Pt/Ot Haad Simulation 7

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1. An attractive physical therapist is treating a young and handsome football player with an ACL sprain. She is very fond of this patient and enjoys treating him. After a few visits, the football player asks her out to dinner. The physical therapist’s response should be to:

Explanation

The physical therapist should refuse the football player's invitation while he is receiving treatment. It is important for healthcare professionals to maintain professional boundaries and avoid any potential conflicts of interest or dual relationships with their patients. Accepting the invitation could compromise the therapeutic relationship and could be seen as unethical. Refusing the invitation shows professionalism and ensures that the focus remains on the patient's treatment.

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About This Quiz
Pt/Ot Haad Simulation 7 - Quiz

This is a Simulated Examination for Gulf Physical Therapy/ Occupational Therapy Examinations taken from Last Month's HAAD Feedbacks.
This examination contains 100 of the most UPDATED EXAMS from... see moreAbu Dhabi, KSA, and UAE.
Take this examination for 120 minutes.
You need to get 86% to pass the HAAD. 60% to pass MOH, DHA, or Prometrics.
Please text 0919-286-29-29 in the Philippines or visit our website www. Ptonline. Weebly. Com
THIS IS YOUR ASSESSMENT FOR ANY GULF Physical Therapy/ Occupational Therapy​ EXAMINATIONS INCLUDING HAAD, SAUDI PROMETRICS, DUBAI DHA, AND UAE MOH.
THE QUESTIONS HERE ARE TAKEN FROM THIS ACTUAL EXAMINATIONS, SO PASSING THIS ASSESSMENT EXAM WILL GIVE YOU A HIGH PROBABILITY OF PASSING see less

2. Your patient has lymphatic disease of the right arm secondary to radical mastectomy and radiation. The resulting edema can BEST be managed in physical therapy by:

Explanation

The patient has lymphatic disease of the right arm secondary to radical mastectomy and radiation, which has resulted in edema. Intermittent pneumatic compression helps to improve lymphatic flow and reduce edema by applying pressure to the affected area. Extremity elevation helps to reduce swelling by promoting fluid drainage. Massage can also aid in improving lymphatic flow and reducing edema. Therefore, the combination of intermittent pneumatic compression, extremity elevation, and massage is the best approach for managing the edema in this patient.

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3. You are working with a 10 year-old girl with cerebral palsy. Part of the exercises in her plan of care involve using the Swiss ball. The choice of educational media that is BEST to use when instructing her in use of this device is:

Explanation

A videotape of another child with cerebral palsy on a Swiss ball would be the best choice of educational media for instructing the 10-year-old girl with cerebral palsy in the use of the Swiss ball. This visual medium would provide the girl with a clear and concrete example of how to use the Swiss ball effectively. By observing another child with the same condition using the Swiss ball, she can better understand the proper techniques and exercises involved. This visual demonstration can be more engaging and relatable for the girl, making it easier for her to learn and follow along.

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4. A 40 year-old male with a history of low back pain has been receiving physical therapy for 12 weeks. The patient is employed as a loading dockworker. He performs repetitive lifting and carrying of boxes weighing between 15 and 30 pounds. An appropriate engineering control to reduce the stresses of lifting and carrying would be to:

Explanation

Providing a two-wheel handcart for use in moving the boxes would be an appropriate engineering control to reduce the stresses of lifting and carrying. This would eliminate the need for the worker to manually lift and carry the boxes, reducing the strain on the back and preventing further injury or exacerbation of low back pain. Using a handcart would distribute the weight of the boxes more evenly and allow for easier and safer transportation, reducing the risk of injury.

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5. A patient has lumbar spinal stenosis encroaching on the spinal cord. The physical therapist should educate the patient to AVOID:

Explanation

Swimming using a crawl stroke should be avoided for a patient with lumbar spinal stenosis encroaching on the spinal cord. This is because the crawl stroke requires repetitive extension of the spine, which can exacerbate the symptoms and further compress the spinal cord. It is important for the patient to avoid activities that put excessive strain on the spine and instead focus on low-impact exercises that promote stability and flexibility, such as bicycling, rowing, and Tai Chi.

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6. A 15 year-old male suffered traumatic brain injury and multiple fractures following a motor vehicle accident. He is recovering in the intensive care unit. Your referral states PROM and positioning. On day 1 he is semi-alert and drifts in and out while you are working with him. On day 2 you become concerned because you observe signs suggestive of increasing intracranial pressure. You promptly report these symptoms to his physician. The signs that would be cause for immediate action in this case would be:

Explanation

The signs that would be cause for immediate action in this case are decreasing consciousness with slowing of pulse and Cheyne-Stokes respirations. These symptoms suggest increasing intracranial pressure, which can be life-threatening. Slowing of the pulse indicates decreased brain perfusion, while Cheyne-Stokes respirations are characterized by alternating periods of deep and shallow breathing, indicating impaired brainstem function. Promptly reporting these symptoms to the physician is crucial to ensure appropriate intervention and prevent further complications.

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7. A patient’s daughter wants to look at her father’s medical record. He has recently been admitted for an insidious onset of low back pain. You, as the physical therapist, should:

Explanation

The correct answer is to tell her that she must have the permission of her father before she can look at the chart. This is because medical records are confidential and can only be accessed by authorized individuals or with the patient's consent. It is important to respect the patient's privacy and ensure that their information is not misinterpreted or misused. Therefore, the daughter should obtain her father's permission before accessing his medical records.

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8. A multicenter study was done on the reliability of passive wrist flexion and extension goniometric measurements using volar/dorsal alignment, ulnar alignment and radial alignment. Significant differences were revealed between the three techniques. An appropriate level for determining significant difference is a P value of:

Explanation

The appropriate level for determining significant difference is a P value of 0.05. This means that if the calculated P value is less than 0.05, then the observed differences between the three techniques are considered statistically significant. In other words, there is a 5% chance that the observed differences are due to random chance alone, and a 95% chance that they are truly different.

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9. Physical therapy intervention for a sixty-five year-old male patient with a recent diagnosis of supraspinatus tendinitis with possible impingement syndrome of the right shoulder should emphasize:

Explanation

The correct answer is modalities to reduce inflammation, active assistive range of motion exercises using pulleys, and postural realignment. This intervention is appropriate for a patient with supraspinatus tendinitis and possible impingement syndrome. Modalities to reduce inflammation, such as ice, can help alleviate pain and swelling. Active assistive range of motion exercises using pulleys can help improve shoulder mobility and strength. Postural realignment can address any underlying postural issues that may be contributing to the shoulder problem. These interventions aim to reduce pain, improve function, and promote healing in the shoulder joint.

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10. A patient has been referred to you for acute shoulder pain after shoveling snow in a driveway for two hours. Positive findings include pain and weakness with flexion of an extended upper extremity as well as scapular winging with greater than 90 degrees of abduction. The patient’s problem is MOST LIKELY the result of:

Explanation

The patient's positive findings of pain and weakness with flexion of an extended upper extremity, as well as scapular winging with greater than 90 degrees of abduction, suggest a problem with the long thoracic nerve. The long thoracic nerve innervates the serratus anterior muscle, which is responsible for stabilizing the scapula during arm movements. Compression of this nerve can result in weakness and winging of the scapula, as well as pain. The other options (compression of the suprascapular nerve, subdeltoid bursitis, and supraspinatus tendinitis) do not explain the specific findings mentioned in the question.

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11. During a physical therapy session for low back pain, a 67 year-old patient tells you that she has had urinary incontinence for the last year. It is particularly problematic when she has a cold and coughs a lot. She has not told her doctor about this problem because she is too embarrassed. Your BEST course of action is to:

Explanation

The best course of action in this scenario is to examine the patient, document and discuss the findings with the doctor. Urinary incontinence can be a symptom of an underlying medical condition, and it is important to address it with the patient's primary care physician. By documenting and discussing the findings, the therapist can ensure that the patient receives appropriate medical attention and treatment for her urinary incontinence, in addition to her back pain.

