Mt Simulation Examination 2

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1. Mycobacteria  be cultured from a variety of clinical specimens, the most common being ______ specimens.

Explanation

Mycobacteria can be cultured from various clinical specimens, with the most common being respiratory specimens. This means that samples taken from the respiratory system, such as sputum or bronchoalveolar lavage fluid, are more likely to yield positive results for the growth of Mycobacteria. Other specimens like urine or stool may also be used for culturing, but respiratory specimens are more commonly used due to the higher likelihood of finding Mycobacteria in the respiratory system.

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About This Quiz
Mt Simulation Examination 2 - Quiz

This is a Simulated Examination for Gulf Medtech/Labtech Examinations taken from Last Month's HAAD Feedbacks.
This examination contains 100 of the most UPDATED EXAMS from Abu Dhabi, KSA, and UAE.
Take this examination for 120 minutes. You need to get 86% to pass the HAAD. 60% to pass... see moreMOH, DHA, or Prometrics.
Please text 0919-286-29-29 in the Philippines or visit our website www. Rtonline. Weebly. Com THIS IS YOUR ASSESSMENT FOR ANY GULF RT EXAMINATIONS INCLUDING HAAD MT, SAUDI PROMETRICS, DUBAI DHA, AND UAE MOH. THE QUESTIONS HERE ARE TAKEN FROM THIS ACTUAL EXAMINATIONS, SO PASSING THIS ASSESSMENT EXAM WILL GIVE YOU A HIGH PROBABILITY OF PASSING THE SAID EXAMINATIONS see less

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2. UV light does what to bacteria?

Explanation

UV light kills bacteria so the biological safety cabinet, after cleaning with disinfectant, should have the light left on overnight

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3. What has the symptom of strawberry tongue?

Explanation

Scarlet fever has the symptom of strawberry tongue. This is characterized by a bright red, swollen tongue with a bumpy texture that resembles a strawberry. Scarlet fever is caused by the streptococcus bacteria and is accompanied by symptoms such as a red rash, high fever, sore throat, and swollen glands. The presence of strawberry tongue is a distinct characteristic of scarlet fever and helps differentiate it from other conditions with similar symptoms.

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4. Mycobacteria are what?

Explanation

Mycobacteria are classified as thin, straight or slightly curved rods. This means that they have a long and slender shape, with some flexibility in their curvature. This characteristic shape helps in their identification and differentiation from other types of bacteria.

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5. A biological safety cabinet is not essential for a mycobacteria lab.

Explanation

The use of a biological safety cabinet is essential; proper use of this cabinet will protect the technologist from aerosols created during specimen and culture handling

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6. Healthcare personnel who are carriers of resistant bacteria such as MRSA can unknowingly transmit the bacteria to others.Thus carriers of MRSA should be identified by culturing nasal swabs

Explanation

The statement is true because healthcare personnel who are carriers of resistant bacteria like MRSA can unknowingly spread the bacteria to others. Culturing nasal swabs is a common method to identify carriers of MRSA, as the bacteria often colonize in the nasal passages. By identifying carriers, appropriate measures can be taken to prevent the transmission of MRSA within healthcare settings and protect vulnerable patients.

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7. What bacteria causes typhoid fever?

Explanation

S. typhi is the bacteria that causes typhoid fever.

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8. Which of the following is a Serratia?

Explanation

Serratia marcescens is a correct answer because it is a species of bacteria that belongs to the genus Serratia. It is commonly found in soil, water, and various other environments. S. marcescens is known for its production of a red pigment, giving it a distinctive appearance. It can also cause infections in humans, particularly in hospital settings.

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9. Streptococcus pneumoniae and Klebsiella pnuemoniae are two examples of bacteria that causes pneumonia (an inflammatory condition of the lung) that can be isolated from the sputum of affected individuals

Explanation

The statement is true because Streptococcus pneumoniae and Klebsiella pneumoniae are indeed two examples of bacteria that can cause pneumonia. These bacteria can be isolated from the sputum of individuals who are affected by this inflammatory lung condition.

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10. The Mycobacteria lab should be separated from the rest of the microbacteriology lab

Explanation

The Mycobacteria lab should be separated from the rest of the microbacteriology lab because Mycobacteria are a unique group of bacteria that require special handling and precautions. They are known to cause diseases such as tuberculosis and leprosy, which can be highly contagious. By separating the Mycobacteria lab from the rest of the microbacteriology lab, the risk of cross-contamination and spreading of these potentially dangerous bacteria can be minimized. This separation ensures a safer working environment for laboratory personnel and prevents the accidental release of Mycobacteria into the surrounding area.

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11. Gastric aspirates are collected in the morning after an overnight fast. How many specimens are collected within 3 days?

Explanation

Gastric aspirates are collected in the morning after an overnight fast. This means that one specimen is collected each day. Since we are considering a time frame of 3 days, the number of specimens collected within 3 days would be 3.

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12. Larger volumes of specimens does what to the recovery of mycobacteria?

Explanation

Increasing the volume of specimens improves the recovery of mycobacteria. This means that when larger volumes of specimens are used, there is a higher likelihood of successfully isolating and detecting mycobacteria. This could be due to the fact that larger volumes provide more opportunities for the bacteria to be present, increasing the chances of their recovery.

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13. What causes rice eating related food poisoning?

