protective protein coat that surrounds the nucleic acid (DNA or RNA) of a virus. The capsid is responsible for protecting the viral genome and facilitating its entry into host cells. It also plays a role in the assembly and release of new virus particles.

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62. What is the envelope?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Membrane surrounding virus core." This is because the envelope refers to the outer layer or membrane that surrounds the core of a virus. The envelope is composed of lipids and proteins and is derived from the host cell's membrane during the process of viral replication. It plays a crucial role in the virus's ability to infect and enter host cells.

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63. Non-enveloped viruses may enter the host cell through:

Explanation

Non-enveloped viruses are characterized by the absence of a lipid envelope surrounding their protein coat. Unlike enveloped viruses, which can enter host cells through fusion with the plasma membrane, non-enveloped viruses cannot fuse directly with the plasma membrane. Instead, they rely on other mechanisms such as receptor-mediated endocytosis or direct penetration through the plasma membrane to gain entry into the host cell. Therefore, the correct answer is penetration through the plasma membrane.

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64. All HPV types increase risk for developing reproductive cancer

Explanation

Nine HPV types increase risk for developing reproductive cancer
2 account for 70% of metastatic tumors

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65. Which of the following is true about poliovirus

Explanation

only 1% of patients with viremia develop cns involvement

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66. Which of the following is true about enteroviruses?

Explanation

Enteroviruses enter the body at one specific site and then cause disease in that particular area. However, they are also capable of spreading to other parts of the body, leading to systemic infections. This ability to spread from the initial site of entry is a characteristic feature of enteroviruses. Therefore, the statement "enter at one site and cause disease then spread" is true about enteroviruses.

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67. Vaccination of children may result in which of the following disease causing conditions?

Explanation

Vaccination of children can sometimes lead to virus-induced immunopathology. This refers to a situation where the immune response triggered by the vaccine actually causes damage to the body's tissues. In some cases, the immune response can be too strong or misdirected, leading to inflammation and tissue damage. This is a rare occurrence but can happen with certain vaccines. It is important to note that the benefits of vaccination in preventing infectious diseases far outweigh the potential risks of immunopathology.

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68. Viruses are classified according to all of the following except:

Explanation

Viruses are classified based on various factors such as type of replication, structure of the virion, type of nucleic acid, and structure of the virus. However, the host required for survival is not a factor used to classify viruses. This means that the dependence on a host for survival is not considered when categorizing viruses into different groups.

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69. What is a virion?

Explanation

A virion refers to a single virus particle. It is the complete infectious unit of a virus that consists of nucleic acid (DNA or RNA) enclosed in a protein shell called a capsid. The virion is capable of infecting a host cell and reproducing, leading to the spread of the virus.

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70. Humans are susceptible to monkeypox, mousepox, and cowpox

Explanation

Humans are susceptible to monkeypox and cowpox

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71. Herpesviruses replicates

Explanation

Herpesviruses replicate within the nucleus. This is because herpesviruses are DNA viruses, and the replication of DNA generally occurs within the nucleus of eukaryotic cells. The viral DNA is transported into the nucleus where it utilizes the host cell's machinery to replicate its genome. This allows the virus to produce multiple copies of its DNA and ultimately generate new viral particles. Replicating within the nucleus also provides protection for the viral DNA from cellular defense mechanisms, allowing the virus to efficiently replicate and establish infection.

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72. The virus that causes influenza is a DNA virus.

Explanation

Influenza - Enveloped Segmented Single-Stranded RNA Viruses

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73. Which is not a segmented RNA Virus ? 

Explanation

Adeno refers to adenovirus, which is not a segmented RNA virus. Adenoviruses have a double-stranded DNA genome and do not possess segmented RNA. Segmented RNA viruses, on the other hand, have their genetic material divided into separate RNA segments. Examples of segmented RNA viruses include Bunyavirus, Influenza virus, and Rotavirus.

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74. Which of the following is true about translocation of non enveloped viruses?

