Final Exam Anatomy 2016

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Anatomy Quizzes & Trivia

Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    Gluconeogenesis occurs in the liver due to the action of_________.

    • A.

      Secretin

    • B.

      Cortisol

    • C.

      Insulin

    • D.

      Aldosterone

    Correct Answer
    B. Cortisol
    Explanation
    Cortisol is the correct answer because it is a hormone that stimulates gluconeogenesis in the liver. Gluconeogenesis is the process of synthesizing glucose from non-carbohydrate sources, such as amino acids and glycerol. Cortisol increases the availability of these precursors and promotes the breakdown of proteins and fats, providing the necessary substrates for gluconeogenesis. This process is important in maintaining blood glucose levels during periods of fasting or stress.

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  • 2. 

     Hormones often cause a cell to elicit multiple responses; this is because_____.

    • A.

      The protein kinases are rapidly metabolized into functional amino acids

    • B.

      There are thousands of receptors on the cell membrane

    • C.

      The receptors bind to several hormones at the same time

    • D.

      During protein kinase activation, enzymes phosphorylate many other enzymes

    Correct Answer
    D. During protein kinase activation, enzymes phosphorylate many other enzymes
    Explanation
    Hormones often cause a cell to elicit multiple responses because during protein kinase activation, enzymes phosphorylate many other enzymes. This phosphorylation process leads to a cascade of reactions within the cell, activating various signaling pathways and triggering multiple responses. The activation of protein kinases and the subsequent phosphorylation of enzymes allow for the amplification and coordination of cellular responses to hormonal signals.

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  • 3. 

    Normal development of the immune response is due in part to hormones produced by the___.

    • A.

      Thyroid gland

    • B.

      Adrenal medulla

    • C.

      Pancreas

    • D.

      Thymus gland

    Correct Answer
    D. Thymus gland
    Explanation
    The thymus gland is responsible for the normal development of the immune response. It produces hormones that play a crucial role in the maturation of T-cells, which are a type of white blood cell involved in immune responses. These hormones help in the selection and development of T-cells that can recognize and respond to foreign antigens, thus contributing to the overall effectiveness of the immune system.

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  • 4. 

    Several hormones are synthesizes in the hypothalamus and transported to the anterior pituitary gland. The mechanism of transportation from hypothalamus to anterior pituitary gland is through the______.

    • A.

      Hypophyseal portal system

    • B.

      Hepatic portal system

    • C.

      General circulatory system

    • D.

      Feedback loop

    Correct Answer
    A. Hypophyseal portal system
    Explanation
    The correct answer is the hypophyseal portal system. This system allows hormones synthesized in the hypothalamus to be transported directly to the anterior pituitary gland. The hypophyseal portal system consists of a network of blood vessels that connect the hypothalamus and the anterior pituitary gland, enabling the hormones to reach their target organ more efficiently. This specialized transportation mechanism ensures that the hormones produced by the hypothalamus can directly influence the secretion of hormones by the anterior pituitary gland.

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  • 5. 

    The major targets of growth hormone are_____.

    • A.

      The blood vessels

    • B.

      Bones and skeletal muscles

    • C.

      The adrenal glands

    • D.

      The liver

    Correct Answer
    B. Bones and skeletal muscles
    Explanation
    Growth hormone primarily targets bones and skeletal muscles. It stimulates the growth and development of these tissues by promoting the production of proteins and increasing the uptake of amino acids. This hormone plays a crucial role in bone growth during childhood and adolescence, as well as in maintaining muscle mass and strength throughout life. It also has indirect effects on other tissues, such as the liver, by stimulating the production of insulin-like growth factor 1 (IGF-1), which further contributes to the growth and development of various organs and tissues.

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  • 6. 

