Rt Simulation Examination 1

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1. The amount of radiation exposure allowable is defined by the international commission on radiological protection (ICRP). 

Explanation

The explanation for the given answer is that the international commission on radiological protection (ICRP) sets the standards for the amount of radiation exposure that is considered safe. These standards are based on extensive research and scientific evidence to ensure that individuals are not exposed to harmful levels of radiation. Therefore, it is true that the amount of radiation exposure allowable is defined by the ICRP.

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About This Quiz
Rt Simulation Examination 1 - Quiz

This is a Simulated Examination for Gulf RT Examinations taken from Last Month's HAAD Feedbacks.
This examination contains 100 of the most UPDATED EXAMS from Abu Dhabi,... see moreKSA, and UAE.
Take this examination for 120 minutes. You need to get 86% to pass the HAAD. 60% to pass MOH, DHA, or Prometrics.
Please text 0919-286-29-29 in the Philippines or visit our website www. Rtonline. Weebly. Com THIS IS YOUR ASSESSMENT FOR ANY GULF RT EXAMINATIONS INCLUDING HAAD RT, SAUDI PROMETRICS, DUBAI DHA, AND UAE MOH. THE QUESTIONS HERE ARE TAKEN FROM THIS ACTUAL EXAMINATIONS, SO PASSING THIS ASSESSMENT EXAM WILL GIVE YOU A HIGH PROBABILITY OF PASSING THE SAID EXAMINATIONS see less

2. The gray scale can be changed by the sonographer

Explanation

The statement suggests that the gray scale in an ultrasound image can be adjusted or modified by the sonographer. This means that the sonographer has the ability to change the shades of gray in the image, which can help enhance the visibility and clarity of the structures being examined. This flexibility allows the sonographer to optimize the image quality based on the specific needs of the examination and improve the diagnostic accuracy.

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3. What are the four types of Radiation?

Explanation

The four types of radiation are alpha, beta, gamma, and background. Alpha radiation consists of helium nuclei and is the least penetrating form of radiation. Beta radiation consists of high-energy electrons or positrons and is more penetrating than alpha radiation. Gamma radiation is electromagnetic radiation and is the most penetrating form of radiation. Background radiation refers to the low levels of radiation that are present in the environment from natural and man-made sources.

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4. What piece of equipment is used to measure the radioactive decay count?

Explanation

How can you not get this right.

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5. Should an interlock circuit activate, an amber light will display on the main instrument panel.

Explanation

If an interlock circuit is activated, it means that there is a safety mechanism in place that prevents certain functions or operations until certain conditions are met. In this case, if the interlock circuit is activated, it will trigger the display of an amber light on the main instrument panel. Therefore, the statement is true.

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6. Put in decreasing order

Explanation

The given words are units of measurement prefixes, representing different magnitudes. "Deca" is the largest prefix, representing a factor of 10, followed by "deci" which represents a factor of 0.1. "Micro" represents a factor of 0.000001, making it smaller than both "deca" and "deci". "Centi" represents a factor of 0.01, making it the smallest prefix among the given options. Therefore, the correct order from largest to smallest is "deca, deci, micro, centi".

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7. What radiation is used to kill cancer cells.

Explanation

Gamma radiation is used to kill cancer cells because it has high energy and can penetrate deep into tissues. This type of radiation damages the DNA of cancer cells, preventing them from dividing and growing. Gamma radiation is often used in radiation therapy, where targeted doses of radiation are delivered to specific areas of the body to destroy cancer cells. It is a highly effective treatment option for various types of cancer.

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8. The more pixels per inch:

Explanation

A higher number of pixels per inch indicates a higher spatial resolution. Spatial resolution refers to the level of detail that can be captured and displayed in an image. With more pixels per inch, there are more individual dots of color or shades of gray in the image, allowing for finer details to be represented. Therefore, the better the spatial resolution is.

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9. Fill in of an anechoic structure such as a cyst is known as all of the following EXCEPT?

Explanation

An anechoic structure refers to a structure that does not produce any echoes or reflections of sound waves. When filling an anechoic structure like a cyst, artifacts can occur in the resulting image. Partial volume artifact refers to the appearance of a structure being partially filled due to the limited resolution of the imaging technique. Slice thickness artifact refers to the blurring or smearing of structures in the direction of the slice thickness. Section thickness artifact refers to the improper representation of the true thickness of a structure. Ghosting artifact, on the other hand, refers to the appearance of duplicated or faintly repeated structures in the image, which is not related to the filling of the anechoic structure.

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10. The more pixels per inch:

Explanation

The statement implies that as the number of pixels per inch increases, the spatial resolution improves. Spatial resolution refers to the ability to distinguish fine details and the higher the spatial resolution, the better the quality of the image in terms of clarity and sharpness. Therefore, the correct answer is "the better the spatial resolution".

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11. Terra / BTX has the ability to perform the following experiments except:

Explanation

Terra / BTX has the ability to perform X-ray Diffraction and X-ray Fluorescence experiments, but it does not have the ability to perform X-ray Time of Flight experiments.

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12. Radiation which has sufficient energy to remove electrons from atoms in materials through which the radiation passes is called ionizing radiation.  Examples of ionizing radiation include all but:

Explanation

Ionizing radiation refers to radiation that has enough energy to remove electrons from atoms in materials. This process, known as ionization, can have harmful effects on living organisms and materials. Alpha particle radiation, neutrons, and x-rays are all examples of ionizing radiation, as they possess sufficient energy to ionize atoms. On the other hand, radio waves do not have enough energy to remove electrons from atoms and therefore do not fall under the category of ionizing radiation.

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13. Terra / BTX feature multiple interlock circuits, which prevent the possible operation of the X-ray generating source when these interlocks are activated.

