Genitourinary Disorders

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  • 1/115 Questions

    A nurse is collecting a health history on a client who's to undergo a renal angiography. Which statement by the client should be the priority for the nurse to address?

    • "I've had diabetes for 4 years."
    • "I'm allergic to shellfish."
    • "I haven't eaten since midnight."
    • "My physician diagnosed me with hypertension 3 months ago."
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Organ System Quizzes & Trivia

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  • 2. 

    A client is ordered continuous bladder irrigation at a rate of 60 gtt/minute. The nurse hangs a 2 L bag of sterile solution with tubing on a three-legged I.V. pole. She then attaches the tubing to the client's three-way urinary catheter, adjusts the flow rate, and leaves the room. Which important procedural step did the nurse fail to follow?

    • Evaluating patency of the drainage lumen

    • Counter-balancing the I.V. pole

    • Attaching the infusion set to an infusion pump

    • Collecting a urine specimen before beginning irrigation

    Correct Answer
    A. Evaluating patency of the drainage lumen
    Explanation
    RATIONALE: The nurse should evaluate patency of the drainage tubing before leaving the client's room. If the lumen is obstructed, the solution infuses into the bladder but isn't eliminated through the drainage tubing, a situation that may cause client injury. Balancing the pole is important; however, the nurse would have had to address this issue immediately after hanging the 2 L bag. Using an I.V. pump isn't necessary for continuous bladder irrigation. Unless specifically ordered, obtaining a urine specimen before beginning continuous bladder irrigation isn't necessary.

    CLIENT NEEDS CATEGORY: Physiological integrity
    CLIENT NEEDS SUBCATEGORY: Reduction of risk potential
    COGNITIVE LEVEL: Analysis

    REFERENCE: Smeltzer, S.C., et al. Brunner & Suddarth's Textbook of Medical-Surgical Nursing,11th ed. Philadelphia: Lippincott Williams & Wilkins, 2008, p. 1767.

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  • 3. 

    A nurse is planning to administer a sodium polystyrene sulfonate (Kayexalate) enema to a client with a potassium level of 6.2 mEq/L. Correct administration and the effects of this enema should include having the client:

    • Retain the enema for 30 minutes to allow for sodium exchange; afterward, the client should have diarrhea.

    • Retain the enema for 30 minutes to allow for glucose exchange; afterward, the client should have diarrhea.

    • Retain the enema for 60 minutes to allow for sodium exchange; diarrhea isn't necessary to reduce the potassium level.

    • Retain the enema for 60 minutes to allow for glucose exchange; diarrhea isn't necessary to reduce the potassium level.

    Correct Answer
    A. Retain the enema for 30 minutes to allow for sodium exchange; afterward, the client should have diarrhea.
    Explanation
    RATIONALE: Kayexalate is a sodium-exchange resin. Thus, the client will gain sodium as potassium is lost in the bowel. For the exchange to occur, Kayexalate must be in contact with the bowel for at least 30 minutes. Sorbitol in the Kayexalate enema causes diarrhea, which increases potassium loss and decreases the potential for Kayexalate retention.

    CLIENT NEEDS CATEGORY: Physiological integrity
    CLIENT NEEDS SUBCATEGORY: Pharmacological and parenteral therapies
    COGNITIVE LEVEL: Comprehension

    REFERENCE: Springhouse Nurse's Drug Guide 2007.Philadelphia: Lippincott Williams & Wilkins, 2007, p. 1163.

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  • 4. 

    A client is admitted for treatment of chronic renal failure (CRF). The nurse knows that this disorder increases the client's risk of:

    • Water and sodium retention secondary to a severe decrease in the glomerular filtration rate.

    • A decreased serum phosphate level secondary to kidney failure.

    • An increased serum calcium level secondary to kidney failure.

    • Metabolic alkalosis secondary to retention of hydrogen ions.

    Correct Answer
    A. Water and sodium retention secondary to a severe decrease in the glomerular filtration rate.
    Explanation
    RATIONALE: The client with CRF is at risk for fluid imbalance — dehydrationif the kidneys fail to concentrate urine, or fluid retention if the kidneys fail to produce urine. Electrolyte imbalances associated with this disorder result from the kidneys' inability to excrete phosphorus; such imbalances may lead tohyperphosphatemiawith reciprocal hypocalcemia. CRF may causemetabolic acidosis, notmetabolic alkalosis, secondary to inability of the kidneys to excrete hydrogen ions.