Explanation

Non-enveloped viruses are able to freely cross the plasma membrane. Unlike enveloped viruses that require endocytosis into the cell, non-enveloped viruses can enter the cell by directly crossing the plasma membrane. This is possible because non-enveloped viruses have a more stable capsid structure that allows them to withstand the harsh conditions of the extracellular environment and pass through the plasma membrane without the need for specific sites or clathrin-coated pits.

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75. Which of the following conditions is most likely to reduce arbovirus infections?

Explanation

Cold climate is most likely to reduce arbovirus infections because arboviruses are primarily transmitted by insects, such as mosquitoes, which are more active in warm climates. In cold climates, the activity and population of these insects decrease, reducing the transmission of arboviruses. Additionally, cold temperatures can also directly affect the survival and replication of arboviruses, further reducing their spread.

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76. Togovirus may be responsible for which of the following conditions?

Explanation

Togovirus may be responsible for causing rash and arthritis. Togovirus is a type of virus that belongs to the family of viruses called Flaviviridae. It is primarily transmitted to humans through the bites of infected ticks. Togovirus infections can lead to symptoms such as fever, headache, muscle and joint pain, and in some cases, a rash and arthritis. While it is not as well-known as diseases like dengue or yellow fever, Togovirus can still cause significant health issues in affected individuals.

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77. Which of the following describes viruses but not bacteria?

Explanation

Viruses replicate by using the host's cellular machinery, whereas bacteria undergo binary fission to reproduce. This means that viruses rely on a host organism to replicate, while bacteria can replicate independently. Therefore, the statement "replicates with host mechanism" accurately describes viruses but not bacteria.

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78. Which of the following is a double stranded DNA virus?

Explanation

Polyomaviridae is a double stranded DNA virus. This family of viruses includes several species that infect mammals, including humans. The double stranded DNA genome of polyomaviruses allows them to efficiently replicate and produce viral proteins. These viruses are known to cause various diseases in humans, such as polyomavirus-associated nephropathy and progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy.

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79. A pt presents with polio infection which of the following is the best treatment?

Explanation

Immunoglobulin injections are the best treatment for a patient with polio infection. Polio is caused by a virus, and antiviral drugs are not effective against it. The Salk vaccine is administered intramuscularly, not intravenously, and is used for prevention rather than treatment. The Sabin vaccine is given orally and is also used for prevention. Immunoglobulin injections contain antibodies that can help the body fight off the virus and reduce the severity of symptoms. Therefore, immunoglobulin injections are the most appropriate treatment option in this case.

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80. Which of the following virus types has nucleic acid that functions directly as mRNA?

Explanation

Single stranded positive sense RNA viruses have nucleic acid that functions directly as mRNA. This means that when these viruses enter a host cell, their RNA can be immediately translated into proteins by the host cell's ribosomes without the need for any additional steps. This is because the RNA of these viruses has the same polarity and sequence as the mRNA that is normally produced by the host cell. As a result, the host cell can directly use the viral RNA as a template for protein synthesis.

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81. Which of the following is a single stranded RNA virus

Explanation

Togaviridae is a single stranded RNA virus. This family of viruses includes the genus Alphavirus, which are enveloped viruses with a positive-sense, single-stranded RNA genome. These viruses are known to cause diseases such as chikungunya and eastern equine encephalitis in humans.

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82. Which is not true regarding adsorption?

Explanation

Adsorption is the process by which a virus attaches to a host membrane. It is a random and reversible process, meaning that the virus can attach and detach from the host membrane multiple times. Nonenveloped viruses attach to host cells via exposed capsid regions. However, it is not true that adsorption requires ATP. ATP (adenosine triphosphate) is a molecule that provides energy for cellular processes, but it is not involved in the adsorption of viruses to host cells.

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83. Select the mismatched pair regarding vaccine and strain

Explanation

The correct answer is Rubella – Edmonston zagreb. The Edmonston zagreb strain is actually used in the measles vaccine, not the rubella vaccine. The rubella vaccine uses the RA 27/3 strain.

