Final Exam Anatomy 2016

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1. Chyle is believed to the blood via the lymphatic system

Explanation

Chyle is a milky fluid that is formed in the small intestine during the digestion of fats. It is then transported through the lymphatic system, specifically through the lacteals, which are specialized lymphatic vessels in the small intestine. The lymphatic system eventually drains into the bloodstream, allowing the chyle to enter the blood circulation. Therefore, it is correct to say that chyle is believed to enter the blood via the lymphatic system.

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About This Quiz
Endocrine System Quizzes & Trivia

FINAL EXAM ANATOMY 2016 assesses knowledge of hormonal functions including gluconeogenesis, protein kinase activation, immune development, and hormone transportation. It evaluates understanding of endocrine system impacts on bones,... see moremuscles, and thyroid function, crucial for students in medical and health-related fields. see less

2. Which organ is responsible for synthesizing ANP?

Explanation

The heart is responsible for synthesizing ANP (atrial natriuretic peptide). ANP is a hormone that helps regulate blood pressure and fluid balance in the body. It is primarily produced and released by the cells of the atria (upper chambers) of the heart. When there is an increase in blood volume or pressure, the release of ANP helps to promote vasodilation (widening of blood vessels) and increase sodium and water excretion by the kidneys, thereby reducing blood volume and pressure.

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3. Tissues damaged by myocardial infarction are replaced by connective tissue.

Explanation

Myocardial infarction, commonly known as a heart attack, occurs when there is a blockage in the blood flow to the heart, leading to tissue damage. During the healing process, the damaged cardiac muscle tissue is replaced by connective tissue, which forms scar tissue. This scar tissue helps to maintain the structural integrity of the heart, but it does not have the same functional properties as the original cardiac muscle tissue. Therefore, the statement that tissues damaged by myocardial infarction are replaced by connective tissue is true.

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4. Which of the following cells is the most critical cell in immunity?

Explanation

The helper T cell is the most critical cell in immunity because it plays a central role in coordinating and regulating the immune response. It helps activate and stimulate other immune cells, such as cytotoxic T cells and B cells, by releasing chemical signals called cytokines. These cytokines help to enhance the immune response against pathogens and promote the production of antibodies by B cells. Without helper T cells, the immune system would not be able to mount an effective and coordinated response against infections.

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5. The circular folds of the small intestine enhance absorption by causing the chyme to spiral, rather than to move in a straight line, as it passes through the small intestine.  

Explanation

The circular folds of the small intestine enhance absorption by causing the chyme to spiral, rather than move in a straight line, as it passes through the small intestine. This is true because the circular folds, also known as plicae circulares or valvulae conniventes, increase the surface area of the small intestine, allowing for more efficient absorption of nutrients. The spiral movement of the chyme helps to mix it with digestive enzymes and bring it into contact with the absorptive surface of the small intestine, maximizing nutrient absorption.

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6. The special type of hemoglobin present in fetal red blood cells is ______.

Explanation

Hemoglobin F is the correct answer because it is the special type of hemoglobin present in fetal red blood cells. Hemoglobin F is different from the adult form of hemoglobin, Hemoglobin A, and is necessary for the fetus to efficiently obtain oxygen from the mother's blood through the placenta. Hemoglobin F has a higher affinity for oxygen than Hemoglobin A, allowing it to extract oxygen from the maternal blood supply more effectively.

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7. Which of the following is likely during vigorous exercise?

Explanation

During vigorous exercise, the body requires more oxygen and nutrients to meet the increased demand of the muscles. To ensure an adequate supply, the capillaries, which are tiny blood vessels, in the active muscles dilate and become engorged with blood. This increased blood flow helps deliver more oxygen and nutrients to the muscles, enabling them to work efficiently. Therefore, the statement that capillaries of the native useless will be engorged with blood is likely true during vigorous exercise.

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8. Platelets_______.

Explanation

Platelets are small, disc-shaped cells found in the blood that play a crucial role in blood clotting. When a blood vessel is damaged, platelets adhere to the site of injury and form a plug, helping to seal the break and prevent excessive bleeding. This process is known as platelet aggregation. Platelets release various substances that promote clotting, such as clotting factors and chemicals that attract more platelets to the site. This mechanism ensures that the damaged blood vessel is repaired and prevents further blood loss.

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9. The factor favoring filtrate formation at the glomerulus is the ______.

Explanation

The glomerular hydrostatic pressure is the pressure exerted by the blood in the glomerulus of the kidney. This pressure is higher than the pressure in the Bowman's capsule, which favors the filtration of fluid from the blood into the renal tubules. This pressure is a result of the contraction of the heart and the resistance offered by the afferent and efferent arterioles in the glomerulus.

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10. Anaphylactic shock can result from an immediate hypersensitivity where the allergen enters the blood.

Explanation

Anaphylactic shock is a severe allergic reaction that can occur when an allergen, such as peanuts or bee venom, enters the bloodstream. This immediate hypersensitivity triggers a rapid release of histamine and other chemicals, causing a systemic response that can be life-threatening. The allergen does not need to be ingested or inhaled; it can also enter the bloodstream through injection or direct contact with the skin. Therefore, it is true that anaphylactic shock can result from an immediate hypersensitivity where the allergen enters the blood.

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11. What is the average normal pH range of blood?

Explanation

The average normal pH range of blood is 7.35-7.45. This range is slightly acidic, as a pH value below 7 is considered acidic. The pH of blood is tightly regulated by the body's homeostatic mechanisms to maintain proper functioning of various physiological processes. Any deviation from this range can lead to health issues, such as acidosis or alkalosis.

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12. When can erythroblastosis fetalis not possibly happen in the cold of an Rh negative mother?

Explanation

Erythroblastosis fetalis occurs when a Rh-negative mother is sensitized to Rh-positive blood during pregnancy, leading to the destruction of the fetus's red blood cells. This can happen if the father of the child is Rh-positive, as the fetus may inherit the Rh antigen from the father. However, if the father is Rh-negative, there is no possibility of the fetus inheriting the Rh antigen, and therefore erythroblastosis fetalis cannot occur in this case.

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13. The redness and heat of an inflamed area are due to a local hyperemia caused by______.

Explanation

The redness and heat of an inflamed area are due to a local hyperemia caused by vasodilation. When an area becomes inflamed, the blood vessels in that area widen, allowing more blood to flow to the affected area. This increased blood flow leads to redness and heat as more blood is brought to the area. Vasodilation is the widening of blood vessels, which allows for increased blood flow and is a common response to inflammation.

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14. Which blood type is generally called the universal donor?

Explanation

Blood type O is generally called the universal donor because it does not have any antigens on its red blood cells. This means that it can be safely transfused to individuals with any blood type without causing an immune reaction. On the other hand, individuals with blood type O can only receive blood from other type O donors.

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15. Which of the following is not a cause of bleeding disorders?

Explanation

Excess secretion of platelet-derived growth factor (PDGF) is not a cause of bleeding disorders. Bleeding disorders are typically caused by factors that impair the clotting process, such as vitamin K deficiency, defects in the clotting cascade, and thrombocytopenia (a decrease in circulating platelets). PDGF is a growth factor involved in cell growth and proliferation, and its excess secretion does not directly impact the clotting process or cause bleeding disorders.

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16. Which of the following is not a function characteristic of WBC's?

Explanation

Granulosis is not a function characteristic of WBC's. WBC's are known for their ability to perform diapedesis, which is the process of squeezing through blood vessel walls to reach the site of infection or injury. They also exhibit ameboid motion, which allows them to move and engulf pathogens. Positive chemotaxis is another function characteristic of WBC's, where they are attracted to and move towards chemical signals released by damaged tissues. However, granulosis is not a recognized function of WBC's.

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17. Is [your statement here] true or false?

Explanation

The given answer is "True". This means that the statement mentioned in the question is true. However, without the actual statement mentioned in the question, it is impossible to provide a specific explanation for why the answer is true.

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18. Tubular secretion is effective in controlling blood pH.

Explanation

Tubular secretion refers to the process by which substances are actively transported from the blood into the renal tubules for excretion in urine. This process plays a crucial role in maintaining blood pH by selectively secreting hydrogen ions (H+) or bicarbonate ions (HCO3-) into the tubules. By regulating the secretion of these ions, the kidneys can help maintain the acid-base balance in the blood and control blood pH. Therefore, the statement that tubular secretion is effective in controlling blood pH is true.

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19. Which of the following is the correct sequence of events in phagocytosis?

Explanation

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20. Hemorrhagic anemia result from blood loss.

Explanation

Hemorrhagic anemia occurs when there is excessive blood loss from the body. This can happen due to various reasons such as trauma, injury, or bleeding disorders. The loss of blood leads to a decrease in the total volume of blood in the body, which in turn reduces the number of red blood cells available to carry oxygen. As a result, the individual experiences symptoms of anemia, such as fatigue, weakness, and shortness of breath. Therefore, the statement "Hemorrhagic anemia results from blood loss" is true.

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21. Respiratory control centers are located in the ______.

Explanation

The respiratory control centers are located in the medulla and pons. These regions of the brainstem play a crucial role in regulating breathing. The medulla contains the primary respiratory center, which sets the basic rhythm of breathing. It sends signals to the muscles involved in respiration, such as the diaphragm and intercostal muscles. The pons, on the other hand, helps regulate the rate and depth of breathing by modifying the signals from the medulla. Together, the medulla and pons ensure the proper control and coordination of the respiratory system.

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22. Most electrolyte reabsorption by the renal tubules is ______.

Explanation

Most electrolyte reabsorption by the renal tubules is hormonally controlled in distal tubule segments. This means that the reabsorption of electrolytes such as sodium, potassium, and chloride in the renal tubules is regulated by hormones. These hormones, such as aldosterone and antidiuretic hormone, act on the distal tubule segments to increase or decrease the reabsorption of electrolytes based on the body's needs. This hormonal control allows the kidneys to maintain electrolyte balance and regulate blood pressure.

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23. Surfactant helps to prevent the alveoli from collapsing by ______.

Explanation

Surfactant is a substance that reduces the surface tension of a liquid. In the case of alveoli, surfactant interferes with the cohesiveness of water molecules, reducing the surface tension of the alveolar fluid. This reduction in surface tension helps to prevent the collapse of the alveoli during expiration. Without surfactant, the surface tension of the alveolar fluid would be high, causing the alveoli to collapse and making it difficult for gas exchange to occur effectively in the lungs.

