Pt/Ot Haad Simulation 7
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An attractive physical therapist is treating a young and handsome football player with an ACL sprain. She is very fond of this patient and enjoys treating him. After a few visits, the football player asks her out to dinner. The physical therapist’s response should be to:
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Thank him very much, and accept his offer for dinner.
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Thank him very much, and invite him for dinner at her apartment with other guests.
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Thank him very much, but refuse his invitation while he is receiving treatment.
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Transfer the patient care to one of her colleagues and then go out to dinner with him.
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This is a Simulated Examination for Gulf Physical Therapy/ Occupational Therapy Examinations taken from Last Month's HAAD Feedbacks.
This examination contains 100 of the most UPDATED EXAMS from Abu Dhabi, KSA, and UAE.
Take this examination for 120 minutes.
You need to get 86% to pass the HAAD. 60% to pass MOH, DHA, or Prometrics.
Please text 0919-286-29-29 in the See morePhilippines or visit our website www. Ptonline. Weebly. Com
THIS IS YOUR ASSESSMENT FOR ANY GULF Physical Therapy/ Occupational Therapy EXAMINATIONS INCLUDING HAAD, SAUDI PROMETRICS, DUBAI DHA, AND UAE MOH.
THE QUESTIONS HERE ARE TAKEN FROM THIS ACTUAL EXAMINATIONS, SO PASSING THIS ASSESSMENT EXAM WILL GIVE YOU A HIGH PROBABILITY OF PASSING
Quiz Preview
- 2.
Your patient has lymphatic disease of the right arm secondary to radical mastectomy and radiation. The resulting edema can BEST be managed in physical therapy by:
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AROM and extremity positioning.
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intermittent pneumatic compression, extremity elevation, and massage.
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Isometric resistive exercises and extremity positioning in elevation.
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PROM and extremity elevation.
Correct Answer
A. intermittent pneumatic compression, extremity elevation, and massage.Explanation
The patient has lymphatic disease of the right arm secondary to radical mastectomy and radiation, which has resulted in edema. Intermittent pneumatic compression helps to improve lymphatic flow and reduce edema by applying pressure to the affected area. Extremity elevation helps to reduce swelling by promoting fluid drainage. Massage can also aid in improving lymphatic flow and reducing edema. Therefore, the combination of intermittent pneumatic compression, extremity elevation, and massage is the best approach for managing the edema in this patient.Rate this question:
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- 3.
You are working with a 10 year-old girl with cerebral palsy. Part of the exercises in her plan of care involve using the Swiss ball. The choice of educational media that is BEST to use when instructing her in use of this device is:
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a oral presentation that uses transparencies of Swiss ball positions.
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a slide presentation of exercises using the Swiss ball.
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A videotape of another child with cerebral palsy on a Swiss ball.
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printed handouts with stick figure drawings and instructions.
Correct Answer
A. A videotape of another child with cerebral palsy on a Swiss ball.Explanation
A videotape of another child with cerebral palsy on a Swiss ball would be the best choice of educational media for instructing the 10-year-old girl with cerebral palsy in the use of the Swiss ball. This visual medium would provide the girl with a clear and concrete example of how to use the Swiss ball effectively. By observing another child with the same condition using the Swiss ball, she can better understand the proper techniques and exercises involved. This visual demonstration can be more engaging and relatable for the girl, making it easier for her to learn and follow along.Rate this question:
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- 4.
A patient has lumbar spinal stenosis encroaching on the spinal cord. The physical therapist should educate the patient to AVOID:
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bicycling.
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Rowing.
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swimming using a crawl stroke.
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Tai Chi.
Correct Answer
A. swimming using a crawl stroke.Explanation
Swimming using a crawl stroke should be avoided for a patient with lumbar spinal stenosis encroaching on the spinal cord. This is because the crawl stroke requires repetitive extension of the spine, which can exacerbate the symptoms and further compress the spinal cord. It is important for the patient to avoid activities that put excessive strain on the spine and instead focus on low-impact exercises that promote stability and flexibility, such as bicycling, rowing, and Tai Chi.Rate this question:
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- 5.
A multicenter study was done on the reliability of passive wrist flexion and extension goniometric measurements using volar/dorsal alignment, ulnar alignment and radial alignment. Significant differences were revealed between the three techniques. An appropriate level for determining significant difference is a P value of:
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P=0.015
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P=0.05
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P=0.1
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P=0.5
Correct Answer
A. P=0.05Explanation
The appropriate level for determining significant difference is a P value of 0.05. This means that if the calculated P value is less than 0.05, then the observed differences between the three techniques are considered statistically significant. In other words, there is a 5% chance that the observed differences are due to random chance alone, and a 95% chance that they are truly different.Rate this question:
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- 6.
A 40 year-old male with a history of low back pain has been receiving physical therapy for 12 weeks. The patient is employed as a loading dockworker. He performs repetitive lifting and carrying of boxes weighing between 15 and 30 pounds. An appropriate engineering control to reduce the stresses of lifting and carrying would be to:
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issue the employee a back support belt.
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Provide a two-wheel handcart for use in moving the boxes.
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Require the worker to attend a class in using correct body mechanics while performing the job.
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Use job rotation.
Correct Answer
A. Provide a two-wheel handcart for use in moving the boxes.Explanation
Providing a two-wheel handcart for use in moving the boxes would be an appropriate engineering control to reduce the stresses of lifting and carrying. This would eliminate the need for the worker to manually lift and carry the boxes, reducing the strain on the back and preventing further injury or exacerbation of low back pain. Using a handcart would distribute the weight of the boxes more evenly and allow for easier and safer transportation, reducing the risk of injury.Rate this question:
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- 7.