Explanation

B. cereus causes rice eating related food poisoning. This bacterium is commonly found in soil and can contaminate rice during cultivation, harvesting, or storage. When rice is cooked and left at room temperature for an extended period, B. cereus can multiply and produce toxins that cause food poisoning when consumed. Symptoms of B. cereus food poisoning include nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea.

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14. What forms swarming colonies?

Explanation

P. mirabilis forms swarming colonies.

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15. Which of the following causes peptic ulcer disease?

Explanation

H. pylori is the correct answer because it is a bacterium that is known to cause peptic ulcer disease. It is able to survive in the acidic environment of the stomach and can lead to inflammation and damage to the lining of the stomach or small intestine, resulting in the formation of ulcers.

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16. What will infection patients with compromised immune systems?

Explanation

Patients with compromised immune systems are more susceptible to opportunistic infections. Opportunistic infections are caused by pathogens that take advantage of a weakened immune system to cause disease. These infections typically do not affect individuals with healthy immune systems but can be severe and even life-threatening for those with compromised immune systems. Therefore, the correct answer is "opportunistic infection."

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17. What causes lyme disease?

Explanation

Lyme disease is caused by the bacterium B. burgdorferi. This bacterium is transmitted to humans through the bite of infected black-legged ticks. These ticks are commonly found in wooded and grassy areas. When an infected tick bites a person, the bacterium enters the bloodstream and can cause a range of symptoms, including fever, fatigue, headache, muscle and joint aches, and swollen lymph nodes. If left untreated, Lyme disease can lead to more serious complications, affecting the joints, heart, and nervous system. Therefore, B. burgdorferi is the correct answer for the cause of Lyme disease.

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18. A postivie coagulase test indicates the presences of what?

Explanation

A positive coagulase test indicates the presence of Staphylococcus. Coagulase is an enzyme produced by Staphylococcus bacteria that causes blood plasma to clot. This test is used to differentiate Staphylococcus aureus, which is coagulase-positive, from other species of Staphylococcus, which are coagulase-negative. Staphylococcus aureus is a common pathogen that can cause a variety of infections, including skin and soft tissue infections, pneumonia, and bloodstream infections. Therefore, a positive coagulase test is indicative of the presence of Staphylococcus bacteria.

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19. Which of the following is a Edwardsiella?

Explanation

E. tarda is a species of bacteria known as Edwardsiella tarda. It is a member of the Edwardsiella genus and is commonly found in aquatic environments. Unlike the other options listed, E. tarda is the only species that belongs to the Edwardsiella genus, making it the correct answer.

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20. M.leprae will not grow on artificial media

Explanation

M.leprae is the bacterium that causes leprosy. It is an obligate intracellular bacterium, which means it can only survive and replicate inside host cells. It cannot grow on artificial media or laboratory culture conditions. This is one of the reasons why it has been difficult to study and develop effective treatments for leprosy. Therefore, the given statement is true.

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21. How many specimens of sputum is typically needed to make a diagnosis?

Explanation

Typically, three specimens of sputum are needed to make a diagnosis. This is because multiple samples increase the chances of detecting any potential pathogens or abnormalities. By analyzing multiple specimens, healthcare professionals can ensure a more accurate diagnosis and provide appropriate treatment.

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22. No AF smear is performed with Urine specimens.

Explanation

No AF smear is performed due to fewer organisms present and the potential for contamination

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23. This is a complete UA and microbiology kit that can be purchased from BD. which of the three is the patient sample urine collection with screw cap equipped with transfer device  to transfer urine

Explanation

The correct answer is option 3 because it mentions a patient sample urine collection with a screw cap equipped with a transfer device to transfer urine. This indicates that option 3 is the correct answer as it specifically mentions the required features for urine collection and transfer.

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24. Each blood culture bottle contains a sensor that responds to changes in CO2, which is released as microorganisms grow. when the bacTalert detector detects a change in the sensor, the instrument alarm goes off and stays on until the bottle has been removed. after this bottle is removed, what is next

Explanation

After the blood culture bottle has been removed, the next step is to inoculate the sample onto agar plates and perform a gram stain for identification. This process allows for the growth of microorganisms on the agar plates, which can then be observed and identified based on their characteristics. The gram stain is used to differentiate between different types of bacteria based on their cell wall composition. This combination of inoculation onto agar plates and gram staining is a common method used in microbiology laboratories to identify and classify microorganisms.

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25. Which of the following is not a Shigella?

Explanation

S. marcescens is not a Shigella because it belongs to a different bacterial genus called Enterobacter. Shigella is a genus of gram-negative bacteria that causes shigellosis, a type of bacterial dysentery. The other options listed (S. boydii, S. flexneri, S. sonnei, and S. dysenteriae) are all Shigella species that can cause shigellosis in humans.

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26. Which of the following is a Salmonella?

Explanation

S. typhimurium is a type of Salmonella bacteria. Salmonella is a genus of bacteria that can cause food poisoning and other infections in humans and animals. S. typhimurium is one of the most common serotypes of Salmonella and is often associated with foodborne illnesses. It can cause symptoms such as diarrhea, abdominal pain, fever, and vomiting. Proper food handling and hygiene practices are important in preventing Salmonella infections.

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27. What means that a bacteria that induces the fermation of a pus-like discharge containing polymorphonuclear leukocytes?