    Iodine is an essential element required for the synthesis of thyroxine.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Iodine is indeed an essential element required for the synthesis of thyroxine. Thyroxine is a hormone produced by the thyroid gland, and it plays a crucial role in regulating metabolism and growth. Iodine is necessary for the production of thyroxine, as it is incorporated into the structure of the hormone. Without sufficient iodine, the thyroid gland cannot produce enough thyroxine, leading to a condition called hypothyroidism. Therefore, the statement is true.

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  • 7. 

    Oxytocin is a strong stimulant of uterine contractions. 

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Oxytocin is a hormone that is released during childbirth and breastfeeding. It acts as a stimulant for uterine contractions, helping to induce and strengthen labor. This is why it is commonly used in medical settings to induce or augment labor. Therefore, the statement "Oxytocin is a strong stimulant of uterine contractions" is true.

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  • 8. 

    When it becomes necessary to enlist the fight-or-fight response, a hormone that is released during the alarm phase of the general adaptation syndrome is______.

    • A.

      Renin

    • B.

      Estrogen

    • C.

      Angiotensinogen

    • D.

      Epinephrine

    Correct Answer
    D. Epinephrine
    Explanation
    Epinephrine is the correct answer because it is a hormone that is released during the alarm phase of the general adaptation syndrome, which is the body's response to stress. Epinephrine, also known as adrenaline, is released from the adrenal glands and plays a crucial role in initiating the fight-or-flight response. It increases heart rate, blood pressure, and glucose levels, preparing the body to either confront the stressor or escape from it.

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  • 9. 

    Which of the following is not a cardinal sign of diabetes mellitus?

    • A.

      Polyphagia

    • B.

      Polycythemia

    • C.

      Polydipsia

    • D.

      Polyuria

    Correct Answer
    B. Polycythemia
    Explanation
    Polycythemia is not a cardinal sign of diabetes mellitus. Polycythemia refers to an increased number of red blood cells in the body, which is not directly associated with diabetes. The cardinal signs of diabetes mellitus are polyphagia (increased hunger), polydipsia (increased thirst), and polyuria (increased urination). These symptoms are caused by the body's inability to regulate blood sugar levels properly.

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  • 10. 

    Which organ is responsible for synthesizing ANP?

    • A.

      The kidney

    • B.

      The heart

    • C.

      The spleen

    • D.

      The skin

    Correct Answer
    B. The heart
    Explanation
    The heart is responsible for synthesizing ANP (atrial natriuretic peptide). ANP is a hormone that helps regulate blood pressure and fluid balance in the body. It is primarily produced and released by the cells of the atria (upper chambers) of the heart. When there is an increase in blood volume or pressure, the release of ANP helps to promote vasodilation (widening of blood vessels) and increase sodium and water excretion by the kidneys, thereby reducing blood volume and pressure.

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  • 11. 

    A lack of intrinsic factor, leading to a deficiency of vitamin B12 and causing an appearance of large pale cells called macrocytes, is characteristic of_______.

    • A.

      Polycythemia

    • B.

      Pernicious anemia

    • C.

      Sickle-cell anemia

    • D.

      Aplastic anemia

    Correct Answer
    B. Pernicious anemia
    Explanation
    A lack of intrinsic factor is a condition known as pernicious anemia. Intrinsic factor is necessary for the absorption of vitamin B12, and a deficiency of this vitamin leads to the production of large pale cells called macrocytes. Therefore, pernicious anemia is characterized by the appearance of macrocytes due to a deficiency of vitamin B12 caused by a lack of intrinsic factor.

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  • 12. 

    An individual who is blood type AB negative can ______.

    • A.

      Donate to types A,B, and AB, but not to type O

    • B.

      Donate to all blood types in moderate amounts

    • C.

      Receive types A,B, and AB, but not type O

    • D.

      Receive any blood type in moderate amounts except that with the Rh antigen

    Correct Answer
    D. Receive any blood type in moderate amounts except that with the Rh antigen
    Explanation
    An individual who is blood type AB negative can receive any blood type in moderate amounts except that with the Rh antigen. This is because individuals with AB negative blood type have both A and B antigens on their red blood cells, making them compatible with types A, B, and AB. However, they lack the Rh antigen, so they cannot receive blood types that have the Rh antigen present.