A 15 year-old male suffered traumatic brain injury and multiple fractures following a motor vehicle accident. He is recovering in the intensive care unit. Your referral states PROM and positioning. On day 1 he is semi-alert and drifts in and out while you are working with him. On day 2 you become concerned because you observe signs suggestive of increasing intracranial pressure. You promptly report these symptoms to his physician. The signs that would be cause for immediate action in this case would be:
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decreasing consciousness with slowing of pulse and Cheyne-Stokes respirations.
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Decreasing function of cranial nerves IV, VI, and VII.
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Developing irritability with increasing symptoms of photophobia, disorientation and restlessness.
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Positive Kernig’s sign with developing nuchal rigidity.
Correct Answer
A. decreasing consciousness with slowing of pulse and Cheyne-Stokes respirations.Explanation
The signs that would be cause for immediate action in this case are decreasing consciousness with slowing of pulse and Cheyne-Stokes respirations. These symptoms suggest increasing intracranial pressure, which can be life-threatening. Slowing of the pulse indicates decreased brain perfusion, while Cheyne-Stokes respirations are characterized by alternating periods of deep and shallow breathing, indicating impaired brainstem function. Promptly reporting these symptoms to the physician is crucial to ensure appropriate intervention and prevent further complications.Rate this question:
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- 8.
Physical therapy intervention for a sixty-five year-old male patient with a recent diagnosis of supraspinatus tendinitis with possible impingement syndrome of the right shoulder should emphasize:
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Joint mobilization, use of ice, and rotator cuff strengthening.
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Modalities to reduce inflammation, active assistive range of motion exercises using pulleys, and postural realignment.
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Reducing stresses to abnormal tissues by placing the right upper extremity in a sling, use of ice, and rotator cuff strengthening.
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rest to reduce pain, iontophoresis, and strengthening of the rotator cuff muscles.
Correct Answer
A. Modalities to reduce inflammation, active assistive range of motion exercises using pulleys, and postural realignment.Explanation
The correct answer is modalities to reduce inflammation, active assistive range of motion exercises using pulleys, and postural realignment. This intervention is appropriate for a patient with supraspinatus tendinitis and possible impingement syndrome. Modalities to reduce inflammation, such as ice, can help alleviate pain and swelling. Active assistive range of motion exercises using pulleys can help improve shoulder mobility and strength. Postural realignment can address any underlying postural issues that may be contributing to the shoulder problem. These interventions aim to reduce pain, improve function, and promote healing in the shoulder joint.Rate this question:
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- 9.
A patient’s daughter wants to look at her father’s medical record. He has recently been admitted for an insidious onset of low back pain. You, as the physical therapist, should:
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Give her the chart and let her read it.
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Tell her she cannot see the chart because she could misinterpret the information.
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Tell her that she must have the permission of her father before she can look at the chart.
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Tell her to ask the physician for permission
Correct Answer
A. Tell her that she must have the permission of her father before she can look at the chart.Explanation
The correct answer is to tell her that she must have the permission of her father before she can look at the chart. This is because medical records are confidential and can only be accessed by authorized individuals or with the patient's consent. It is important to respect the patient's privacy and ensure that their information is not misinterpreted or misused. Therefore, the daughter should obtain her father's permission before accessing his medical records.Rate this question:
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- 10.
A physical therapist was treating a patient and the patient in the next bed was uncomfortable and asked the therapist to move his leg. The therapist placed the leg on 2 pillows as requested by the patient. Unknown to the therapist this patient had a femoral artery graft 2 days previously. As a result the graft became occluded and the patient was rushed to surgery for a replacement. The patient claimed the therapist placed his leg too high on the pillows causing the occlusion of the original graft and sued for malpractice. The hospital administrator decided:
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It was the patient’s fault for requesting the position change and therefore supported the action of the physical therapist.
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That the physical therapist was functioning according to common protocols of the institution and thus supported the actions of the therapist.
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That the therapist was functioning outside the common protocols of the hospital, and therefore did not support the actions of the physical therapist.
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to counter-sue the patient because he was responsible for requesting the position change.
Correct Answer
A. That the therapist was functioning outside the common protocols of the hospital, and therefore did not support the actions of the physical therapist.Explanation
The hospital administrator decided that the therapist was functioning outside the common protocols of the hospital and did not support the actions of the physical therapist. This decision suggests that the hospital had established protocols for the placement of patients' legs, and the therapist deviated from these protocols by placing the leg too high on the pillows. This deviation led to the occlusion of the original graft and subsequent complications for the patient. Therefore, the hospital administrator held the therapist responsible for the malpractice.Rate this question:
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- 11.
During a physical therapy session for low back pain, a 67 year-old patient tells you that she has had urinary incontinence for the last year. It is particularly problematic when she has a cold and coughs a lot. She has not told her doctor about this problem because she is too embarrassed. Your BEST course of action is to:
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Examine the patient and proceed with her back treatment.
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Examine the patient, document and discuss your findings with the doctor.
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examine the patient, document the problems, then send her back to her doctor.
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Refer the patient back to her doctor.
Correct Answer
A. Examine the patient, document and discuss your findings with the doctor.Explanation
The best course of action in this scenario is to examine the patient, document and discuss the findings with the doctor. Urinary incontinence can be a symptom of an underlying medical condition, and it is important to address it with the patient's primary care physician. By documenting and discussing the findings, the therapist can ensure that the patient receives appropriate medical attention and treatment for her urinary incontinence, in addition to her back pain.Rate this question:
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- 12.