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12. A physical therapist was treating a patient and the patient in the next bed was uncomfortable and asked the therapist to move his leg. The therapist placed the leg on 2 pillows as requested by the patient. Unknown to the therapist this patient had a femoral artery graft 2 days previously. As a result the graft became occluded and the patient was rushed to surgery for a replacement. The patient claimed the therapist placed his leg too high on the pillows causing the occlusion of the original graft and sued for malpractice. The hospital administrator decided:

Explanation

The hospital administrator decided that the therapist was functioning outside the common protocols of the hospital and did not support the actions of the physical therapist. This decision suggests that the hospital had established protocols for the placement of patients' legs, and the therapist deviated from these protocols by placing the leg too high on the pillows. This deviation led to the occlusion of the original graft and subsequent complications for the patient. Therefore, the hospital administrator held the therapist responsible for the malpractice.

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13. An important adjunct to physical therapy management of a child with moderate spastic hemiplegia would be use of:

Explanation

A tone inhibiting ankle-foot orthosis (AFO) would be an important adjunct to physical therapy management of a child with moderate spastic hemiplegia. This is because spasticity is a common symptom of hemiplegia, and an AFO can help to reduce muscle tone and improve gait by providing support and stability to the affected ankle and foot. The use of a KAFO on the affected side would provide more support than necessary for moderate spastic hemiplegia. A posterior walker and an anterior rollator walker may be helpful for balance and stability, but they do not specifically address the issue of spasticity.

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14. While setting a patient up for cervical traction, you notice a purplish mole with rough edges on the patient’s neck. You:

Explanation

It is important to document the presence of the purplish mole with rough edges on the patient's neck and keep a watchful eye on it. This is because the mole may be indicative of a potential skin condition or even skin cancer. By documenting it, healthcare professionals can monitor any changes in the mole over time and determine if further action, such as referral to a physician, is necessary. This approach ensures that the patient's condition is properly managed and any potential issues are addressed in a timely manner.

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15. As a physical therapist you are the health professional in charge during a high school football game. During the game, a player is tackled violently by two opponents. You determine that the player is unresponsive. Your immediate course of action should be to:

Explanation

The correct answer is to stabilize the neck and flip back the helmet face mask. This is the immediate course of action because the player is unresponsive, indicating a potential neck or spinal injury. Stabilizing the neck helps prevent further damage and movement that could worsen the injury. Flipping back the helmet face mask allows for better access to the airway and breathing. Summoning emergency medical services should also be done, but stabilizing the neck and ensuring proper airway management take priority in this situation.

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16. A 28 year-old patient has extensive full thickness burns to the dorsum of the hand and forearm. He is to be fitted with a resting splint to support his wrists and hands in a functional position. An appropriately constructed splint positions the wrist and hand in:

Explanation

An appropriately constructed splint for a patient with extensive full thickness burns to the dorsum of the hand and forearm would position the wrist in slight extension to prevent contractures and promote functional use of the hand. The fingers should be supported to prevent flexion contractures, and the thumb should be positioned in partial opposition and abduction to maintain its function. This positioning allows for optimal hand function and prevents further complications.

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17. In treating a patient with a diagnosis of right shoulder impingement syndrome, the therapist should not allow the patient to perform assisted repetitive overhead exercises without FIRST:

Explanation

In order to effectively treat a patient with right shoulder impingement syndrome, it is important for the therapist to first provide instruction in proper postural alignment. This is because poor posture can contribute to shoulder impingement and exacerbate symptoms. By addressing postural alignment, the therapist can help the patient avoid movements or positions that may further impinge the shoulder joint. Once proper alignment is established, the therapist can then progress to other interventions such as controlling pain, improving range of motion, and stretching the shoulder girdle muscles.

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18. After running one mile, an athlete complains of deep cramping at the anterior aspects of the legs which does not ease and prevents continued running. Management of this problem should include:

Explanation

The correct answer is referral to a physician to evaluate anterior compartment pressures during activity. This is the most appropriate management option for an athlete experiencing deep cramping at the anterior aspects of the legs that does not ease and prevents continued running. Anterior compartment syndrome is a condition characterized by increased pressure within the muscles of the lower leg, which can cause pain and cramping. By referring the athlete to a physician, they can undergo evaluation to determine if they have anterior compartment syndrome and to assess the pressures within the compartment during activity.

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19. During initial standing a patient is pushing backward displacing the center-of-mass at or near the posterior limits of stability. The most likely cause of this is contraction of the:

Explanation

During initial standing, the patient is pushing backward, which indicates a posterior displacement of the center-of-mass. The gastrocnemius-soleus muscles are responsible for plantarflexion of the ankle joint, which helps to maintain balance and stability in an upright position. Contraction of these muscles would cause a backward push, displacing the center-of-mass towards the posterior limits of stability. Therefore, the most likely cause of this backward push during initial standing is the contraction of the gastrocnemius-soleus muscles.

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20. A 24 year-old pregnant woman who is 12 weeks pregnant asks you if it is safe to continue with her aerobic exercise. Currently she jogs 3 miles, 3 times a week. Your BEST answer is:

Explanation

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21. You receive a referral from an acute care physical therapist to treat a patient with right hemiparesis in the home. The referral indicates that the patient demonstrates good recovery: both involved limbs are categorized as stage 4 (Brunnstrom recovery stages). He is ambulatory with an small-based quad cane. The activity that would be MOST appropriate for a patient at this stage of recovery is:

Explanation

The patient is in stage 4 of Brunnstrom recovery stages, indicating good recovery. At this stage, the patient has voluntary movement and can perform basic functional activities. The most appropriate activity for a patient at this stage would be to focus on gaining quadriceps control. Standing and performing small range knee extensions will help strengthen the quadriceps muscles and improve stability during ambulation with a quad cane. This activity will also promote further functional independence and improve the patient's overall mobility.

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22. A 24 year-old woman recently delivered twins on the obstetrical service of your hospital. After delivery she has developed a 4 centimeter diastasis recti abdominis. The BEST initial intervention for this problem is to teach:

Explanation

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23. Your patient has had amyotrophic lateral sclerosis for the past two years with mild functional deficits. He is still ambulatory with bilateral canes but is limited in his endurance. An important goal for his physical therapy plan of care should be to prevent:

Explanation

The correct answer is myalgia. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS) is a progressive neurodegenerative disease that affects the motor neurons in the brain and spinal cord. It leads to muscle weakness and atrophy over time. As the patient in this scenario still has mild functional deficits and is ambulatory with canes, it is important to prevent myalgia, which refers to muscle pain and soreness. This can occur due to overuse or strain on weakened and denervated muscles. By addressing and managing myalgia, the physical therapy plan of care can help improve the patient's quality of life and maintain their functional abilities.

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24. A physical therapist assistant you supervise treated a patient in the home care setting. The patient is status post CVA. Part of the plan of care includes “progressive gait training on level surfaces”. The patient falls and sustains a fractured hip during a visit done by the PTA. The fall occurred when the PTA took the patient on the stairs for the first time. The responsible party in this case is:

Explanation

The responsible party in this case is the PT who is negligent for failing to provide adequate supervision of the PTA. This is because it is the responsibility of the PT to supervise and ensure the safety of the patients under their care. In this situation, the PT should have communicated with the PTA about any changes in the plan of care, such as taking the patient on the stairs for the first time. The lack of adequate supervision and failure to communicate led to the patient falling and sustaining a fractured hip, making the PT responsible for the incident.

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25. A 13 year-old severed the median nerve three days ago when his hand went through a glass window. To determine the motor function of the nerve you perform a chronaxie test. At this time you would expect the chronaxie of the nerve to be:

Explanation

The chronaxie test is used to determine the excitability of a nerve by measuring the duration of an electric stimulus needed to elicit a response. In this case, the 13-year-old severed the median nerve three days ago, which means that the nerve is completely cut off and unable to transmit any signals. Therefore, there would be no response to the electric stimulus, indicating that the chronaxie of the nerve is absent.

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26. A patient using an incentive spirometer complains of feeling lightheaded. Your instructions to the patient should be to:

Explanation

The correct answer is to take a deeper breath on the following attempt. When a patient using an incentive spirometer complains of feeling lightheaded, it indicates that they are not taking in enough air. Instructing the patient to take a deeper breath on the following attempt will help them to increase their lung capacity and improve their oxygen intake, which can alleviate the lightheadedness.