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24. Which of the following statements is true concerning the mammary glands of both males and females?

Explanation

The correct answer is that the mammary glands are modified sweat glands that are actually part of the integumentary system. This means that the mammary glands, which produce milk, are derived from sweat glands and are considered part of the skin's integumentary system. This is why they are located within the skin and are connected to the nipple. This statement is true for both males and females, as both have mammary glands, although they are typically more developed in females.

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25. The functions and structural unity of the kidneys in the______.

Explanation

The nephron is responsible for the functions and structural unity of the kidneys. It is the functional unit of the kidney and consists of the glomerular capsule, nephron loop, and other structures. The nephron is responsible for filtering blood, reabsorbing essential substances, and excreting waste products. It plays a crucial role in maintaining the balance of fluids and electrolytes in the body.

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26. Whereas diffusion is more important for solute exchange between plasma and interstitial fluid, bulk flow is more important for regulation of the relative volumes of blood and interstitial fluid. 

Explanation

Diffusion is the process by which solutes move from an area of higher concentration to an area of lower concentration, while bulk flow is the movement of fluid due to a pressure gradient. In the context of solute exchange between plasma and interstitial fluid, diffusion is more important because it allows for the movement of solutes across the concentration gradient. On the other hand, bulk flow is more important for regulating the relative volumes of blood and interstitial fluid, as it helps to maintain the balance between the two fluid compartments. Therefore, the statement that diffusion is more important for solute exchange and bulk flow is more important for volume regulation is true.

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27. During the period of ventricular filling______.

Explanation

During the period of ventricular filling, blood flows mostly passively through the atria and the open AV valve into the ventricles. This is because the atria are relaxed (in diastole) and the pressure in the heart is not at its peak. The P wave on the ECG represents atrial depolarization, which occurs before ventricular filling.

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28. The loudness of a person's voice depends on the _____.

Explanation

The loudness of a person's voice depends on the force with which air rushes across the vocal folds. When air is forced out of the lungs and passes through the vocal folds, it causes them to vibrate, producing sound. The force with which the air rushes across the vocal folds determines the amplitude or intensity of the sound waves produced, resulting in a louder or softer voice. The other options, such as the thickness of vestibular folds, length of the vocal folds, and strength of the intrinsic laryngeal muscles, may have an impact on voice quality or pitch, but they do not directly affect the loudness of the voice.

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29. The main site of gas exchange is the ______.

Explanation

The alveoli are tiny air sacs in the lungs where the exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide takes place. They are surrounded by capillaries, allowing for efficient gas exchange between the air in the alveoli and the bloodstream. The alveoli have thin walls and a large surface area, which enhances the diffusion of gases. Therefore, the alveoli are considered the main site of gas exchange in the respiratory system.

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30. The most powerful respiratory stimulus for breathing in a healthy person is ______.

Explanation

The correct answer is "increase of carbon dioxide." In a healthy person, the level of carbon dioxide in the blood is the primary respiratory stimulus for breathing. When carbon dioxide levels rise, it triggers the respiratory centers in the brain to increase the rate and depth of breathing, allowing the body to eliminate excess carbon dioxide and maintain proper oxygen levels. This mechanism helps to ensure the balance of gases in the body and maintain overall respiratory function.

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31. A man has been told that he is not synthesizing enough follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH), and for this reason he may be unable to father a child. Choose the correct statement to explain this problem.

Explanation

FSH stimulates sperm production in the testes. This statement explains the problem because if the man is not synthesizing enough FSH, it means that his testes are not receiving enough stimulation to produce sperm. FSH is a hormone that plays a crucial role in the development of sperm cells, so a deficiency in FSH can lead to infertility in men.

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32. Tracheal obstruction is life threatening 

Explanation

Tracheal obstruction occurs when the trachea, or windpipe, is blocked, preventing air from reaching the lungs. This can be caused by various factors such as foreign objects, swelling, or tumors. When the trachea is obstructed, it becomes difficult or impossible to breathe, leading to a life-threatening situation. Immediate medical intervention is necessary to clear the obstruction and restore normal breathing. Therefore, tracheal obstruction is indeed a life-threatening condition.

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33. Most inspired particles such as dust fail to reach the lungs because of the _____.

Explanation

The ciliated mucous lining in the nose is responsible for preventing most inspired particles such as dust from reaching the lungs. The cilia, which are tiny hair-like structures, continuously move in coordinated motions to sweep the particles trapped in the mucus towards the throat. From there, the particles are either swallowed or expelled through coughing or sneezing. This mechanism acts as a protective barrier, ensuring that the lungs are not exposed to harmful particles that could potentially cause damage or irritation.

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34. Type 2 diabetics may reflect declining receptor sensitivity to insulin rather than decreased insulin production. 

Explanation

This statement is true because in type 2 diabetes, the body's cells become resistant to the effects of insulin, leading to a decrease in receptor sensitivity. This means that even though the pancreas may still produce insulin, the body is unable to use it effectively. This is different from type 1 diabetes, where there is a lack of insulin production altogether.

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35. Using the Figure 16.2, math the following hypothalamic hormones with the pituitary hormone targets: Thyroid stimulating hormones

Explanation

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36. The nose serves all of the following functions except______.

Explanation

The nose serves multiple functions, including cleansing the air, warming and humidifying the air, and as a passageway for air movement. However, it does not directly initiate the cough reflex. The cough reflex is typically triggered by irritation in the throat or airways, not by the nose itself.

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37. Which one do you like?

Explanation

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38. A fluid secreted into the small intestine during digestion that contains cholesterol, emulsification agents, and phospholipids is ________.

Explanation

Bile is a fluid secreted into the small intestine during digestion that contains cholesterol, emulsification agents, and phospholipids. It helps in the breakdown and absorption of fats by emulsifying them into smaller droplets, making it easier for enzymes to break them down. Bile is produced by the liver and stored in the gallbladder before being released into the small intestine. It plays a crucial role in the digestion and absorption of dietary fats.

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39. Chyle is delivered to the blood via the lymphatic system

Explanation

Chyle, which is a milky fluid containing fats and lymph, is indeed delivered to the blood via the lymphatic system. The lymphatic system is responsible for transporting chyle from the small intestine, where it is produced during the digestion of fats, to the bloodstream. This allows for the absorption and utilization of the fats by the body. Therefore, the statement "Chyle is delivered to the blood via the lymphatic system" is true.

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40. Lymphocytes reside temporarily in lymphoid tissue, then move to other parts of the body. 

Explanation

Lymphocytes are a type of white blood cell that play a crucial role in the immune system. They are produced in the bone marrow and initially reside in lymphoid tissues such as the lymph nodes, spleen, and tonsils. From there, they can circulate throughout the body via the lymphatic system and blood vessels to reach other parts of the body where they are needed to fight infection or respond to foreign substances. Therefore, it is true that lymphocytes reside temporarily in lymphoid tissue and then move to other parts of the body.

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41.  Hormones often cause a cell to elicit multiple responses; this is because_____.

Explanation

Hormones often cause a cell to elicit multiple responses because during protein kinase activation, enzymes phosphorylate many other enzymes. This phosphorylation process leads to a cascade of reactions within the cell, activating various signaling pathways and triggering multiple responses. The activation of protein kinases and the subsequent phosphorylation of enzymes allow for the amplification and coordination of cellular responses to hormonal signals.

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42. Normal development of the immune response is due in part to hormones produced by the___.

Explanation

The thymus gland is responsible for the normal development of the immune response. It produces hormones that play a crucial role in the maturation of T-cells, which are a type of white blood cell involved in immune responses. These hormones help in the selection and development of T-cells that can recognize and respond to foreign antigens, thus contributing to the overall effectiveness of the immune system.

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43. Regulating hormones from the hypothalamus_______.

Explanation

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44. Which one do you like?

Explanation

The given question is asking for a personal preference, specifically which option the person likes. The correct answer is Option 1, implying that the person prefers that particular option over the others.

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45. Gluconeogenesis occurs in the liver due to the action of ______.

Explanation

Cortisol is the correct answer because it is a hormone secreted by the adrenal glands that stimulates gluconeogenesis in the liver. Gluconeogenesis is the process of synthesizing glucose from non-carbohydrate sources, such as amino acids and fatty acids. Cortisol promotes this process by increasing the breakdown of proteins and fats, providing substrates for glucose production. Therefore, cortisol plays a crucial role in maintaining blood glucose levels during periods of fasting or stress.

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46. Tissues damaged by myocardial infarction are replace by connective tissue.

Explanation

After a myocardial infarction (heart attack), the heart muscle tissue is damaged due to a lack of blood flow and oxygen. As a part of the healing process, the damaged heart tissue is replaced with connective tissue, which forms scar tissue. This scar tissue helps to maintain the structural integrity of the heart but does not have the same functional capabilities as the original heart muscle. Therefore, the statement is true.

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47. Factors that aid venous return include all except 

Explanation

Venous return refers to the blood flow back to the heart from the veins. Factors that aid venous return include the activity of skeletal muscles, venous valves, and pressure changes in the thorax. These factors help in pushing the blood back towards the heart. Urinary output, on the other hand, refers to the amount of urine produced by the kidneys and does not directly affect venous return. Therefore, urinary output is not a factor that aids venous return.

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48. Which one do you like?

Explanation

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49. When tissues are inflames, lymphatic capillaries develop openings that permit uptake of large particles such as cell debris, pathogens, and caner cells. 

Explanation

When tissues are inflamed, lymphatic capillaries develop openings that allow them to take in large particles such as cell debris, pathogens, and cancer cells. This is a true statement. Inflammation is a response to injury or infection, and during this process, the lymphatic system plays a crucial role in removing waste material and foreign substances from the affected area. The development of openings in lymphatic capillaries facilitates the uptake of these large particles, aiding in the clearance of harmful materials and promoting tissue healing.

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50. Which of the following is nor a cardinal sign of diabetes mellitus?

Explanation

Polycythemia is not a cardinal sign of diabetes mellitus. Polycythemia refers to an increase in the number of red blood cells in the bloodstream, which is not directly related to diabetes. The cardinal signs of diabetes mellitus include polyuria (excessive urination), polyphagia (excessive hunger), and polydipsia (excessive thirst). These symptoms are commonly observed in individuals with diabetes due to the body's inability to regulate blood sugar levels effectively.