A patient has been referred to you for acute shoulder pain after shoveling snow in a driveway for two hours. Positive findings include pain and weakness with flexion of an extended upper extremity as well as scapular winging with greater than 90 degrees of abduction. The patient’s problem is MOST LIKELY the result of:
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Compression of the long thoracic nerve.
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compression of the suprascapular nerve.
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Subdeltoid bursitis.
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supraspinatus tendinitis.
Correct Answer
A. Compression of the long thoracic nerve.Explanation
The patient's positive findings of pain and weakness with flexion of an extended upper extremity, as well as scapular winging with greater than 90 degrees of abduction, suggest a problem with the long thoracic nerve. The long thoracic nerve innervates the serratus anterior muscle, which is responsible for stabilizing the scapula during arm movements. Compression of this nerve can result in weakness and winging of the scapula, as well as pain. The other options (compression of the suprascapular nerve, subdeltoid bursitis, and supraspinatus tendinitis) do not explain the specific findings mentioned in the question.Rate this question:
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- 13.
While setting a patient up for cervical traction, you notice a purplish mole with rough edges on the patient’s neck. You:
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Call the physician immediately and report your findings.
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document the skin condition and keep a watchful eye on it.
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Tell the patient if it bleeds at all to report it to his physician.
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Treat the patient but cover the mole with a gauze pad.
Correct Answer
A. document the skin condition and keep a watchful eye on it.Explanation
It is important to document the presence of the purplish mole with rough edges on the patient's neck and keep a watchful eye on it. This is because the mole may be indicative of a potential skin condition or even skin cancer. By documenting it, healthcare professionals can monitor any changes in the mole over time and determine if further action, such as referral to a physician, is necessary. This approach ensures that the patient's condition is properly managed and any potential issues are addressed in a timely manner.Rate this question:
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- 14.
In treating a patient with a diagnosis of right shoulder impingement syndrome, the therapist should not allow the patient to perform assisted repetitive overhead exercises without FIRST:
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Controlling all pain.
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Having complete AROM at the shoulder.
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instruction in proper postural alignment.
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stretching the shoulder girdle muscles.
Correct Answer
A. instruction in proper postural alignment.Explanation
In order to effectively treat a patient with right shoulder impingement syndrome, it is important for the therapist to first provide instruction in proper postural alignment. This is because poor posture can contribute to shoulder impingement and exacerbate symptoms. By addressing postural alignment, the therapist can help the patient avoid movements or positions that may further impinge the shoulder joint. Once proper alignment is established, the therapist can then progress to other interventions such as controlling pain, improving range of motion, and stretching the shoulder girdle muscles.Rate this question:
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- 15.
As a physical therapist you are the health professional in charge during a high school football game. During the game, a player is tackled violently by two opponents. You determine that the player is unresponsive. Your immediate course of action should be to:
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ask for help to log roll the player on his back while stabilizing his neck.
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Open the airway by using the chin-lift method.
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Stabilize the neck and flip back the helmet face mask.
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Summon emergency medical services.
Correct Answer
A. Stabilize the neck and flip back the helmet face mask.Explanation
The correct answer is to stabilize the neck and flip back the helmet face mask. This is the immediate course of action because the player is unresponsive, indicating a potential neck or spinal injury. Stabilizing the neck helps prevent further damage and movement that could worsen the injury. Flipping back the helmet face mask allows for better access to the airway and breathing. Summoning emergency medical services should also be done, but stabilizing the neck and ensuring proper airway management take priority in this situation.Rate this question:
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- 16.
An important adjunct to physical therapy management of a child with moderate spastic hemiplegia would be use of:
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a KAFO on the affected side.
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A posterior walker.
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A tone inhibiting ankle-foot orthosis (AFO).
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an anterior rollator walker.
Correct Answer
A. A tone inhibiting ankle-foot orthosis (AFO).Explanation
A tone inhibiting ankle-foot orthosis (AFO) would be an important adjunct to physical therapy management of a child with moderate spastic hemiplegia. This is because spasticity is a common symptom of hemiplegia, and an AFO can help to reduce muscle tone and improve gait by providing support and stability to the affected ankle and foot. The use of a KAFO on the affected side would provide more support than necessary for moderate spastic hemiplegia. A posterior walker and an anterior rollator walker may be helpful for balance and stability, but they do not specifically address the issue of spasticity.Rate this question:
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- 17.
During initial standing a patient is pushing backward displacing the center-of-mass at or near the posterior limits of stability. The most likely cause of this is contraction of the:
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Gastrocnemius-soleus.
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Hamstrings.
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Hip extensors
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tibialis anterior/peroneals.
Correct Answer
A. Gastrocnemius-soleus.Explanation
During initial standing, the patient is pushing backward, which indicates a posterior displacement of the center-of-mass. The gastrocnemius-soleus muscles are responsible for plantarflexion of the ankle joint, which helps to maintain balance and stability in an upright position. Contraction of these muscles would cause a backward push, displacing the center-of-mass towards the posterior limits of stability. Therefore, the most likely cause of this backward push during initial standing is the contraction of the gastrocnemius-soleus muscles.Rate this question:
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- 18.
A 28 year-old patient has extensive full thickness burns to the dorsum of the hand and forearm. He is to be fitted with a resting splint to support his wrists and hands in a functional position. An appropriately constructed splint positions the wrist and hand in:
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neutral wrist position with IP extension and thumb flexion.
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Neutral wrist position with slight finger flexion and thumb flexion.
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slight wrist extension with fingers supported and thumb in partial opposition and abduction.
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Slight wrist flexion with IP extension and thumb opposition.