Explanation

A bacteria that induces the fermentation of a pus-like discharge containing polymorphonuclear leukocytes is referred to as pyogenic. Pyogenic bacteria are capable of causing the formation of pus, which is a thick fluid containing dead cells and bacteria. The presence of polymorphonuclear leukocytes, a type of white blood cell, in the discharge indicates an inflammatory response to the infection caused by the bacteria. Therefore, the correct answer is pyogenic.

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28. Which of the following produces a redpigment?

Explanation

S. marcescens produces a red pigment.

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29. What makes a patient more likely to contract gonorrhea?

Explanation

A patient on a contraceptive pill is more likely to contract gonorrhea because certain types of contraceptives, such as hormonal birth control pills, can alter the pH balance in the vagina and make it more susceptible to infections like gonorrhea. This is because the hormones in the contraceptive pill can affect the natural protective mechanisms of the body, making it easier for bacteria to thrive and cause infection.

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30. Mycobacteria tend to do what compared to other pathogenic bacteria?

Explanation

Mycobacteria tend to grow slowly compared to other pathogenic bacteria. This is because they have unique cell wall structures that make them resistant to many antibiotics and immune responses. Their slow growth rate allows them to persist and establish chronic infections in the host, making them difficult to treat and eradicate.

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31. Most rapidly growing species of mycobacteria grow at temperatures ______ degrees celsius

Explanation

Most rapidly growing species of mycobacteria grow at temperatures between 20 and 40 degrees Celsius. This temperature range provides optimal conditions for their growth and metabolism. At lower temperatures, their growth rate is slower, while at higher temperatures, they may not be able to survive or grow efficiently. Therefore, the range of 20-40 degrees Celsius is the most suitable for the rapid growth of these mycobacteria species.

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32. Swabs can be used for sputum specimens.

Explanation

Swabs are not used for sputum specimens. Sputum specimens are usually collected by asking the patient to cough deeply and produce phlegm from their lungs. Swabs, on the other hand, are typically used to collect samples from surfaces or body cavities, such as the throat or nose. Therefore, the statement that swabs can be used for sputum specimens is false.

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33. H-Ag is a?

Explanation

The correct answer is flagella antigen because flagella are whip-like structures found on the surface of certain bacteria and are responsible for bacterial motility. Flagella antigens are specific proteins located on the surface of the flagella, which can trigger an immune response in the body. Therefore, H-Ag refers to the flagella antigen.

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34. What is swelling of the lymph nodes?

Explanation

Swelling of the lymph nodes, also known as bubo, refers to the enlargement of the lymph nodes due to an infection or inflammation. It is a common symptom of various infections, such as bacterial or viral infections. When the body's immune system detects an infection, the lymph nodes produce more immune cells to help fight off the infection, leading to swelling. Bubo can occur in different parts of the body, such as the neck, armpits, or groin, and is often tender and painful to touch.

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35. Most rapidly growing species of mycobacteria will grow in less than how many days?

Explanation

Most rapidly growing species of mycobacteria will grow in less than 7 days.

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36. No AF smear is preformed with Stool specimens.

Explanation

AF smears are not done due to the low numbers of organisms present

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37. What causes relapsing fever?

Explanation

Relapsing fever is caused by the bacterium Borrelia recurrentis. This bacterium is transmitted to humans through the bites of lice or ticks. The infection causes recurring episodes of fever, headache, muscle aches, and other flu-like symptoms. B. recurrentis is the specific bacterium responsible for this particular type of fever, making it the correct answer.

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38. What is the waxy exterior coating unigue to myocbacteria?

Explanation

Mycolic acid is a waxy exterior coating that is unique to mycobacteria. It is a major component of the cell wall of these bacteria and plays a crucial role in their survival and pathogenesis. The presence of mycolic acid contributes to the acid-fast staining property of mycobacteria, which is used for their identification. This waxy coating helps to protect the bacteria from the host's immune system and allows them to resist the effects of antibiotics. Therefore, mycolic acid is a characteristic feature of mycobacteria, distinguishing them from other bacteria.

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39. What type of organism that grows on and derives nourishment from dead or decaying organic matter?

Explanation

A saprophyte is an organism that grows on and obtains nourishment from dead or decaying organic matter. It plays a crucial role in the decomposition process by breaking down complex organic compounds into simpler forms. Unlike facultative anaerobes, strict aerobes, and opportunistic pathogens, saprophytes do not require specific environmental conditions or cause harm to living organisms. Therefore, the correct answer is saprophyte.

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40. What causes the bubonic, pneumonic and septicemic plagues?

Explanation

Y. pestis is the correct answer because it is the bacterium that causes the bubonic, pneumonic, and septicemic plagues. These plagues are highly infectious and have caused devastating pandemics throughout history, such as the Black Death. Y. pestis is primarily transmitted through fleas that infest rats, which can then spread the disease to humans through bites. The bubonic plague is characterized by swollen lymph nodes, while the pneumonic plague affects the lungs, and the septicemic plague affects the bloodstream. Prompt diagnosis and treatment are crucial to prevent the spread of these deadly diseases.

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41. Cell wall has a high what?

Explanation

The cell wall has a high lipid content. Lipids are a major component of the cell wall, providing structural support and acting as a barrier to protect the cell from external factors. Lipids are hydrophobic molecules that form a lipid bilayer, which gives the cell wall its strength and flexibility. This lipid content helps maintain the integrity of the cell wall and contributes to its function in maintaining cell shape and protecting the cell from mechanical stress and environmental changes.