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  • 13. 

    Fred's blood was determined to be AB positive. What does this mean?

    • A.

      There are no antibodies to A, to B, or to Rh antigens in the plasma

    • B.

      Antibodies to A and B are present in the red cells.

    • C.

      He can only receive blood from a donor who is AB positive.

    • D.

      His blood lacks Rh factor

    Correct Answer
    A. There are no antibodies to A, to B, or to Rh antigens in the plasma
    Explanation
    This means that Fred's blood does not contain any antibodies against the A, B, or Rh antigens. This is significant because if there were antibodies present, it would indicate that Fred's immune system would react against blood transfusions containing those antigens. Therefore, Fred can receive blood from donors with any blood type, as he does not have antibodies that would cause a transfusion reaction.

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  • 14. 

    Platelets_______.

    • A.

      Have a life span of about 120 days

    • B.

      Have multiple nuclei

    • C.

      Stick to the damaged area of a blood vessel and help seal the break

    • D.

      Are the precursors of leukocytes

    Correct Answer
    C. Stick to the damaged area of a blood vessel and help seal the break
    Explanation
    Platelets are small, disc-shaped cells found in the blood that play a crucial role in blood clotting. When a blood vessel is damaged, platelets adhere to the site of injury and form a plug, helping to seal the break and prevent excessive bleeding. This process is known as platelet aggregation. Platelets release various substances that promote clotting, such as clotting factors and chemicals that attract more platelets to the site. This mechanism ensures that the damaged blood vessel is repaired and prevents further blood loss.

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  • 15. 

    What is the average normal pH range of blood?

    • A.

      8.35-8.45

    • B.

      4.65-4.75

    • C.

      7.75-7.85

    • D.

      7.35-7.45

    Correct Answer
    D. 7.35-7.45
    Explanation
    The average normal pH range of blood is 7.35-7.45. This range is slightly acidic, as a pH value below 7 is considered acidic. The pH of blood is tightly regulated by the body's homeostatic mechanisms to maintain proper functioning of various physiological processes. Any deviation from this range can lead to health issues, such as acidosis or alkalosis.

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  • 16. 

    Which blood type is generally called the universal donor?

    • A.

      AB

    • B.

      A

    • C.

      B

    • D.

      O

    Correct Answer
    D. O
    Explanation
    Blood type O is generally called the universal donor because it does not have any antigens on its red blood cells. This means that it can be safely transfused to individuals with any blood type without causing an immune reaction. On the other hand, individuals with blood type O can only receive blood from other type O donors.

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  • 17. 

    Which of the following is not a cause of bleeding disorders?

    • A.

      Vitamin K deficiency

    • B.

      A defect in the clotting cascade

    • C.

      Thrombocytopenia, a condition of decreased circulating platelets

    • D.

      Excess secretion of platelet-derived growth factor (PDGF)

    Correct Answer
    D. Excess secretion of platelet-derived growth factor (PDGF)
    Explanation
    Excess secretion of platelet-derived growth factor (PDGF) is not a cause of bleeding disorders. Bleeding disorders are typically caused by factors that impair the clotting process, such as vitamin K deficiency, defects in the clotting cascade, and thrombocytopenia (a decrease in circulating platelets). PDGF is a growth factor involved in cell growth and proliferation, and its excess secretion does not directly impact the clotting process or cause bleeding disorders.

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  • 18. 

    Which of the following is not a function characteristic of WBC's?

    • A.

      Granulosis

    • B.

      Diapedesis

    • C.

      Ameboid motion

    • D.

      Positive chemotaxis

    Correct Answer
    A. Granulosis
    Explanation
    Granulosis is not a function characteristic of WBC's. WBC's are known for their ability to perform diapedesis, which is the process of squeezing through blood vessel walls to reach the site of infection or injury. They also exhibit ameboid motion, which allows them to move and engulf pathogens. Positive chemotaxis is another function characteristic of WBC's, where they are attracted to and move towards chemical signals released by damaged tissues. However, granulosis is not a recognized function of WBC's.