Correct Answer
A. slight wrist extension with fingers supported and thumb in partial opposition and abduction.Explanation
An appropriately constructed splint for a patient with extensive full thickness burns to the dorsum of the hand and forearm would position the wrist in slight extension to prevent contractures and promote functional use of the hand. The fingers should be supported to prevent flexion contractures, and the thumb should be positioned in partial opposition and abduction to maintain its function. This positioning allows for optimal hand function and prevents further complications.Rate this question:
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- 19.
A 24 year-old pregnant woman who is 12 weeks pregnant asks you if it is safe to continue with her aerobic exercise. Currently she jogs 3 miles, 3 times a week. Your BEST answer is:
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Continue jogging only until the 5th month of pregnancy.
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during the last trimester do not jog but switch to exercising in the supine position only.
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Jogging is safe but you might want to switch to swimming during later months.
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jogging is safe but your target HR should not exceed 140 beats/min.
Correct Answer
A. during the last trimester do not jog but switch to exercising in the supine position only. -
- 20.
A physical therapist assistant you supervise treated a patient in the home care setting. The patient is status post CVA. Part of the plan of care includes “progressive gait training on level surfaces”. The patient falls and sustains a fractured hip during a visit done by the PTA. The fall occurred when the PTA took the patient on the stairs for the first time. The responsible party in this case is:
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Both the PT and the PTA because the PT gave inadequate supervision, and the PTA used poor judgment.
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Neither the PT nor the PTA because patients who have sustained a CVA are always at high risk for falling, and thus it is a regrettable occurrence only.
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the PT who is negligent for failing to provide adequate supervision of the PTA.
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The PTA who is completely liable because the plan of care was altered without communicating with the supervising PT.
Correct Answer
A. the PT who is negligent for failing to provide adequate supervision of the PTA.Explanation
The responsible party in this case is the PT who is negligent for failing to provide adequate supervision of the PTA. This is because it is the responsibility of the PT to supervise and ensure the safety of the patients under their care. In this situation, the PT should have communicated with the PTA about any changes in the plan of care, such as taking the patient on the stairs for the first time. The lack of adequate supervision and failure to communicate led to the patient falling and sustaining a fractured hip, making the PT responsible for the incident.Rate this question:
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- 21.
After running one mile, an athlete complains of deep cramping at the anterior aspects of the legs which does not ease and prevents continued running. Management of this problem should include:
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orthotic fabrication to enable continued running on all surfaces
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referral to a physician to evaluate anterior compartment pressures during activity.
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Referral to a physician to rule out spinal stenosis.
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Stretching of the tibialis anterior muscles to help resolve shin splints.
Correct Answer
A. referral to a physician to evaluate anterior compartment pressures during activity.Explanation
The correct answer is referral to a physician to evaluate anterior compartment pressures during activity. This is the most appropriate management option for an athlete experiencing deep cramping at the anterior aspects of the legs that does not ease and prevents continued running. Anterior compartment syndrome is a condition characterized by increased pressure within the muscles of the lower leg, which can cause pain and cramping. By referring the athlete to a physician, they can undergo evaluation to determine if they have anterior compartment syndrome and to assess the pressures within the compartment during activity.Rate this question:
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- 22.
A 13 year-old severed the median nerve three days ago when his hand went through a glass window. To determine the motor function of the nerve you perform a chronaxie test. At this time you would expect the chronaxie of the nerve to be:
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Absent.
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Decreased.
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Increased.
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unaffected.
Correct Answer
A. Absent.Explanation
The chronaxie test is used to determine the excitability of a nerve by measuring the duration of an electric stimulus needed to elicit a response. In this case, the 13-year-old severed the median nerve three days ago, which means that the nerve is completely cut off and unable to transmit any signals. Therefore, there would be no response to the electric stimulus, indicating that the chronaxie of the nerve is absent.Rate this question:
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- 23.
A patient with post-polio syndrome presents in your clinic with symptoms of myalgia and increasing fatigue. He is wearing a KAFO which he has had for 10 years. When walking, you observe that he rises up over the sound limb to advance the orthotic limb forward. Your BEST intervention is to provide:
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a manual wheelchair with reclining back and elevating legrests.
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A shoe lift on the orthotic side.
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a shoe lift on the sound side.
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an electric wheelchair with joystick.
Correct Answer
A. A shoe lift on the orthotic side.Explanation
The patient's symptoms of myalgia and increasing fatigue, along with the observation of rising up over the sound limb, suggest that there may be a leg length discrepancy. Providing a shoe lift on the orthotic side would help to correct the leg length difference, improve the patient's gait, and potentially alleviate the symptoms. The other interventions, such as a manual wheelchair with reclining back and elevating legrests or an electric wheelchair with joystick, may not directly address the underlying issue of leg length discrepancy. A shoe lift on the sound side would further exacerbate the discrepancy and potentially worsen the patient's symptoms.Rate this question:
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- 24.
A 62 year-old lives at home with his wife and adult daughter. He has recently been diagnosed with multi-infarct dementia and is recovering from a fractured hip following a fall injury. In your initial interview with his wife you would expect to find:
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Agitation and sundowning.
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History of steady progression of loss of judgment and poor safety awareness.
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History of sudden onset of new cognitive problems and patchy distribution of deficits.
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Perseveration on a thought or activity.
Correct Answer
A. Agitation and sundowning.Explanation
In the given scenario, the patient is a 62-year-old with multi-infarct dementia and a fractured hip. Agitation and sundowning are common symptoms associated with dementia. Sundowning refers to increased confusion, restlessness, and agitation that often occurs in the late afternoon or evening. This symptom can be exacerbated by changes in the environment, such as transitioning from day to night. Therefore, it is expected to find agitation and sundowning in the initial interview with the patient's wife.Rate this question:
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- 25.