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51. Cancer cells are virus-infected body cells can be killed before activation of adaptive immunity by______.

Explanation

Natural killer cells are a type of immune cell that can recognize and kill virus-infected cells, including cancer cells, before the activation of adaptive immunity. Unlike T lymphocytes and B lymphocytes, which are part of the adaptive immune response and require prior exposure to the virus or cancer cells, natural killer cells have the ability to directly identify and destroy infected cells without prior sensitization. Therefore, natural killer cells are the correct answer for killing virus-infected body cells before the activation of adaptive immunity.

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52. Which one do you like?

Explanation

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53. The major targets of growth hormone are _______.

Explanation

Growth hormone primarily targets bones and skeletal muscles. This hormone stimulates the growth of these tissues by promoting cell division and protein synthesis. It stimulates the production of insulin-like growth factor 1 (IGF-1) in the liver, which further promotes bone and muscle growth. Growth hormone also has indirect effects on other tissues, such as the liver, adrenal glands, and blood vessels, but its main targets are bones and skeletal muscles.

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54. The adjustment of blood flow to each tissue in proportion to its requirements at any point in time is termed autoregulation.

Explanation

Autoregulation refers to the ability of the body to adjust blood flow to different tissues based on their specific needs at any given time. This means that blood flow is regulated in a way that ensures each tissue receives the appropriate amount of blood supply required for its functioning. Therefore, the statement that the adjustment of blood flow to each tissue in proportion to its requirements is termed autoregulation is true.

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55. Select the correct statement about the heart valves.

Explanation

The statement that the AV valves are supported by chordae tendineae so that regurgitation of blood into the atria during ventricular contraction does not occur is correct. The chordae tendineae are fibrous cords that attach the AV valves to the papillary muscles in the ventricles. They prevent the valves from prolapsing or flipping into the atria when the ventricles contract, ensuring that blood flows in the correct direction and does not leak back into the atria.

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56. Which of theses is not part of the splanchnic circulation?

Explanation

The inferior vena cava is not part of the splanchnic circulation. The splanchnic circulation refers to the blood supply to the abdominal organs, including the stomach, liver, intestines, and spleen. The superior mesenteric artery, celiac artery, and hepatic portal vein are all important components of the splanchnic circulation, supplying oxygenated blood and nutrients to these organs. However, the inferior vena cava is a large vein that carries deoxygenated blood from the lower body back to the heart, and it is not directly involved in supplying blood to the abdominal organs.

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57. When it becomes necessary to enlist the fight-or-flight response, a hormone that is released during the alarm phase of the general adaptation syndrome is _____.

Explanation

Epinephrine is the correct answer because it is a hormone that is released during the alarm phase of the general adaptation syndrome. This hormone is responsible for activating the fight-or-flight response in the body, which prepares an individual to either confront a threat or flee from it. Epinephrine increases heart rate, blood pressure, and blood flow to the muscles, providing the body with the necessary energy and alertness to respond to a stressful situation.

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58. Fever______.

Explanation

Fever is the body's natural response to infection or illness. It is regulated by chemicals that reset the body's thermostat to a higher setting, causing the body temperature to increase. This higher temperature helps to create an unfavorable environment for bacteria and viruses, as they thrive at normal body temperature. By increasing the body temperature, the production of fever helps to inhibit bacterial replication and enhance the immune response to fight off the infection.

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59. The major means of propulsion through the alimentary canal is peristalsis.  

Explanation

Peristalsis refers to the rhythmic contraction and relaxation of muscles in the walls of the alimentary canal, which helps to propel food through the digestive system. This process allows for the movement of food from the mouth to the stomach and through the intestines. Therefore, it can be concluded that peristalsis is indeed the major means of propulsion through the alimentary canal, making the answer "True" correct.

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60. Which of the following maintains the patency (openness) of the trachea?

Explanation

C-shaped cartilage rings maintain the patency (openness) of the trachea. The trachea is a flexible tube that needs to remain open to allow for the passage of air. The C-shaped cartilage rings provide structural support to the trachea, preventing it from collapsing and maintaining its shape. This allows for the smooth flow of air during breathing.

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61. Several hormones are synthesizes in the hypothalamus and transported to the anterior pituitary gland. The mechanism of transportation from hypothalamus to anterior pituitary gland is through the______.

Explanation

The correct answer is the hypophyseal portal system. This system allows hormones synthesized in the hypothalamus to be transported directly to the anterior pituitary gland. The hypophyseal portal system consists of a network of blood vessels that connect the hypothalamus and the anterior pituitary gland, enabling the hormones to reach their target organ more efficiently. This specialized transportation mechanism ensures that the hormones produced by the hypothalamus can directly influence the secretion of hormones by the anterior pituitary gland.

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62. The major targets of growth hormone are_____.

Explanation

Growth hormone primarily targets bones and skeletal muscles. It stimulates the growth and development of these tissues by promoting the production of proteins and increasing the uptake of amino acids. This hormone plays a crucial role in bone growth during childhood and adolescence, as well as in maintaining muscle mass and strength throughout life. It also has indirect effects on other tissues, such as the liver, by stimulating the production of insulin-like growth factor 1 (IGF-1), which further contributes to the growth and development of various organs and tissues.

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63. Functions of the spleen include all of those below except 

Explanation

The spleen performs several important functions in the body, including the storage of iron, the storage of blood platelets, and the removal of old or defective blood cells from the blood. However, it does not form crypts that trap bacteria. This function is not associated with the spleen.

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64. Smoking diminishes ciliary action and eventually destroys the cilia.  

Explanation

Smoking diminishes ciliary action and eventually destroys the cilia. This is because the chemicals present in tobacco smoke can paralyze and damage the hair-like structures called cilia that line the respiratory tract. Cilia play a crucial role in clearing mucus and foreign particles from the lungs, helping to prevent infections and maintain healthy respiratory function. Therefore, smoking can impair the ciliary action, leading to a buildup of mucus and harmful substances in the lungs, increasing the risk of respiratory diseases and other health problems.

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65. Iodine is an essential element required for the synthesis of thyroxine.

Explanation

Iodine is indeed an essential element required for the synthesis of thyroxine. Thyroxine is a hormone produced by the thyroid gland, and it plays a crucial role in regulating metabolism and growth. Iodine is necessary for the production of thyroxine, as it is incorporated into the structure of the hormone. Without sufficient iodine, the thyroid gland cannot produce enough thyroxine, leading to a condition called hypothyroidism. Therefore, the statement is true.

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66. Lymph leaves a lymph node via ______.

Explanation

Lymph leaves a lymph node via efferent lymphatic vessels. These vessels are responsible for carrying the filtered lymph away from the lymph node and returning it back into the bloodstream. Unlike afferent lymphatic vessels, which bring lymph into the lymph node, efferent lymphatic vessels allow the lymph to exit the lymph node. This ensures that the lymph, which contains waste materials, pathogens, and immune cells, can be transported to other parts of the body for further processing and elimination. Therefore, efferent lymphatic vessels play a crucial role in maintaining the overall function of the lymphatic system.

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67. Effects of estrogen include_____.

Explanation

Estrogen is a hormone that plays a crucial role in the development of secondary sexual characteristics in females. During puberty, estrogen stimulates the growth of breast tissue, leading to the development of breasts. This is a normal and expected effect of estrogen in females during their adolescence.

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68. The left ventricular wall of the heart is thicker than the right wall in order to ______.

Explanation

The left ventricular wall of the heart is thicker than the right wall in order to pump blood with greater pressure. The left ventricle is responsible for pumping oxygenated blood to the rest of the body, while the right ventricle pumps deoxygenated blood to the lungs. Since the left ventricle has to pump blood to the entire body, it needs to generate a higher pressure to overcome the resistance of the systemic circulation. The thicker wall allows the left ventricle to contract more forcefully, resulting in the pumping of blood with greater pressure.

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69. Which of the following is not a cardinal sign of diabetes mellitus?

Explanation

Polycythemia is not a cardinal sign of diabetes mellitus. Polycythemia refers to an increased number of red blood cells in the body, which is not directly associated with diabetes. The cardinal signs of diabetes mellitus are polyphagia (increased hunger), polydipsia (increased thirst), and polyuria (increased urination). These symptoms are caused by the body's inability to regulate blood sugar levels properly.

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70. The sheets of peritoneal membrane that hold the digestive tract in place are called______,

Explanation

Mesenteries are sheets of peritoneal membrane that hold the digestive tract in place. They attach the organs to the abdominal wall and provide support and stability. The mesenteries also contain blood vessels, nerves, and lymphatic vessels that supply the digestive organs.

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71. Select the correct statement about immunodeficiency 

Explanation

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72. Fertilization generally occurs in the ______.

Explanation

Fertilization generally occurs in the fallopian tubes. This is because the fallopian tubes serve as a pathway for the egg to travel from the ovary to the uterus. During ovulation, an egg is released from the ovary and travels through the fallopian tube. If sperm is present in the fallopian tube at the same time, fertilization can occur. The fertilized egg then continues its journey to the uterus, where it implants and develops into a pregnancy. Therefore, the fallopian tubes are the most likely location for fertilization to take place.

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73. Which of the following blood pressure readings would be indicative of hypertension?

Explanation

A blood pressure reading of 170/96 in a 50-year-old man would be indicative of hypertension. Hypertension is defined as having a systolic blood pressure (the top number) of 130 mm Hg or higher, or a diastolic blood pressure (the bottom number) of 80 mm Hg or higher. In this case, the systolic blood pressure is significantly higher than the threshold, indicating hypertension. Additionally, the diastolic blood pressure is also elevated. Both numbers together suggest that the individual has high blood pressure.

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74. An important characteristic of urine is its specific gravity or density, which is _____.

Explanation

Urine has a slightly higher specific gravity or density than water. This is due to the presence of solutes such as urea, salts, and other waste products that are dissolved in urine. These solutes increase the density of urine compared to pure water.

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75. Which of the following is characteristic of antibodies?

Explanation

Antibodies are composed of heavy and light polypeptide chains. These chains come together to form the Y-shaped structure of an antibody molecule. The heavy chains are larger and provide stability to the antibody, while the light chains are smaller and help with antigen recognition. The combination of heavy and light chains allows antibodies to bind to specific antigens and initiate immune responses. This characteristic is essential for the diverse functions of antibodies in the immune system.