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  • 19. 

    Which of the following would bot be a possible cause of sickling of red blood cells in someone with sickle-cell anemia?

    • A.

      Travel at high altitude

    • B.

      Sleeping in a well-ventilated room

    • C.

      Malaria and travel at high altitude

    • D.

      Vigorous exercise

    Correct Answer
    B. Sleeping in a well-ventilated room
    Explanation
    Sleeping in a well-ventilated room would not be a possible cause of sickling of red blood cells in someone with sickle-cell anemia. Sickle-cell anemia is a genetic disorder that causes red blood cells to become sickle-shaped and less flexible. This shape change can lead to blockages in blood vessels and cause various complications. Factors such as low oxygen levels, dehydration, and certain infections can trigger the sickling process. However, the ventilation of the room where someone sleeps would not directly affect the sickling of red blood cells in sickle-cell anemia.

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  • 20. 

    Hemorrhagic anemia result from blood loss.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Hemorrhagic anemia occurs when there is excessive blood loss from the body. This can happen due to various reasons such as trauma, injury, or bleeding disorders. The loss of blood leads to a decrease in the total volume of blood in the body, which in turn reduces the number of red blood cells available to carry oxygen. As a result, the individual experiences symptoms of anemia, such as fatigue, weakness, and shortness of breath. Therefore, the statement "Hemorrhagic anemia results from blood loss" is true.

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  • 21. 

    Hemorrhage with a large loss of blood causes_____.

    • A.

      No change in blood pressure but a slower heart rate

    • B.

      No change in blood pressure but a change in respiration

    • C.

      A lowering of blood pressure due to change in cardiac output

    • D.

      A rise in blood pressure due to change in cardia output

    Correct Answer
    C. A lowering of blood pressure due to change in cardiac output
    Explanation
    Hemorrhage with a large loss of blood causes a lowering of blood pressure due to change in cardiac output. When there is a significant loss of blood, the body's overall blood volume decreases. As a result, the heart pumps less blood with each beat, leading to a decrease in cardiac output. This decrease in cardiac output leads to a decrease in blood pressure.

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  • 22. 

    As pressure in the aorta rises due to atherosclerosis, more ventricular pressure is required to open the aortic valve.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    As atherosclerosis causes the narrowing and hardening of the arteries, it leads to increased resistance to blood flow in the aorta. To overcome this increased resistance, the ventricles of the heart have to generate more pressure to open the aortic valve and allow blood to be pumped into the aorta. Therefore, as the pressure in the aorta rises due to atherosclerosis, more ventricular pressure is indeed required to open the aortic valve.

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  • 23. 

    Blood within the pulmonary veins returns to the_____.

    • A.

      Left atrium

    • B.

      Right atrium

    • C.

      Left ventricle

    • D.

      Right ventricle

    Correct Answer
    A. Left atrium
    Explanation
    Blood within the pulmonary veins returns to the left atrium. The pulmonary veins carry oxygenated blood from the lungs back to the heart. Once the blood reaches the left atrium, it is then pumped into the left ventricle and eventually sent to the rest of the body through the aorta. The left atrium acts as a receiving chamber for oxygenated blood, allowing it to flow into the left ventricle for distribution to the body's tissues and organs.

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  • 24. 

    Select the correct statement about the heart valves.

    • A.

      The mitral valve separates the right atrium from the right ventricle

    • B.

      The tricuspid valve divided the left atrium from the left ventricle

    • C.

      The AV valves are supported by chordae tendineae so that regurgitation of blood into the atria during ventricular contraction does not occ.

    • D.

      Aortic and pulmonary valves control the flow of blood into the heart.