You receive a referral from an acute care physical therapist to treat a patient with right hemiparesis in the home. The referral indicates that the patient demonstrates good recovery: both involved limbs are categorized as stage 4 (Brunnstrom recovery stages). He is ambulatory with an small-based quad cane. The activity that would be MOST appropriate for a patient at this stage of recovery is:
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Sitting, marching in place (alternate hip flexion movements).
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Standing, picking the foot up behind and slowly lowering it.
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standing, small range knee extension to gain quadriceps control.
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supine, bending the hip and knee up to the chest with some hip abduction.
Correct Answer
A. standing, small range knee extension to gain quadriceps control.Explanation
The patient is in stage 4 of Brunnstrom recovery stages, indicating good recovery. At this stage, the patient has voluntary movement and can perform basic functional activities. The most appropriate activity for a patient at this stage would be to focus on gaining quadriceps control. Standing and performing small range knee extensions will help strengthen the quadriceps muscles and improve stability during ambulation with a quad cane. This activity will also promote further functional independence and improve the patient's overall mobility.Rate this question:
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- 26.
A 24 year-old woman recently delivered twins on the obstetrical service of your hospital. After delivery she has developed a 4 centimeter diastasis recti abdominis. The BEST initial intervention for this problem is to teach:
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Gentle stretching of hamstrings and hip flexors
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pelvic floor exercises and sit-ups.
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Pelvic tilts and bilateral straight leg raising.
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Protection and splinting of the abdominal musculature.
Correct Answer
A. pelvic floor exercises and sit-ups. -
- 27.
Your patient has had amyotrophic lateral sclerosis for the past two years with mild functional deficits. He is still ambulatory with bilateral canes but is limited in his endurance. An important goal for his physical therapy plan of care should be to prevent:
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Further gait deterioration as a result of ataxia.
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Myalgia.
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Overwork damage in weakened, denervated muscle.
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Radicular pain and paresthesias.
Correct Answer
A. Myalgia.Explanation
The correct answer is myalgia. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS) is a progressive neurodegenerative disease that affects the motor neurons in the brain and spinal cord. It leads to muscle weakness and atrophy over time. As the patient in this scenario still has mild functional deficits and is ambulatory with canes, it is important to prevent myalgia, which refers to muscle pain and soreness. This can occur due to overuse or strain on weakened and denervated muscles. By addressing and managing myalgia, the physical therapy plan of care can help improve the patient's quality of life and maintain their functional abilities.Rate this question:
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- 28.
A patient using an incentive spirometer complains of feeling lightheaded. Your instructions to the patient should be to:
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lie down while using the spirometer.
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Take a deeper breath on the following attempt.
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take a rest period and only use the device 10 times per hour.
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Try to use the spirometer more frequently to get used to it.
Correct Answer
A. Take a deeper breath on the following attempt.Explanation
The correct answer is to take a deeper breath on the following attempt. When a patient using an incentive spirometer complains of feeling lightheaded, it indicates that they are not taking in enough air. Instructing the patient to take a deeper breath on the following attempt will help them to increase their lung capacity and improve their oxygen intake, which can alleviate the lightheadedness.Rate this question:
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- 29.
A patient with multiple sclerosis demonstrates strong bilateral lower extremity extensor spasticity in the typical distribution of antigravity muscles. You would expect this patient to demonstrate:
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sacral sitting.
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Sitting with both legs abducted and externally rotated.
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Sitting with the pelvis tilted, weight bearing on ischial tuberosities.
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skin breakdown on the ischial tuberosities and lateral malleoli.
Correct Answer
A. sacral sitting.Explanation
In multiple sclerosis, spasticity can cause abnormal muscle tone and stiffness in the lower extremities. Sacral sitting refers to a sitting position where the patient is unable to maintain an upright posture and tends to slide down, resulting in the weight being borne on the sacrum and coccyx rather than the ischial tuberosities. This position is commonly seen in patients with lower extremity spasticity and can lead to increased risk of pressure sores and skin breakdown in the sacral area.Rate this question:
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- 30.
A patient presents with a large plantar ulcer that will be debrided in the whirlpool. The foot is cold, pale, and painless. The condition that would most likely result in this clinical presentation is:
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Acute arterial insufficiency.
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chronic arterial insufficiency.
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Chronic venous insufficiency.
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Deep venous thrombosis.
Correct Answer
A. chronic arterial insufficiency.Explanation
Chronic arterial insufficiency is the most likely condition to result in the given clinical presentation. In chronic arterial insufficiency, there is a gradual narrowing or blockage of the arteries that supply blood to the lower extremities. This leads to poor blood flow, causing the foot to become cold, pale, and painless. The large plantar ulcer is a result of the inadequate blood supply, which impairs wound healing. Acute arterial insufficiency would present with more severe symptoms such as severe pain, pallor, and coolness, while chronic venous insufficiency and deep venous thrombosis would not typically cause a painless foot ulcer.Rate this question:
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- 31.
A 16 year-old patient with osteosarcoma is being seen in physical therapy for crutch training. Her parents have decided not to tell her about her diagnosis. She is quite perceptive and asks you directly if she has cancer and about her future. Your BEST course of action is to:
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Change the subject and discuss the plans for that day’s treatment.
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Discuss her condition gently indicating her parent’s fears about not telling her the diagnosis.
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schedule a conference with the doctor and family about her condition and your discussions with the patient.
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tell the patient that you don’t know the specifics of her condition or prognosis, and she should speak with her doctor.