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27. A patient with post-polio syndrome presents in your clinic with symptoms of myalgia and increasing fatigue. He is wearing a KAFO which he has had for 10 years. When walking, you observe that he rises up over the sound limb to advance the orthotic limb forward. Your BEST intervention is to provide:

Explanation

The patient's symptoms of myalgia and increasing fatigue, along with the observation of rising up over the sound limb, suggest that there may be a leg length discrepancy. Providing a shoe lift on the orthotic side would help to correct the leg length difference, improve the patient's gait, and potentially alleviate the symptoms. The other interventions, such as a manual wheelchair with reclining back and elevating legrests or an electric wheelchair with joystick, may not directly address the underlying issue of leg length discrepancy. A shoe lift on the sound side would further exacerbate the discrepancy and potentially worsen the patient's symptoms.

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28. A 62 year-old lives at home with his wife and adult daughter. He has recently been diagnosed with multi-infarct dementia and is recovering from a fractured hip following a fall injury. In your initial interview with his wife you would expect to find:

Explanation

In the given scenario, the patient is a 62-year-old with multi-infarct dementia and a fractured hip. Agitation and sundowning are common symptoms associated with dementia. Sundowning refers to increased confusion, restlessness, and agitation that often occurs in the late afternoon or evening. This symptom can be exacerbated by changes in the environment, such as transitioning from day to night. Therefore, it is expected to find agitation and sundowning in the initial interview with the patient's wife.

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29. A 16 year-old patient with osteosarcoma is being seen in physical therapy for crutch training. Her parents have decided not to tell her about her diagnosis. She is quite perceptive and asks you directly if she has cancer and about her future. Your BEST course of action is to:

Explanation

The best course of action in this situation is to discuss the patient's condition gently, indicating her parent's fears about not telling her the diagnosis. This approach respects the parents' decision while also addressing the patient's concerns and providing some information about her condition. It allows for open communication and gives the patient an opportunity to ask questions or express her feelings. Scheduling a conference with the doctor and family may be necessary in the future, but for now, it is important to address the patient's immediate concerns.

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30. A patient with multiple sclerosis demonstrates strong bilateral lower extremity extensor spasticity in the typical distribution of antigravity muscles. You would expect this patient to demonstrate:

Explanation

In multiple sclerosis, spasticity can cause abnormal muscle tone and stiffness in the lower extremities. Sacral sitting refers to a sitting position where the patient is unable to maintain an upright posture and tends to slide down, resulting in the weight being borne on the sacrum and coccyx rather than the ischial tuberosities. This position is commonly seen in patients with lower extremity spasticity and can lead to increased risk of pressure sores and skin breakdown in the sacral area.

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31. An eighteen month-old child with Down Syndrome and moderate developmental delay is being treated at an Early Intervention Program. The schedule that would best facilitate motor learning of this child is physical therapy intervention given:

Explanation

The best schedule for facilitating motor learning in an eighteen month-old child with Down Syndrome and moderate developmental delay is to provide one hour of physical therapy intervention each week, with a portion of that time dedicated to teaching the caretaker a home program to be done three times a week. This schedule allows for regular and consistent therapy sessions while also involving the caretaker in the child's therapy, ensuring that the child receives additional practice and support at home.

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32. A physical therapist arriving at work one hour before she was due to start work, began moving treatment tables and rearranging the physical therapy clinic. This operation could have been done during regular hours. The therapist sustained a low back injury as a result of moving the equipment. Payment for the therapist’s care relating to this incident would be covered primarily by:

Explanation

The therapist's own resources would be the primary source of payment for her care because she sustained the low back injury while performing tasks outside of her regular work hours. Since she arrived one hour before her scheduled start time and was not officially on duty, the incident would not be covered by the hospital's insurance company or Workers' Compensation. Additionally, it is unlikely that the employee's health insurance would cover the injury since it occurred outside of work hours and was not directly related to her job duties. Therefore, the therapist would be responsible for covering the costs of her care using her own resources.

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33. A 65 year-old patient with multiple sclerosis is being treated at home. The patient is bedridden for most of the day with only short periods up in a bedside chair. Medicare is funding the patient’s home care program which has as its primary goals maintaining PROM and positioning to prevent deformity. Your role as the physical therapist is to provide:

Explanation

The correct answer is PROM exercises 2 times a day with additional family instruction to ensure weekend coverage. This is the most appropriate role for the physical therapist in this scenario. The primary goals of the home care program are to maintain PROM and prevent deformity, and the physical therapist's role is to provide PROM exercises to the patient. Additionally, the family is instructed to continue the exercises on the weekends to ensure consistent care.

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34. Your patient is a 42 year-old woman who suffered a stroke and demonstrates a locked-in state characterized by spastic quadriplegia and bulbar palsy. To facilitate communication with this patient you should instruct the family to:

Explanation

To facilitate communication with a patient who is in a locked-in state characterized by spastic quadriplegia and bulbar palsy, instructing the family to use a communication board with minimal movements of her hand is the most appropriate choice. Since the patient is unable to vocalize well, mouthing her responses may not be effective. Looking closely at her facial expressions may provide some clues, but using a communication board would be more reliable. The option of using an alternate eyelid taping schedule to communicate through eye movements is not mentioned in the question stem and therefore cannot be considered as the correct answer.

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35. A patient with spastic left hemiplegia experiences severe genu recurvatum during stance phase. If the patient is using an ankle-foot orthosis, the cause of the problem might be attributed to:

Explanation

The patient with spastic left hemiplegia is experiencing severe genu recurvatum during the stance phase. Genu recurvatum refers to excessive hyperextension of the knee joint. An ankle-foot orthosis is used to provide support and control to the foot and ankle. The anterior stop in the orthosis determines the amount of dorsiflexion allowed at the ankle joint. If the anterior stop is set too far forward, it can cause the foot to be positioned in excessive dorsiflexion, leading to hyperextension of the knee joint during stance phase. Therefore, the cause of the problem in this case is the anterior stop setting the foot in too much dorsiflexion.

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36. A patient presents with a large plantar ulcer that will be debrided in the whirlpool. The foot is cold, pale, and painless. The condition that would most likely result in this clinical presentation is:

Explanation

Chronic arterial insufficiency is the most likely condition to result in the given clinical presentation. In chronic arterial insufficiency, there is a gradual narrowing or blockage of the arteries that supply blood to the lower extremities. This leads to poor blood flow, causing the foot to become cold, pale, and painless. The large plantar ulcer is a result of the inadequate blood supply, which impairs wound healing. Acute arterial insufficiency would present with more severe symptoms such as severe pain, pallor, and coolness, while chronic venous insufficiency and deep venous thrombosis would not typically cause a painless foot ulcer.

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37. A 58 year-old woman with osteopenia has been on Premarin for the past 4 years. Based on your knowledge of estrogen replacement therapy, you recognize this patient is more susceptible to:

Explanation

Estrogen replacement therapy, such as Premarin, is often prescribed to postmenopausal women to prevent or treat osteoporosis. Osteopenia is a precursor to osteoporosis, indicating reduced bone density. Estrogen helps to maintain bone density and strength, so the absence of estrogen, as in osteopenic women, increases the risk of fractures. Therefore, the patient with osteopenia who has been on Premarin for 4 years is more susceptible to fractures.

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38. A 48 year-old female has had a total knee replacement. Following surgery, you place her on a regimen of continuous passive motion. The primary purpose for applying CPM for the first few hours is to:

Explanation

Continuous passive motion (CPM) is a therapy technique commonly used after knee replacement surgery. It involves the continuous movement of the knee joint through a controlled range of motion. The primary purpose of applying CPM for the first few hours after surgery is to decrease pain. By continuously moving the knee joint, CPM helps to reduce pain and discomfort by promoting blood circulation, reducing inflammation, and preventing the formation of scar tissue. It also helps to prevent stiffness and maintain joint mobility, which can contribute to pain relief. Therefore, the main goal of using CPM immediately after surgery is to decrease pain.