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84. Replication of RNA viruses typically occurs in the:

Explanation

may involve specialized "replication complexes"

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85. Polivirus can infect any organ that it comes in contact with

Explanation

has restricted tropism

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86. A 40 y/o pt presents with viral infection, he has weakened  cellular immunity, low antibody titers , functional interferons and a defective complement system. Which of these conditions will make elimination of his infection the most difficult?

Explanation

The given question describes a patient with a viral infection and various immune system deficiencies. The options provided are weakened cellular immunity, defective complement system, low antibody response, and age. The correct answer is weakened CMI, which stands for weakened cell-mediated immunity. This means that the patient's immune system is not effectively responding to the viral infection at the cellular level, making it difficult to eliminate the infection. The other options, while also potentially impacting the immune response, do not directly address the cellular immune response.

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87. Which of the following is mixed-stranded?

Explanation

Hepadnoviridae is the correct answer because it is a family of viruses that have a mixed-stranded DNA genome. This means that the genome of these viruses contains both single-stranded and double-stranded regions. The other options, Reoviridae, Rhabdoviridae, Poxviridae, and Parvoviridae, do not have mixed-stranded genomes.

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88. Which virus(es)  can be considered positive sense?

Explanation

All of the viruses mentioned in the options (picornoviruses, rhinoviruses, and enteroviruses) can be considered positive sense. Positive sense viruses have RNA genomes that can be directly translated into proteins by the host cell's machinery. These viruses do not require a separate step of RNA synthesis before protein synthesis can occur. Therefore, all the mentioned viruses can be considered positive sense.

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89. Enterovirus and coxsackievirus are not linked to Type 1 Diabetes Mellitus

Explanation

Enterovirus and coxsackievirus have been found to be linked to the development of Type 1 Diabetes Mellitus. Several studies have shown that these viruses can trigger an autoimmune response in the body, leading to the destruction of insulin-producing cells in the pancreas. This link between viral infections and Type 1 Diabetes Mellitus suggests that these viruses may play a role in the development of the disease. Therefore, the statement that Enterovirus and coxsackievirus are not linked to Type 1 Diabetes Mellitus is incorrect.

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90. How do most viruses acquire membranes/envelopes?

Explanation

Plasma membrane, endoplasmic reticulum, golgi aparatus, or nuclear membrane.

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91. Which Influenza Envelope Proteins facilitate binding to host cells and fusion

Explanation

Hemagglutinin (H) is the correct answer because it is responsible for binding the influenza virus to host cells and facilitating the fusion of the viral envelope with the host cell membrane. This allows the virus to enter the host cell and initiate infection. Neuraminidase (N) is involved in the release of newly formed viral particles from infected cells, while M2 is a proton channel that plays a role in viral replication but is not directly involved in binding or fusion with host cells.

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92. Rhinovirus shows tropism for the intestinal tract

Explanation

for the posterior pharynx

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93. Which is true about Capsids of viruses

Explanation

Capsids of viruses self-assemble, meaning they spontaneously come together to form the outer protein shell of the virus. This process does not require any external factors or assistance. The capsid is responsible for protecting the genetic material of the virus, which can be DNA or RNA. It can take on different shapes, such as icosahedral or helical, but the icosahedral form can vary in size while the helical form has a defined set of subunits. Therefore, the correct answer is that capsids self-assemble.

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94. Which of the following viruses has information that must be copied into positive sense single strand of RNA

Explanation

double stranded RNA virus

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95. Adenoviidae, Poxviridae, and Herpesviridae are:

Explanation

Adenoviidae, Poxviridae, and Herpesviridae are classified as double-stranded DNA viruses. This means that their genetic material consists of two strands of DNA that are complementary to each other. These viruses replicate their DNA using a double-stranded intermediate, and their genetic information is encoded in the form of double-stranded DNA.

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96. The majority of viruses are life-threatening.

Explanation

It is likely that the majority of viruses cause no disease.

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97. What is the best target for the treatment of viral diseases?