Correct Answer
A. Discuss her condition gently indicating her parent’s fears about not telling her the diagnosis.Explanation
The best course of action in this situation is to discuss the patient's condition gently, indicating her parent's fears about not telling her the diagnosis. This approach respects the parents' decision while also addressing the patient's concerns and providing some information about her condition. It allows for open communication and gives the patient an opportunity to ask questions or express her feelings. Scheduling a conference with the doctor and family may be necessary in the future, but for now, it is important to address the patient's immediate concerns.Rate this question:
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- 32.
An eighteen month-old child with Down Syndrome and moderate developmental delay is being treated at an Early Intervention Program. The schedule that would best facilitate motor learning of this child is physical therapy intervention given:
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30 minutes each day.
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once a week for two hours.
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one hour each week with a portion of that time used to teach the caretaker a home program to be done 3 times a week.
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Three times a week for fifteen minutes.
Correct Answer
A. one hour each week with a portion of that time used to teach the caretaker a home program to be done 3 times a week.Explanation
The best schedule for facilitating motor learning in an eighteen month-old child with Down Syndrome and moderate developmental delay is to provide one hour of physical therapy intervention each week, with a portion of that time dedicated to teaching the caretaker a home program to be done three times a week. This schedule allows for regular and consistent therapy sessions while also involving the caretaker in the child's therapy, ensuring that the child receives additional practice and support at home.Rate this question:
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- 33.
A physical therapist arriving at work one hour before she was due to start work, began moving treatment tables and rearranging the physical therapy clinic. This operation could have been done during regular hours. The therapist sustained a low back injury as a result of moving the equipment. Payment for the therapist’s care relating to this incident would be covered primarily by:
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Employee’s health insurance.
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The hospital’s insurance company.
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The therapist’s own resources.
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Workers’ Compensation.
Correct Answer
A. The therapist’s own resources.Explanation
The therapist's own resources would be the primary source of payment for her care because she sustained the low back injury while performing tasks outside of her regular work hours. Since she arrived one hour before her scheduled start time and was not officially on duty, the incident would not be covered by the hospital's insurance company or Workers' Compensation. Additionally, it is unlikely that the employee's health insurance would cover the injury since it occurred outside of work hours and was not directly related to her job duties. Therefore, the therapist would be responsible for covering the costs of her care using her own resources.Rate this question:
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- 34.
A patient diagnosed with lumbar spondylosis without discal herniation or bulging has a left L5 neural compression. The most likely structure compressing the nerve root is:
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anterior longitudinal ligament.
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Ligamentum flavum.
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posterior longitudinal ligament.
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Supraspinous ligament.
Correct Answer
A. anterior longitudinal ligament.Explanation
The anterior longitudinal ligament is the most likely structure compressing the left L5 nerve root in a patient with lumbar spondylosis without discal herniation or bulging. The anterior longitudinal ligament runs along the anterior surface of the vertebral bodies and helps to stabilize the spine. In lumbar spondylosis, degenerative changes in the spine can cause the ligament to thicken and compress the nerve root. The other ligaments listed (ligamentum flavum, posterior longitudinal ligament, and supraspinous ligament) are not typically involved in nerve root compression in this condition.Rate this question:
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- 35.
Your patient is a 42 year-old woman who suffered a stroke and demonstrates a locked-in state characterized by spastic quadriplegia and bulbar palsy. To facilitate communication with this patient you should instruct the family to:
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give her a chance to mouth her responses even though she can’t vocalize well.
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look closely at her facial expression to detect signs of what she is trying to communicate.
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Use a communication board with minimal movements of her hand.
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Use an alternate eyelid taping schedule which will allow her to use eye movements to communicate.
Correct Answer
A. Use a communication board with minimal movements of her hand.Explanation
To facilitate communication with a patient who is in a locked-in state characterized by spastic quadriplegia and bulbar palsy, instructing the family to use a communication board with minimal movements of her hand is the most appropriate choice. Since the patient is unable to vocalize well, mouthing her responses may not be effective. Looking closely at her facial expressions may provide some clues, but using a communication board would be more reliable. The option of using an alternate eyelid taping schedule to communicate through eye movements is not mentioned in the question stem and therefore cannot be considered as the correct answer.Rate this question:
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- 36.
You observe a physical therapist assistant ambulate a patient for the first time after a left total hip replacement. The patient is using crutches and is practicing on a level surface. The PTA should guard the patient by standing slightly:
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Behind and to the intact side, one hand on the gait belt.
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behind and to the left side, one hand on the gait belt.
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Behind the patient with both hands on the gait belt.
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in front of the patient, walking backward, with one hand on the gait belt and one hand on the shoulder.
Correct Answer
A. Behind the patient with both hands on the gait belt.Explanation
The correct answer is behind the patient with both hands on the gait belt. This position allows the physical therapist assistant to provide the necessary support and stability to the patient during ambulation. Being behind the patient allows the PTA to closely monitor the patient's movement and intervene if necessary. Placing both hands on the gait belt ensures a secure grip and control over the patient's movements.Rate this question:
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- 37.
A 48 year-old female has had a total knee replacement. Following surgery, you place her on a regimen of continuous passive motion. The primary purpose for applying CPM for the first few hours is to:
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decrease edema.
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Decrease pain.
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Increase range of motion.
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increase tissue tensile strength.
Correct Answer
A. Decrease pain.Explanation
Continuous passive motion (CPM) is a therapy technique commonly used after knee replacement surgery. It involves the continuous movement of the knee joint through a controlled range of motion. The primary purpose of applying CPM for the first few hours after surgery is to decrease pain. By continuously moving the knee joint, CPM helps to reduce pain and discomfort by promoting blood circulation, reducing inflammation, and preventing the formation of scar tissue. It also helps to prevent stiffness and maintain joint mobility, which can contribute to pain relief. Therefore, the main goal of using CPM immediately after surgery is to decrease pain.Rate this question:
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- 38.