Explanation

The statement is explaining that the Terra/BTX feature multiple interlock circuits that prevent the X-ray generating source from operating when these interlocks are activated. This means that if any of the interlocks are activated, the X-ray generating source will not be able to function. Therefore, the statement is true.

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14. Put these intensities in decreasing order

Explanation

The given answer is in the correct order because it lists the intensities in decreasing order. "SPTP" has the highest intensity, followed by "SATP", and then "SATA" has the lowest intensity.

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15. If we increase the frequency the near zone length is

Explanation

When the frequency is increased, the near zone length is increased. This is because the near zone length is inversely proportional to the frequency. As the frequency increases, the wavelength decreases, causing the near zone length to increase.

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16. Which of the following is the best lateral resolution?

Explanation

The best lateral resolution is 0.06 cm. Lateral resolution refers to the ability of an imaging system to distinguish between two closely spaced objects. A smaller value indicates a higher resolution, meaning that the system can differentiate between objects that are closer together. Therefore, a lateral resolution of 0.06 cm is the best option among the given choices as it provides the highest level of detail and accuracy in distinguishing objects.

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17. Terra / BTX uses X-rays to produce the desired X-ray diffraction pattern or X-ray fluorescence spectrum.  These X-rays are produced from:

Explanation

An X-ray tube operating at 30Kv is used to produce the desired X-ray diffraction pattern or X-ray fluorescence spectrum in Terra/BTX. The X-ray tube generates X-rays by accelerating electrons using a high voltage of 30Kv. These accelerated electrons collide with a metal target in the tube, resulting in the emission of X-rays. These X-rays are then used to produce the desired patterns or spectra for analysis.

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18. What component of the US unit contains the memory bank?

Explanation

A scan converter is a component of the US unit that contains the memory bank. It is responsible for converting the electrical signals received from the transducer into a format that can be displayed on the screen. The scan converter stores the image data in its memory bank, allowing for real-time imaging and manipulation of the image.

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19. Which of the following choces determines the signal amplitude in the transducers of an ultrasound system?

Explanation

The signal amplitude in the transducers of an ultrasound system is determined by the reflected intensity of the sound beam. As the ultrasound waves travel through the body and encounter different tissues, some of the sound waves are reflected back to the transducer. The intensity of these reflected waves determines the amplitude of the signal received by the transducer. This information is crucial for generating the ultrasound image and providing diagnostic information about the tissues being examined.

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20. What determines the frequency of a sound beam from a pulsed transducer?

Explanation

The frequency of a sound beam from a pulsed transducer is determined by the thickness of the PZT. The PZT, or piezoelectric material, is responsible for converting electrical energy into mechanical vibrations. The thickness of the PZT determines the resonant frequency at which it vibrates. Therefore, the thickness of the PZT directly affects the frequency of the sound beam produced by the transducer.

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21. If the spatial pulse length is 10mm, what is the axial resolution?

Explanation

The axial resolution is determined by the spatial pulse length, which is the length of the pulse in the direction of the ultrasound beam. In this case, the spatial pulse length is given as 10mm. The axial resolution is defined as half of the spatial pulse length, so in this case, it would be 0.5 cm.

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22. Which of the following is the best lateral resolution?

Explanation

The best lateral resolution is 0.06 cm. Lateral resolution refers to the ability of an imaging system to distinguish between two closely spaced objects. In this case, a smaller value indicates a higher level of resolution, as it means the system can distinguish smaller details. Therefore, 0.06 cm is the best option among the given choices for achieving high lateral resolution.

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23. What Radiation is used in smoke detectors?

Explanation

This is a hard questionn so dont be worryed if uyou got it wrong.

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24. What are the units of longitudinal resolution?

Explanation

The units of longitudinal resolution are typically measured in feet. Longitudinal resolution refers to the ability to distinguish between two closely spaced objects along the direction of propagation. In various fields such as ultrasound imaging or seismic surveys, the resolution is often described in terms of the smallest distance that can be resolved, and feet is a commonly used unit for this measurement.

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25. The time from the beginning of a pulse until its end is__________?

Explanation

The time from the beginning of a pulse until its end is referred to as the pulse duration. This term specifically measures the length of time that a pulse of energy or signal is active or present. It is important in various fields such as telecommunications, radar systems, and medical imaging, where the duration of a pulse directly affects the quality and accuracy of the transmitted or received information.

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26. What is the meaning of thermal index = 37

Explanation

The thermal index is a measure of the potential for heating or mechanical effects in tissue when exposed to ultrasound. A thermal index of 37 indicates that the tissue temperature may rise by 3 degrees Celsius. This means that there is a possibility of heating in the tissue when exposed to ultrasound at this level.

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27. Enhancement, multipath and side lobes result in:

Explanation

Enhancement, multipath, and side lobes can result in artifacts. These are unwanted distortions or anomalies in an image that can occur due to various factors such as noise, interference, or imperfections in the imaging system. These artifacts can degrade the quality and accuracy of the image, making it less reliable for analysis or interpretation. Therefore, the presence of enhancement, multipath, and side lobes can contribute to the occurrence of artifacts in the image.

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28. What artifact has a grainy appearance and is caused by the interference effects of scattered sound?

Explanation

Speckle is the correct answer because it is an artifact that has a grainy appearance and is caused by the interference effects of scattered sound. When sound waves are scattered by an object or surface, they can interfere with each other and create a grainy pattern known as speckle. This phenomenon is commonly observed in ultrasound imaging, where speckle can affect the image quality and make it difficult to interpret. Therefore, speckle is the most appropriate choice among the given options.

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29. Sound is traveling from medium 1 to medium 2.  Propagation speeds of M1 and M2 are 1600m/s and 1500m/s respectively.  There is oblique incidence.