    CLIENT NEEDS CATEGORY: Physiological integrity
    CLIENT NEEDS SUBCATEGORY: Physiological adaptation
    COGNITIVE LEVEL: Knowledge

    REFERENCE: Smeltzer, S.C., et al. Brunner & Suddarth's Textbook of Medical-Surgical Nursing,11th ed. Philadelphia: Lippincott Williams & Wilkins, 2008, p. 1529.

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  • 5. 

    A nurse is providing postprocedure care for a client who underwent percutaneous lithotripsy. In this procedure, an ultrasonic probe inserted through a nephrostomy tube into the renal pelvis generates ultra–high-frequency sound waves to shatter renal calculi. The nurse should instruct the client to:

    • Limit oral fluid intake for 1 to 2 weeks.

    • Report the presence of fine, sandlike particles through the nephrostomy tube.

    • Notify the physician about cloudy or foul-smelling urine.

    • Report bright pink urine within 24 hours after the procedure.

    Correct Answer
    A. Notify the physician about cloudy or foul-smelling urine.
    Explanation
    RATIONALE: The nurse should instruct the client to report the presence of foul-smelling or cloudy urine to the physician. Unless contraindicated, the client should be instructed to drink large quantities of fluid each day to flush the kidneys. Sandlike debris is normal because of residual stone products. Hematuriais common after lithotripsy.

    CLIENT NEEDS CATEGORY: Physiological integrity
    CLIENT NEEDS SUBCATEGORY: Physiological adaptation
    COGNITIVE LEVEL: Analysis

    REFERENCE: Smeltzer, S.C., et al. Brunner & Suddarth's Textbook of Medical-Surgical Nursing,11th ed. Philadelphia: Lippincott Williams & Wilkins, 2008, p. 1594.

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  • 6. 

    A nurse is caring for a client diagnosed with ovarian cancer. Diagnostic testing reveals that the cancer has spread outside the pelvis. The client has previously undergone a right oophorectomyand receivedchemotherapy. The client now wants palliative care instead of aggressive therapy. The nurse determines that the care plan's priority nursing diagnosis should be:

    • Acute pain

    • Impaired home maintenance

    • Noncompliance

    • Ineffective breast-feeding

    Correct Answer
    A. Acute pain
    Explanation
    RATIONALE: Palliative care for the client with advanced cancer includes pain management, emotional support, and comfort measures. The client is in the hospital, so home maintenance doesn't apply at this time. The client has chosen palliative care, so she isn't noncompliant. The client isn't breast-feeding, so the diagnosis of Ineffective breast-feedingdoesn't apply.

    CLIENT NEEDS CATEGORY: Physiological integrity
    CLIENT NEEDS SUBCATEGORY: Basic care and comfort
    COGNITIVE LEVEL: Application

    REFERENCE: Craven, R.F., and Hirnle, C.J. Fundamentals of Nursing: Human Health and Function,5th ed. Philadelphia: Lippincott Williams & Wilkins, 2007, p. 1329.

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  • 7. 

    After a retropubic prostatectomy, a client needs continuous bladder irrigation. The client has an I.V. of dextrose 5% in water infusing at 40 ml/hour, and a triple-lumen urinary catheter with normal saline solution infusing at 200 ml/hour. The nurse empties the urinary catheter drainage bag three times during an 8-hour period for a total of 2,780 ml. How many milliliters does the nurse calculate as urine? Record your answer using a whole number. Answer: ___milliliters

    Correct Answer
    1180
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 1180.

    RATIONALE: During 8 hours, 1,600 ml of bladder irrigation has been infused (200 ml × 8 hour = 1,600 ml/8 hour). The nurse then subtracts this amount of infused bladder irrigation from the total volume in the drainage bag (2,780 ml − 1,600 ml = 1,180 ml) to determine urinary output.

    CLIENT NEEDS CATEGORY: Physiological integrity
    CLIENT NEEDS SUBCATEGORY: Basic care and comfort
    COGNITIVE LEVEL: Analysis

    REFERENCE: Karch, A.M. Focus on Nursing Pharmacology,4th ed. Philadelphia: Lippincott Williams & Wilkins, 2007, p. 57.