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76. A lack of intrinsic factor, leading to a deficiency of vitamin B12 and causing an appearance of large pale cells called macrocytes, is characteristic of_______.

Explanation

A lack of intrinsic factor is a condition known as pernicious anemia. Intrinsic factor is necessary for the absorption of vitamin B12, and a deficiency of this vitamin leads to the production of large pale cells called macrocytes. Therefore, pernicious anemia is characterized by the appearance of macrocytes due to a deficiency of vitamin B12 caused by a lack of intrinsic factor.

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77. The darts and cremaster muscles are important to the integrity of the male reproductive system. Which of the following is true about the tole they play?

Explanation

The darts and cremaster muscles are responsible for regulating the temperature of the testes. The testes need to be kept at a slightly lower temperature than the rest of the body for proper sperm production. These muscles contract or relax to adjust the position of the testes in response to changes in temperature. When it is cold, the muscles contract and pull the testes closer to the body to keep them warm. When it is hot, the muscles relax and allow the testes to hang further away from the body, helping to cool them down.

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78. Which of the following is not a distribution function of blood?

Explanation

The transport of salts to maintain blood volume is not a distribution function of blood. Blood distribution functions include the transport of hormones to their target organs, the transport of metabolic wastes from cells, and the delivery of oxygen to body cells. However, the maintenance of blood volume is primarily regulated by the kidneys through processes like reabsorption and excretion, rather than by the distribution of salts through the bloodstream.

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79. An individual who is blood type AB negative can ______.

Explanation

An individual who is blood type AB negative can receive any blood type in moderate amounts except that with the Rh antigen. This is because individuals with AB negative blood type have both A and B antigens on their red blood cells, making them compatible with types A, B, and AB. However, they lack the Rh antigen, so they cannot receive blood types that have the Rh antigen present.

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80. The primary immune response _______.

Explanation

The primary immune response refers to the initial response of the immune system to an antigen. During this response, B cells are activated and undergo proliferation and differentiation into plasma cells, which produce antibodies. This process takes some time, resulting in a lag period before sufficient levels of antibodies are produced. Therefore, the correct answer is that the primary immune response has a lag period while B cells proliferate and differentiate into plasma cells.

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81. Fred's blood was determined to be AB positive. What does this mean?

Explanation

This means that Fred's blood does not contain any antibodies against the A, B, or Rh antigens. This is significant because if there were antibodies present, it would indicate that Fred's immune system would react against blood transfusions containing those antigens. Therefore, Fred can receive blood from donors with any blood type, as he does not have antibodies that would cause a transfusion reaction.

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82. Which of the following might trigger erythropoiesis?

Explanation

Hypoxia refers to a condition where there is a deficiency of oxygen in the body. Erythropoiesis is the process of producing red blood cells. When the EPO-producing cells in the body are exposed to hypoxia, it triggers the release of erythropoietin (EPO), a hormone that stimulates the production of red blood cells. Therefore, hypoxia of EPO-producing cells can lead to an increase in erythropoiesis.

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83. The _____ artery lies on the boundary between the cortex and medulla of the kidney.

Explanation

The arcuate artery is the correct answer because it is the artery that lies on the boundary between the cortex and medulla of the kidney. The interlobar artery is located within the renal columns and travels through the renal pyramids. The cortical radiate artery, also known as the interlobular artery, supplies blood to the renal cortex. The lobar artery is responsible for supplying blood to the renal lobes. Therefore, the arcuate artery is the most appropriate option based on its location between the cortex and medulla.

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84. The basic difference between spermatogenesis and oogenesis is that______.

Explanation

The basic difference between spermatogenesis and oogenesis is that in oogenesis, one mature ovum is produced, while in spermatogenesis four mature sperm are produced from the parent cell.

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85. Which of the following is not an autoimmune disease

Explanation

Type II diabetes is not an autoimmune disease. It is a metabolic disorder characterized by high blood sugar levels due to the body's inability to properly use insulin. Unlike autoimmune diseases, such as glomerulonephritis, systemic lupus erthematosus, and multiple sclerosis, Type II diabetes is not caused by the immune system attacking the body's own cells or tissues. Instead, it is primarily influenced by genetic and lifestyle factors, such as obesity and physical inactivity.

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86. Which of the following is not a function of the inflammatory response?

Explanation

The inflammatory response is a natural defense mechanism of the body that helps to eliminate harmful stimuli, such as pathogens or damaged cells, and initiate the healing process. It involves processes like vasodilation, increased vascular permeability, recruitment of immune cells, and release of inflammatory mediators. One of the key functions of the inflammatory response is to replace injured tissues with new, healthy cells, not specifically with connective tissues. Connective tissue repair is a separate process that occurs during the later stages of wound healing.

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87. The structures that receive the ovulated oocyte, providing a site for fertilization, are called the ______.

Explanation

The structures that receive the ovulated oocyte, providing a site for fertilization, are called the fallopian tubes. The fallopian tubes are a pair of tubes that connect the ovaries to the uterus. They have finger-like projections called fimbriae that help capture the released egg during ovulation and guide it into the tube. The fallopian tubes are the site where fertilization typically occurs, as sperm can travel through the tubes to reach the egg.

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88. Complete the following statements using the choices below. Air moves out of the lungs when the pressure inside the lungs is _______.

Explanation

Air moves out of the lungs when the pressure inside the lungs is greater than the pressure in the atmosphere. This is because air always moves from an area of higher pressure to an area of lower pressure. When the pressure inside the lungs is greater than the pressure in the atmosphere, it creates a pressure gradient that allows air to flow out of the lungs and into the lower pressure environment outside.

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89. Which of the following would bot be a possible cause of sickling of red blood cells in someone with sickle-cell anemia?

Explanation

Sleeping in a well-ventilated room would not be a possible cause of sickling of red blood cells in someone with sickle-cell anemia. Sickle-cell anemia is a genetic disorder that causes red blood cells to become sickle-shaped and less flexible. This shape change can lead to blockages in blood vessels and cause various complications. Factors such as low oxygen levels, dehydration, and certain infections can trigger the sickling process. However, the ventilation of the room where someone sleeps would not directly affect the sickling of red blood cells in sickle-cell anemia.

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90. The source of blood carried to capillaries in the myocardium would be the _____.

Explanation

The source of blood carried to capillaries in the myocardium is the coronary arteries. The coronary arteries are responsible for supplying oxygenated blood to the heart muscle. They branch off from the aorta and deliver oxygen and nutrients to the myocardium through a network of smaller blood vessels called capillaries. This ensures that the heart has a constant supply of oxygen and nutrients to function properly.

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91. If the vagal nerves to the heart were cut, the result would be that _____.

Explanation

If the vagal nerves to the heart were cut, the result would be that the parasympathetic stimulation would decrease, leading to a decrease in the inhibitory influence on the heart rate. As a result, the heart rate would increase by about 25 beats per minute.

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92. Which tunic of an artery is most responsible for maintaining blood pressure and continuous blood circulation?

Explanation

The tunica media of an artery is responsible for maintaining blood pressure and continuous blood circulation. It is the middle layer of the artery wall and consists of smooth muscle cells and elastic fibers. The smooth muscle cells can contract and relax, which allows the artery to constrict or dilate, regulating blood flow and blood pressure. The elastic fibers provide elasticity to the artery, allowing it to stretch and recoil with each heartbeat, helping to maintain continuous blood circulation.

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93. Norepinephrine acts on the heart by______.

Explanation

Norepinephrine acts on the heart by causing the threshold to be reached more quickly. This means that it enhances the excitability of the heart cells, making them more likely to generate an action potential and initiate a contraction. This ultimately leads to an increase in heart rate and cardiac output.

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94. The carotid sinus reflex protects the blood supply to the brain, whereas the aortic reflex is more concerned with maintaining adequate blood pressure in the systemic circuit as a whole.

Explanation

The statement is true because the carotid sinus reflex is a protective mechanism that helps regulate blood supply to the brain. It is located in the carotid sinus, which is a dilation in the carotid artery. When blood pressure in the carotid sinus increases, it triggers a reflex that causes a decrease in heart rate and blood pressure, ultimately protecting the brain from excessive blood flow. On the other hand, the aortic reflex is more focused on maintaining adequate blood pressure in the systemic circuit as a whole, rather than specifically protecting the brain.

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95. Which one do you like?

Explanation

The question asks for the preferred option out of the given choices. The answer states that the preferred option is Option 1.

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96. The mechanism of water reabsorption by the renal tubules is______.

Explanation

Water reabsorption by the renal tubules occurs through osmosis. Osmosis is the movement of water molecules from an area of lower solute concentration (higher water concentration) to an area of higher solute concentration (lower water concentration) across a selectively permeable membrane. In the renal tubules, water is reabsorbed back into the bloodstream by osmosis, driven by the concentration gradient created by the active transport of solutes such as sodium ions. This process helps in maintaining the body's water balance and regulating urine concentration.

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97. Which of the choices below is a function of the nephron loop?  

Explanation

The correct answer is "form a large volume of very dilute urine or a small volume of very concentrated urine". The nephron loop, also known as the loop of Henle, plays a crucial role in the concentration and dilution of urine. It accomplishes this by creating a concentration gradient in the medulla of the kidney. As filtrate flows through the descending limb of the loop, water is reabsorbed, making the urine more concentrated. Then, as the filtrate ascends the ascending limb, electrolytes such as sodium and chloride are actively transported out of the tubule, making the urine more dilute. This process allows the kidney to regulate water and electrolyte balance in the body.

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98. Functions of the spleen include all of those below except______.

Explanation

The spleen performs various important functions in the body, including the storage of blood platelets, storage of iron, and removal of old or defective blood cells from the blood. However, it does not have a role in forming crypts that trap bacteria. This function is typically associated with other organs such as the tonsils or lymph nodes.

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99. ​Using Figure 18.3, match the following:Normal Sinus Rhythm.

Explanation

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100. Which one do you like?

Explanation

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101. Incontinence is the inability to control voluntary micturition.  

Explanation

Incontinence refers to the lack of control over urination. It means that a person is unable to voluntarily control their ability to urinate. Therefore, the statement "Incontinence is the inability to control voluntary micturition" is true.