Explanation

When sound travels from one medium to another, the angle of incidence is equal to the angle of reflection. This is known as the law of reflection. In this scenario, the sound is traveling from medium 1 to medium 2, and the propagation speeds of M1 and M2 are given. However, the question does not provide any information about the angles of incidence and reflection. Therefore, without this information, it is not possible to determine the specific relationship between the angles.

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30. If the spatial pulse length is 10 mm, what is the axial resolution?

Explanation

The axial resolution is determined by the spatial pulse length, which is the distance between the start and end of a pulse. In this case, the spatial pulse length is given as 10 mm. The axial resolution is typically half of the spatial pulse length, so the axial resolution would be 0.5 cm.

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31. Which of the following has the greatest output intensity

Explanation

Pulsed Doppler has the greatest output intensity among the given options. Pulsed Doppler is a technique used in ultrasound imaging to measure blood flow velocity. It uses short bursts of ultrasound waves and measures the intensity of the reflected waves to determine the velocity of blood flow. The intensity of the reflected waves is higher in pulsed Doppler compared to other options such as B-Mode or gray scale imaging, which are used for visualizing anatomical structures, or CW Doppler, which uses a continuous wave of ultrasound.

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32. Which of the following best decribes the empirical approach to the study of bioeffects?

Explanation

The empirical approach to the study of bioeffects involves examining the relationship between exposure to a certain factor and the resulting response or effect. It focuses on gathering and analyzing data to determine the extent and nature of the relationship between exposure and response. This approach aims to provide evidence-based information on the effects of various factors on biological systems.

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33. Terra / BTX have been designed such that proper operation will not result in any radiation exposure.

Explanation

Terra/BTX has been specifically designed to ensure that it operates without causing any radiation exposure. This means that when used correctly, there will be no harmful radiation emitted from Terra/BTX. Therefore, the statement is true.

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34. Which of the following sound waves is ultrasonic and least useful in diagnostic imaging?

Explanation

The correct answer is 30 KHZ. Ultrasonic sound waves have a frequency above the range of human hearing, typically above 20 kHz. Diagnostic imaging techniques such as ultrasound use high-frequency sound waves to create images of internal body structures. Since 30 KHZ is the lowest frequency among the given options, it is the least useful in diagnostic imaging as it falls below the typical range of ultrasonic frequencies used in this field.

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35. If we increase the frequency the near zone length is

Explanation

When the frequency is increased, the near zone length also increases. The near zone is the region close to the source where the electromagnetic fields are dominant. As the frequency increases, the wavelength decreases. This means that the waves become more compact and concentrated, causing the near zone to expand. Therefore, increasing the frequency leads to an increase in the near zone length.

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36. At what location in a sound beam is the SPTA intensity the highest?

Explanation

The SPTA intensity is highest at the focal point of a sound beam. This is because the focal point is the area where the sound waves converge and become the most concentrated. At this point, the energy of the sound waves is focused, resulting in a higher intensity compared to other locations in the beam.

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37. Terra / BTX when operated properly does not produce measurable radiation on any external surface of the instrument.

Explanation

The statement suggests that when Terra / BTX is operated correctly, it does not emit any detectable radiation on any external surface of the instrument. This implies that the instrument is designed and functioning properly, ensuring that radiation is contained within the instrument and does not pose any risk to the external environment or individuals. Therefore, the correct answer is true.

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38. The damaging effects of radiation depend not only on its intensity and duration, but also the type of radiation.  For instance, 1 millicurie of tritium a centimeter from the body poses a much different hazard than 1 millicurie of phosphorus-32 a centimeter from the body. Consequently, it is often preferable to measure radiation by describing the effect of that radiation on the materials through which it passes.  The units for biological effects of radiation are:

Explanation

The units for biological effects of radiation are REM/Sievert because they take into account not only the intensity and duration of the radiation, but also the type of radiation and its effect on the materials it passes through. REM (Roentgen Equivalent Man) is a unit that measures the biological effect of radiation on human tissue, while Sievert is the International System of Units (SI) equivalent of REM. These units provide a more comprehensive measurement of the potential harm caused by radiation exposure.

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39. If the transducer diameter increases, the lateral resolution at its smalles dimension is

Explanation

When the transducer diameter increases, the lateral resolution at its smallest dimension is increased. This is because a larger transducer diameter allows for a wider beam width, resulting in a smaller focal spot. A smaller focal spot leads to improved lateral resolution, as it allows for better differentiation between adjacent structures or objects. Therefore, increasing the transducer diameter enhances the ability of the transducer to accurately distinguish between objects in the lateral direction, improving the lateral resolution.

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40. The range equation relates distant from the reflector to __________ and __________.

Explanation

The range equation relates the distance from the reflector to the time of flight and the propagation speed. The time of flight refers to the time it takes for the signal to travel from the source to the reflector and back, while the propagation speed is the speed at which the signal travels through the medium. By knowing these two factors, the range equation can be used to calculate the distance between the source and the reflector.

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41. Multiple reflections that are equally spaced are called:

Explanation

Reverberations are multiple reflections that are equally spaced. When sound waves bounce off surfaces and reflect back, they can create a series of echoes that are evenly distributed in time. This phenomenon is known as reverberation. It is commonly experienced in large enclosed spaces, such as concert halls or cathedrals, where sound waves bounce off walls, ceilings, and floors multiple times before dying out.

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42. Refraction only occurs if there is :

Explanation

Refraction occurs when light passes from one medium to another with different propagation speeds, and when the incident angle is oblique. In this case, the correct answer states that oblique incidence and different propagation speeds are necessary for refraction to occur. This means that the light must approach the boundary between the two media at an angle other than 90 degrees, and the media must have different speeds at which light can travel through them.