Explanation

The best target for the treatment of viral diseases is unique viral enzymes. Viral enzymes play a crucial role in the replication and survival of the virus within the host. By targeting these specific enzymes, it is possible to disrupt the viral replication process and inhibit the spread of the virus. This approach can help in developing antiviral drugs that specifically target the viral enzymes, minimizing the potential for side effects on host cells. Targeting infected animals, unique viral DNA, or infected host cells may not be as effective in treating viral diseases as they do not specifically address the viral enzymes responsible for viral replication.

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98. Small pox virus is not entirely eradicated from the world.

Explanation

Small pox is eradicated. NOT the virus.
2 laboratories in USA and Russia still contain the virus.

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99. VLDL is the receptor for major serotypes if rhinovirus infection

Explanation

for minor

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100. Which of the following uses genome as a template to make mRNA transcripts corresponding to each viral gene?

Explanation

Single stranded negative sense RNA viruses use the genome as a template to make mRNA transcripts corresponding to each viral gene. In these viruses, the RNA genome is complementary to the viral mRNA, and therefore, the viral RNA needs to be transcribed into positive sense mRNA before it can be translated into proteins. This process is carried out by the viral RNA-dependent RNA polymerase, which synthesizes the mRNA transcripts using the viral genome as a template.

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101. A particular virus' genetic material first needs to be copied into positive sense SS-RNA (Single Strand RNA). What type of virus is this?

Explanation

This virus is classified as DS RNA because it requires its genetic material to be copied into positive sense SS-RNA. DS RNA viruses have a double-stranded RNA genome, which means they have two complementary strands of RNA. In this case, one of the strands is copied into positive sense SS-RNA, allowing the virus to replicate and produce proteins.

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102. Which receptors must rhinovirus bind to to cause infection

Explanation

The correct answer is VLDL and ICAM1. Rhinovirus, which is the causative agent of the common cold, must bind to specific receptors on the surface of host cells in order to infect them. In this case, the virus binds to two receptors, VLDL (Very Low-Density Lipoprotein) and ICAM1 (Intercellular Adhesion Molecule 1). These receptors play a crucial role in facilitating the entry of the virus into the host cells and initiating the infection process.

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103. Which layer of epithelium is the only tissue in which low risk HPV types can replicate?

Explanation

HPV infection is limited to the basal cells of stratified epithelium, the only tissue in which they replicate.

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104. What percentage of individuals infected with high-risk HPV infections clear the viral infection within two years?

Explanation

90% of individuals infected with high-risk HPV infections clear the viral infection within two years.

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105. Which of the following is true about poliovirus replication?

Explanation

The correct answer is "attaches to receptors before replication." This means that the poliovirus must first attach to specific receptors on the surface of host cells before it can begin the process of replication. This attachment allows the virus to enter the host cell and hijack its cellular machinery to replicate itself.

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106. Which of the following is not an enveloped DNA virus?

Explanation

adenoviruses are DS NONenveloped!

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107. Poxviruses replicate

Explanation

Poxviruses replicate in the cytoplasm. This means that the replication process of these viruses takes place outside of the nucleus of the host cell. Unlike most other viruses, which replicate within the nucleus, poxviruses have their own machinery to replicate their genetic material and produce new virus particles in the cytoplasm. This allows them to avoid the host cell's defense mechanisms and efficiently produce large amounts of viral progeny.

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108. Arbovirus damage can be described by which of the following statements?

Explanation

This statement suggests that arboviruses have the potential to cause damage to neurons or the liver. It implies that these viruses can specifically target these tissues and potentially lead to negative effects on their functioning. This answer option does not mention anything about tissue damage being reversible by antitoxins, dengue fever targeting mononuclear cells, or yellow fever creating cross-reacting antibodies.

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109. Which is the space vehicle shaped virus ? 

Explanation

Rabies - Bullet | Pox - complex symmetry

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110. Which of the following is not true regarding viruses?

Explanation

All have a protein capsid and envelope: This statement is not true regarding viruses. While many viruses do have a protein capsid, not all of them have an envelope. Some viruses, such as bacteriophages, do not have an envelope.