    Correct Answer
    C. The AV valves are supported by chordae tendineae so that regurgitation of blood into the atria during ventricular contraction does not occ.
    Explanation
    The statement that the AV valves are supported by chordae tendineae so that regurgitation of blood into the atria during ventricular contraction does not occur is correct. The chordae tendineae are fibrous cords that attach the AV valves to the papillary muscles in the ventricles. They prevent the valves from prolapsing or flipping into the atria when the ventricles contract, ensuring that blood flows in the correct direction and does not leak back into the atria.

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  • 25. 

    The left ventricular wall of the heart is thicker than the right wall in order to ______.

    • A.

      Pump blood through a smaller valve

    • B.

      Accommodate a greater volume of blood

    • C.

      Expand the thoracic cage during diastole

    • D.

      Pump blood with greater pressure

    Correct Answer
    D. Pump blood with greater pressure
    Explanation
    The left ventricular wall of the heart is thicker than the right wall in order to pump blood with greater pressure. The left ventricle is responsible for pumping oxygenated blood to the rest of the body, while the right ventricle pumps deoxygenated blood to the lungs. Since the left ventricle has to pump blood to the entire body, it needs to generate a higher pressure to overcome the resistance of the systemic circulation. The thicker wall allows the left ventricle to contract more forcefully, resulting in the pumping of blood with greater pressure.

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  • 26. 

    Tissues damaged by myocardial infarction are replaced by connective tissue.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Myocardial infarction, commonly known as a heart attack, occurs when there is a blockage in the blood flow to the heart, leading to tissue damage. During the healing process, the damaged cardiac muscle tissue is replaced by connective tissue, which forms scar tissue. This scar tissue helps to maintain the structural integrity of the heart, but it does not have the same functional properties as the original cardiac muscle tissue. Therefore, the statement that tissues damaged by myocardial infarction are replaced by connective tissue is true.

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  • 27. 

    The source of blood carried to capillaries in the myocardium would be the _____.

    • A.

      Coronary arteries

    • B.

      Fossa ovalis

    • C.

      Coronary veins

    • D.

      Coronary sinus

    Correct Answer
    A. Coronary arteries
    Explanation
    The source of blood carried to capillaries in the myocardium is the coronary arteries. The coronary arteries are responsible for supplying oxygenated blood to the heart muscle. They branch off from the aorta and deliver oxygen and nutrients to the myocardium through a network of smaller blood vessels called capillaries. This ensures that the heart has a constant supply of oxygen and nutrients to function properly.

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  • 28. 

    Auricles slightly increase blood volume in the ventricles.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    Auricles do not increase blood volume in the ventricles. The auricles are small, flap-like structures that are located on the top of the atria in the heart. Their main function is to assist in filling the ventricles by collecting blood that is returning to the heart. However, they do not actually increase the volume of blood in the ventricles. The ventricles themselves are responsible for pumping blood out of the heart and into the arteries.

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  • 29. 

    A man has been told that he is not synthesizing enough follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH), and for this reason he may be unable to father a child. Choose the correct statement to explain this problem.

    • A.

      A hormone made in the adenohypophysis cannot influence fertility.

    • B.

      FSH stimulates estrogen secretion by ovarian cells; therefore it is not synthesizes by males.

    • C.

      The man must be producing progesterone, which inhibits the syntheses of FSH

    • D.

      FSH stimulates sperm production in the testes.

    Correct Answer
    D. FSH stimulates sperm production in the testes.
    Explanation
    FSH stimulates sperm production in the testes. This statement explains the problem because if the man is not synthesizing enough FSH, it means that his testes are not receiving enough stimulation to produce sperm. FSH is a hormone that plays a crucial role in the development of sperm cells, so a deficiency in FSH can lead to infertility in men.

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  • 30. 

    Which one do you like?

    • A.

      Option 1

    • B.

      Option 2

    • C.

      Option 3

    • D.

      Option 4

    Correct Answer
    A. Option 1
  • 31. 

    Type 2 diabetics may reflect declining receptor sensitivity to insulin rather than decreased insulin production. 