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43. The relaive output of an US instrument is calibrated in dB and the operator increases the output by 60 dB.  The beam intensity is increased by which of the following?

Explanation

3dB means 2 x bigger 6dB is 3dB + 3dB, therefore 6dB means 2 x 2 or 4 times bigger. 60dB = 10x10x10x10x10x10 or 1,000,000

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44. If the transducer diameter increases, the lateral resolution at its smallest dimension is

Explanation

When the transducer diameter increases, the lateral resolution at its smallest dimension is increased. This is because a larger transducer diameter allows for a wider beam width, which results in a larger focal zone. As a result, the ultrasound waves diverge less and can provide better lateral resolution, allowing for more detailed imaging and distinguishing smaller structures.

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45. If the frequency is decreased, the numberical value of the radial resolution is

Explanation

When the frequency is decreased, the numerical value of the radial resolution is increased. Radial resolution refers to the ability to distinguish between two closely spaced objects in an imaging system. A higher numerical value indicates a greater ability to distinguish between these objects, meaning that the system can resolve finer details. By decreasing the frequency, the wavelength of the waves used in the imaging system becomes longer. This longer wavelength allows for greater precision in distinguishing between closely spaced objects, resulting in an increased numerical value for the radial resolution.

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46. The angle between an US pulse and the boundary between two media is 90 degrees.  What is this called?

Explanation

Orthogonal incidence refers to the angle of 90 degrees between an ultrasonic (US) pulse and the boundary between two media. This means that the pulse is hitting the boundary perpendicularly, resulting in an orthogonal incidence.

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47. Changing which of the following would not cause any change in a hard copy image output?

Explanation

Changing the display brightness and contrast would not cause any change in a hard copy image output because these settings only affect the appearance of the image on the screen. They do not alter the actual content or quality of the image that is printed on paper. The TGC (Time Gain Compensation), overall gain, output power, and depth of view are all factors that can affect the quality and clarity of the image, so changing any of these settings could potentially impact the hard copy image output.

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48. The most likely amount of reflection at a boundary between soft tissue is:

Explanation

Soft tissue has a low acoustic impedance, which means that there is a small difference in the acoustic properties between soft tissue and surrounding media. This results in minimal reflection at the boundary between soft tissue, leading to only a small amount of the ultrasound wave being reflected back. Therefore, the most likely amount of reflection at a boundary between soft tissue is 1%.

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49. In an analog scan converter, what component stores the image data?

Explanation

In an analog scan converter, the dielectric matrix is responsible for storing the image data. A dielectric matrix refers to a material with insulating properties that can store and retain charge. In the context of an analog scan converter, the dielectric matrix is used to store the electrical charges that represent the image data, allowing it to be displayed on a screen or monitor. Computer memory and video tape recorders are not typically used to store image data in an analog scan converter. Therefore, the correct answer is the dielectric matrix.

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50. You are performing a quality assurance study on an ultrasound system using a tissue equivalent phantom.  You make an adjustment using a knob on the system console that changes the appearance of reflector brightness from fully bright to barely visible.  What are you evaluating?

Explanation

By adjusting the knob on the system console to change the appearance of reflector brightness from fully bright to barely visible, you are evaluating the system sensitivity. System sensitivity refers to the ability of the ultrasound system to detect and display weak echoes. By assessing the reflector brightness at different levels, you can determine the sensitivity of the system in detecting and displaying these echoes.

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51. The manufacturer increases the number of lines per frame.  As a result, which of the following may have to decreased. (IMAGING DEPTH)

Explanation

The manufacturer increases the number of lines per frame, which means that more lines are being displayed on the screen. This increase in lines per frame can result in a decrease in imaging depth. Imaging depth refers to the ability of the imaging system to display objects at different depths. When more lines are displayed per frame, it can reduce the amount of information that can be displayed for each line, resulting in a decrease in imaging depth. Therefore, the statement "True" is correct.

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52. It is not necessary to contact your local radiation protection control authority (State, Federal, etc) in order to operate your Terra or BTX.

Explanation

The statement is false because it is necessary to contact the local radiation protection control authority in order to operate Terra or BTX. These devices are likely to emit radiation, and therefore, proper authorization and compliance with regulations are required to ensure safety and adherence to legal requirements. Failing to contact the local radiation protection control authority may result in legal consequences and potential harm to individuals and the environment.

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53. All of the following are true EXCEPT:

Explanation

This statement is false because waves with identical frequencies can interfere destructively if they are out of phase. Constructive interference occurs when waves are in phase, meaning their crests and troughs align, resulting in a larger amplitude. However, if the waves are out of phase, their crests and troughs do not align, leading to destructive interference and a smaller overall amplitude.

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54. What is the minimum value of the SP/SA factor?

Explanation

The minimum value of the SP/SA factor is 1.0. This means that the selling price (SP) is equal to the selling amount (SA). In other words, there is no markup or discount applied to the selling price.

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55. A mirror image artifact can appear along side of the true anatomy.

Explanation

Mirror image artifact refers to a phenomenon in medical imaging where a duplicate image is created due to the reflection of the original image. This artifact can occur in certain imaging techniques, such as ultrasound or magnetic resonance imaging (MRI). However, it is important to note that a mirror image artifact does not appear alongside the true anatomy, but rather creates a duplicate image that may lead to misinterpretation if not recognized. Therefore, the given statement is false.

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56. How many bits are needed to represent 14 shades of gray?

Explanation

To represent 14 shades of gray, we need 4 bits. This is because 4 bits can represent 2^4 = 16 different values, which is more than enough to cover 14 shades. Using fewer bits would not provide enough unique values to represent all the shades, and using more bits would be unnecessary and wasteful. Therefore, 4 bits is the correct answer.