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42. Can cary blair    or      be used to preserve stool specimen for C & S

Explanation

Cary Blair can be used to preserve stool specimens for culture and sensitivity testing.

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43. What is an infection caused by a deadly strain of group a Streptococcus that attacks the deep layers of tissues?

Explanation

Necrotizing fasciitis is an infection caused by a deadly strain of group A Streptococcus that attacks the deep layers of tissues. This infection is characterized by rapid destruction of skin, muscle, and underlying tissue, leading to tissue death. It is a severe and life-threatening condition that requires immediate medical intervention, including surgical removal of infected tissue and administration of antibiotics.

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44. What can ferment glucose into lactose?

Explanation

Lactobacillus is a type of bacteria that is capable of fermenting glucose into lactose. This process is known as lactose fermentation. Bacillus and Micrococcus are not capable of fermenting glucose into lactose. Therefore, the correct answer is Lactobacillus.

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45. Mycobacteria are motile and can produce spores

Explanation

They are nonmotile and do not produce spores.

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46. Mycobacteria resist decolorization with acid alcohol

Explanation

Mycobacteria resist decolorization with acid alcohol. This statement is true because mycobacteria have a unique cell wall composition that includes high amounts of mycolic acids. These mycolic acids make the cell wall impermeable to many chemicals, including acid alcohol used in the decolorization step of acid-fast staining. As a result, mycobacteria retain the primary stain (carbol fuchsin) and appear red under a microscope, while other bacteria are decolorized and appear blue after counterstaining with methylene blue. This characteristic is a key feature used in the identification of mycobacteria.

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47. Are mycobacteria strictly aerobic or anaerobic?

Explanation

Mycobacteria are strictly aerobic, meaning they require oxygen to survive and grow. They cannot survive in the absence of oxygen. This is an important characteristic of mycobacteria and helps in their identification and differentiation from other bacteria that may be anaerobic or facultative anaerobic.

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48. When using a winged infusion set (butterfly needles) to draw blood culture bottle set, which tube gets drawn first

Explanation

When using a winged infusion set (butterfly needles) to draw blood culture bottle set, the aerobic tube is drawn first. This is because aerobic bacteria require oxygen to grow, and by drawing blood into the aerobic tube first, it ensures that any aerobic bacteria present in the blood sample have access to oxygen. This helps to promote the growth of aerobic bacteria in the culture, making it easier to identify and diagnose any potential infections caused by aerobic bacteria.

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49. A volume of _____ ml sputum should be sent.

Explanation

A volume of 5-10 ml sputum should be sent. This range is typically sufficient for diagnostic testing and analysis. It provides enough material for accurate examination while minimizing the risk of dilution or contamination.

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50. Delay in specimen processing can lead to what?

Explanation

Delays in processing may lead to false negative culture due to increased bacterial contamination

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51. This is a complete UA and microbiology kit that can be purchased from BD. which of the three contains preservative for microbiology

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

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52.  which of the following is a clean vial for stool specimen with no additive and can be used for bacterial culture if delivered to lab quickly

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

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53. Can formalin and PVA   be used to preserve stool specimen for O & P

Explanation

Formalin and PVA can be used to preserve stool specimens for O&P (ova and parasites) testing. Formalin is a commonly used preservative that helps to fix and preserve the structure of the parasites, while PVA (polyvinyl alcohol) is a liquid medium that helps to maintain the integrity of the stool sample and prevent dehydration. Using these preservatives ensures that the specimen remains suitable for microscopic examination, allowing for accurate detection and identification of parasites and their eggs in the stool sample.

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54. Areas where specimens and cultures are processed should have _____  air pressure.

Explanation

Areas where specimens and cultures are processed should have negative air pressure. This is because negative air pressure helps to prevent the spread of airborne contaminants from the processing area to other parts of the facility. It creates a pressure gradient that ensures that air flows into the processing area, rather than out of it, minimizing the risk of contamination. This is especially important in laboratories and healthcare settings where the handling of specimens and cultures requires a controlled and sterile environment.

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55. What does not cause diarrhea?

Explanation

The correct answer is B and C. E. coli, E. cloacae, and E. aerogenes are all types of bacteria that can cause diarrhea. Therefore, none of them can be the correct answer as they all cause diarrhea.

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56. What is found in aquatic animals and reptiles?

Explanation

E. tarda is found in aquatic animals and reptiles. This bacterium is commonly isolated from freshwater and marine environments, as well as from the intestines of various aquatic animals and reptiles. It is a Gram-negative, rod-shaped bacterium that can cause infections in humans, particularly in individuals with weakened immune systems. Therefore, the presence of E. tarda in aquatic animals and reptiles is an important consideration for public health and the management of these animals in captivity.

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57. Optochin tests are used to identify strains of what?

Explanation

Optochin tests are used to identify strains of Streptococcus. Optochin is an antibiotic that is effective against certain species of Streptococcus, such as Streptococcus pneumoniae. The test involves applying a disc impregnated with optochin to a culture of bacteria. If the bacteria are susceptible to optochin, there will be a zone of inhibition around the disc, indicating that the bacteria are likely to be Streptococcus pneumoniae. This test is particularly useful in differentiating Streptococcus pneumoniae from other alpha-hemolytic streptococci, which may have similar characteristics but are not susceptible to optochin.