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  • 8. 

    After undergoing renal arteriogram, in which the left groin was accessed, a client complains of left calf pain. Which intervention should the nurse perform first?

    • Assess peripheral pulses in the left leg.

    • Place cool compresses on the calf.

    • Exercise the leg and foot.

    • Assess for anaphylaxis.

    Correct Answer
    A. Assess peripheral pulses in the left leg.
    Explanation
    RATIONALE: The nurse should begin by assessing peripheral pulses in the left leg to determine if blood flow was interrupted by the procedure. The client may also have thrombophlebitis. Cool compresses aren't used to relieve pain and inflammation in thrombophlebitis. The leg should remain straight after the procedure. Calf pain isn't a symptom ofanaphylaxis.

    CLIENT NEEDS CATEGORY: Physiological integrity
    CLIENT NEEDS SUBCATEGORY: Reduction of risk potential
    COGNITIVE LEVEL: Analysis

    REFERENCE: Smeltzer, S.C., et al. Brunner & Suddarth's Textbook of Medical-Surgical Nursing,11th ed. Philadelphia: Lippincott Williams & Wilkins, 2008, p. 1509.

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  • 9. 

    A client with renal failure is undergoing continuous ambulatory peritoneal dialysis. Which nursing diagnosis is the most appropriate for this client?

    • Impaired urinary elimination

    • Toileting self-care deficit

    • Risk for infection

    • Activity intolerance

    Correct Answer
    A. Risk for infection
    Explanation
    RATIONALE: The peritoneal dialysis catheter and regular exchanges of the dialysis bag provide a direct portal for bacteria to enter the body. If the client experiences repeated peritoneal infections, continuous ambulatory peritoneal dialysis may no longer be effective in clearing waste products.Impaired urinary elimination, Toileting self-care deficit,andActivity intolerancemay be pertinent but are secondary to the risk of infection.

    CLIENT NEEDS CATEGORY: Physiological integrity
    CLIENT NEEDS SUBCATEGORY: Reduction of risk potential
    COGNITIVE LEVEL: Application

    REFERENCE: Smeltzer, S.C., et al. Brunner & Suddarth's Textbook of Medical-Surgical Nursing,11th ed. Philadelphia: Lippincott Williams & Wilkins, 2008, p. 1548.

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  • 10. 

    A nurse is assessing a male client diagnosed with gonorrhea. Which symptom most likely prompted the client to seek medical attention?

    • Rashes on the palms of the hands and soles of the feet

    • Cauliflower-like warts on the penis

    • Painful red papules on the shaft of the penis

    • Foul-smelling discharge from the penis

    Correct Answer
    A. Foul-smelling discharge from the penis
    Explanation
    RATIONALE: Symptoms of gonorrhea in men include purulent, foul-smelling drainage from the penis and painful urination. Rashes on the palms of the hands and soles of the feet are symptoms of the secondary stage of syphilis. Cauliflower-like warts on the penis are a sign of human papillomavirus. Painful red papules on the shaft of the penis may be a sign of the first stage of genital herpes.

    CLIENT NEEDS CATEGORY: Physiological integrity
    CLIENT NEEDS SUBCATEGORY: Physiological adaptation
    COGNITIVE LEVEL: Application

    REFERENCE: Smeltzer, S.C., et al. Brunner & Suddarth's Textbook of Medical-Surgical Nursing,11th ed. Philadelphia: Lippincott Williams & Wilkins, 2008, p. 2507.

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  • 11. 

    A client requires hemodialysis. Which type of drug should be withheld before this procedure?

    • Phosphate binders

    • Insulin

    • Antibiotics

    • Cardiac glycosides

    Correct Answer
    A. Cardiac glycosides
    Explanation
    RATIONALE: Cardiac glycosides such as digoxin (Lanoxin) should be withheld before hemodialysis. Hypokalemia is one of the electrolyte shifts that occur during dialysis, and a hypokalemic client is at risk for arrhythmiassecondary to digoxin toxicity. Phosphate binders and insulin can be administered because they aren't removed from the blood by dialysis. Some antibiotics are removed by dialysis and should be administered after the procedure to ensure their therapeutic effects. The nurse should check a formulary to determine whether a particular antibiotic should be administered before or after dialysis.