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39. You observe a physical therapist assistant ambulate a patient for the first time after a left total hip replacement. The patient is using crutches and is practicing on a level surface. The PTA should guard the patient by standing slightly:

Explanation

The correct answer is behind the patient with both hands on the gait belt. This position allows the physical therapist assistant to provide the necessary support and stability to the patient during ambulation. Being behind the patient allows the PTA to closely monitor the patient's movement and intervene if necessary. Placing both hands on the gait belt ensures a secure grip and control over the patient's movements.

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40. You are a home health physical therapist. During one of your regularly scheduled visits with a 72 year-old male patient, you find him to be confused with shortness of breath and significant generalized weakness. Assessing these symptoms and given his history of hypertension and hyperlipidemia, you suspect:

Explanation

Based on the given symptoms of confusion, shortness of breath, and generalized weakness, along with the patient's history of hypertension and hyperlipidemia, the most likely explanation is that the patient may be experiencing unstable angina. Unstable angina is a condition characterized by chest pain or discomfort that occurs at rest or with minimal exertion, and it is often accompanied by other symptoms like shortness of breath and weakness. Given the patient's age and medical history, it is important to consider cardiovascular issues as a potential cause of his symptoms.

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41. A patient diagnosed with lumbar spondylosis without discal herniation or bulging has a left L5 neural compression. The most likely structure compressing the nerve root is:

Explanation

The anterior longitudinal ligament is the most likely structure compressing the left L5 nerve root in a patient with lumbar spondylosis without discal herniation or bulging. The anterior longitudinal ligament runs along the anterior surface of the vertebral bodies and helps to stabilize the spine. In lumbar spondylosis, degenerative changes in the spine can cause the ligament to thicken and compress the nerve root. The other ligaments listed (ligamentum flavum, posterior longitudinal ligament, and supraspinous ligament) are not typically involved in nerve root compression in this condition.

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42. An eleven-year-old male was referred to physical therapy with complaints of vague pain at his right hip and thigh which radiates to his knee. His AROM is restricted in abduction, flexion, and internal rotation. A gluteus medius gait was observed with ambulation for 100 feet. Appropriate PT intervention would include:

Explanation

The patient's symptoms of vague pain at the right hip and thigh, restricted AROM in abduction, flexion, and internal rotation, and observation of a gluteus medius gait suggest a hip pathology. Legg-Calvé Perthe's disease is a condition that affects the blood supply to the femoral head, leading to avascular necrosis and restricted motion. Hip joint mobilization is a common intervention used to improve joint mobility and decrease pain in patients with Legg-Calvé Perthe's disease. Therefore, hip joint mobilization is the appropriate PT intervention for this patient.

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43. A researcher states that he expects that there will be no significant difference between 20 and 30 year-olds after a 12 week exercise training program using exercise heart rates and myocardial oxygen consumption as measures of performance. The kind of hypothesis that is being used in this study is a (an):

Explanation

The researcher's statement suggests that they expect a significant difference between 20 and 30 year-olds after the exercise training program. This indicates that they have a specific expectation and are testing a cause-and-effect relationship between the exercise program and the performance measures. Therefore, the hypothesis being used in this study is an experimental hypothesis.

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44. Your patient has moderate spasticity of the biceps brachii on the left as a result of a CVA. You choose to use electrical stimulation to temporarily decrease the effects of hypertonicity in order to work on ADL activities. Your objective in applying the current is to:

Explanation

By applying electrical stimulation to the contralateral biceps brachii, the objective is to stimulate the muscle and temporarily decrease the effects of hypertonicity. This can help in working on ADL activities by promoting relaxation and reducing spasticity in the affected muscle. By stimulating the contralateral biceps brachii, it can also help improve overall muscle balance and coordination between the two arms.

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45. The recommended time duration for endotracheal suctioning is:

Explanation

The recommended time duration for endotracheal suctioning is 15 to 20 seconds. This duration allows for effective removal of secretions from the airway while minimizing the risk of complications such as hypoxia and tissue damage. Suctioning for a shorter duration may not adequately clear the airway, while suctioning for a longer duration can lead to tissue trauma and oxygen desaturation. Therefore, 15 to 20 seconds is the optimal time range for endotracheal suctioning.

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46. A patient is five days post-MI and is receiving cardiac rehabilitation. At this time a goal that would be INAPPROPRIATE is to:

Explanation

The goal of educating the patient and family regarding risk factor reduction is not inappropriate because it is an important aspect of cardiac rehabilitation. After a myocardial infarction (MI), it is crucial to educate the patient and their family about lifestyle modifications and risk factor reduction to prevent future cardiac events. This may include discussing the importance of a healthy diet, regular exercise, smoking cessation, and managing stress. By providing this education, healthcare professionals can empower the patient and their family to make informed decisions and take control of their cardiovascular health.

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47. A 52 year-old patient sustained a T10 spinal cord injury four years ago. During initial examination you observe redness over the ischial seat that persists for 10 minutes when not sitting. The BEST intervention in this case would be to:

Explanation

Increasing the arm rest height would be the best intervention in this case because the patient has a T10 spinal cord injury, which affects the sensory and motor function below the level of the injury. The redness over the ischial seat that persists for 10 minutes when not sitting suggests the presence of pressure ulcers or skin breakdown. By increasing the arm rest height, it helps to redistribute the pressure and relieve the pressure on the ischial seat, reducing the risk of further skin damage. This intervention promotes proper positioning and pressure relief, which is crucial for preventing pressure ulcers in patients with spinal cord injuries.

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48. A patient with COPD is sitting in a bedside chair. The apices of the lungs in this position compared with other areas of the lungs in this position would demonstrate:

Explanation

In a patient with COPD sitting in a bedside chair, the apices of the lungs would demonstrate increased perfusion. This is because in COPD, there is a loss of elasticity in the airways, which leads to air trapping in the lower areas of the lungs. As a result, blood flow is redirected to the upper areas of the lungs where there is less air trapping, leading to increased perfusion. This helps to optimize gas exchange and improve oxygenation in these areas.

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49. A 72-year old patient is receiving outpatient physical therapy at your private clinic. The clinic is an approved Medicare outpatient provider. Your patient is concerned that she will not be able to pay for her continuing care and worries that her Medicare benefits will run out soon. You tell her:

Explanation

Currently, there is a limit of $1000.00 for coverage of outpatient PT services. This means that Medicare will only cover up to $1000.00 of the patient's physical therapy expenses. After reaching this limit, the patient will be responsible for paying for any additional costs out of pocket.

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50. A 43 year-old patient with a post myocardial infarction is on digitalis to improve cardiac contractility. He is a new participant in your Phase 2 outpatient cardiac rehabilitation program. He is being continuously monitored by ECG via radio telemetry. On his ECG, the medication induced changes that could be expected are:

Explanation

Digitalis is a medication commonly used to improve cardiac contractility. One of the effects of digitalis is to decrease heart rate, which is reflected in the ECG as a decreased heart rate. Additionally, digitalis can cause prolongation of the QRS and QT intervals on the ECG. Therefore, the medication-induced changes that could be expected in this patient are a decreased heart rate with prolonged QRS and QT intervals.

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51. You have received a referral for a 42 year-old patient who has a neurapraxia involving the ulnar nerve secondary to an elbow fracture. Based on your knowledge of this condition, you expect that:

Explanation

The correct answer states that regeneration is unlikely because surgical approximation of the nerve ends was not performed. Neurapraxia refers to a temporary loss of nerve function due to nerve compression or injury. In this case, the ulnar nerve has been affected due to an elbow fracture. Surgical approximation of the nerve ends is typically necessary for nerve regeneration in cases of neurapraxia. Without surgical intervention, the nerve ends may not be properly aligned, making regeneration unlikely. Therefore, the answer accurately explains the expected outcome in this scenario.