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58. What is the most common type of anthrax?

Explanation

Cutaneous infection is the most common type of anthrax. This type of anthrax occurs when the bacteria enter the body through a cut or abrasion on the skin. It typically presents as a painless sore with a black center, surrounded by swelling. Cutaneous anthrax is usually not life-threatening and can be treated with antibiotics. GI tract anthrax refers to the infection of the gastrointestinal tract, while inhalation anthrax is caused by breathing in anthrax spores. The answer "can not determine" is not applicable as the most common type of anthrax is cutaneous infection.

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59. If immediate transport is not possible for Mycobacteria specimens what should be done?

Explanation

If immediate transport is not possible for Mycobacteria specimens, refrigerating the specimens is the best course of action. Refrigeration helps to slow down the growth and multiplication of the bacteria, preserving the integrity of the specimen until it can be transported to the appropriate laboratory for further analysis. This helps to ensure accurate and reliable test results. Leaving the specimens out in room temperature can lead to bacterial overgrowth and contamination, while placing them in an anaerobic jar or storing them in an incubator at 37 degrees Celsius may not be necessary or suitable for Mycobacteria specimens.

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60. What is the most severe form of leprosy?

Explanation

Lepromatous leprosy is the most severe form of leprosy. It is characterized by widespread skin lesions, nerve damage, and a weak immune response to the bacteria that causes leprosy. This form of leprosy is highly contagious and can lead to disfigurement and disability if left untreated.

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61. O-Ag is a?

Explanation

O-Ag refers to the O antigen, which is a component of the lipopolysaccharide (LPS) molecule found on the outer membrane of Gram-negative bacteria. The O antigen is a cellular antigen, meaning it is present on the surface of the bacterial cell. It is not associated with the capsule or flagella of the bacteria. Therefore, the correct answer is "cellular antigen."

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62. What bacteria has spores that can be airborne and find their into foods in cans or jars?

Explanation

Clostridium bacteria have spores that can become airborne and contaminate food in cans or jars. These spores are highly resistant and can survive in harsh conditions, such as low oxygen and high temperatures. When the contaminated food is consumed, it can lead to foodborne illnesses, such as botulism. Therefore, Clostridium is the correct answer as it is known for its ability to contaminate canned or jarred foods through airborne spores.

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63. Which of the following is located in the GI tract of children and can cause watery diarrhea?

Explanation

C. difficile is located in the GI tract of children and can cause watery diarrhea. It is a bacterium that produces toxins that damage the lining of the intestines, leading to diarrhea. This infection is commonly associated with antibiotic use, as antibiotics can disrupt the balance of bacteria in the gut, allowing C. difficile to overgrow. The symptoms of C. difficile infection include watery diarrhea, abdominal pain, and fever. Treatment usually involves stopping the antibiotic causing the infection and prescribing specific antibiotics to target C. difficile.

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64. Which of the following is not a strain of E. coli?

Explanation

The given answer, 0139, is not a strain of E. coli. The other options listed, 0104:H21, 0157:H7, and 0121, are all known strains of E. coli.

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65. What is given to prevent upper respiratory tract infections by Haemophilus?

Explanation

Hib stands for Haemophilus influenzae type b, which is a bacterium that can cause severe upper respiratory tract infections, such as pneumonia and meningitis. The correct answer, Hib, refers to the Haemophilus influenzae type b vaccine, which is given to prevent these infections.

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66. Can cary blair    or      be used to preserve stool specimen for O & P

Explanation

Cary Blair is a transport medium used to preserve stool samples for bacterial culture, not for O&P (Ova and Parasite) examination. O&P examination requires specific preservatives like formalin or SAF (Sodium Acetate-Acetic Acid-Formalin) to fix and preserve the parasites and eggs for microscopic examination. Therefore, Cary Blair cannot be used to preserve stool specimens for O&P examination.

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67. What is the exotoxin that causes certain nervous system irregularities by means of retrograde transmission through neurons to the brain?

Explanation

Tetanospasmin is the correct answer because it is an exotoxin produced by the bacterium Clostridium tetani. This toxin is responsible for causing the symptoms of tetanus, a condition characterized by muscle stiffness and spasms. Tetanospasmin acts by retrograde transmission through neurons, traveling from the site of infection to the central nervous system where it affects the brain. This toxin blocks the release of inhibitory neurotransmitters, leading to uncontrolled muscle contractions and nervous system irregularities.

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68. What is useful in antibiotic production?

Explanation

B. polymyxa is useful in antibiotic production because it is a bacterium that produces a wide range of antimicrobial compounds. These compounds have the ability to inhibit the growth of harmful bacteria, making B. polymyxa a valuable resource in the production of antibiotics.

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69. What produces heat-stable enterotoxin?

Explanation

Klebsiella pneumoniae produces heat-stable enterotoxin. Heat-stable enterotoxin is a type of toxin that is not easily destroyed by heat. K. pneumoniae is a bacterium that can cause various infections in humans, including pneumonia, urinary tract infections, and bloodstream infections. In some cases, K. pneumoniae can produce enterotoxins, which can cause gastrointestinal symptoms such as diarrhea and vomiting. Therefore, K. pneumoniae is the correct answer for the question.