    CLIENT NEEDS CATEGORY: Physiological integrity
    CLIENT NEEDS SUBCATEGORY: Pharmacological and parenteral therapies
    COGNITIVE LEVEL: Application

    REFERENCE: Smeltzer, S.C., et al. Brunner & Suddarth's Textbook of Medical-Surgical Nursing,11th ed. Philadelphia: Lippincott Williams & Wilkins, 2008, p. 1552.

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  • 12. 

    A nurse is explaining menstruation to a class. Place the steps of the menstrual cycle listed below in the correct order. Use all options.1. The level of estrogen in the blood peaks.2. Peak endometrial thickening occurs.3. Estrogen and progesterone levels increase.4. Top layer of the endometrium breaks down.5. A follicle matures and ovulation occurs.6. The endometrium begins thickening.

    Correct Answer
    461523
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 4,6,1,5,2,3.

    RATIONALE: The menstrual cycle begins with the first day of menstruation, when the top layer of the endometrium breaks down and sloughs. The endometrium thickens and the level of estrogen in the blood peaks. Next, a follicle matures and ovulation occurs. Peak endometrial thickening occurs and the estrogen and progesterone levels increase, inhibiting luteinizing hormone.

    CLIENT NEEDS CATEGORY: Health promotion and maintenance
    CLIENT NEEDS SUBCATEGORY: None
    COGNITIVE LEVEL: Application

    REFERENCE: Smeltzer, S.C., et al. Brunner & Suddarth's Textbook of Medical-Surgical Nursing,11th ed. Philadelphia: Lippincott Williams & Wilkins, 2008, p. 1615.

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  • 13. 

    A client returns to an intensive care unit after coronary artery bypass graftsurgery, which was complicated by prolonged cardiopulmonary bypass and hypotension. After 3 hours in the unit, the client's condition stabilizes. However, the urine output has decreased despite adequate filling pressures. The nurse expects the physician to add which drug, at which flow rate, to the client's regimen?

    • Dopamine (Intropin), 3 mcg/kg/minute

    • Dobutamine (Dobutrex), 10 mcg/kg/minute

    • Epinephrine, 4 mcg/kg/minute

    • Norepinephrine (Levophed), 8 mcg/minute

    Correct Answer
    A. Dopamine (Intropin), 3 mcg/kg/minute
    Explanation
    RATIONALE: This client is at high risk for acute prerenal failure secondary to decreased renal perfusion during surgery. To dilate the renal arteries and help prevent renal shutdown, the physician is likely to order dopamine at a low flow rate (2 to 5 mcg/kg/minute). Although this drug has mixed dopaminergic and beta activity when given at 5 to 10 mcg/kg/minute, the client is stabilized and thus doesn't need the beta effects from the higher flow rate — or the sympathomimetic effects of epinephrine. The dopaminergic effects of dopamine increase renal perfusion, contractility, and vasodilation. Dobutamine is used to increase cardiac output. Norepinephrine is a potent vasoconstrictor that shunts blood away from the kidneys to increase blood pressure.

    CLIENT NEEDS CATEGORY: Physiological integrity
    CLIENT NEEDS SUBCATEGORY: Pharmacological and parenteral therapies
    COGNITIVE LEVEL: Knowledge

    REFERENCE: Springhouse Nurse's Drug Guide 2007.Philadelphia: Lippincott Williams & Wilkins, 2007, p. 451.

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  • 14. 

    After undergoing transurethral resection of the prostate to treat benign prostatic hyperplasia, a client returns to the room with continuous bladder irrigation. On the first day after surgery, the client reports bladder pain. What should the nurse do first?

    • Increase the I.V. flow rate.

    • Notify the physician immediately.

    • Assess the irrigation catheter for patency and drainage.

    • Administer morphine sulfate, 2 mg I.V., as ordered.

    Correct Answer
    A. Assess the irrigation catheter for patency and drainage.
    Explanation
    RATIONALE: Although postoperative pain is expected, the nurse should make sure that other factors, such as an obstructed irrigation catheter, aren't the cause of the pain. After assessing catheter patency, the nurse should administer an analgesic, such as morphine sulfate, as ordered. Increasing the I.V. flow rate may worsen the pain. Notifying the physician isn't necessary unless the pain is severe or unrelieved by the ordered medication.