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102. Large clusters of lymph nodes occur in all of the following locations except the ______.

Explanation

Large clusters of lymph nodes occur in the inguinal region, cervical region, and axillary region. However, the lower estermties is not a recognized anatomical region. Therefore, lymph nodes do not occur in the lower estermties.

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103. Which lymphatic structure drains lymph from the right upper limb and the right side of the head and thorax?

Explanation

The right lymphatic duct is the correct answer because it is responsible for draining lymph from the right upper limb and the right side of the head and thorax. The cisterna chyli drains lymph from the lower limbs and abdomen, the thoracic duct drains lymph from the left side of the head, neck, and thorax, and the lumbar trunk drains lymph from the lower limbs. Therefore, the right lymphatic duct is the only option that matches the given description.

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104. Oxygen and carbon dioxide are exchanges in the lungs and through all cell membranes by_____.

Explanation

Diffusion is the process by which molecules move from an area of higher concentration to an area of lower concentration. In the context of the question, oxygen and carbon dioxide are exchanged in the lungs and through cell membranes by diffusion. This means that oxygen molecules move from an area of higher concentration (in the lungs or outside the cell) to an area of lower concentration (in the blood or inside the cell), while carbon dioxide molecules move in the opposite direction. Diffusion does not require energy or a membrane, making it the most appropriate process for the exchange of gases in the lungs and between cells.

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105. Which of the following is not a function of lymph nodes?

Explanation

Lymph nodes have multiple functions, including producing lymphoid cells and housing granular white blood cells, acting as lymph filters and activating the immune system, and serving as antigen surveillance areas. However, they do not produce lymph fluid and cerebrospinal fluid.

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106. The erythrocyte count increases after a while when an individual goes from low to a hight altitude because the______.

Explanation

When an individual goes from low to high altitude, the concentration of oxygen and/or total atmospheric pressure decreases. This is because at higher altitudes, the air becomes thinner and contains less oxygen molecules. As a result, the body responds by increasing the production of erythrocytes (red blood cells) in order to carry more oxygen to the tissues. This increase in erythrocyte count helps to compensate for the lower oxygen availability at higher altitudes.

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107. Which of the following would not be classified as a lymphatic structure?

Explanation

The pancreas would not be classified as a lymphatic structure because it does not play a direct role in the immune system or the production of lymphocytes. The spleen, Peyer's patches of the intestine, and tonsils are all lymphatic structures involved in the immune response, but the pancreas is primarily responsible for producing digestive enzymes and regulating blood sugar levels.

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108. Damage to the ______ is referred to as hear block.

Explanation

Damage to the AV node is referred to as heart block. The AV node is an important part of the electrical conduction system of the heart, responsible for transmitting electrical signals from the atria to the ventricles. If the AV node is damaged, it can disrupt the normal flow of electrical signals and cause a delay or blockage in the transmission, leading to heart block. This can result in a slower heart rate and other cardiac abnormalities.

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109. The antagonistic hormones that regulate the blood calcium level are calcitonin-parathormone.

Explanation

Calcitonin and parathormone are indeed antagonistic hormones that regulate the blood calcium level. Calcitonin is released by the thyroid gland and helps to decrease blood calcium levels by inhibiting bone breakdown and increasing the excretion of calcium by the kidneys. On the other hand, parathormone is released by the parathyroid glands and acts to increase blood calcium levels by promoting bone breakdown and increasing calcium reabsorption by the kidneys. Therefore, the statement is true.

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110. Gastrin is a digestive hormone that is responsible for the stimulation of acid secretions in the stomach. These secretions are stimulated by the presence of ________.

Explanation

Gastrin is a digestive hormone that stimulates acid secretions in the stomach. This means that it enhances the production of stomach acid. These secretions are specifically stimulated by the presence of protein and peptide fragments. Therefore, when protein and peptide fragments are present in the stomach, gastrin is released, leading to increased acid secretion.

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111. Surgical cutting of the lingual frenulum would occur in which part of the body?

Explanation

The lingual frenulum is a small fold of tissue located in the oral cavity, specifically under the tongue. It connects the tongue to the floor of the mouth. Surgical cutting of the lingual frenulum would therefore occur in the oral cavity.

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112. The baroreceptors in the carotid sinus and aortic arch are sensitive to which of the following?

Explanation

The baroreceptors in the carotid sinus and aortic arch are sensitive to changes in arterial pressure. These specialized sensory receptors detect changes in blood pressure and send signals to the brain, which then regulates the cardiovascular system to maintain blood pressure within a normal range. This is important for ensuring adequate blood flow to organs and tissues.

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113. The ducts that deliver bile and pancreatic juice from the liver and pancreas, respectively, unite to form the ________.  

Explanation

The correct answer is hepatopancreatic ampulla. The question is asking for the structure that is formed when the ducts delivering bile from the liver and pancreatic juice from the pancreas come together. The hepatopancreatic ampulla is the structure where these two ducts unite before emptying into the duodenum. The other options mentioned in the question (bile canaliculus, portal vein, pancreatic acini) are not the correct structures formed by the union of these ducts.

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114. Hemorrhage with a large loss of blood causes_____.

Explanation

Hemorrhage with a large loss of blood causes a lowering of blood pressure due to change in cardiac output. When there is a significant loss of blood, the body's overall blood volume decreases. As a result, the heart pumps less blood with each beat, leading to a decrease in cardiac output. This decrease in cardiac output leads to a decrease in blood pressure.

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115. Which of the following is the most significant source of blood flow resistance?

Explanation

Blood vessel diameter is the most significant source of blood flow resistance. This is because the diameter of the blood vessels directly affects the amount of space available for blood to flow through. When the diameter of the blood vessels decreases, such as in vasoconstriction, the resistance to blood flow increases. Conversely, when the diameter increases, such as in vasodilation, the resistance to blood flow decreases. Therefore, blood vessel diameter plays a crucial role in determining the resistance to blood flow in the circulatory system.

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116. Blood within the pulmonary veins returns to the_____.

Explanation

Blood within the pulmonary veins returns to the left atrium. The pulmonary veins carry oxygenated blood from the lungs back to the heart. Once the blood reaches the left atrium, it is then pumped into the left ventricle and eventually sent to the rest of the body through the aorta. The left atrium acts as a receiving chamber for oxygenated blood, allowing it to flow into the left ventricle for distribution to the body's tissues and organs.

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117. An increase in blood viscosity will cause an increase in peripheral resistance

Explanation

An increase in blood viscosity refers to the thickening of the blood, which can occur due to various factors such as dehydration or certain medical conditions. When the blood becomes more viscous, it flows less easily through the blood vessels, causing an increase in peripheral resistance. Peripheral resistance refers to the resistance encountered by the blood flow as it passes through the small blood vessels in the peripheral tissues. Therefore, an increase in blood viscosity will indeed cause an increase in peripheral resistance.

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118. The baroreceptors in the carotid sinus and aortic arch are sensitive to which of the following?

Explanation

The baroreceptors in the carotid sinus and aortic arch are sensitive to changes in arterial pressure. These receptors are specialized cells that detect changes in blood pressure and send signals to the brain to regulate it. When arterial pressure increases, the baroreceptors are stimulated and send inhibitory signals to the cardiovascular centers in the brain, which then cause a decrease in sympathetic activity and an increase in parasympathetic activity. This leads to a decrease in heart rate and vasodilation, helping to lower the blood pressure. Similarly, when arterial pressure decreases, the baroreceptors are less stimulated, leading to an increase in sympathetic activity and a decrease in parasympathetic activity, which helps to raise the blood pressure.

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119. The pulse pressure is _____.

Explanation

Pulse pressure is the difference between the systolic pressure (the highest pressure reached during a heartbeat) and the diastolic pressure (the lowest pressure reached during a heartbeat). Therefore, the correct answer is "systolic pressure minus diastolic pressure." This calculation provides information about the strength and elasticity of the arteries and can be an indicator of various cardiovascular conditions.

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120. The factors responsible for holding the lungs to the thorax wall are _____.

Explanation

The smooth muscles of the lung are not responsible for holding the lungs to the thorax wall. The correct answer is surface tension from pleural fluid and negative pressure in the pleural cavity. The pleural fluid creates surface tension, which helps to hold the lungs against the thorax wall. The negative pressure in the pleural cavity also contributes to keeping the lungs in place.

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121. The single most important regulator of calcium levels in the blood is ______.

Explanation

Parathyroid hormone is the single most important regulator of calcium levels in the blood. It is produced by the parathyroid glands, which are located in the neck. Parathyroid hormone helps to increase calcium levels in the blood by stimulating the release of calcium from the bones, increasing the absorption of calcium from the intestines, and reducing the excretion of calcium by the kidneys. This hormone plays a crucial role in maintaining the balance of calcium in the body, which is essential for various physiological processes such as bone health, muscle function, and nerve transmission.

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122. Where in the body would you find low oxygen levels causing vasoconstriction and high levels causing vasodilation?

Explanation

In the lungs, low oxygen levels cause vasoconstriction, which is the narrowing of blood vessels. This occurs as a response to redirect blood flow to areas with higher oxygen levels. On the other hand, high oxygen levels in the lungs cause vasodilation, which is the widening of blood vessels. This allows for increased blood flow and oxygen delivery to other parts of the body.

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123. Oxytocin is a strong stimulant of uterine contractions. 

Explanation

Oxytocin is a hormone that is released during childbirth and breastfeeding. It acts as a stimulant for uterine contractions, helping to induce and strengthen labor. This is why it is commonly used in medical settings to induce or augment labor. Therefore, the statement "Oxytocin is a strong stimulant of uterine contractions" is true.

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124. No visible cytoplasmic granules are present in _______.

Explanation

Monocytes are a type of white blood cell that lack visible cytoplasmic granules. Eosinophils, neutrophils, and basophils, on the other hand, all have visible cytoplasmic granules. These granules contain various substances that play important roles in immune responses, such as enzymes, histamines, and cytokines. Monocytes are characterized by their large size and kidney-shaped nucleus, and they are known for their ability to differentiate into macrophages, which are involved in phagocytosis and antigen presentation.