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111. How are viruses different from bacteria?

Explanation

Viruses are different from bacteria because they do not replicate by binary fission, which is the process by which bacteria divide and reproduce. Additionally, viruses are smaller in size compared to bacteria. Therefore, the correct answer is A and B.

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112. Which high-risk HPV type is strongly associated with adenocarcinoma, a less common but aggressive cancer arising from the endocervical  glandular epithelium?

Explanation

HPV Type 45 is a high-risk HPV type which is strongly associated with adenocarcinoma, a less common but aggressive cancer arising from the endocervical glandular epithelium.

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113. Which of the following describes the chronic phase of viral infection?

Explanation

The chronic phase of viral infection is characterized by the presence of RNA viruses. This phase occurs when the virus is able to establish a persistent infection in the host, often leading to long-term or lifelong infections. During this phase, the virus replicates and persists in the body, causing ongoing symptoms or disease. This phase is typically seen in infections caused by RNA viruses rather than DNA viruses.

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114. Single Stranded, enveloped DNA viruses cause infections in humans.

Explanation

DS Enveloped
SS nonenveloped
DS Noneveloped all do

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115. A defective virus is a virus that

Explanation

A defective virus is a virus that needs simultaneous infection. This means that it requires the presence of a helper virus in order to complete its life cycle and replicate. Without simultaneous infection, the defective virus is unable to reproduce on its own. This makes it dependent on another virus to provide the necessary machinery and components for replication.

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116. During hematogenous spread which of the following is true?

Explanation

During hematogenous spread, bacteria can spread through the bloodstream and then replicate in different parts of the body. This process can occur without causing any symptoms, which is known as being asymptomatic. It is also possible for individuals with hematogenous spread to not experience prodromal symptoms, which are early signs or symptoms that precede the onset of a disease. Therefore, the correct answer is "can be asymptomatic."

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117. For enveloped viruses, assembly typically occurs at the site of replication.

Explanation

For enveloped viruses, assembly typically occurs at the site of membrane acquisition - nucleus, ER/golgi, plasma membrane.

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118. Antigenic SHIFT in Influenza A is what causes the new seasonal strains we see most years

Explanation

Antigenic DRIFT (random DNA mutations) in Influenza A is what causes the new seasonal strains we see most years

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119. Orthomyovirus (RNA virus that causes influenza)replication occurs in the cytoplasm.

Explanation

orthomyovirus (RNA virus that causes influenza)replication occurs in the nucleus, not the cytoplasm.

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120. Release of nonenveloped viruses is best described by which of the following?

Explanation

Nonenveloped viruses are released from host cells by cell lysis. This means that the virus particles cause the host cell to burst open, releasing the viral particles into the surrounding environment. This is in contrast to enveloped viruses, which are typically released by budding, where the virus acquires a portion of the host cell's membrane as it exits. The option "disrupt cell membrane and bind to m proteins" is not a correct description of the release of nonenveloped viruses.

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121. Which is not true regarding capsids?

Explanation

This question is asking for the statement that is not true regarding capsids. The correct answer is "Only A and B". This means that it is not true that capsids are composed of repeating subunits and able to self-assemble into virions. Capsids are indeed composed of repeating subunits and have the ability to self-assemble into virions. The other statements in the question are true, such as the helical structure having a fixed number of subunits and being spherical in shape.

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122. Which of the following is considered a high-grade lesion that may regress spontaneously in 40 percent of women?

Explanation

CIN2 is considered a high-grade lesion that may regress spontaneously in 40 percent of women.

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123. Over 70% of MS patients show signs of which infection

Explanation

Also, there is aSignificant relationship between HHV-6 and Hodgkin’s lymphoma, oral carcinoma, certain T-cell leukemias

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124. DNA viruses  are best linked to which of the following?

Explanation

DNA viruses are best linked to transcription in the host nucleus. This is because DNA viruses have their genetic material in the form of DNA, which needs to be transcribed into mRNA in order to be translated into proteins. Transcription is the process by which the DNA sequence is copied into mRNA by the host cell's transcription machinery, which takes place in the nucleus of the host cell. Therefore, transcription in the host nucleus is the most appropriate association for DNA viruses.