    CLIENT NEEDS CATEGORY: Physiological integrity
    CLIENT NEEDS SUBCATEGORY: Reduction of risk potential
    COGNITIVE LEVEL: Application

    REFERENCE: Smeltzer, S.C., et al. Brunner & Suddarth's Textbook of Medical-Surgical Nursing,11th ed. Philadelphia: Lippincott Williams & Wilkins, 2008, p. 1767.

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  • 15. 

    A nurse is inserting a urinary catheter into a client who is extremely anxious about the procedure. The nurse can facilitate the insertion by asking the client to:

    • Initiate a stream of urine.

    • Breathe deeply.

    • Turn to the side.

    • Hold the labia or shaft of the penis.

    Correct Answer
    A. Breathe deeply.
    Explanation
    RATIONALE: When inserting a urinary catheter, the nurse can facilitate insertion by asking the client to breathe deeply. Breathing deeply will relax the urinary sphincter. Initiating a stream of urine isn't recommended during catheter insertion. Turning to the side or holding the labia or penis won't ease insertion, and doing so may contaminate the sterile field.

    CLIENT NEEDS CATEGORY: Physiological integrity
    CLIENT NEEDS SUBCATEGORY: Basic care and comfort
    COGNITIVE LEVEL: Application

    REFERENCE: Taylor, C., et al. Fundamentals of Nursing: The Art and Science of Nursing Care,6th ed. Philadelphia: Lippincott Williams & Wilkins, 2008, p. 1531.

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  • 16. 

    Because of difficulties with hemodialysis, peritoneal dialysisis initiated to treat a client's uremia. Which finding during this procedure signals a significant problem?

    • Blood glucose level of 200 mg/dl

    • White blood cell (WBC) count of 20,000/mm3

    • Potassium level of 3.5 mEq/L

    • Hematocrit (HCT) of 35%

    Correct Answer
    A. White blood cell (WBC) count of 20,000/mm3
    Explanation
    RATIONALE: An increased WBC count indicates infection, probably resulting fromperitonitis, which may have been caused by insertion of the peritoneal catheter into the peritoneal cavity. Peritonitis can cause the peritoneal membrane to lose its ability to filter solutes; therefore, peritoneal dialysis would no longer be a treatment option for this client.Hyperglycemia(evidenced by a blood glucose level of 200 mg/dl) occurs during peritoneal dialysis because of the high glucose content of the dialysate; it's readily treatable with sliding-scale insulin. A potassium level of 3.5 mEq/L can be treated by adding potassium to the dialysate solution. An HCT of 35% is lower than normal. However, in this client, the value isn't abnormally low because of the daily blood samplings. A lower HCT is common in clients with chronic renal failure because of the lack of erythropoietin.

    CLIENT NEEDS CATEGORY: Physiological integrity
    CLIENT NEEDS SUBCATEGORY: Physiological adaptation
    COGNITIVE LEVEL: Analysis

    REFERENCE: Smeltzer, S.C., et al. Brunner & Suddarth's Textbook of Medical-Surgical Nursing,11th ed. Philadelphia: Lippincott Williams & Wilkins, 2008, p. 1547.

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  • 17. 

    A client with acute renal failure is undergoing dialysis for the first time. The nurse monitors the client closely for dialysis equilibrium syndrome, a complication that's most common during the first few dialysis sessions. Typically, dialysis equilibrium syndrome causes:

    • Confusion, headache, and seizures.

    • Acute bone pain and confusion.

    • Weakness, tingling, and cardiac arrhythmias.

    • Hypotension, tachycardia, and tachypnea.

    Correct Answer
    A. Confusion, headache, and seizures.
    Explanation
    RATIONALE: Dialysis equilibrium syndrome causes confusion, a decreasing level of consciousness, headache, and seizures. These findings, which may last several days, probably result from a relative excess of interstitial or intracellular solutes caused by rapid solute removal from the blood. The resultant organ swelling interferes with normal physiological functions. To prevent this syndrome, many dialysis centers keep first-time sessions short and use a reduced blood flow rate. Acute bone pain and confusion are associated with aluminum intoxication, another potential complication of dialysis. Weakness, tingling, and cardiac arrhythmiassuggest hyperkalemia, which is associated with renal failure. Hypotension,tachycardia, andtachypneasignal hemorrhage, another dialysis complication.