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125. Select the correct statement about active and passive immunity 

Explanation

Active and passive humoral immunity are both mechanisms of adaptive immunity that use antibodies. Active immunity occurs when the body's immune system is exposed to a pathogen or antigen and produces its own antibodies to fight against it. This can happen through natural infection or through vaccination, where a weakened or inactive form of the pathogen is introduced to stimulate the immune response. Passive immunity, on the other hand, involves the transfer of pre-formed antibodies from another organism, such as through breastfeeding or receiving immune globulin injections. Both active and passive immunity rely on the presence of antibodies to provide protection against pathogens.

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126. The thymus is the only lymphoid organ that does not________.

Explanation

The thymus is the only lymphoid organ that does not directly fight antigens. While it is a primary lymphoid organ where T lymphocytes mature, it does not directly participate in the immune response against antigens. Instead, the thymus plays a crucial role in the development and selection of T cells, ensuring their proper functioning and preventing autoimmune reactions. It produces hormones, such as thymosin, that aid in T cell development and function. The thymus is composed of a cortex and medulla, which are involved in different stages of T cell maturation.

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127. The ingestion of a meal high in gat content would cause which of the following to occur?

Explanation

When a meal high in fat content is ingested, bile is released from the gallbladder to emulsify the fat in the duodenum. Bile helps in the breakdown of fats into smaller droplets, which increases the surface area for enzymes to act upon. This facilitates the digestion and absorption of fats in the small intestine. Therefore, the release of bile is necessary for proper digestion of a high-fat meal.

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128. When it becomes necessary to enlist the fight-or-fight response, a hormone that is released during the alarm phase of the general adaptation syndrome is______.

Explanation

Epinephrine is the correct answer because it is a hormone that is released during the alarm phase of the general adaptation syndrome, which is the body's response to stress. Epinephrine, also known as adrenaline, is released from the adrenal glands and plays a crucial role in initiating the fight-or-flight response. It increases heart rate, blood pressure, and glucose levels, preparing the body to either confront the stressor or escape from it.

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129. Erection of the penis results from_____.

Explanation

Erection of the penis results from a parasympathetic reflex. The parasympathetic nervous system is responsible for promoting relaxation and increasing blood flow to the genital area. During sexual arousal, the parasympathetic nerves release nitric oxide, which causes the blood vessels in the penis to dilate and fill with blood. This increased blood flow leads to the erection of the penis.

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130. Innate immune system defenses include_______.

Explanation

The correct answer is phagocytosis. Phagocytosis is a process in which specialized cells called phagocytes engulf and digest foreign particles, such as bacteria and viruses, to protect the body from infections. This is an essential defense mechanism of the innate immune system. Plasma cells, B cells, and T cells are components of the adaptive immune system, which responds to specific pathogens and provides long-term immunity.

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131. Select the correct statement about the nephrons

Explanation

The parietal layer of the glomerular capsule is composed of simple squamous epithelium. This layer forms the outermost part of the glomerular capsule and helps to provide structural support and protection to the glomerulus. It is not involved in the filtration process, unlike the inner layer of the glomerular capsule called the visceral layer, which consists of specialized cells called podocytes. Podocytes are responsible for the filtration of blood in the glomerulus by forming filtration slits, which are the pores that give fenestrated capillaries their name. Therefore, the correct statement about the nephrons is that the parietal layer of the glomerular capsule is simple squamous epithelium.

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132. Which of the following statements regarding the hepatic portal system is false?

Explanation

The hepatic portal system does not branch off of the inferior vena cava. Instead, it consists of a vein connecting two capillary beds together, namely the capillaries of the digestive organs and the capillaries of the liver. This system allows for the transportation of nutrients, toxins, and microorganisms from the digestive organs to the liver for processing. The major vessels of the hepatic portal system are the superior mesenteric, inferior mesenteric, and splenic veins.

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133. Gluconeogenesis occurs in the liver due to the action of_________.

Explanation

Cortisol is the correct answer because it is a hormone that stimulates gluconeogenesis in the liver. Gluconeogenesis is the process of synthesizing glucose from non-carbohydrate sources, such as amino acids and glycerol. Cortisol increases the availability of these precursors and promotes the breakdown of proteins and fats, providing the necessary substrates for gluconeogenesis. This process is important in maintaining blood glucose levels during periods of fasting or stress.

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134. The immediate response to blood vessel injury is clotting.

Explanation

The immediate response to blood vessel injury is not clotting. Instead, the immediate response is vasoconstriction, which is the narrowing of blood vessels to reduce blood flow to the injured area. This is followed by the formation of a platelet plug, which helps to stop bleeding. Clotting, or coagulation, is a later stage in the healing process and involves the formation of a fibrin clot to further seal the wound.

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135. Which of the choices below is not a function of the urinary system?

Explanation

The urinary system is responsible for maintaining blood osmolarity, regulating blood glucose levels and producing hormones, and helping maintain homeostasis by controlling the composition, volume, and pressure of blood. However, it does not eliminate solid, undigested wastes and excrete carbon dioxide, water, salts, and heat. This is the function of the digestive and respiratory systems.

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136. Which of the choices below is not a part of the hypothalamic-pituitary-gonadal axis?

Explanation

The thalamus is not a part of the hypothalamic-pituitary-gonadal axis. This axis is responsible for regulating the reproductive system and includes the hypothalamus, anterior pituitary gland, and the gonads (in this case, the interstitial cells). The thalamus, on the other hand, is a part of the brain that is involved in relaying sensory information to the cerebral cortex. It is not directly involved in the regulation of the reproductive system.

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137. Which of the following occurs as a result of undescended testes?

Explanation

Undescended testes, also known as cryptorchidism, refers to a condition where one or both testes fail to descend into the scrotum. This can lead to inadequate or nonviable sperm production. The testes need to be in the scrotum, which provides a cooler environment, for proper sperm development. When the testes remain in the abdomen or inguinal canal, the higher temperature can impair the production of healthy sperm. Therefore, undescended testes can result in the production of inadequate or nonviable sperm.

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138. An obstruction in the superior vena cava would decrease the flow of blood from the head and neck to the heart

Explanation

If there is an obstruction in the superior vena cava, which is the large vein that carries deoxygenated blood from the head and neck to the heart, it would indeed decrease the flow of blood from the head and neck to the heart. This is because the obstruction would prevent the blood from flowing freely through the vein, leading to a decrease in blood flow.

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139. Virus infected cells secrete complement to "warn" other cells of the presence of virus

Explanation

Virus infected cells do not secrete complement to "warn" other cells of the presence of the virus. Complement is a group of proteins that are part of the immune system and play a role in the defense against pathogens. When a cell is infected by a virus, it may release interferons to signal neighboring cells and initiate an antiviral response, but complement proteins are not involved in this process. Therefore, the statement is false.

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140. The fatty tissue surrounding the kidneys is important because it 

Explanation

The fatty tissue surrounding the kidneys is important because it stabilizes the position of the kidneys by holding them in their normal position. This fatty tissue acts as a cushion, providing support and protection to the kidneys, preventing them from moving around excessively. By maintaining the kidneys in their proper position, the fatty tissue helps ensure their optimal functioning and prevents any potential damage or displacement.

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141. Which of the following acts as the trigger for the invitation of micturition (voiding)?

Explanation

The stretching of the bladder wall serves as the trigger for the invitation of micturition (voiding). When the bladder becomes distended and reaches a certain level of stretch, sensory receptors in the bladder wall send signals to the brain, indicating the need to empty the bladder. This triggers the micturition reflex, leading to the contraction of the bladder muscles and relaxation of the urinary sphincters to allow urine to be expelled from the body.

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142. Having a kinked ureter is called renal ptosis.  

Explanation

Having a kinked ureter is not called renal ptosis. Renal ptosis refers to the condition where the kidney drops or moves out of its normal position. A kinked ureter, on the other hand, refers to a bend or obstruction in the tube that carries urine from the kidney to the bladder. These are two different conditions and are not synonymous with each other.

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143. Nasal conchae mainly work on inhalation to warm and moisten air. They serve minor function for exhalation

Explanation

The given statement is false. Nasal conchae mainly work on inhalation to warm and moisten air, but they also play a significant role in exhalation. They help to regulate the flow of air through the nasal passages, ensuring that the air is properly conditioned before it enters the lungs. Additionally, the conchae help to trap and filter out particles, allergens, and bacteria present in the air, further contributing to respiratory health. Therefore, nasal conchae serve both inhalation and exhalation functions.

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144. Urea is reabsorbed in the nephron loop.  

Explanation

Urea is not reabsorbed in the nephron loop. The nephron loop, also known as the loop of Henle, is responsible for reabsorbing water and electrolytes, but it does not reabsorb urea. Urea is primarily reabsorbed in the proximal convoluted tubule of the nephron.

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145. Peter's patches are found in the _____.

Explanation

The correct answer is ileum of the small intestine. The ileum is the final section of the small intestine, located between the jejunum and the large intestine. Peter's patches, also known as Peyer's patches, are lymphoid nodules found in the mucosa of the ileum. These patches play a role in the immune response by monitoring and protecting against pathogens that enter the digestive system.

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146. Normal heart sounds are cause by which of the following events?

Explanation

Normal heart sounds are caused by the opening and closing of the heart valves. When the valves close, they create vibrations that produce the characteristic "lub-dub" sounds. These sounds can be heard with a stethoscope and are an important indicator of heart health. The other options listed are not directly related to the production of heart sounds.

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147. The term for pain associated with deficient blood delivery to the heart may be caused by the transient spasm of coronary arteries is ______.

Explanation

Angina pectoris is the correct answer because it refers to the pain or discomfort experienced when there is a temporary reduction in blood flow to the heart muscle. This reduction in blood flow is often caused by the transient spasm of coronary arteries, leading to inadequate blood delivery to the heart. Myocardial infarct refers to a heart attack, pericarditis refers to inflammation of the outer lining of the heart, and ischemia refers to a reduced blood supply to a particular organ or tissue.

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148. A thrombus (blood clot) in the first brace of the arch of the aorta would affect the flow of the blood to the _______.

Explanation

A thrombus in the first brace of the arch of the aorta would affect the flow of blood to the right side of the head and neck and right upper arm. The aorta is the largest artery in the body and carries oxygenated blood from the heart to the rest of the body. The first brace of the arch of the aorta is located on the right side, so if there is a blood clot in this area, it would block the flow of blood to the right side of the head and neck and right upper arm. This can lead to reduced blood supply, causing symptoms such as pain, numbness, and weakness in these areas.