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    This statement is true because in type 2 diabetes, the body's cells become resistant to the effects of insulin, leading to a decrease in receptor sensitivity. This means that even though the pancreas may still produce insulin, the body is unable to use it effectively. This is different from type 1 diabetes, where there is a lack of insulin production altogether.

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  • 32. 

    Using the Figure 16.2, math the following hypothalamic hormones with the pituitary hormone targets: Thyroid stimulating hormones

    • A.

      A

    • B.

      B

    • C.

      C

    • D.

      D

    • E.

      E

    Correct Answer
    D. D
  • 33. 

    The antagonistic hormones that regulate the blood calcium level are calcitonin-parathormone.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Calcitonin and parathormone are indeed antagonistic hormones that regulate the blood calcium level. Calcitonin is released by the thyroid gland and helps to decrease blood calcium levels by inhibiting bone breakdown and increasing the excretion of calcium by the kidneys. On the other hand, parathormone is released by the parathyroid glands and acts to increase blood calcium levels by promoting bone breakdown and increasing calcium reabsorption by the kidneys. Therefore, the statement is true.

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  • 34. 

    Regulating hormones from the hypothalamus_______.

    • A.

      First enter into the hypophyseal portal system

    • B.

      Enter the hepatic portal system, which feeds the pituitary

    • C.

      Enter venous circulation and travel to the hear, which pumps the hormone-containing blood to the pituitary

    • D.

      Travel by arteries to the pituitary

    Correct Answer
    A. First enter into the hypophyseal portal system
  • 35. 

    Gluconeogenesis occurs in the liver due to the action of ______.

    • A.

      Secretin

    • B.

      Aldosterone

    • C.

      Cortisol

    • D.

      Insulin

    Correct Answer
    C. Cortisol
    Explanation
    Cortisol is the correct answer because it is a hormone secreted by the adrenal glands that stimulates gluconeogenesis in the liver. Gluconeogenesis is the process of synthesizing glucose from non-carbohydrate sources, such as amino acids and fatty acids. Cortisol promotes this process by increasing the breakdown of proteins and fats, providing substrates for glucose production. Therefore, cortisol plays a crucial role in maintaining blood glucose levels during periods of fasting or stress.

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  • 36. 

    Which of the following is nor a cardinal sign of diabetes mellitus?

    • A.

      Polyuria

    • B.

      Polycythemia

    • C.

      Polyphagia

    • D.

      Poludipsia

    Correct Answer
    B. Polycythemia
    Explanation
    Polycythemia is not a cardinal sign of diabetes mellitus. Polycythemia refers to an increase in the number of red blood cells in the bloodstream, which is not directly related to diabetes. The cardinal signs of diabetes mellitus include polyuria (excessive urination), polyphagia (excessive hunger), and polydipsia (excessive thirst). These symptoms are commonly observed in individuals with diabetes due to the body's inability to regulate blood sugar levels effectively.

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  • 37. 

    The major targets of growth hormone are _______.

    • A.

      Bones and skeletal muscles

    • B.

      The liver

    • C.

      The adrenal glands

    • D.

      The blood vessels

    Correct Answer
    A. Bones and skeletal muscles
    Explanation
    Growth hormone primarily targets bones and skeletal muscles. This hormone stimulates the growth of these tissues by promoting cell division and protein synthesis. It stimulates the production of insulin-like growth factor 1 (IGF-1) in the liver, which further promotes bone and muscle growth. Growth hormone also has indirect effects on other tissues, such as the liver, adrenal glands, and blood vessels, but its main targets are bones and skeletal muscles.

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  • 38. 

    When it becomes necessary to enlist the fight-or-flight response, a hormone that is released during the alarm phase of the general adaptation syndrome is _____.

    • A.

      Renin

    • B.

      Angiotensinogen

    • C.

      Estrogen

    • D.