    CLIENT NEEDS CATEGORY: Physiological integrity
    CLIENT NEEDS SUBCATEGORY: Physiological adaptation
    COGNITIVE LEVEL: Knowledge

    REFERENCE: Smeltzer, S.C., et al. Brunner & Suddarth's Textbook of Medical-Surgical Nursing,11th ed. Philadelphia: Lippincott Williams & Wilkins, 2008, p. 1540.

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  • 18. 

    A registered nurse and a nursing assistant are caring for a group of clients. Which client's care may safely be delegated to the nursing assistant?

    • A client who underwent surgery 12 hours ago whose suprapubic catheter is draining burgundy-colored urine

    • A client with uncontrolled diabetes mellitus who underwent radical suprapubic prostatectomy 1 day ago and has an indwelling urinary catheter draining yellow urine with clots

    • A client diagnosed with renal calculi who must ambulate four times daily and drink plenty of fluids.

    • A client who requires neurological assessment every 4 hours after sustaining a spinal cord injury in a motor vehicle accident that left him with paraplegia

    Correct Answer
    A. A client diagnosed with renal calculi who must ambulate four times daily and drink plenty of fluids.
    Explanation
    RATIONALE: The care of the client diagnosed with renal calculi may safely be delegated to the nursing assistant. The registered nurse should care for the client who had surgery 12 hours ago because the client requires close assessment. The client with uncontrolled diabetes mellitusalso requires careful assessment by the registered nurse. In addition, the registered nurse should care for the client who requires neurological assessment, which isn't within the scope of practice for the nursing assistant.

    CLIENT NEEDS CATEGORY: Safe, effective care environment
    CLIENT NEEDS SUBCATEGORY: Management of care
    COGNITIVE LEVEL: Analysis

    REFERENCE: Taylor, C., et al. Fundamentals of Nursing: The Art and Science of Nursing Care,6th ed. Philadelphia: Lippincott Williams & Wilkins, 2008, p. 323.

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  • 19. 

    A nurse preceptor is observing a new graduate during care of a client in contact isolation. Which action by the new graduate indicates a need for further teaching about handling infectious materials?

    • The nurse wears gloves during each client contact.

    • The nurse washes her hands when entering and exiting the room.

    • The nurse disposes of articles contaminated with blood in the room's biohazard container.

    • The nurse uses alcohol gel to clean her hands after changing linen soiled with urine and feces.

    Correct Answer
    A. The nurse uses alcohol gel to clean her hands after changing linen soiled with urine and feces.
    Explanation
    RATIONALE: Using alcohol gel isn't acceptable after the nurse has been in contact with soiled material. The nurse should wash her hands with soap and water. The nurse demonstrates appropriate handling of infectious materials by wearing gloves with each client contact, washing her hands with soap and water when she enters and exits the room, and disposing contaminated articles in the room's biohazard container.

    CLIENT NEEDS CATEGORY: Safe, effective care environment
    CLIENT NEEDS SUBCATEGORY: Safety and infection control
    COGNITIVE LEVEL: Application

    REFERENCE: Craven, R.F., and Hirnle, C.J. Fundamentals of Nursing: Human Health and Function,5th ed. Philadelphia: Lippincott Williams & Wilkins, 2007, p. 524.

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  • 20. 

    A client underwent a transurethral resection of the prostate gland 24 hours ago and is on continuous bladder irrigation. Which nursing intervention is appropriate?

    • Tell the client to try to urinate around the catheter to remove blood clots.

    • Restrict fluids to prevent the client's bladder from becoming distended.

    • Prepare to remove the catheter.

    • Use sterile technique when irrigating the catheter.

    Correct Answer
    A. Use sterile technique when irrigating the catheter.
    Explanation
    RATIONALE: If the catheter is blocked by blood clots, it may be irrigated according to physician's orders or facility protocol. The nurse should use sterile technique to reduce the risk of infection. Urinating around the catheter can cause painful bladder spasms. The nurse should encourage the client to drink fluids to dilute the urine and maintain urine output. The catheter remains in place for 2 to 4 days after surgery and is removed only with a physician's order.

    CLIENT NEEDS CATEGORY: Physiological integrity
    CLIENT NEEDS SUBCATEGORY: Physiological adaptation
    COGNITIVE LEVEL: Application

    REFERENCE: Smeltzer, S.C., et al. Brunner & Suddarth's Textbook of Medical-Surgical Nursing,11th ed. Philadelphia: Lippincott Williams & Wilkins, 2008, p. 1767.