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149. Nervous control of gastric secretion is provided by ________.

Explanation

The correct answer is the vagus nerve and enteric plexus. The vagus nerve, also known as the tenth cranial nerve, plays a crucial role in regulating gastric secretion. It carries parasympathetic fibers that stimulate the release of digestive enzymes and acid in the stomach. The enteric plexus, on the other hand, is a complex network of nerves located in the walls of the gastrointestinal tract. It controls the motility and secretory functions of the digestive system, including gastric secretion. Together, the vagus nerve and enteric plexus provide the nervous control of gastric secretion.

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150. What stomach secretion is necessary for normal hemoglobin production in RBCs?  

Explanation

Intrinsic factor is necessary for normal hemoglobin production in red blood cells. It is a glycoprotein that is produced by the parietal cells of the stomach lining. Intrinsic factor plays a crucial role in the absorption of vitamin B12 in the small intestine. Vitamin B12 is required for the maturation of red blood cells and the synthesis of hemoglobin. Without intrinsic factor, the body cannot efficiently absorb vitamin B12, leading to a deficiency that can result in anemia and impaired red blood cell production.

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151. Which of the following is an essential role played by large intestine bacteria?  

Explanation

Large intestine bacteria play an essential role in synthesizing vitamin K and B-complex vitamins. These bacteria produce these vitamins through fermentation of undigested carbohydrates and fibers. Vitamin K is important for blood clotting, while B-complex vitamins are essential for various bodily functions, including energy production, metabolism, and nerve function. Therefore, the presence of these bacteria in the large intestine is crucial for maintaining adequate levels of these vitamins in the body.

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152. As pressure in the aorta rises due to atherosclerosis, more ventricular pressure is required to open the aortic valve.

Explanation

As atherosclerosis causes the narrowing and hardening of the arteries, it leads to increased resistance to blood flow in the aorta. To overcome this increased resistance, the ventricles of the heart have to generate more pressure to open the aortic valve and allow blood to be pumped into the aorta. Therefore, as the pressure in the aorta rises due to atherosclerosis, more ventricular pressure is indeed required to open the aortic valve.

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153. Immunocompetence_______.

Explanation

Immunocompetence refers to the ability of individual cells to recognize a specific antigen by binding to it. This recognition is crucial for the immune system to mount an appropriate response against the invader. It allows immune cells to distinguish between self and non-self molecules, enabling them to target and eliminate foreign substances or pathogens. Immunocompetence is not limited to a specific organ of the adaptive immune system, nor does it prevent intercellular communication. However, it does require exposure to an antigen in order to develop the ability to recognize it.

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154. The primary source of RBC'S in the adult human being is the bone marrow in the shafts of the long bones.

Explanation

The statement is false because while the bone marrow does produce red blood cells (RBCs), it is not the primary source in adult human beings. In adults, the primary source of RBCs is the red bone marrow found in flat bones such as the pelvis, sternum, and skull. The bone marrow in the shafts of long bones primarily produces white blood cells and platelets, not RBCs.

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155. Natural killer (NK) cells_____.

Explanation

NK cells are a type of lymphocyte that are part of the innate immune system. They can recognize and kill cancer cells and infected cells without the need for prior activation by the adaptive immune system. This ability allows NK cells to provide an early defense against cancer cells before the adaptive immune response is fully activated. Therefore, the statement "NK cells can kill cancer cells before the immune system is activated" is correct.

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156. Valsalva's maneuver involves closing off the glottis (preventing expiration) while contracting the muscles of expiration, causing an increase in intra-abdominal pressure.  

Explanation

Valsalva's maneuver is a technique where a person closes their glottis (the opening between the vocal cords) to prevent air from escaping and then contracts the muscles involved in expiration (such as the diaphragm and abdominal muscles). This maneuver leads to an increase in intra-abdominal pressure. Therefore, the statement that Valsalva's maneuver involves closing off the glottis while contracting the muscles of expiration, causing an increase in intra-abdominal pressure is true.

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157. In addition to storage and mechanical breakdown of food, the stomach_____.

Explanation

The stomach initiates protein digestion and denatures proteins. This means that the stomach starts the process of breaking down proteins into smaller molecules, making them easier to digest and absorb. The stomach also denatures proteins, which means it unfolds their complex structure, exposing them to digestive enzymes for further breakdown. This process is important for proper digestion and absorption of proteins in the body.

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158. Which of the following is not a function of the inflammatory response?

Explanation

The inflammatory response is a protective mechanism of the body that aims to eliminate harmful agents and initiate the healing process. It involves various functions such as preventing the spread of the injurious agent to nearby tissue, setting the stage for repair processes, and disposing of cellular debris and pathogens. However, replacing injured tissues with connective tissue is not a function of the inflammatory response. This process is typically carried out by the process of tissue regeneration or scar formation, which occurs after the inflammatory response has subsided.

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159. Which of the following will occur after ovulation?

Explanation

After ovulation, the endometrium enters its secretory phase. This is a phase of the menstrual cycle where the endometrium, which is the lining of the uterus, becomes thicker and prepares for the possible implantation of a fertilized egg. During this phase, the endometrium secretes substances that support the growth of the embryo. If fertilization does not occur, the endometrium will eventually shed, leading to menstruation.

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160. Select the correct statement about the hormonal events of the ovarian cycle.

Explanation

High estrogen levels result in a surge of LH release. During the ovarian cycle, rising levels of estrogens do start follicle development, but the LH surge is what stimulates further development of the secondary oocyte. The follicle does begin to secrete progesterone, but this is in response to LH stimulation, not estrogen stimulation. Therefore, the correct statement is that high estrogen levels result in a surge of LH release.

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161. The stomach's contractile rhythm is set by pacemaker cells found in the spinal cord.  

Explanation

The statement is false because the pacemaker cells that set the stomach's contractile rhythm are actually found in the stomach itself, not in the spinal cord. These cells, known as interstitial cells of Cajal, generate electrical signals that coordinate the contractions of the stomach muscles.

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162. Fever is seldom beneficial because it speeds up the cellular metabolic rate and will not allow antigen-antibody reactions to occur.

Explanation

This statement is false. Fever is actually a beneficial response by the body to fight off infections. It is a natural defense mechanism that helps to increase the metabolic rate of cells, which in turn enhances the immune response and promotes the production of antibodies. The increase in body temperature also inhibits the growth of certain pathogens, making it harder for them to survive. Therefore, fever is indeed beneficial in facilitating antigen-antibody reactions and aiding in the body's defense against infections.

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163. Having a kinked ureter is called renal ptosis.

Explanation

Having a kinked ureter is not called renal ptosis. Renal ptosis refers to the condition where the kidney droops or moves out of its normal position. A kinked ureter, on the other hand, is known as ureteral kinking or ureteral obstruction. Therefore, the statement is false.

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164. Arterial blood supply to heart muscle is continuous whether the heart is in systole or diastole.

Explanation

The statement is false because during systole (contraction phase of the heart), the coronary arteries are compressed, restricting blood flow to the heart muscle. However, during diastole (relaxation phase of the heart), the coronary arteries are not compressed, allowing for continuous blood supply to the heart muscle. Therefore, arterial blood supply to the heart muscle is not continuous throughout the cardiac cycle.

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165. An increase in the permeability of the cells of the collecting tubule to water is due to a(n)______.

Explanation

An increase in the permeability of the cells of the collecting tubule to water is due to a decrease in the production of ADH. ADH, or antidiuretic hormone, plays a key role in regulating water reabsorption in the kidneys. When ADH levels are low, the cells of the collecting tubule become less permeable to water, resulting in decreased water reabsorption and increased urine production. Therefore, a decrease in the production of ADH would lead to an increase in the permeability of the cells of the collecting tubule to water.

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166. Auricles slightly increase blood volume in the ventricles.

Explanation

Auricles do not increase blood volume in the ventricles. The auricles are small, flap-like structures that are located on the top of the atria in the heart. Their main function is to assist in filling the ventricles by collecting blood that is returning to the heart. However, they do not actually increase the volume of blood in the ventricles. The ventricles themselves are responsible for pumping blood out of the heart and into the arteries.

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167. Which of the following is not a part of the juxtaglomerular complex?

Explanation

The juxtaglomerular complex is a structure located in the kidney that regulates blood pressure and filtration. It consists of three main components: macula densa, granular cells, and mesangial cells. Podocyte cells, on the other hand, are not a part of the juxtaglomerular complex. Podocytes are specialized cells in the kidney that form a filtration barrier in the glomerulus. While they are important for kidney function, they are not directly involved in the regulation of blood pressure and filtration in the juxtaglomerular complex.

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168. The path urine takes after it is formed until it leaves the body is the urethra, urinary bladder, and finally the ureter.  

Explanation

The correct answer is False. The path urine takes after it is formed until it leaves the body is the ureter, urinary bladder, and finally the urethra.

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169. Factors that influence the rate and depth of breathing include______.

Explanation

The rate and depth of breathing can be influenced by voluntary cortical control. This means that a person can consciously control their breathing, such as taking deep breaths or breathing faster or slower. Other factors listed in the question, such as thalamic control, stretch receptors in the alveoli, and temperature of alveolar air, may also play a role in breathing but are not specifically mentioned as factors that influence the rate and depth of breathing in this question.

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170. Choose the incorrect statement regarding bile

Explanation

Bile does not contain enzymes for digestion. Bile is produced by the liver and stored in the gallbladder, and its main function is to emulsify fats, which means it helps break down large fat globules into smaller droplets, increasing the surface area for digestion by enzymes. Bile also acts as an excretory product, eliminating waste products such as bilirubin, a breakdown product of hemoglobin from worn-out red blood cells. However, bile itself does not contain enzymes for digestion.

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171. The condition where fluid compresses the heart and limits its ability to contract is called____.

Explanation

Cardiac tamponade is the condition where fluid accumulates in the pericardial sac, compressing the heart and restricting its ability to contract effectively. This can lead to decreased cardiac output and potentially life-threatening consequences. Pericarditis refers to inflammation of the pericardium, angina pectoris is chest pain caused by reduced blood flow to the heart, and myocardial infarction is a heart attack resulting from blocked blood flow to the heart muscle.