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70. What has a O-polysaccharide side chain of LPS?

Explanation

V. cholerae has an O-polysaccharide side chain of LPS. LPS, or lipopolysaccharide, is a molecule found on the outer membrane of gram-negative bacteria. It consists of three components: lipid A, core polysaccharide, and O-polysaccharide. The O-polysaccharide side chain is highly variable among different bacteria and plays a role in pathogenicity and immune response. In the case of V. cholerae, the O-polysaccharide side chain is specific to this bacterium and helps to distinguish it from other bacteria.

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71. What is also called weil's disease and is characterized by an acute febrile jaundice and nephritis?

Explanation

Leptospirosis is also called Weil's disease and is characterized by an acute febrile jaundice and nephritis.

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72. Which of the following are not antigens of Mycobacterium tuberculosis

Explanation

The correct answer is "none of the above." This means that all of the options listed (purified protein derivative, old tuberculin, and cord factor) are antigens of Mycobacterium tuberculosis. An antigen is a substance that can stimulate an immune response, and in the case of tuberculosis, these antigens are used in diagnostic tests or vaccines to detect or prevent the disease.

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73. Which of the is an exfoliative toxin?

Explanation

SSS-T is an exfoliative toxin produced by Staphylococcus aureus. Exfoliative toxins are enzymes that cause the separation of the epidermis from the underlying dermis, leading to a condition known as staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome (SSSS). This toxin specifically targets desmoglein 1, a protein that helps hold skin cells together. When SSS-T binds to desmoglein 1, it weakens the adhesion between skin cells, resulting in the characteristic blistering and skin peeling seen in SSSS. Therefore, SSS-T is the correct answer as it is an exfoliative toxin produced by S. aureus.

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74. Which of the following is penicillin resistant?

Explanation

S. aureus is the correct answer because it is known to be resistant to penicillin. Penicillin is an antibiotic that is commonly used to treat bacterial infections, but some bacteria, such as S. aureus, have developed resistance to it. This means that penicillin is not effective in killing or inhibiting the growth of S. aureus bacteria. Therefore, if someone is infected with S. aureus and penicillin is the chosen treatment, it may not be effective in eliminating the infection.

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75. Most mycobacteria associated with disease will grow in _______ weeks.

Explanation

Most mycobacteria associated with disease will grow in 2-6 weeks. This means that it takes 2 to 6 weeks for these specific types of mycobacteria to grow and become detectable in laboratory cultures. This growth period is important for diagnosing and treating mycobacterial infections, as it allows healthcare providers to identify the presence of the bacteria and determine the appropriate course of treatment.

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76. What produces vitamin K from undigested material in the large intestine?

Explanation

E. coli is a bacterium that produces vitamin K from undigested material in the large intestine. Vitamin K is an essential nutrient that plays a key role in blood clotting and bone health. E. coli is a normal resident of the human gut and is responsible for the synthesis of vitamin K, which is then absorbed by the body.

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77. Gastric Aspirates are used primarily by

Explanation

Gastric aspirates are used primarily by children

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78. Urine is usually used to diagnose Renal TB. First morning midstream specimen is preferred; minimum volume is ____ ml

Explanation

Urine is commonly used to diagnose Renal TB, and the first morning midstream specimen is the preferred sample. The minimum volume required for this specimen is 15 ml.

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79.  which of the following is an all in one fixative that is also safe

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

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80.  which of the following is a preservative for bacterial culture

Explanation

Answer option4 is a preservative for bacterial culture.

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81. Which of the following is capsulated?

Explanation

N. meningitidis is the correct answer because it is the only option that is capsulated. Capsulation refers to the presence of a protective polysaccharide capsule around the bacteria, which can help them evade the immune system and cause infections. N. gonorrhoeae does not have a capsule, while N. meningitidis is known to have a capsule. Therefore, only N. meningitidis is capsulated.

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82.  which of the following is poly vinyl alcohol

Explanation

Polyvinyl alcohol (PVA) is a synthetic polymer that is soluble in water. It is commonly used in various applications such as adhesives, coatings, and films. Answer option 3 is the correct answer because it indicates that the substance mentioned is polyvinyl alcohol.

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83. What is the ability to build all required components from basic carbon and nitrogen sources?

Explanation

The term "prototrophic" refers to the ability of an organism to synthesize all the necessary components it needs for growth and survival from basic carbon and nitrogen sources. This means that the organism does not rely on external sources or specific nutrients for its growth. It is self-sufficient in obtaining all the essential nutrients from its environment.

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84. Which of the following is an alpha-haemolytic bacteria?

Explanation

S. pneumoniae is an alpha-haemolytic bacteria because it produces partial destruction of red blood cells, resulting in a greenish discoloration around the colonies on blood agar plates. S. aureus, S. pyogenes, S. dysenteriae, and S. epidermis are not alpha-haemolytic bacteria.

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85. Which of the following does not cause urinary tract infections?

Explanation

S. dyssenteraie does not cause urinary tract infections.

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86. Which of the following is ornithine positive?

Explanation

Enterobacter is the correct answer because it is the only bacterium among the given options that is ornithine positive. Ornithine is an amino acid that can be metabolized by certain bacteria through the enzyme ornithine decarboxylase. This enzyme converts ornithine into putrescine, which can be further metabolized into other compounds. The ability to metabolize ornithine is a characteristic used in bacterial identification tests, and Enterobacter is known to be ornithine positive. Escherichia, Shigella, Klebsiella, and Salmonella are all ornithine negative.