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57. The fundamental frequency of a transcucer is 2.5 MHz.  What is the second harmonic frequency?

Explanation

The second harmonic frequency is double the fundamental frequency. Therefore, if the fundamental frequency is 2.5 MHz, the second harmonic frequency would be 5 MHz. However, none of the options provided match this value. Therefore, the correct answer is not available.

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58. The propagation speed of US in the AIUM test object is?

Explanation

The correct answer is 1.54 mm/us. This is because ultrasound waves travel at different speeds in different materials. In the AIUM test object, the ultrasound waves travel at a speed of 1.54 mm/us.

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59. The manufacturer increases the number of lines per frame.  As a result, which of the following may have to decreased. FRAME RATE (TRUE OR FALSE)

Explanation

The frame rate refers to the number of frames displayed per second in a video or animation. If the manufacturer increases the number of lines per frame, it means that each frame will contain more lines of information. This increase in the amount of information per frame may require a decrease in the frame rate in order to maintain a consistent playback speed. Therefore, the statement "The manufacturer increases the number of lines per frame" supports the answer "True" for the question.

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60. If the frequency is decreased, the numerical value of the radial resolution is

Explanation

When the frequency is decreased, the numerical value of the radial resolution is increased. Radial resolution refers to the ability to distinguish between two closely spaced objects. Decreasing the frequency means that the wavelength becomes longer, resulting in a larger distance between consecutive wave peaks. This larger distance allows for better differentiation between objects, leading to an increased radial resolution.

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61. Which of the following best describes the mechanistic approach to the study of bioeffects?

Explanation

The mechanistic approach to the study of bioeffects focuses on understanding the cause-effect relationship between a specific exposure and its resulting effects. This approach aims to identify and explain the underlying mechanisms by which an exposure leads to a particular biological response or outcome. It seeks to establish a direct link between the cause (exposure) and the effect (biological response), providing a detailed understanding of the processes involved. This approach is important in assessing the potential risks and impacts of various exposures on living organisms.

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62. What can pulsed Doppler measure that continuous wave cannot?

Explanation

Pulsed Doppler can measure location because it uses short bursts of ultrasound waves and measures the time it takes for the waves to bounce back from a specific location. This allows for determining the location of the object or tissue being examined. Continuous wave, on the other hand, uses a continuous stream of ultrasound waves and cannot accurately determine location as it does not have the ability to differentiate between different depths or distances.

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63. The impredance of tissue is 3 x 10^5 rayls and for the PZT crystal is 6 x 10 ^6 rayls.  What is the best impedance for the matching layer?

Explanation

The matching layer is 1/4 wavelength thick. So 3 + 6 = 9 10^4

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64. The interaction of microscopic bubbles and ultrasound form the basis for cavitation bioeffects.  Which of the following forms of cavitation are most likely to produce microstreaming in the intracellular fluid and shear stresses?

Explanation

Stable cavitation is the most likely form of cavitation to produce microstreaming in the intracellular fluid and shear stresses. In stable cavitation, the bubbles oscillate in size and shape but do not collapse completely. This oscillation creates microstreaming, which refers to the movement of fluid around the bubbles. The microstreaming effect can cause shear stresses on the surrounding intracellular fluid, leading to various bioeffects.

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65. What are typical clinical Doppler frequencies?

Explanation

Typical clinical Doppler frequencies range from 1 to 10,000 Hz. Doppler frequencies are used in medical imaging to measure the velocity of blood flow or movement of tissues. The lower frequency range is suitable for detecting slower flow velocities, such as in veins, while the higher frequency range is used for faster flow velocities, such as in arteries. This range allows for effective and accurate measurement of blood flow in various clinical applications.

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66. All of the following will improve temporal resolution EXCEPT:

Explanation

Increasing line density actually improves temporal resolution in imaging. Increasing line density means increasing the number of lines or pixels in an image, which allows for more detailed and accurate representation of motion over time. This helps in capturing fast-moving objects or events with higher precision. Therefore, increasing line density should improve temporal resolution rather than decrease it.

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67. Which is not an acoustic variable?

Explanation

Intensity is not an acoustic variable because it refers to the amount of energy carried by sound waves per unit area. Acoustic variables, on the other hand, are physical quantities that describe the characteristics of sound waves, such as density, pressure, and distance.

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68. The duty factor for continuous wave ultrasound is

Explanation

The duty factor for continuous wave ultrasound refers to the percentage of time that the ultrasound machine is emitting ultrasound waves. A duty factor of 1.0 means that the machine is emitting ultrasound waves 100% of the time. This indicates that the ultrasound waves are continuously being transmitted without any interruptions or breaks.

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69. Doppler shifts always occur if the source and observer are in motion relative to each other and the angle between the motion and the sound beam is not 90 degrees.

Explanation

The statement is true because Doppler shifts occur when there is relative motion between the source and observer. This shift in frequency happens because the motion changes the effective distance between the source and observer, causing a change in the perceived frequency of the sound. The angle between the motion and the sound beam being not 90 degrees is also a condition for Doppler shifts to occur, as it affects the magnitude of the frequency shift.

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70. Depth calibration of a machine measures 100 mm spaced wires to be 90 mm apart.  Scanning reflectors 50 mm apart, what will the machine calculate the distance to be?

Explanation

The machine measures 100 mm spaced wires to be 90 mm apart. This means that the machine is underestimating the distance between the wires by 10 mm. Since the scanning reflectors are 50 mm apart, the machine will likely underestimate this distance as well. Therefore, the machine will calculate the distance to be less than 50 mm. The closest option is 45 mm, which is the correct answer.