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52. A fourteen-year-old girl complains of subpatellar pain after participation in an aerobic exercise program for two weeks. Your examination shows a large Q angle, pain with palpation at the inferior pole of the patella, and mild swelling at both knees. Physical therapy intervention should promote:

Explanation

The correct answer is lateral patellar tracking. In this scenario, the patient is experiencing subpatellar pain, which is commonly associated with patellofemoral pain syndrome (PFPS). The presence of a large Q angle, pain at the inferior pole of the patella, and mild swelling at both knees suggests that the patella is not tracking properly within the femoral groove. Lateral patellar tracking occurs when the patella deviates too far towards the outside of the knee, causing increased stress and pain. Therefore, physical therapy intervention should focus on promoting proper alignment and tracking of the patella to alleviate symptoms.

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53. A 31 year-old patient presents with patellar tendinitis as a result of a mountain climbing accident three weeks ago. The patient complains of pain on resisted knee extension, stair climbing, and sit-to-standing movements. You choose to apply iontophoresis using a pain medication with a positive charge. The correct current type, polarity and active electrode placement is:

Explanation

The correct answer is monophasic current with the anode placed on the tendon. Monophasic current is used for iontophoresis because it allows for the delivery of medication through the skin. The anode, which is the positive electrode, should be placed on the tendon to attract the positively charged pain medication and facilitate its absorption into the tissues. This treatment approach aims to reduce inflammation and alleviate pain in the patellar tendon.

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54. A 24 year-old patient in a coma recovering from traumatic brain injury is receiving PROM exercises. The family is confused because the occupational therapist has told them to do range of motion exercises in a different way than the physical therapist had instructed. As the physical therapist it would be BEST to deal with this situation by telling the family:

Explanation

The best way for the physical therapist to deal with the situation is to instruct the family to continue exercising the way they were originally instructed until any differences can be resolved with the occupational therapist. This approach ensures that the patient's exercise routine remains consistent and avoids any confusion or potential harm from conflicting instructions. By addressing the issue directly with the occupational therapist, the physical therapist can work towards resolving any discrepancies and provide the family with an update as soon as possible.

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55. A 72 year-old patient with diabetes is recovering from recent surgery to graft a large decubitus ulcer over the heel of her left foot. You are concerned that her loss of range at the ankle (-5° to neutral) will limit her ambulation and independent status. One afternoon you are very busy and request that one of the physical therapy aides do her range of motion exercises. The aide is new to your department but tells you she is willing to take this challenge on if you show her how to do it. Your BEST course of action is to:

Explanation

Rescheduling the patient for tomorrow when you have more time is the best course of action because it ensures that the patient receives the necessary range of motion (ROM) exercises from a qualified professional (physical therapist) rather than a new aide who may not have sufficient experience or knowledge. This prioritizes the patient's safety and well-being.

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56. A 46 year-old female was referred for physical therapy following a right breast lumpectomy with axillary lymph node dissection. Scapular control is poor when upper extremity flexion or abduction is attempted. PT intervention should focus on:

Explanation

The correct answer is rhomboid strengthening as a result of disuse of the scapular stabilizers. After a breast lumpectomy with axillary lymph node dissection, the patient may experience weakness and poor control of the scapular muscles, including the rhomboids. The rhomboids play a crucial role in scapular stability and control, and strengthening them can help improve scapular control during upper extremity movements such as flexion or abduction. This intervention is appropriate considering the patient's specific condition and symptoms.

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57. A post surgical patient is receiving a regimen of postural drainage three times a day. You could reduce the frequency of treatment if the:

Explanation

If the patient becomes febrile, it indicates the presence of an infection. Postural drainage is typically used to help clear mucus and secretions from the lungs, but in the presence of an infection, it may be necessary to increase the frequency of treatment to help remove the infectious material. Therefore, reducing the frequency of treatment would not be appropriate in this situation.

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58. Three weeks ago, you instructed your patient in applying conventional (high rate) TENS to the low back to modulate a chronic pain condition. The patient now states that the TENS unit is no longer effective in reducing the pain in spite of increasing the intensity to maximum . You should now advise the patient to:

Explanation

The patient's statement that the TENS unit is no longer effective in reducing the pain, even at maximum intensity, suggests that they may have developed a tolerance to the high rate TENS. Switching to low rate TENS can be a more effective approach as it utilizes a lower frequency of electrical stimulation, which can help to prevent tolerance and maintain the pain-relieving effects.

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59. During a sensory exam you determine that a patient complains of a dull, aching pain but is not able to discriminate a stimulus as sharp or dull. Two-point discrimination is absent. Based on these findings, the pathway that is intact is the:

Explanation

Based on the findings that the patient complains of a dull, aching pain but is unable to discriminate a stimulus as sharp or dull, and that two-point discrimination is absent, it suggests that the pathway responsible for transmitting these sensations is intact. The anterior spinothalamic tract is responsible for transmitting crude touch and pressure sensations, which aligns with the patient's complaint of a dull, aching pain. Therefore, the intact pathway in this case is the anterior spinothalamic tract.

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60. An older person with a diagnosis of degenerative joint disease should understand his disease, its progression, and its management. You will know your patient education has been effective if he can tell you:

Explanation

The correct answer is loss of ROM and immobility are expected and irreversible. This answer is the most accurate because degenerative joint disease is a progressive condition that leads to the deterioration of the joints over time. As a result, the patient can expect a loss of range of motion (ROM) and immobility, which are irreversible. The other options mentioned in the question are not necessarily true for all cases of degenerative joint disease.

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61. A 34 year-old patient is recently admitted to your facility with a diagnosis of Guillain-Barré syndrome. In your initial examination, you expect to find:

Explanation

In Guillain-Barré syndrome, there is typically an ascending pattern of weakness that starts in the legs and progresses upwards. The weakness is usually symmetrical, affecting both sides of the body equally. However, in some cases, the weakness may be asymmetrical, meaning it may be more pronounced on one side of the body. Hyperreflexia, which is an exaggerated reflex response, is also commonly seen in Guillain-Barré syndrome. Bulbar palsy refers to weakness or paralysis of the muscles involved in swallowing and speaking, which can occur in this condition. Therefore, the presence of asymmetrical weakness with hyperreflexia and bulbar palsy is consistent with the diagnosis of Guillain-Barré syndrome.

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62. Upon examining a patient with vague hip pain which radiates to the lateral knee, you have found a negative FABERE test, negative grind test, and a positive Noble compression test. The dysfunction is most likely due to:

Explanation

The patient's symptoms of vague hip pain radiating to the lateral knee, along with a negative FABERE test and negative grind test, suggest that the pain is not originating from the hip joint itself. However, the positive Noble compression test indicates a possible issue with the femoral nerve. Fracture of the femoral neck can cause compression of the femoral nerve, leading to symptoms such as hip pain radiating to the knee. Therefore, the dysfunction is most likely due to a possible fracture of the femoral neck.

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63. A 37 year-old male developed acute bicipital tendinitis two days after water skiing. He is unable to work as a result of the pain he rates as 8/10. He is referred to physical therapy for iontophoresis treatment to help relieve the pain. For the first two weeks this patient should optimally be seen:

Explanation

The patient is experiencing acute bicipital tendinitis, which is inflammation of the biceps tendon. Iontophoresis is a treatment method that uses electrical current to deliver medication through the skin. In this case, it is being used to relieve pain. Initially, the patient should be seen once a week for iontophoresis treatment. This frequency allows for adequate time between sessions for the medication to take effect and for the patient to assess the pain relief. It also allows for monitoring of the patient's progress and any potential side effects of the treatment.

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64. A 6 year-old boy has a diagnosis of Duchenne muscular dystrophy and is still ambulatory. The MOST appropriate activity to include in his plan of care would be:

Explanation

Progressive resistance strength training would be the most appropriate activity to include in the plan of care for a 6-year-old boy with Duchenne muscular dystrophy who is still ambulatory. This type of training involves gradually increasing the resistance or load placed on the muscles, which can help to improve muscle strength and function. It is important for individuals with muscular dystrophy to engage in activities that promote muscle strength and delay muscle deterioration. Circuit training and recreational activities such as swimming or biking may also be beneficial, but progressive resistance strength training specifically targets muscle strengthening and is therefore the most appropriate choice. Wheelchair sports may not be suitable for an ambulatory child with Duchenne muscular dystrophy.