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87. What causes clostridial myonecrosis that destroys muscular tissues?

Explanation

Clostridial myonecrosis, also known as gas gangrene, is caused by the bacterium Clostridium perfringens. This bacterium releases toxins that destroy muscular tissues by breaking down cell membranes and disrupting blood supply. The toxins also create a favorable anaerobic environment for the bacteria to multiply rapidly. This condition is characterized by severe pain, swelling, and discoloration of the affected area, along with the production of gas. Prompt medical intervention is necessary to prevent further tissue damage and systemic infection.

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88. What are pregnant women more likely to have than other healthy adults?

Explanation

Pregnant women are more likely to have listeriosis than other healthy adults. Listeriosis is a bacterial infection caused by the bacterium Listeria monocytogenes, which can be found in contaminated food such as unpasteurized dairy products, deli meats, and soft cheeses. Pregnant women are at a higher risk of contracting listeriosis due to changes in their immune system during pregnancy, making them more susceptible to infections. Listeriosis can be dangerous for both the mother and the baby, potentially leading to miscarriage, stillbirth, premature delivery, or severe illness in newborns. Therefore, pregnant women need to take extra precautions to avoid consuming foods that may be contaminated with Listeria.

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89. This is a complete UA and microbiology kit that can be purchased from BD. which of the three is for urinalysis

Explanation

Answer option2 is for urinalysis because the question states that this is a complete UA (urinalysis) and microbiology kit. Therefore, it can be inferred that answer option2 is the correct choice for urinalysis.

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90. Can formalin and PVA   be used to preserve stool specimen for C & S

Explanation

Formalin and PVA (Polyvinyl Alcohol) are not suitable for preserving stool specimens for Culture and Sensitivity (C&S) testing. Formalin is a fixative commonly used for histopathological examination, but it can interfere with the growth of microorganisms in culture. PVA is used for preserving parasites, but it is not effective for preserving bacteria for C&S testing. Therefore, neither formalin nor PVA can be used to preserve stool specimens for C&S.

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91. What are the intracellular and extracellular masses found in victims of lepromatous?

Explanation

In victims of lepromatous leprosy, globi are found. Globi are large collections of bacteria within the cells, specifically within the macrophages, and are a characteristic feature of lepromatous leprosy. These globi are responsible for the dissemination of the bacteria throughout the body and contribute to the severity of the disease.

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92. What contains R-plasmids that can be transferred to other entericbacteria?

Explanation

K. pneumoniae contains R-plasmids that can be transferred to other enteric bacteria. R-plasmids are plasmids that carry genes for antibiotic resistance. This means that K. pneumoniae can transfer these plasmids to other bacteria, allowing them to also become resistant to antibiotics.

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93. Which of the following means inflammation of the intestine?

Explanation

The correct answer is A and C. Salmonellosis and Yersinosis both refer to inflammation of the intestine. Salmonellosis is caused by the Salmonella bacteria, which can lead to symptoms such as diarrhea, abdominal pain, and fever. Yersinosis is caused by the Yersinia bacteria and can cause similar symptoms. Listeriosis, on the other hand, is a bacterial infection caused by the Listeria bacteria and does not specifically refer to inflammation of the intestine.

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94.  which of the following is 10% formalin

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

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95. What causes toxic shock syndrome?

Explanation

Toxic shock syndrome is caused by the bacteria Staphylococcus aureus (S. aureus) and the production of the tsst-1 toxin. S. aureus is a common bacteria found on the skin and in the nose, but certain strains can produce toxins that cause toxic shock syndrome. The tsst-1 toxin is one of these toxins produced by S. aureus and is known to be a major contributor to the development of toxic shock syndrome. Therefore, both S. aureus and tsst-1 toxin (option A and C) are responsible for causing toxic shock syndrome.

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96. Which of the following oxidizes carbohydrates to CO2 and water?

Explanation

M. luteus is the correct answer because it is known to oxidize carbohydrates to CO2 and water. This bacterium has the ability to break down carbohydrates through the process of oxidation, converting them into carbon dioxide and water as byproducts.

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97. Which of the following has peritrichous flagella?

Explanation

Peritrichous flagella refers to the arrangement of flagella around the entire cell surface. In this case, all of the given options (E. coli, S. typhi, and S. enteritidis) have peritrichous flagella, indicating that they have flagella distributed all over their surface. Therefore, the correct answer is "all of the above."

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98. Which of the following produces urease?

Explanation

H. pylori produces urease. Urease is an enzyme that breaks down urea into ammonia and carbon dioxide. This enzyme helps H. pylori to survive in the acidic environment of the stomach by neutralizing the surrounding acid. Urease production is a characteristic feature of H. pylori, and it plays a crucial role in the pathogenesis of gastric ulcers and gastritis.

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99. What contains a potent A-B type toxin with one alpha subunit and five beta subunits?

Explanation

S. dysenteriae contains a potent A-B type toxin with one alpha subunit and five beta subunits. This toxin is known as Shiga toxin and is responsible for causing severe diarrhea and dysentery in individuals infected with S. dysenteriae. The alpha subunit of the toxin is responsible for its toxic effects, while the beta subunits help in binding the toxin to host cells.