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71. The units of pulse repetition frequency are:

Explanation

The pulse repetition frequency measures the number of pulses that occur in one minute. It is a unit used to quantify the rate at which pulses are repeated in a given time period. Therefore, the correct answer is "per minute." The other options, msec (milliseconds), mm/us (millimeters per microsecond), and MHx (megahertz), do not accurately represent the units of pulse repetition frequency.

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72. What is the most typical Doppler shift measured clinically?

Explanation

The most typical Doppler shift measured clinically is 2 kHz. Doppler shift refers to the change in frequency of a wave when there is relative motion between the source of the wave and the observer. In clinical settings, Doppler ultrasound is commonly used to measure blood flow and assess vascular conditions. The frequency shift observed in these measurements is typically in the range of a few kilohertz (kHz). Therefore, 2 kHz is the most likely and typical value for the Doppler shift measured clinically.

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73. The manufacturer increases the number of lines per frame.  As a result, which of the following may have to decreased.  (Sector Angle)

Explanation

If the manufacturer increases the number of lines per frame, it means that more lines are being displayed on the screen. This increase in lines per frame would result in a decrease in the sector angle. The sector angle refers to the angle of view that each line represents on the screen. With more lines being displayed, the angle between each line would have to decrease in order to fit them all within the frame. Therefore, it is true that increasing the number of lines per frame may result in a decrease in the sector angle.

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74. Which pair of intensities has the same value for continuous wave US?

Explanation

The pulse average and temporal average intensities have the same value for continuous wave US. The pulse average intensity is the average intensity over one pulse duration, while the temporal average intensity is the average intensity over a longer time period. Since continuous wave US has a constant intensity, the pulse average and temporal average intensities will be equal.

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75. If 3 MHz sound has 2DB of attenuation in 1cm of tissue, what is the amount of attenuation of 6MHz sound in 0.5cm of the same tissue

Explanation

The amount of attenuation of sound in tissue is directly proportional to the frequency of the sound and the distance it travels. In this case, we are given that a 3 MHz sound has 2 dB of attenuation in 1 cm of tissue. Since the frequency doubles to 6 MHz, we can expect the attenuation to also double. Additionally, since the distance is halved to 0.5 cm, we can expect the attenuation to be halved as well. Therefore, the amount of attenuation of the 6 MHz sound in 0.5 cm of tissue would be 2 dB.

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76. When the US machine displays only strong reflecting objects and nothing else, the sonographer should

Explanation

Increasing the output power of the US machine can help in displaying only strong reflecting objects and nothing else. By increasing the output power, the ultrasound waves will be stronger, allowing for better penetration and detection of strong reflecting objects. This adjustment can help the sonographer to focus on the specific objects of interest and eliminate any unwanted signals or artifacts that may be interfering with the image quality. Adjusting the gain, lateral resolution, or TGC may not specifically address the issue of displaying only strong reflecting objects.

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77. Radiation control for instruments, such as Terra / BTX is controlled by the US Federal government for instruments operated in the United States.

Explanation

The statement is false because radiation control for instruments like Terra/BTX is not controlled by the US Federal government.

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78. If the level of an acoustic variable ranges from 55 to 105, what is the amplitude?

Explanation

The amplitude of an acoustic variable refers to the maximum displacement or distance from the equilibrium position. In this case, the level of the acoustic variable ranges from 55 to 105. Since the amplitude is the maximum displacement, it would be the difference between the highest and lowest values, which is 105 - 55 = 50. Therefore, the correct answer is 50.

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79. What is the approximate attenuation coefficient of 1MHz US in soft tissue?

Explanation

The approximate attenuation coefficient of 1MHz ultrasound in soft tissue is 0.5 dBcm. Attenuation coefficient refers to the rate at which the ultrasound waves decrease in intensity as they pass through the tissue. In this case, the attenuation coefficient is given in units of decibels per centimeter (dBcm), indicating that the intensity of the ultrasound waves decreases by 0.5 decibels for every centimeter of tissue they pass through.

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80. If we increase the transducer diameter, the beam diameter in the far zone is:

Explanation

When the transducer diameter is increased, the beam diameter in the far zone is decreased. This is because the far zone is the region where the beam has already diverged and spread out. Increasing the transducer diameter means that the beam will have a larger initial width, causing it to diverge less as it propagates. As a result, the beam diameter in the far zone will be smaller, leading to a decrease in size.

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81. If we increase the transducer diameter, the beam diameter in the far zone is

Explanation

When the transducer diameter is increased, the beam diameter in the far zone is decreased. This is because the transducer diameter determines the size of the initial beam, and as it is increased, the beam spreads out less, resulting in a smaller beam diameter in the far zone. Therefore, increasing the transducer diameter leads to a decrease in the beam diameter in the far zone.

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82. The manufacturer increases the number of lines per frame.  As a result, which of the following may have to decreased. Power Output

Explanation

If the manufacturer increases the number of lines per frame, it means that more information is being displayed on the screen. This increase in information does not necessarily have any direct impact on the power output of the device. Therefore, the statement that the power output may have to be decreased is false.

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83. If the SPTA of the following were equal, which would have the lowest SPPA?

Explanation

The continuous wave ultrasound technique would have the lowest SPPA (Spatial Peak Pulse Average) if the SPTA (Spatial Peak Temporal Average) values of all the mentioned techniques were equal. Continuous wave ultrasound does not have any pulse duration or pulse repetition period, as it continuously emits ultrasound waves. Therefore, its SPPA value would be lower compared to the other techniques that involve the emission of pulsed ultrasound waves.

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84. InXitu expects that the operator will need to remove the acess panel in order to properly use the instrument. That is, the instrument has user-serviced parts inside.