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125. Which similarity is shared between polivirus and rhinovirus

Explanation

Both polivirus and rhinovirus share the similarity of needing to bind to receptors in order to replicate. This means that both viruses require specific receptors on host cells to attach to and enter the cells in order to replicate and cause infection. This is a common characteristic among many viruses, as they rely on host cell machinery for their replication and survival.

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126. Which of the following describes the adsorption of nonenveloped viruses

Explanation

Nonenveloped viruses do not have an outer lipid envelope, so they cannot use glycoproteins for adsorption like enveloped viruses. Type III secretion system is a mechanism used by bacteria to deliver virulence factors, so it is not relevant to the adsorption of nonenveloped viruses. Nonenveloped viruses can only attach to specific sites on host cells, which allows for specific recognition and binding. The correct answer, "exposed regions of capsid proteins," is consistent with the fact that the capsid proteins of nonenveloped viruses are responsible for attachment to host cells.

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127. Prions are best described as which of the following?

Explanation

Prions are best described as proteins similar to that of normal cells. Prions are misfolded proteins that can cause other proteins to misfold as well, leading to the formation of abnormal aggregates in the brain. They do not contain nucleic acid and are not surrounded by an infectious protein capsid. Prions are also not susceptible to proteolytic enzymes.

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128. Poliovirus's damage stage features which of the following conditions?

Explanation

The correct answer is "causes lytic destruction of host cell tissue." Poliovirus is known to cause lytic destruction of host cell tissue. This means that the virus replicates within the host cells and causes the cells to burst, leading to tissue damage. This destruction of host cell tissue is one of the characteristic features of poliovirus infection.