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65. A patient has been referred to you following a fracture of the femur six months ago. The cast was removed, but the patient was unable to volitionally contract the quadriceps. You decide to apply electrical stimulation to the quadriceps muscle. Your choice of electrode placement and electrical stimulation duty cycle (on:off ratio) would consist of:

Explanation

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66. The cardiac rehabilitation team is conducting education classes for a group of patients. The focus is on risk factor reduction and successful life style modification. A participant asks you which is the bad cholesterol that increases atherosclerosis and risk of heart disease. Your answer is:

Explanation

This answer suggests that all cholesterol is bad and that total cholesterol levels should be below 200 mg/dl. This implies that both high-density lipoprotein (HDL) and low-density lipoprotein (LDL) are considered bad cholesterol. This is not entirely accurate as HDL is actually considered good cholesterol because it helps remove LDL from the arteries. LDL, on the other hand, is considered bad cholesterol because it can build up in the arteries and increase the risk of heart disease. However, the answer given in the question is incorrect as it does not differentiate between HDL and LDL.

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67. A patient with a T4 spinal cord injury is being measured for a wheelchair. In determining the correct seat height you can use as a measure:

Explanation

The correct answer is clearance between the floor and the foot plate of at least 2 inches. This is because having a minimum clearance of 2 inches ensures that there is enough space for the foot to comfortably rest on the foot plate without causing any pressure or discomfort. It also allows for proper foot positioning and prevents any dragging or scraping of the foot on the ground while propelling the wheelchair. This measurement helps in determining the appropriate seat height for the patient with a T4 spinal cord injury.

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68. The distinguishing feature of Mèniére’s disease which sets it apart from other peripheral conditions affecting the vestibular system is:

Explanation

Mèniére’s disease is characterized by chronic, episodic bouts of dysfunction, which is the distinguishing feature that sets it apart from other peripheral conditions affecting the vestibular system. This means that individuals with Mèniére’s disease experience recurring periods of dysfunction in their balance and hearing, which can last for extended periods of time. This is different from other conditions that may cause postural instability, severe attacks of vertigo and nausea, or symptoms that are time-limited and last only 24-48 hours.

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69. You are working with a four year-old child who has myelodysplasia at the L5 level. At this level the most appropriate orthosis to recommend for ambulation would be a (an):

Explanation

Given that the child has myelodysplasia at the L5 level, the most appropriate orthosis for ambulation would be a knee-ankle-foot orthosis. This orthosis provides support and stability to the knee, ankle, and foot, allowing the child to maintain proper alignment and control while walking. It helps compensate for muscle weakness or paralysis in the lower extremities and promotes a more natural gait pattern. The knee-ankle-foot orthosis is specifically designed to provide the necessary level of support and mobility for individuals with myelodysplasia at the L5 level.

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70. The MOST appropriate positioning strategy for a patient recovering from acute stroke who is in bed and demonstrates a flaccid upper extremity is:

Explanation

The supine position with the affected hand positioned on the stomach is the most appropriate positioning strategy for a patient recovering from acute stroke with a flaccid upper extremity. This position helps to prevent shoulder subluxation and promotes proper alignment of the arm and hand. Placing the hand on the stomach also helps to reduce edema and maintain a functional position for the hand.

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71. A 76 year-old frail older adult is confined to bed in a nursing facility. He has developed a small superficial wound over the sacral area. Since only small amounts of necrotic tissue are present, the physician has decided to use autolytic wound debridement. This is BEST achieved with:

Explanation

Autolytic wound debridement refers to the natural process of using the body's own enzymes and moisture to break down and remove necrotic tissue. Occlusive dressings, such as hydrocolloids or transparent films, create a moist environment that promotes autolysis by trapping the wound exudate. This helps to soften and dissolve the necrotic tissue, allowing it to be easily removed during dressing changes. Forceful irrigations, hydrotherapy, and wet-to-dry dressings are not as effective in creating the necessary moist environment for autolytic debridement.

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72. A patient has been screened using a new test for the presence of a gene (ALG-2) linked to Alzheimer’s disease. His physician reports he lacks the gene and should not be at increased risk to develop the disease. Some years later he develops Alzheimer’s and a repeat test reveals the presence of the gene. The results of the initial test can be interpreted as:

Explanation

The initial test result can be interpreted as a false positive. A false positive result occurs when the test incorrectly indicates the presence of a condition or gene when it is not actually present. In this case, the patient was initially reported to lack the ALG-2 gene linked to Alzheimer's disease, but later it was revealed that the gene was actually present. Therefore, the initial test result was incorrect and can be considered a false positive.

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73. Your patient is 82 years-old with a long history of congestive heart failure. You are alert to the signs of left-sided heart failure associated with activity. The MOST important indicators include:

Explanation

The correct answer is "bilateral ankle swelling within 2-3 hours post exercise." This is the most important indicator because it suggests fluid retention, which is a common symptom of left-sided heart failure. The swelling in the ankles occurs due to the inability of the heart to pump blood effectively, leading to fluid buildup in the lower extremities. Monitoring for ankle swelling after exercise can help identify worsening heart failure and guide appropriate management strategies.

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74. Your patient returns to P.T. after his first exercise session complaining of muscle soreness that developed later in the evening after his first session and continued into the next day. He is unsure he wants to continue with exercise. You can minimize the possibility of this happening again by using:

Explanation

The patient experienced muscle soreness after the first exercise session, indicating that their muscles were not accustomed to the exercise. Eccentric exercises, which involve lengthening the muscle while it is contracting, are known to cause more muscle damage and soreness compared to concentric exercises. By starting with only 1 set of 10 repetitions and using the patient's body weight for resistance (sit-to-stand), the intensity and load on the muscles are relatively low. This approach allows the patient to gradually adapt to the exercise and minimize the possibility of experiencing excessive muscle soreness.

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75. A 22 year-old male suffered carbon monoxide poisoning from a work-related factory accident. He is left with permanent damage to his nervous system, affecting the basal ganglia. You logically expect his symptoms to include:

Explanation

Carbon monoxide poisoning can lead to damage in the basal ganglia, which is responsible for coordinating movement and balance. Impaired sensory organization of balance is a symptom commonly associated with basal ganglia dysfunction, as it affects the brain's ability to interpret sensory information and maintain balance. Motor paralysis, muscular spasms, hyperreflexia, and problems with motor planning and scaling of movements are not directly related to basal ganglia dysfunction and are therefore less likely to be present in this case.

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76. As the result of blunt trauma to the quadriceps femoris muscle, a patient experiences loss of knee function. Early PT interventions should stress:

Explanation

The correct answer is gentle AROM exercises in weight bearing. After blunt trauma to the quadriceps femoris muscle, it is important to gradually regain knee function through active range of motion (AROM) exercises. These exercises help to improve muscle strength and flexibility while bearing weight, which is crucial for normal lower extremity function. Aggressive open-chain strengthening may not be appropriate initially as it can put excessive strain on the injured muscle. Similarly, aggressive soft tissue stretching or gentle PROM exercises in nonweightbearing may not address the specific need for regaining knee function.

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77. During a home visit you are providing postural drainage in the Trendelenburg position to a 15 year-old male with cystic fibrosis. The patient suddenly complains of right-sided chest pain and shortness of breath. On auscultation, there are no breath sounds on the right. The physical therapist should:

Explanation

The correct answer suggests that the physical therapist should continue treating the patient as it is possibly a mucous plug causing the right-sided chest pain and shortness of breath. This is supported by the absence of breath sounds on the right side during auscultation. A mucous plug can obstruct the airway and cause these symptoms. Therefore, it is important to continue treatment and address the mucous plug.

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78. The MOST appropriate type of adaptive equipment for a teenager with severe athetosis and severe extensor spasms of the lower extremities would be:

Explanation

A scooter board would be the most appropriate type of adaptive equipment for a teenager with severe athetosis and severe extensor spasms of the lower extremities. This is because a scooter board would provide the teenager with the ability to move around independently while also providing stability and support for the lower extremities. The scooter board would allow the teenager to engage in activities and participate in daily tasks with greater ease and mobility.