Explanation

The explanation for the given answer "False" is that inXitu does not expect the operator to remove the access panel in order to properly use the instrument. The instrument does not have user-serviced parts inside.

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85. According to the AIUM statement on bioeffects, there have been no concirmed bioeffects below intensities of _________ watts per square centimeter SPTA.

Explanation

According to the AIUM statement on bioeffects, there have been no confirmed bioeffects below intensities of 0.1 watts per square centimeter SPTA. This means that any ultrasound intensity below 0.1 watts per square centimeter SPTA is considered safe and does not cause any known harmful effects on biological tissues.

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86. If a wave's amplitude is doubled, what happens to the power?

Explanation

When a wave's amplitude is doubled, the power of the wave increases by a factor of four, or it becomes quadrupled. This is because power is directly proportional to the square of the amplitude of the wave. Therefore, if the amplitude is doubled, the power will increase by four times.

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87. Assuming a constant frequency, what happens if the diameter of an unfocused circular transducer is increased?

Explanation

When the diameter of an unfocused circular transducer is increased, the beam width in the near field is increased. This means that the width of the ultrasound beam becomes wider as it propagates closer to the transducer. This occurs because increasing the diameter of the transducer results in a larger aperture, which causes the beam to diverge more rapidly. As a result, the beam spreads out over a larger area in the near field, leading to an increased beam width.

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88. If the frequency of an US wave is doubled, what happens to the period?

Explanation

When the frequency of an ultrasound wave is doubled, the period of the wave is halved. This is because frequency and period are inversely proportional to each other. Frequency is the number of wave cycles per second, while period is the time it takes for one complete wave cycle. When the frequency is doubled, it means that the number of wave cycles per second has increased, so each wave cycle takes less time to complete, resulting in a halved period.

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89. What is the frequency of a wave with 1msec period?

Explanation

The frequency of a wave is the number of complete cycles it completes in one second. In this question, it is given that the wave has a period of 1 millisecond. The period is the time taken for one complete cycle. Since there are 1,000 milliseconds in one second, the wave completes 1,000 cycles in one second. Therefore, the frequency of the wave is 1kHz (1,000 Hz).

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90. What is the fraction of time that sound is transmitting?

Explanation

The duty factor is the fraction of time that sound is transmitting. It is calculated by dividing the pulse duration by the period. A higher duty factor indicates that sound is transmitting for a larger portion of the time, while a lower duty factor indicates that sound is transmitting for a smaller portion of the time. Therefore, the duty factor is a measure of how often sound is being transmitted during a given period.

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91. The time that a transducer is pulsing is measured at 18 seconds in one hour of total elapsed time.  What is the duty factor?

Explanation

60 seconds equal 1 minute. There are 60 minutes in 1 hour so 60 seconds X 60 minutes = 18 divided by 3600 = 0.005

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92. The distance to a target is doubled.  The time of flight for a pulse to travel to the target and back is

Explanation

When the distance to a target is doubled, the time of flight for a pulse to travel to the target and back will also double. This is because the pulse has to travel a greater distance, so it will take longer to reach the target and return to the source. Therefore, the correct answer is "2 times".

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93. If a reflector is moved twice as far away from the tranducer, how will this affect the time of flight of a sound pulse?

Explanation

When a reflector is moved twice as far away from the transducer, the time it takes for the sound pulse to travel to the reflector and back will also double. This is because the time of flight is directly proportional to the distance traveled by the sound pulse. Therefore, the correct answer is "double it".

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94. The manufacturer increases the number of lines per frame.  As a result, which of the following may have to decreased.  Frequency

Explanation

Increasing the number of lines per frame does not necessarily require decreasing the frequency. The number of lines per frame refers to the vertical resolution of the display, while the frequency refers to the refresh rate or the number of times the image is updated per second. These two factors are independent of each other and can be adjusted separately. Therefore, the statement is false.

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95. Axial resolution is affected by focusing.

Explanation

Axial resolution refers to the ability to distinguish between two closely spaced objects along the axis of imaging. It is determined by the wavelength of the imaging system and is not affected by focusing. Focusing, on the other hand, affects the lateral resolution, which is the ability to distinguish between two closely spaced objects perpendicular to the axis of imaging. Therefore, the statement that axial resolution is affected by focusing is false.

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96. Which one of the following sets of properties of a test phantom is most relevant when assessing depth calibration accuracy?

Explanation

When assessing depth calibration accuracy, the most relevant properties of a test phantom are reflector spacing and propagation speed. Reflector spacing refers to the distance between the reflectors in the phantom, which is important in determining the accuracy of depth measurements. Propagation speed refers to the speed at which ultrasound waves travel through the medium, which affects the timing of the echoes received from the reflectors. By considering both reflector spacing and propagation speed, one can accurately assess the depth calibration accuracy of the ultrasound system.

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97. A pulse is emitted by a transducer and is traveling in soft tissue.  The go-return time, or time of flight, of a sound pulse is 130 microseconds.  What is the reflector depth?

Explanation

PRP(us) = imaging depth x 13 us/cm
130 us = ? x 13 us/cm
130 divide by 13 = 10 cm or
Depth(mm) = 1.54mm/us x go return time(us)/2
= 1.54 x 130/2
= 200.2/2
mm = 100.1 or 10 cm

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98. If the lines per frame is increased while the imaging depth is unchanged then:

Explanation

When the lines per frame are increased while the imaging depth remains unchanged, it means that more lines are being scanned within each frame. This results in a slower frame rate because it takes more time to complete each frame with the increased number of lines. Therefore, the correct answer is that the frame rate decreases.

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99. Doppler shifts are always created when the source and receiver are in motion relative to each other.