A 65 year-old patient with multiple sclerosis is being treated at home. The patient is bedridden for most of the day with only short periods up in a bedside chair. Medicare is funding the patient’s home care program which has as its primary goals maintaining PROM and positioning to prevent deformity. Your role as the physical therapist is to provide:
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a limited cardiovascular conditioning (sitting) program aimed at improving respiratory capacity.
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a restorative exercise program aimed at improving upright sitting control and improved functional independence.
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PROM exercises 2 times a day with additional family instruction to ensure weekend coverage.
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Supervision of home health aides for completion of a daily home exercise program.
Correct Answer
A. PROM exercises 2 times a day with additional family instruction to ensure weekend coverage.Explanation
The correct answer is PROM exercises 2 times a day with additional family instruction to ensure weekend coverage. This is the most appropriate role for the physical therapist in this scenario. The primary goals of the home care program are to maintain PROM and prevent deformity, and the physical therapist's role is to provide PROM exercises to the patient. Additionally, the family is instructed to continue the exercises on the weekends to ensure consistent care.Rate this question:
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- 39.
You are a home health physical therapist. During one of your regularly scheduled visits with a 72 year-old male patient, you find him to be confused with shortness of breath and significant generalized weakness. Assessing these symptoms and given his history of hypertension and hyperlipidemia, you suspect:
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He forgot to take his hypertension medication.
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he may be experiencing unstable angina.
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he may be presenting with early signs of myocardial infarction.
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his mental changes are indicative of early Alzheimer’s disease.
Correct Answer
A. he may be experiencing unstable angina.Explanation
Based on the given symptoms of confusion, shortness of breath, and generalized weakness, along with the patient's history of hypertension and hyperlipidemia, the most likely explanation is that the patient may be experiencing unstable angina. Unstable angina is a condition characterized by chest pain or discomfort that occurs at rest or with minimal exertion, and it is often accompanied by other symptoms like shortness of breath and weakness. Given the patient's age and medical history, it is important to consider cardiovascular issues as a potential cause of his symptoms.Rate this question:
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- 40.
A 58 year-old woman with osteopenia has been on Premarin for the past 4 years. Based on your knowledge of estrogen replacement therapy, you recognize this patient is more susceptible to:
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fractures.
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Osteoporosis.
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Peripheral edema.
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Vasomotor symptoms (hot flashes).
Correct Answer
A. fractures.Explanation
Estrogen replacement therapy, such as Premarin, is often prescribed to postmenopausal women to prevent or treat osteoporosis. Osteopenia is a precursor to osteoporosis, indicating reduced bone density. Estrogen helps to maintain bone density and strength, so the absence of estrogen, as in osteopenic women, increases the risk of fractures. Therefore, the patient with osteopenia who has been on Premarin for 4 years is more susceptible to fractures.Rate this question:
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- 41.
A patient with spastic left hemiplegia experiences severe genu recurvatum during stance phase. If the patient is using an ankle-foot orthosis, the cause of the problem might be attributed to:
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The anterior stop setting the foot in too much dorsiflexion.
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The anterior stop setting the foot in too much plantar flexion.
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the posterior stop setting the foot in too much dorsiflexion.
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the posterior stop setting the foot in too much plantarflexion.
Correct Answer
A. The anterior stop setting the foot in too much dorsiflexion.Explanation
The patient with spastic left hemiplegia is experiencing severe genu recurvatum during the stance phase. Genu recurvatum refers to excessive hyperextension of the knee joint. An ankle-foot orthosis is used to provide support and control to the foot and ankle. The anterior stop in the orthosis determines the amount of dorsiflexion allowed at the ankle joint. If the anterior stop is set too far forward, it can cause the foot to be positioned in excessive dorsiflexion, leading to hyperextension of the knee joint during stance phase. Therefore, the cause of the problem in this case is the anterior stop setting the foot in too much dorsiflexion.Rate this question:
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- 42.
Your patient has moderate spasticity of the biceps brachii on the left as a result of a CVA. You choose to use electrical stimulation to temporarily decrease the effects of hypertonicity in order to work on ADL activities. Your objective in applying the current is to:
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fatigue the ipsilateral biceps brachii.
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Stimulate the contralateral biceps brachii.
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Stimulate the contralateral triceps.
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Stimulate the ipsilateral triceps.
Correct Answer
A. Stimulate the contralateral biceps brachii.Explanation
By applying electrical stimulation to the contralateral biceps brachii, the objective is to stimulate the muscle and temporarily decrease the effects of hypertonicity. This can help in working on ADL activities by promoting relaxation and reducing spasticity in the affected muscle. By stimulating the contralateral biceps brachii, it can also help improve overall muscle balance and coordination between the two arms.Rate this question:
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- 43.
A researcher states that he expects that there will be no significant difference between 20 and 30 year-olds after a 12 week exercise training program using exercise heart rates and myocardial oxygen consumption as measures of performance. The kind of hypothesis that is being used in this study is a (an):
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directional hypothesis.
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experimental hypothesis.
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null hypothesis.
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Research hypothesis
Correct Answer
A. experimental hypothesis.Explanation
The researcher's statement suggests that they expect a significant difference between 20 and 30 year-olds after the exercise training program. This indicates that they have a specific expectation and are testing a cause-and-effect relationship between the exercise program and the performance measures. Therefore, the hypothesis being used in this study is an experimental hypothesis.Rate this question:
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- 44.