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100. Which of the following is associated with acne vulgaris?

Explanation

Acne vulgaris is a common skin condition characterized by the formation of pimples, blackheads, and whiteheads. The condition is associated with various factors, including the presence of the bacteria Propionibacterium acnes (P. acnes) on the skin. Additionally, the condition is also influenced by the activity of the sebaceous glands, which are found in the epidermis (S. epidermis). Furthermore, the stratum granulosum (P. granulosum) layer of the epidermis plays a role in the development of acne. Therefore, all of the options listed (P. granulosum, P. acnes, S. epidermis) are associated with acne vulgaris.

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Mycobacteria  be cultured from a variety of clinical specimens,...
UV light does what to bacteria?
What has the symptom of strawberry tongue?
Mycobacteria are what?
A biological safety cabinet is not essential for a mycobacteria lab.
Healthcare personnel who are carriers of resistant bacteria such as...
What bacteria causes typhoid fever?
Which of the following is a Serratia?
Streptococcus pneumoniae and Klebsiella pnuemoniae are two examples of...
The Mycobacteria lab should be separated from the rest of the...
Gastric aspirates are collected in the morning after an overnight...
Larger volumes of specimens does what to the recovery of mycobacteria?
What causes rice eating related food poisoning?
What forms swarming colonies?
Which of the following causes peptic ulcer disease?
What will infection patients with compromised immune systems?
What causes lyme disease?
A postivie coagulase test indicates the presences of what?
Which of the following is a Edwardsiella?
M.leprae will not grow on artificial media
How many specimens of sputum is typically needed to make a diagnosis?
No AF smear is performed with Urine specimens.
This is a complete UA and microbiology kit that can be purchased from...
Each blood culture bottle contains a sensor that responds to changes...
Which of the following is not a Shigella?
Which of the following is a Salmonella?
What means that a bacteria that induces the fermation of a pus-like...
Which of the following produces a redpigment?
What makes a patient more likely to contract gonorrhea?
Mycobacteria tend to do what compared to other pathogenic bacteria?
Most rapidly growing species of mycobacteria grow at temperatures...
Swabs can be used for sputum specimens.
H-Ag is a?
What is swelling of the lymph nodes?
Most rapidly growing species of mycobacteria will grow in less than...
No AF smear is preformed with Stool specimens.
What causes relapsing fever?
What is the waxy exterior coating unigue to myocbacteria?
What type of organism that grows on and derives nourishment from dead...
What causes the bubonic, pneumonic and septicemic plagues?
Cell wall has a high what?
Can cary blair    or      be used...
What is an infection caused by a deadly strain of group a...
What can ferment glucose into lactose?
Mycobacteria are motile and can produce spores
Mycobacteria resist decolorization with acid alcohol
Are mycobacteria strictly aerobic or anaerobic?
When using a winged infusion set (butterfly needles) to draw blood...
A volume of _____ ml sputum should be sent.
Delay in specimen processing can lead to what?
This is a complete UA and microbiology kit that can be purchased from...
 which of the following is a clean vial for stool specimen with...
Can formalin and PVA   be used to preserve stool specimen for O...
Areas where specimens and cultures are processed should have _____...
What does not cause diarrhea?
What is found in aquatic animals and reptiles?
Optochin tests are used to identify strains of what?
What is the most common type of anthrax?
If immediate transport is not possible for Mycobacteria specimens what...
What is the most severe form of leprosy?
O-Ag is a?
What bacteria has spores that can be airborne and find their into...
Which of the following is located in the GI tract of children and can...
Which of the following is not a strain of E. coli?
What is given to prevent upper respiratory tract infections by...
Can cary blair    or      be used...
What is the exotoxin that causes certain nervous system irregularities...
What is useful in antibiotic production?
What produces heat-stable enterotoxin?
What has a O-polysaccharide side chain of LPS?
What is also called weil's disease and is characterized by an acute...
Which of the following are not antigens of Mycobacterium tuberculosis
Which of the is an exfoliative toxin?
Which of the following is penicillin resistant?
Most mycobacteria associated with disease will grow in _______ weeks.
What produces vitamin K from undigested material in the large...
Gastric Aspirates are used primarily by
Urine is usually used to diagnose Renal TB. First morning...
 which of the following is an all in one fixative that is also...
 which of the following is a preservative for bacterial culture
Which of the following is capsulated?
 which of the following is poly vinyl alcohol
What is the ability to build all required components from basic carbon...
Which of the following is an alpha-haemolytic bacteria?
Which of the following does not cause urinary tract infections?
Which of the following is ornithine positive?
What causes clostridial myonecrosis that destroys muscular tissues?
What are pregnant women more likely to have than other healthy adults?
This is a complete UA and microbiology kit that can be purchased from...
Can formalin and PVA   be used to preserve stool specimen for C...
What are the intracellular and extracellular masses found in victims...
What contains R-plasmids that can be transferred to other...
Which of the following means inflammation of the intestine?
 which of the following is 10% formalin
What causes toxic shock syndrome?
Which of the following oxidizes carbohydrates to CO2 and water?
Which of the following has peritrichous flagella?
Which of the following produces urease?
What contains a potent A-B type toxin with one alpha subunit and five...
Which of the following is associated with acne vulgaris?
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