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79. You have been treating a patient for chronic subluxation of the patella in the outpatient clinic. He is now scheduled for a lateral release and is worried about any complications of the surgical procedure. He asks you to describe any potential complications. Your BEST response is to:

Explanation

The best response in this situation is to explain how patients you have treated responded to the surgery. This allows the patient to gain insight into the potential complications based on your personal experience and expertise. It also helps to build trust and reassurance by sharing real-life examples of successful outcomes. Referring the patient to a physical therapy colleague or suggesting they speak with their surgeon may be helpful, but explaining your own experiences with previous patients is the most appropriate response in this scenario.

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80. Patients diagnosed with Paget’s disease typically have similar symptomatology to spinal stenosis. The most important aspect of physical therapy intervention emphasizes:

Explanation

Patients diagnosed with Paget’s disease typically have similar symptomatology to spinal stenosis. This means that they may experience pain, discomfort, and limitations in movement. Therefore, the most important aspect of physical therapy intervention is to focus on modalities that can help decrease pain. These modalities may include heat or cold therapy, electrical stimulation, ultrasound, or manual therapy techniques. By reducing pain, physical therapy can improve the patient's overall function and quality of life.

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81. A 73 year-old man has bilateral short transfemoral (AK) amputations and will require a wheelchair for functional mobility in the home and community. An appropriate prescription for his wheelchair includes:

Explanation

Placing the drive wheels 2 inches anterior to the vertical back supports is the correct answer because it allows for better weight distribution and stability for the user with bilateral short transfemoral amputations. This positioning helps to prevent the wheelchair from tipping forward, as the user's center of gravity is shifted towards the front due to the absence of lower limbs. Additionally, having the drive wheels placed anteriorly allows for easier maneuverability and control of the wheelchair.

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82. During a home visit, the mother of an 18 month-old child with developmental delay and an atrio-ventricular shunt for hydrocephalus tells you that her daughter vomited several times, was irritable and is now lethargic. Your BEST course of action is to:

Explanation

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83. After three weeks of teaching a patient how to ambulate with bilateral crutches and a touch down gait, you determine the most appropriate kind of feedback to give to the patient is:

Explanation

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84. The optimal position for ventilation of a patient with a C5 complete spinal cord injury is:

Explanation

The optimal position for ventilation of a patient with a C5 complete spinal cord injury is sidelying with the head of the bed flat. This position helps to maintain proper alignment of the airway and allows for effective ventilation. Sidelying also helps to prevent aspiration and facilitates secretion drainage. Keeping the head of the bed flat ensures that the patient's airway is not compromised and allows for better lung expansion.

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85. After performing an ergonomic examination of a worker and workstation the most appropriate recommendation for achieving ideal wrist and elbow positioning would be to:

Explanation

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86. A 26 year-old female has a 3 year history of multiple sclerosis. One of her disabling symptoms is a persistent and severe diplopia which leaves her frequently nauseated and immobile. An appropriate intervention strategy to assist her in successfully participating in rehabilitation would be to:

Explanation

An appropriate intervention strategy to assist the 26 year-old female with multiple sclerosis in successfully participating in rehabilitation would be to have her close her eyes and practice movements without visual guidance. This is because her persistent and severe diplopia (double vision) is one of her disabling symptoms, which affects her ability to move and causes nausea. By closing her eyes and practicing movements without visual guidance, she can focus on her proprioception (awareness of body position and movement) and improve her mobility without the interference of double vision.

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87. A patient presents with problems with swallowing. When you test for phonation by having the patient say “AH” with his mouth open, you notice there is deviation of the uvula to one side. You then test for function of the gag reflex and notice loss of response to stimulation. These findings suggest involvement of the:

Explanation

The correct answer is facial nerve. The deviation of the uvula to one side indicates a weakness or paralysis of the muscles innervated by the facial nerve, which includes the muscles of the soft palate. The loss of response to stimulation of the gag reflex also suggests involvement of the facial nerve, as it innervates the posterior part of the tongue and the pharynx, which are involved in the gag reflex. The hypoglossal nerve controls the movements of the tongue, the trigeminal nerve controls sensation in the face, and the vagus nerve controls various functions in the thorax and abdomen. None of these nerves directly innervate the muscles of the soft palate or are involved in the gag reflex.

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88. The symptoms of ankylosing spondylitis in its early stages can best be managed in physical therapy by:

Explanation

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89. A patient has undergone surgery and subsequent immobilization to stabilize the olecranon process. The patient now exhibits an elbow flexion contracture. In this case, an absolute CONTRAINDICATION for joint mobilization would be:

Explanation

The patient has undergone surgery and subsequent immobilization to stabilize the olecranon process, and now exhibits an elbow flexion contracture. A firm end-feel indicates that there is a hard resistance to further movement, which could suggest the presence of a bony block or joint pathology. In this case, attempting joint mobilization could potentially worsen the condition or cause further damage, making it an absolute contraindication.

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90. Checkout for a lower limb orthosis includes inspection of the alignment of anatomic and orthotic joints. During a sagittal plane check-out you determine that the orthotic hip joint is malaligned. The correct position is:

Explanation

During a sagittal plane check-out, the correct position for the orthotic hip joint is 3 inches below the anterior superior iliac spine. This position ensures proper alignment and support for the lower limb orthosis. Placing the joint just anterior and superior to the greater trochanter, just posterior and inferior to the greater trochanter, or lateral to the greater trochanter would result in malalignment and potentially compromise the effectiveness of the orthosis.

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91. Your patient is a 72 year-old man with an 8 year history of Parkinson’s disease. He demonstrates significant rigidity, decreased PROM in both upper extremities in the typical distribution, and frequent episodes of akinesia. The exercise that BEST deals with these problems would be:

Explanation

The quadruped position, upper extremity PNF D2 flexion and extension exercise would be the best choice for this patient. Parkinson's disease is characterized by rigidity and decreased range of motion in the upper extremities, which can be addressed by performing PNF D2 flexion and extension exercises. The quadruped position allows for stability and support during the exercise, and the D2 flexion and extension patterns specifically target the affected areas. This exercise can help improve range of motion, decrease rigidity, and address the akinesia episodes commonly seen in Parkinson's disease.

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92. A 16 year-old adolescent female was sent to physical therapy with a diagnosis of anterior knee pain. Positive findings include pes planus, lateral tibial torsion and genu valgum. The position the femur will be in is excessive:

Explanation

The correct answer is abduction. In this case, the positive findings of pes planus, lateral tibial torsion, and genu valgum suggest that the individual has a misalignment of the lower extremities. Abduction refers to the movement of a body part away from the midline of the body. In the context of the femur, excessive abduction would mean that the femur is deviating away from the midline of the body, contributing to the misalignment and anterior knee pain.

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93. A 72 year-old male was referred for rehabilitation following a middle cerebral artery stroke. Based on this diagnosis you suspect he will present with:

Explanation

The correct answer is aphasia since his right hemisphere is involved and he is right hand dominant. This is because the middle cerebral artery supplies blood to the dominant hemisphere of the brain, which is typically the left hemisphere in right-handed individuals. A stroke in the middle cerebral artery can result in language and speech difficulties, known as aphasia. Since the patient is right hand dominant, it suggests that their left hemisphere is dominant for language processing, and a stroke in the right hemisphere could affect their ability to communicate.

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94. Common compensatory postures you would expect for a patient diagnosed with fixed severe forefoot varus are:

Explanation

Patients diagnosed with fixed severe forefoot varus often develop compensatory postures to accommodate for the abnormal foot alignment. Excessive ankle dorsiflexion occurs as the body attempts to bring the forefoot into contact with the ground. Medial rotation of the femur helps to align the knee and foot, compensating for the varus position. This combination of compensatory postures allows for improved weight distribution and stability during gait.

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95. A patient has arterial peripheral vascular disease with symptoms of intermittent claudication in both lower extremities. Which of the following is NOT an appropriate guideline for exercise training?

Explanation

Interval training protocol with frequent rests is not an appropriate guideline for exercise training in a patient with arterial peripheral vascular disease and symptoms of intermittent claudication. Resting frequently during interval training may not provide enough stimulus for improving cardiovascular fitness and may not effectively improve symptoms. Instead, the patient should aim for daily walking, 2 to 3 times a day, gradually increasing the distance and intensity while respecting the pain threshold. Walking through pain to reach predetermined distances or stopping exercise and resting once the pain threshold is reached are not recommended as they can exacerbate symptoms and potentially cause further damage.