      Epinephrine

    Correct Answer
    D. Epinephrine
    Explanation
    Epinephrine is the correct answer because it is a hormone that is released during the alarm phase of the general adaptation syndrome. This hormone is responsible for activating the fight-or-flight response in the body, which prepares an individual to either confront a threat or flee from it. Epinephrine increases heart rate, blood pressure, and blood flow to the muscles, providing the body with the necessary energy and alertness to respond to a stressful situation.

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  • 39. 

    The single most important regulator of calcium levels in the blood is ______.

    • A.

      Thyroid hormone

    • B.

      Gonadotropic hormones

    • C.

      Parathyroid hormone

    • D.

      Calcitonin

    Correct Answer
    C. Parathyroid hormone
    Explanation
    Parathyroid hormone is the single most important regulator of calcium levels in the blood. It is produced by the parathyroid glands, which are located in the neck. Parathyroid hormone helps to increase calcium levels in the blood by stimulating the release of calcium from the bones, increasing the absorption of calcium from the intestines, and reducing the excretion of calcium by the kidneys. This hormone plays a crucial role in maintaining the balance of calcium in the body, which is essential for various physiological processes such as bone health, muscle function, and nerve transmission.

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  • 40. 

    The primary source of RBC'S in the adult human being is the bone marrow in the shafts of the long bones.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    The statement is false because while the bone marrow does produce red blood cells (RBCs), it is not the primary source in adult human beings. In adults, the primary source of RBCs is the red bone marrow found in flat bones such as the pelvis, sternum, and skull. The bone marrow in the shafts of long bones primarily produces white blood cells and platelets, not RBCs.

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  • 41. 

    No visible cytoplasmic granules are present in _______.

    • A.

      Eosinophils

    • B.

      Neutrophils

    • C.

      Basophils

    • D.

      Monocytes

    Correct Answer
    D. Monocytes
    Explanation
    Monocytes are a type of white blood cell that lack visible cytoplasmic granules. Eosinophils, neutrophils, and basophils, on the other hand, all have visible cytoplasmic granules. These granules contain various substances that play important roles in immune responses, such as enzymes, histamines, and cytokines. Monocytes are characterized by their large size and kidney-shaped nucleus, and they are known for their ability to differentiate into macrophages, which are involved in phagocytosis and antigen presentation.

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  • 42. 

    The special type of hemoglobin present in fetal red blood cells is ______.

    • A.

      Hemoglobin A

    • B.

      Hemoglobin F

    • C.

      Hemoglobin S

    • D.

      Hemoglobin B

    Correct Answer
    B. Hemoglobin F
    Explanation
    Hemoglobin F is the correct answer because it is the special type of hemoglobin present in fetal red blood cells. Hemoglobin F is different from the adult form of hemoglobin, Hemoglobin A, and is necessary for the fetus to efficiently obtain oxygen from the mother's blood through the placenta. Hemoglobin F has a higher affinity for oxygen than Hemoglobin A, allowing it to extract oxygen from the maternal blood supply more effectively.

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  • 43. 

    Which of the following is not a distribution function of blood?

    • A.

      Transport of hormones to their target organs

    • B.

      Transport of salts to maintain blood volume

    • C.

      Transport of metabolic wastes from cells

    • D.

      Delivery of oxygen to body cells

    Correct Answer
    B. Transport of salts to maintain blood volume
    Explanation
    The transport of salts to maintain blood volume is not a distribution function of blood. Blood distribution functions include the transport of hormones to their target organs, the transport of metabolic wastes from cells, and the delivery of oxygen to body cells. However, the maintenance of blood volume is primarily regulated by the kidneys through processes like reabsorption and excretion, rather than by the distribution of salts through the bloodstream.

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  • 44. 

    Which of the following might trigger erythropoiesis?

    • A.

      Moving to a lower altitude

    • B.

      Decreased tissue demand for oxygen

    • C.

      An increased number of RBC's

    • D.