The recommended time duration for endotracheal suctioning is:
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1 to 5 seconds.
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10 to 15 seconds.
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15 to 20 seconds.
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5 to 10 seconds.
Correct Answer
A. 15 to 20 seconds.Explanation
The recommended time duration for endotracheal suctioning is 15 to 20 seconds. This duration allows for effective removal of secretions from the airway while minimizing the risk of complications such as hypoxia and tissue damage. Suctioning for a shorter duration may not adequately clear the airway, while suctioning for a longer duration can lead to tissue trauma and oxygen desaturation. Therefore, 15 to 20 seconds is the optimal time range for endotracheal suctioning.Rate this question:
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- 45.
An eleven-year-old male was referred to physical therapy with complaints of vague pain at his right hip and thigh which radiates to his knee. His AROM is restricted in abduction, flexion, and internal rotation. A gluteus medius gait was observed with ambulation for 100 feet. Appropriate PT intervention would include:
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closed-chain partial weight-bearing lower extremity exercises for slipped capital femoral epiphysis.
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Hip joint mobilization to improve the restriction in motion as the result of Legg-Calvé Perthe’s disease
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Open-chain strengthening of his right hip abductors and internal rotators for avascular necrosis of the hip
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Orthoses to control lower extremity position as the result of femoral anteversion.
Correct Answer
A. Hip joint mobilization to improve the restriction in motion as the result of Legg-Calvé Perthe’s diseaseExplanation
The patient's symptoms of vague pain at the right hip and thigh, restricted AROM in abduction, flexion, and internal rotation, and observation of a gluteus medius gait suggest a hip pathology. Legg-Calvé Perthe's disease is a condition that affects the blood supply to the femoral head, leading to avascular necrosis and restricted motion. Hip joint mobilization is a common intervention used to improve joint mobility and decrease pain in patients with Legg-Calvé Perthe's disease. Therefore, hip joint mobilization is the appropriate PT intervention for this patient.Rate this question:
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- 46.
You have received a referral for a 42 year-old patient who has a neurapraxia involving the ulnar nerve secondary to an elbow fracture. Based on your knowledge of this condition, you expect that:
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regeneration is unlikely because surgical approximation of the nerve ends was not performed.
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Nerve dysfunction will be rapidly reversed, generally in 2-3 weeks.
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Regeneration is likely after 2-21/2 years.
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regeneration is likely in 6-8 months.
Correct Answer
A. regeneration is unlikely because surgical approximation of the nerve ends was not performed.Explanation
The correct answer states that regeneration is unlikely because surgical approximation of the nerve ends was not performed. Neurapraxia refers to a temporary loss of nerve function due to nerve compression or injury. In this case, the ulnar nerve has been affected due to an elbow fracture. Surgical approximation of the nerve ends is typically necessary for nerve regeneration in cases of neurapraxia. Without surgical intervention, the nerve ends may not be properly aligned, making regeneration unlikely. Therefore, the answer accurately explains the expected outcome in this scenario.Rate this question:
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- 47.
A patient with COPD is sitting in a bedside chair. The apices of the lungs in this position compared with other areas of the lungs in this position would demonstrate:
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Increased perfusion.
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Increased volume of air at resting end expiratory pressure (REEP).
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The highest changes in ventilation during the respiratory cycle.
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the lowest oxygenation and highest CO2 in blood exiting this zone.
Correct Answer
A. Increased perfusion.Explanation
In a patient with COPD sitting in a bedside chair, the apices of the lungs would demonstrate increased perfusion. This is because in COPD, there is a loss of elasticity in the airways, which leads to air trapping in the lower areas of the lungs. As a result, blood flow is redirected to the upper areas of the lungs where there is less air trapping, leading to increased perfusion. This helps to optimize gas exchange and improve oxygenation in these areas.Rate this question:
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- 48.
A 72-year old patient is receiving outpatient physical therapy at your private clinic. The clinic is an approved Medicare outpatient provider. Your patient is concerned that she will not be able to pay for her continuing care and worries that her Medicare benefits will run out soon. You tell her:
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Coverage is limited only for hospital-based outpatient PT services.
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Currently there is no limit to her Medicare coverage for outpatient PT services.
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there is currently a limit of $1000.00 for coverage of outpatient PT services.
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there is currently a limit of $1590.00 for coverage of outpatient PT services.
Correct Answer
A. there is currently a limit of $1000.00 for coverage of outpatient PT services.Explanation
Currently, there is a limit of $1000.00 for coverage of outpatient PT services. This means that Medicare will only cover up to $1000.00 of the patient's physical therapy expenses. After reaching this limit, the patient will be responsible for paying for any additional costs out of pocket.Rate this question:
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- 49.
A patient is five days post-MI and is receiving cardiac rehabilitation. At this time a goal that would be INAPPROPRIATE is to:
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counteract deconditioning associated with bed rest.
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educate the patient and family regarding risk factor reduction.
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increase the patient’s maximal oxygen consumption by discharge.
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Initiate early return to independence in activities of daily living.
Correct Answer
A. educate the patient and family regarding risk factor reduction.Explanation
The goal of educating the patient and family regarding risk factor reduction is not inappropriate because it is an important aspect of cardiac rehabilitation. After a myocardial infarction (MI), it is crucial to educate the patient and their family about lifestyle modifications and risk factor reduction to prevent future cardiac events. This may include discussing the importance of a healthy diet, regular exercise, smoking cessation, and managing stress. By providing this education, healthcare professionals can empower the patient and their family to make informed decisions and take control of their cardiovascular health.Rate this question:
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Mar 22, 2023Quiz Edited by
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