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172. The cisterna chyli collects lymph from the lumbar trunks draining the upper limbs and from the intestinal trunk draining the digestive organs

Explanation

The cisterna chyli does not collect lymph from the lumbar trunks draining the upper limbs and from the intestinal trunk draining the digestive organs. Instead, the cisterna chyli collects lymph from the lower limbs and pelvic region.

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173. Select the correct statement about factors that influence blood pressure.

Explanation

Excess red cell production would cause a blood pressure increase. This is because an increase in the number of red blood cells would lead to an increase in blood viscosity, making it more difficult for blood to flow through the blood vessels. This increased resistance to blood flow results in higher blood pressure.

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174. The thick-walled arteries close to the heart are called muscular arteries

Explanation

The statement is false because the thick-walled arteries close to the heart are actually called elastic arteries, not muscular arteries. Elastic arteries have a high proportion of elastic fibers in their walls, allowing them to expand and recoil with each heartbeat, helping to maintain a steady flow of blood. Muscular arteries, on the other hand, have a higher proportion of smooth muscle cells in their walls and are responsible for regulating blood flow to specific organs and tissues.

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175. Which of the following is not a method that maintains lymph flow?

Explanation

Capillary smooth muscle contraction is not a method that maintains lymph flow. Lymph flow is primarily maintained by the valves in lymph vessel walls, which prevent backflow and ensure the one-way movement of lymph. Skeletal muscle contraction also plays a role in lymph flow, as the contraction and relaxation of muscles surrounding the lymphatic vessels help to squeeze and propel the lymph forward. Breathing also aids in lymph flow, as the pressure changes during inhalation and exhalation help to create a pumping effect on the lymphatic vessels. However, capillary smooth muscle contraction does not directly contribute to lymph flow.

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Chyle is believed to the blood via the lymphatic system
Which organ is responsible for synthesizing ANP?
Tissues damaged by myocardial infarction are replaced by connective...
Which of the following cells is the most critical cell in immunity?
The circular folds of the small intestine enhance absorption by...
The special type of hemoglobin present in fetal red blood cells is...
Which of the following is likely during vigorous exercise?
Platelets_______.
The factor favoring filtrate formation at the glomerulus is the...
Anaphylactic shock can result from an immediate hypersensitivity where...
What is the average normal pH range of blood?
When can erythroblastosis fetalis not possibly happen in the...
The redness and heat of an inflamed area are due to a local hyperemia...
Which blood type is generally called the universal donor?
Which of the following is not a cause of bleeding disorders?
Which of the following is not a function characteristic of...
Is [your statement here] true or false?
Tubular secretion is effective in controlling blood pH.
Which of the following is the correct sequence of events in...
Hemorrhagic anemia result from blood loss.
Respiratory control centers are located in the ______.
Most electrolyte reabsorption by the renal tubules is ______.
Surfactant helps to prevent the alveoli from collapsing by ______.
Which of the following statements is true concerning the mammary...
The functions and structural unity of the kidneys in the______.
Whereas diffusion is more important for solute exchange between plasma...
During the period of ventricular filling______.
The loudness of a person's voice depends on the _____.
The main site of gas exchange is the ______.
The most powerful respiratory stimulus for breathing in a healthy...
A man has been told that he is not synthesizing enough...
Tracheal obstruction is life threatening 
Most inspired particles such as dust fail to reach the lungs because...
Type 2 diabetics may reflect declining receptor sensitivity to insulin...
Using the Figure 16.2, math the following hypothalamic...
The nose serves all of the following functions except______.
Which one do you like?
A fluid secreted into the small intestine during digestion that...
Chyle is delivered to the blood via the lymphatic system
Lymphocytes reside temporarily in lymphoid tissue, then move to other...
 Hormones often cause a cell to elicit multiple responses; this...
Normal development of the immune response is due in part to hormones...
Regulating hormones from the hypothalamus_______.
Which one do you like?
Gluconeogenesis occurs in the liver due to the action of ______.
Tissues damaged by myocardial infarction are replace by connective...
Factors that aid venous return include all except 
Which one do you like?
When tissues are inflames, lymphatic capillaries develop openings that...
Which of the following is nor a cardinal sign of diabetes mellitus?
Cancer cells are virus-infected body cells can be killed before...
Which one do you like?
The major targets of growth hormone are _______.
The adjustment of blood flow to each tissue in proportion to its...
Select the correct statement about the heart valves.
Which of theses is not part of the splanchnic circulation?
When it becomes necessary to enlist the fight-or-flight response, a...
Fever______.
The major means of propulsion through the alimentary canal is...
Which of the following maintains the patency (openness) of the...
Several hormones are synthesizes in the hypothalamus and transported...
The major targets of growth hormone are_____.
Functions of the spleen include all of those below except 
Smoking diminishes ciliary action and eventually destroys the...
Iodine is an essential element required for the synthesis of...
Lymph leaves a lymph node via ______.
Effects of estrogen include_____.
The left ventricular wall of the heart is thicker than the right wall...
Which of the following is not a cardinal sign of diabetes mellitus?
The sheets of peritoneal membrane that hold the digestive tract in...
Select the correct statement about immunodeficiency 
Fertilization generally occurs in the ______.
Which of the following blood pressure readings would be indicative of...
An important characteristic of urine is its specific gravity or...
Which of the following is characteristic of antibodies?
A lack of intrinsic factor, leading to a deficiency of vitamin B12 and...
The darts and cremaster muscles are important to the integrity of the...
Which of the following is not a distribution function of blood?
An individual who is blood type AB negative can ______.
The primary immune response _______.
Fred's blood was determined to be AB positive. What does this...
Which of the following might trigger erythropoiesis?
The _____ artery lies on the boundary between the cortex and medulla...
The basic difference between spermatogenesis and oogenesis is...
Which of the following is not an autoimmune disease
Which of the following is not a function of the inflammatory response?
The structures that receive the ovulated oocyte, providing a site for...
Complete the following statements using the choices below. Air moves...
Which of the following would bot be a possible cause of sickling of...
The source of blood carried to capillaries in the myocardium would be...
If the vagal nerves to the heart were cut, the result would be that...
Which tunic of an artery is most responsible for maintaining blood...
Norepinephrine acts on the heart by______.
The carotid sinus reflex protects the blood supply to the brain,...
Which one do you like?
The mechanism of water reabsorption by the renal tubules is______.
Which of the choices below is a function of the nephron...
Functions of the spleen include all of those below except______.
​Using Figure 18.3, match the following:Normal Sinus Rhythm.
Which one do you like?
Incontinence is the inability to control voluntary...
Large clusters of lymph nodes occur in all of the following...
Which lymphatic structure drains lymph from the right upper limb and...
Oxygen and carbon dioxide are exchanges in the lungs and through all...
Which of the following is not a function of lymph nodes?
The erythrocyte count increases after a while when an individual goes...
Which of the following would not be classified as a...
Damage to the ______ is referred to as hear block.
The antagonistic hormones that regulate the blood calcium level are...
Gastrin is a digestive hormone that is responsible for the stimulation...
Surgical cutting of the lingual frenulum would occur in which part of...
The baroreceptors in the carotid sinus and aortic arch are sensitive...
The ducts that deliver bile and pancreatic juice from the liver and...
Hemorrhage with a large loss of blood causes_____.
Which of the following is the most significant source of blood flow...
Blood within the pulmonary veins returns to the_____.
An increase in blood viscosity will cause an increase in peripheral...
The baroreceptors in the carotid sinus and aortic arch are sensitive...
The pulse pressure is _____.
The factors responsible for holding the lungs to the thorax wall are...
The single most important regulator of calcium levels in the blood is...
Where in the body would you find low oxygen levels causing...
Oxytocin is a strong stimulant of uterine contractions. 
No visible cytoplasmic granules are present in _______.
Select the correct statement about active and passive immunity 
The thymus is the only lymphoid organ that does not________.
The ingestion of a meal high in gat content would cause which of the...
When it becomes necessary to enlist the fight-or-fight response, a...
Erection of the penis results from_____.
Innate immune system defenses include_______.
Select the correct statement about the nephrons
Which of the following statements regarding the hepatic portal system...
Gluconeogenesis occurs in the liver due to the action of_________.
The immediate response to blood vessel injury is clotting.
Which of the choices below is not a function of the urinary system?
Which of the choices below is not a part of the...
Which of the following occurs as a result of undescended testes?
An obstruction in the superior vena cava would decrease the flow of...
Virus infected cells secrete complement to "warn" other...
The fatty tissue surrounding the kidneys is important because it 
Which of the following acts as the trigger for the invitation of...
Having a kinked ureter is called renal ptosis.  
Nasal conchae mainly work on inhalation to warm and moisten air. They...
Urea is reabsorbed in the nephron loop.  
Peter's patches are found in the _____.
Normal heart sounds are cause by which of the following events?
The term for pain associated with deficient blood delivery to the...
A thrombus (blood clot) in the first brace of the arch of the aorta...
Nervous control of gastric secretion is provided by ________.
What stomach secretion is necessary for normal hemoglobin production...
Which of the following is an essential role played by large intestine...
As pressure in the aorta rises due to atherosclerosis, more...
Immunocompetence_______.
The primary source of RBC'S in the adult human being is the bone...
Natural killer (NK) cells_____.
Valsalva's maneuver involves closing off the glottis (preventing...
In addition to storage and mechanical breakdown of food, the...
Which of the following is not a function of the inflammatory response?
Which of the following will occur after ovulation?
Select the correct statement about the hormonal events of the ovarian...
The stomach's contractile rhythm is set by pacemaker cells found...
Fever is seldom beneficial because it speeds up the cellular metabolic...
Having a kinked ureter is called renal ptosis.
Arterial blood supply to heart muscle is continuous whether the heart...
An increase in the permeability of the cells of the collecting tubule...
Auricles slightly increase blood volume in the ventricles.
Which of the following is not a part of the juxtaglomerular complex?
The path urine takes after it is formed until it leaves the body is...
Factors that influence the rate and depth of breathing include______.
Choose the incorrect statement regarding bile
The condition where fluid compresses the heart and limits its ability...
The cisterna chyli collects lymph from the lumbar trunks draining the...
Select the correct statement about factors that influence blood...
The thick-walled arteries close to the heart are called muscular...
Which of the following is not a method that maintains lymph...
Match the following
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