      Hypoxia of EPO-producing cells

    Correct Answer
    D. Hypoxia of EPO-producing cells
    Explanation
    Hypoxia refers to a condition where there is a deficiency of oxygen in the body. Erythropoiesis is the process of producing red blood cells. When the EPO-producing cells in the body are exposed to hypoxia, it triggers the release of erythropoietin (EPO), a hormone that stimulates the production of red blood cells. Therefore, hypoxia of EPO-producing cells can lead to an increase in erythropoiesis.

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  • 45. 

    The immediate response to blood vessel injury is clotting.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    The immediate response to blood vessel injury is not clotting. Instead, the immediate response is vasoconstriction, which is the narrowing of blood vessels to reduce blood flow to the injured area. This is followed by the formation of a platelet plug, which helps to stop bleeding. Clotting, or coagulation, is a later stage in the healing process and involves the formation of a fibrin clot to further seal the wound.

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  • 46. 

    When can erythroblastosis fetalis not possibly happen in the cold of an Rh negative mother?

    • A.

      If the child is Rh+

    • B.

      If the father is Rh -

    • C.

      If the father is Rh+

    • D.

      If the child is type O positive

    Correct Answer
    B. If the father is Rh -
    Explanation
    Erythroblastosis fetalis occurs when a Rh-negative mother is sensitized to Rh-positive blood during pregnancy, leading to the destruction of the fetus's red blood cells. This can happen if the father of the child is Rh-positive, as the fetus may inherit the Rh antigen from the father. However, if the father is Rh-negative, there is no possibility of the fetus inheriting the Rh antigen, and therefore erythroblastosis fetalis cannot occur in this case.

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  • 47. 

    Arterial blood supply to heart muscle is continuous whether the heart is in systole or diastole.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    The statement is false because during systole (contraction phase of the heart), the coronary arteries are compressed, restricting blood flow to the heart muscle. However, during diastole (relaxation phase of the heart), the coronary arteries are not compressed, allowing for continuous blood supply to the heart muscle. Therefore, arterial blood supply to the heart muscle is not continuous throughout the cardiac cycle.

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  • 48. 

    If the vagal nerves to the heart were cut, the result would be that _____.

    • A.

      The AV node would become the pacemaker of the heart

    • B.

      The heart would stop, since the vagal nerves trigger the heart to contract

    • C.

      The heart rate would increase by about 25 beats per minute

    • D.

      Parasympathetic stimulation would increase, causing a decrease in heart rate

    Correct Answer
    C. The heart rate would increase by about 25 beats per minute
    Explanation
    If the vagal nerves to the heart were cut, the result would be that the parasympathetic stimulation would decrease, leading to a decrease in the inhibitory influence on the heart rate. As a result, the heart rate would increase by about 25 beats per minute.

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  • 49. 

    Norepinephrine acts on the heart by______.

    • A.

      Causing a decrease in stroke volume

    • B.

      Causing threshold to be reached more quickly

    • C.

      Blocking the action of calcium

    • D.

      Decreasing heart contractility

    Correct Answer
    B. Causing threshold to be reached more quickly
    Explanation
    Norepinephrine acts on the heart by causing the threshold to be reached more quickly. This means that it enhances the excitability of the heart cells, making them more likely to generate an action potential and initiate a contraction. This ultimately leads to an increase in heart rate and cardiac output.

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  • 50. 

    During the period of ventricular filling______.

    • A.

      Blood flows mostly passively through the atria and the open AV valve into the ventricles

    • B.

      The atria remain in diastole

    • C.

      Pressure in the heart is at its peak

    • D.

      It it represented by the P wave on the ECG

    Correct Answer
    A. Blood flows mostly passively through the atria and the open AV valve into the ventricles
    Explanation
    During the period of ventricular filling, blood flows mostly passively through the atria and the open AV valve into the ventricles. This is because the atria are relaxed (in diastole) and the pressure in the heart is not at its peak. The P wave on the ECG represents atrial depolarization, which occurs before ventricular filling.

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Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 19, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • May 02, 2016
    Quiz Created by
    Victoria09
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