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The best treatment for arboviruses is prevention
Viruses can result in acute death of the host.
The virus' structure is a:
Transmission of Epstein-Barr Virus (EBV) can be direct, oral contact...
Which of the following treatments are used for rhinoviruses?
Which virus causes SARS?
Program cell death induced by some viruses during release has an...
Hep A, B and C are all RNA viruses.
Owl's eye like inclusion body is seen with  
Which of the following is not caused by arboviruses?
Which best describes viruses?
Viruses can replicate in the:
Match the following types of persistent infections with the...
Which treatment option is specifically activated by HSV induced...
Herpesviruses are large enveloped icosahedral dsDNA
Poliviruses and arboviruses can cause flaccid paralysis
What enzyme is used in the replication of progeny genomic RNA...
HBV has an unusual genome containing both double- and single-stranded...
By mid-life, 90-95% of all people are infected with Epstein-Barr Virus...
Which of the following is likely to accumulate in the brain and spinal...
Replication of DNA viruses typically occurs in the:
Hyper angina is best described by which of the following conditions?
Rhinovirus can infect with which of the following conditions
Flaviviridae may be the most likely cause of which of the following
Parvoviruses only cause disease in animals.
Antigenic SHIFT (recombination of whole genes or DNA segments) is what...
Which of the following is true about arboviruses?
Interferons are best described by which of the following?
HSV-2 can only be spread when lesions are visible.
Exposure to dengue fever serotype provides lifelong immunity
Viruses can survive outside of the cell.
Match the following terms with the definitions below: Host Range,...
Enveloped viruses may enter the host cell through:
Which Influenza Envelope Proteins  assist in viral budding and...
Which places are the first sites of enterovirus infection
Phage (virus)  mediated transfer of host DNA from one cell to...
Which of the following inhibits early steps of viral replication and...
Which is not a DNA virus ? 
Which property allows corona virus to mutate and adapt during...
Which of the following methods of virus DX, relies on comparison of...
What is the core?
Which of the following are unique viral enzymes that are targeted for...
 Which of the following has the largest genome of all human...
Viruses can be isolated from clinical samples by cultivation in all of...
Which of the following is the most common arbovirus induced disease...
Which of the following descriptions fit a virus that replicates...
Which of the following small poxes is most viruletn
Which HSV-1 produces fever blisters, cold sores and is the most common...
A patient presents with a mild upper respiratory illness. The most...
Which of the following is not a herpesvirus?
A patient presents with poliovirus infection and is hospitalized for 4...
Which lesions are most likely associated with low-risk types of...
Enteroviruses are spread through which of the following routes
What type of immunity is most responsible for fighting viral...
Which of the following  is true about diagnosis of...
Primary replication of the virus takes place before spread. This...
Which type of influenza only undergoes antigenic drift and is not...
Which of the following is a site of entrance for arboviruses but not...
Virus spikes are commonly associated with which of the following?
Which of the following occurs in the acute phase of viral infection...
What is a capsid?
What is the envelope?
Non-enveloped viruses may enter the host cell through:
All HPV types increase risk for developing reproductive cancer
Which of the following is true about poliovirus
Which of the following is true about enteroviruses?
Vaccination of children may result in which of the following disease...
Viruses are classified according to all of the following except:
What is a virion?
Humans are susceptible to monkeypox, mousepox, and cowpox
Herpesviruses replicates
The virus that causes influenza is a DNA virus.
Which is not a segmented RNA Virus ? 
Which of the following is true about translocation of non enveloped...
Which of the following conditions is most likely to reduce arbovirus...
Togovirus may be responsible for which of the following conditions?
Which of the following describes viruses but not bacteria?
Which of the following is a double stranded DNA virus?
A pt presents with polio infection which of the following is the best...
Which of the following virus types has nucleic acid that functions...
Which of the following is a single stranded RNA virus
Which is not true regarding adsorption?
Select the mismatched pair regarding vaccine and strain
Replication of RNA viruses typically occurs in the:
Polivirus can infect any organ that it comes in contact with
A 40 y/o pt presents with viral infection, he has weakened ...
Which of the following is mixed-stranded?
Which virus(es)  can be considered positive sense?
Enterovirus and coxsackievirus are not linked to Type 1 Diabetes...
How do most viruses acquire membranes/envelopes?
Which Influenza Envelope Proteins facilitate binding to host cells and...
Rhinovirus shows tropism for the intestinal tract
Which is true about Capsids of viruses
Which of the following viruses has information that must be copied...
Adenoviidae, Poxviridae, and Herpesviridae are:
The majority of viruses are life-threatening.
What is the best target for the treatment of viral diseases?
Small pox virus is not entirely eradicated from the world.
VLDL is the receptor for major serotypes if rhinovirus infection
Which of the following uses genome as a template to make mRNA...
A particular virus' genetic material first needs to be copied into...
Which receptors must rhinovirus bind to to cause infection
Which layer of epithelium is the only tissue in which low risk HPV...
What percentage of individuals infected with high-risk HPV infections...
Which of the following is true about poliovirus replication?
Which of the following is not an enveloped DNA virus?
Poxviruses replicate
Arbovirus damage can be described by which of the following...
Which is the space vehicle shaped virus ? 
Which of the following is not true regarding viruses?
How are viruses different from bacteria?
Which high-risk HPV type is strongly associated with adenocarcinoma, a...
Which of the following describes the chronic phase of viral infection?
Single Stranded, enveloped DNA viruses cause infections in humans.
A defective virus is a virus that
During hematogenous spread which of the following is true?
For enveloped viruses, assembly typically occurs at the site of...
Antigenic SHIFT in Influenza A is what causes the new seasonal strains...
Orthomyovirus (RNA virus that causes influenza)replication occurs in...
Release of nonenveloped viruses is best described by which of the...
Which is not true regarding capsids?
Which of the following is considered a high-grade lesion that may...
Over 70% of MS patients show signs of which infection
DNA viruses  are best linked to which of the following?
Which similarity is shared between polivirus and rhinovirus
Which of the following describes the adsorption of nonenveloped...
Prions are best described as which of the following?
Poliovirus's damage stage features which of the following conditions?
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