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96. You observe genu recurvatum as a patient with hemiplegia ambulates using his posterior leaf spring (PLS) orthosis. A factor that is NOT a possible cause of this gait deviation is:

Explanation

Genu recurvatum refers to excessive hyperextension of the knee joint during the stance phase of gait. It is commonly seen in patients with hemiplegia due to weakness or spasticity of the knee extensor muscles. The use of a posterior leaf spring (PLS) orthosis helps to prevent foot drop and promotes a more normal gait pattern by providing dorsiflexion assistance during swing phase. The factors listed in the question are all possible causes of genu recurvatum, except for extensor spasticity. Extensor spasticity would actually contribute to knee extension and would not be a cause of the gait deviation.

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97. A 62 year-old woman developed polio at the age of 6 with significant lower extremity paralysis. She wore bilateral long leg braces for a period of 2 years. She then recovered enough to stop using her braces but still required bilateral Lofstrand crutches, then bilateral canes to ambulate. Recently she has been complaining of new difficulties (she has had to start using her crutches again). You suspect post-polio syndrome. The BEST goal/intervention for this patient based on her current findings is to:

Explanation

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98. While evaluating the gait of a patient with right hemiplegia, you note foot drop during midswing on the right. The MOST LIKELY cause of this deviation is:

Explanation

The most likely cause of foot drop during midswing on the right in a patient with right hemiplegia is decreased proprioception. Proprioception refers to the body's ability to sense the position and movement of its parts. In this case, decreased proprioception means that the patient has a reduced ability to sense the position of their foot and ankle, leading to difficulty in maintaining proper foot placement during walking. This can result in foot drop, where the foot hangs down and the toes point towards the ground, causing the foot to drag or catch on the ground during midswing.

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99. A patient with T10 paraplegia is receiving daily ROM exercises. On this day you notice swelling, pain, local warmth and erythema in the thigh near the hip joint with some limitation in motion. Your BEST course of action is:

Explanation

The best course of action in this situation is to instruct the aides to be more vigorous in positioning and ROM exercises. This is because the patient is experiencing swelling, pain, local warmth, and erythema in the thigh near the hip joint with some limitation in motion. These symptoms may indicate the development of heterotopic ossifications, which are abnormal bone formations that can occur after spinal cord injury. Increasing the intensity of positioning and ROM exercises can help prevent or minimize the formation of these abnormal bone growths.

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100. During an exercise tolerance test (ETT) a patient demonstrates poor reaction to increasing exercise intensity. According to the American College of Sports Medicine, an absolute indication for terminating this test is:

Explanation

During an exercise tolerance test (ETT), the patient's reaction to increasing exercise intensity is being monitored. The American College of Sports Medicine states that an absolute indication for terminating the test is the onset of fatigue and shortness of breath. This indicates that the patient is experiencing significant physical exertion and may be at risk for further complications if the test continues. Therefore, it is important to stop the test to ensure the safety and well-being of the patient.

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In treating a patient with a diagnosis of right shoulder impingement...
After running one mile, an athlete complains of deep cramping at the...
During initial standing a patient is pushing backward displacing the...
A 24 year-old pregnant woman who is 12 weeks pregnant asks you if it...
You receive a referral from an acute care physical therapist to treat...
A 24 year-old woman recently delivered twins on the obstetrical...
Your patient has had amyotrophic lateral sclerosis for the past two...
A physical therapist assistant you supervise treated a patient in the...
A 13 year-old severed the median nerve three days ago when his hand...
A patient using an incentive spirometer complains of feeling...
A patient with post-polio syndrome presents in your clinic with...
A 62 year-old lives at home with his wife and adult daughter. He has...
A 16 year-old patient with osteosarcoma is being seen in physical...
A patient with multiple sclerosis demonstrates strong bilateral lower...
An eighteen month-old child with Down Syndrome and moderate...
A physical therapist arriving at work one hour before she was due to...
A 65 year-old patient with multiple sclerosis is being treated at...
Your patient is a 42 year-old woman who suffered a stroke and...
A patient with spastic left hemiplegia experiences severe genu...
A patient presents with a large plantar ulcer that will be debrided in...
A 58 year-old woman with osteopenia has been on Premarin for the past...
A 48 year-old female has had a total knee replacement. Following...
You observe a physical therapist assistant ambulate a patient for the...
You are a home health physical therapist. During one of your regularly...
A patient diagnosed with lumbar spondylosis without discal herniation...
An eleven-year-old male was referred to physical therapy with...
A researcher states that he expects that there will be no significant...
Your patient has moderate spasticity of the biceps brachii on the left...
The recommended time duration for endotracheal suctioning is:
A patient is five days post-MI and is receiving cardiac...
A 52 year-old patient sustained a T10 spinal cord injury four years...
A patient with COPD is sitting in a bedside chair. The apices of the...
A 72-year old patient is receiving outpatient physical therapy at your...
A 43 year-old patient with a post myocardial infarction is on...
You have received a referral for a 42 year-old patient who has a...
A fourteen-year-old girl complains of subpatellar pain after...
A 31 year-old patient presents with patellar tendinitis as a result of...
A 24 year-old patient in a coma recovering from traumatic brain injury...
A 72 year-old patient with diabetes is recovering from recent surgery...
A 46 year-old female was referred for physical therapy following a...
A post surgical patient is receiving a regimen of postural drainage...
Three weeks ago, you instructed your patient in applying conventional...
During a sensory exam you determine that a patient complains of a...
An older person with a diagnosis of degenerative joint disease should...
A 34 year-old patient is recently admitted to your facility with a...
Upon examining a patient with vague hip pain which radiates to the...
A 37 year-old male developed acute bicipital tendinitis two days after...
A 6 year-old boy has a diagnosis of Duchenne muscular dystrophy and is...
A patient has been referred to you following a fracture of the femur...
The cardiac rehabilitation team is conducting education classes for a...
A patient with a T4 spinal cord injury is being measured for a...
The distinguishing feature of Mèniére’s disease which sets it...
You are working with a four year-old child who has myelodysplasia at...
The MOST appropriate positioning strategy for a patient recovering...
A 76 year-old frail older adult is confined to bed in a nursing...
A patient has been screened using a new test for the presence of a...
Your patient is 82 years-old with a long history of congestive heart...
Your patient returns to P.T. after his first exercise session...
A 22 year-old male suffered carbon monoxide poisoning from a...
As the result of blunt trauma to the quadriceps femoris muscle, a...
During a home visit you are providing postural drainage in the...
The MOST appropriate type of adaptive equipment for a teenager with...
You have been treating a patient for chronic subluxation of the...
Patients diagnosed with Paget’s disease typically have similar...
A 73 year-old man has bilateral short transfemoral (AK) amputations...
During a home visit, the mother of an 18 month-old child with...
After three weeks of teaching a patient how to ambulate with bilateral...
The optimal position for ventilation of a patient with a C5 complete...
After performing an ergonomic examination of a worker and workstation...
A 26 year-old female has a 3 year history of multiple sclerosis. One...
A patient presents with problems with swallowing. When you test for...
The symptoms of ankylosing spondylitis in its early stages can best be...
A patient has undergone surgery and subsequent immobilization to...
Checkout for a lower limb orthosis includes inspection of the...
Your patient is a 72 year-old man with an 8 year history of...
A 16 year-old adolescent female was sent to physical therapy with a...
A 72 year-old male was referred for rehabilitation following a middle...
Common compensatory postures you would expect for a patient diagnosed...
A patient has arterial peripheral vascular disease with symptoms of...
You observe genu recurvatum as a patient with hemiplegia ambulates...
A 62 year-old woman developed polio at the age of 6 with significant...
While evaluating the gait of a patient with right hemiplegia, you note...
A patient with T10 paraplegia is receiving daily ROM exercises. On...
During an exercise tolerance test (ETT) a patient demonstrates poor...
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