Explanation

Doppler shifts are not always created when the source and receiver are in motion relative to each other. Doppler shifts occur when there is a relative motion between the source of a wave and the observer, causing a change in the observed frequency. However, if there is no relative motion between the source and receiver, there will be no Doppler shift. Therefore, the statement is false.

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100. If the intensity of a sound beam remains unchanged while the beam area is reduced in half, what happened to the power?

Explanation

When the beam area is reduced in half, the same amount of power is spread over a smaller area. This means that the power density (power per unit area) increases. Since power is directly proportional to the product of intensity and area, and the intensity remains unchanged, the only way for the power to decrease is if the area is halved. Therefore, the power is halved when the beam area is reduced in half.

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The amount of radiation exposure allowable is defined by the...
The gray scale can be changed by the sonographer
What are the four types of Radiation?
What piece of equipment is used to measure the radioactive decay...
Should an interlock circuit activate, an amber light will display on...
Put in decreasing order
What radiation is used to kill cancer cells.
The more pixels per inch:
Fill in of an anechoic structure such as a cyst is known as all of the...
The more pixels per inch:
Terra / BTX has the ability to perform the following experiments...
Radiation which has sufficient energy to remove electrons from atoms...
Terra / BTX feature multiple interlock circuits, which prevent...
Put these intensities in decreasing order
If we increase the frequency the near zone length is
Which of the following is the best lateral resolution?
Terra / BTX uses X-rays to produce the desired X-ray diffraction...
What component of the US unit contains the memory bank?
Which of the following choces determines the signal amplitude in the...
What determines the frequency of a sound beam from a pulsed...
If the spatial pulse length is 10mm, what is the axial resolution?
Which of the following is the best lateral resolution?
What Radiation is used in smoke detectors?
What are the units of longitudinal resolution?
The time from the beginning of a pulse until its end is__________?
What is the meaning of thermal index = 37
Enhancement, multipath and side lobes result in:
What artifact has a grainy appearance and is caused by the...
Sound is traveling from medium 1 to medium 2.  Propagation speeds...
If the spatial pulse length is 10 mm, what is the axial resolution?
Which of the following has the greatest output intensity
Which of the following best decribes the empirical approach to the...
Terra / BTX have been designed such that proper operation will not...
Which of the following sound waves is ultrasonic and least useful in...
If we increase the frequency the near zone length is
At what location in a sound beam is the SPTA intensity the highest?
Terra / BTX when operated properly does not produce measurable...
The damaging effects of radiation depend not only on its intensity and...
If the transducer diameter increases, the lateral resolution at its...
The range equation relates distant from the reflector to __________...
Multiple reflections that are equally spaced are called:
Refraction only occurs if there is :
The relaive output of an US instrument is calibrated in dB and the...
If the transducer diameter increases, the lateral resolution at its...
If the frequency is decreased, the numberical value of the radial...
The angle between an US pulse and the boundary between two media is 90...
Changing which of the following would not cause any change in a hard...
The most likely amount of reflection at a boundary between soft tissue...
In an analog scan converter, what component stores the image data?
You are performing a quality assurance study on an ultrasound system...
The manufacturer increases the number of lines per frame.  As a...
It is not necessary to contact your local radiation protection control...
All of the following are true EXCEPT:
What is the minimum value of the SP/SA factor?
A mirror image artifact can appear along side of the true anatomy.
How many bits are needed to represent 14 shades of gray?
The fundamental frequency of a transcucer is 2.5 MHz.  What is...
The propagation speed of US in the AIUM test object is?
The manufacturer increases the number of lines per frame.  As a...
If the frequency is decreased, the numerical value of the radial...
Which of the following best describes the mechanistic approach to the...
What can pulsed Doppler measure that continuous wave cannot?
The impredance of tissue is 3 x 10^5 rayls and for the PZT crystal is...
The interaction of microscopic bubbles and ultrasound form the basis...
What are typical clinical Doppler frequencies?
All of the following will improve temporal resolution EXCEPT:
Which is not an acoustic variable?
The duty factor for continuous wave ultrasound is
Doppler shifts always occur if the source and observer are in motion...
Depth calibration of a machine measures 100 mm spaced wires to be 90...
The units of pulse repetition frequency are:
What is the most typical Doppler shift measured clinically?
The manufacturer increases the number of lines per frame.  As a...
Which pair of intensities has the same value for continuous wave US?
If 3 MHz sound has 2DB of attenuation in 1cm of tissue, what is the...
When the US machine displays only strong reflecting objects and...
Radiation control for instruments, such as Terra / BTX is controlled...
If the level of an acoustic variable ranges from 55 to 105, what is...
What is the approximate attenuation coefficient of 1MHz US in soft...
If we increase the transducer diameter, the beam diameter in the far...
If we increase the transducer diameter, the beam diameter in the far...
The manufacturer increases the number of lines per frame.  As a...
If the SPTA of the following were equal, which would have the lowest...
InXitu expects that the operator will need to remove the acess panel...
According to the AIUM statement on bioeffects, there have been no...
If a wave's amplitude is doubled, what happens to the power?
Assuming a constant frequency, what happens if the diameter of an...
If the frequency of an US wave is doubled, what happens to the period?
What is the frequency of a wave with 1msec period?
What is the fraction of time that sound is transmitting?
The time that a transducer is pulsing is measured at 18 seconds in one...
The distance to a target is doubled.  The time of flight for a...
If a reflector is moved twice as far away from the tranducer, how will...
The manufacturer increases the number of lines per frame.  As a...
Axial resolution is affected by focusing.
Which one of the following sets of properties of a test phantom is...
A pulse is emitted by a transducer and is traveling in soft...
If the lines per frame is increased while the imaging depth is...
Doppler shifts are always created when the source and receiver are in...
If the intensity of a sound beam remains unchanged while the beam area...
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