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  • 21. 

    A physician enters a computer order for a nurse to irrigate a client's nephrostomy tube every 4 hours to maintain patency. The nurse irrigates the tube using sterile technique. After irrigating the tube, the nurse decides that she can safely use the same irrigation set for her 8-hour shift if she covers the set with a paper, sterile drape. This action by the nurse is:

    • Appropriate because the irrigation just checks for patency.

    • Inappropriate because irrigation requires strict sterile technique.

    • Appropriate because the irrigation set will be used only during an 8-hour period.

    • Inappropriate because the sterile drape must be cloth, not paper.

    Correct Answer
    A. Inappropriate because irrigation requires strict sterile technique.
    Explanation
    RATIONALE: Irrigating a nephrostomy tube requires strict sterile technique; therefore, reusing the irrigation set (even if covered by a sterile drape) is inappropriate. Bacteria can proliferate inside the syringe and irrigation container. Although this procedure checks patency, it requires sterile technique to prevent the introduction of bacteria into the kidney. The material of which the sterile drape is made is irrelevant because a sterile drape doesn't deter bacterial growth in the irrigation equipment.

    CLIENT NEEDS CATEGORY: Safe, effective care environment
    CLIENT NEEDS SUBCATEGORY: Safety and infection control
    COGNITIVE LEVEL: Application

    REFERENCE: Taylor, C., et al. Fundamentals of Nursing: The Art and Science of Nursing Care,6th ed. Philadelphia: Lippincott Williams & Wilkins, 2008, p. 720.

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  • 22. 

    When a client with an indwelling urinary catheter wants to walk to the hospital lobby to visit with family members, the nurse teaches him how to do this without compromising the catheter. Which client action indicates an accurate understanding of this information?

    • The client sets the drainage bag on the floor while sitting down.

    • The client keeps the drainage bag below the bladder at all times.

    • The client clamps the catheter drainage tubing while visiting with the family.

    • The client loops the drainage tubing below its point of entry into the drainage bag.

    Correct Answer
    A. The client keeps the drainage bag below the bladder at all times.
    Explanation
    RATIONALE: To maintain effective drainage, the client should keep the drainage bag below the bladder; doing so allows the urine to flow by gravity from the bladder to the drainage bag. The client shouldn't lay the drainage bag on the floor because the bag could become grossly contaminated. The client shouldn't clamp the catheter drainage tubing because this impedes the flow of urine. To promote drainage, the client may loop the drainage tubing above — not below — its point of entry into the drainage bag.

    CLIENT NEEDS CATEGORY: Physiological integrity
    CLIENT NEEDS SUBCATEGORY: Basic care and comfort
    COGNITIVE LEVEL: Application

    REFERENCE: Smeltzer, S.C., et al. Brunner & Suddarth's Textbook of Medical-Surgical Nursing,11th ed. Philadelphia: Lippincott Williams & Wilkins, 2008, p. 1588.

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  • 23. 

    A nurse is reviewing a report of a client's routine urinalysis. Which value requires further investigation?

    • Specific gravity of 1.03

    • Urine pH of 3.0

    • Absence of protein

    • Absence of glucose

    Correct Answer
    A. Urine pH of 3.0
    Explanation
    RATIONALE: Normal urine pH is 4.5 to 8; therefore, a urine pH of 3.0 is abnormal and requires further investigation. Urine specific gravity normally ranges from 1.002 to 1.035, making this client's value normal. Normally, urine contains no protein, glucose, ketones, bilirubin, bacteria, casts, or crystals. Red blood cells should measure 0 to 3 per high-power field; white blood cells, 0 to 4 per high-power field. Urine should be clear, with color ranging from pale yellow to deep amber.

    CLIENT NEEDS CATEGORY: Health promotion and maintenance
    CLIENT NEEDS SUBCATEGORY: None
    COGNITIVE LEVEL: Analysis

    REFERENCE: Smeltzer, S.C., et al. Brunner & Suddarth's Textbook of Medical-Surgical Nursing,11th ed. Philadelphia: Lippincott Williams & Wilkins, 2008, p. 310.

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  • 24. 

    A client on the genitourinary floor has refused all medications for 3 days. A nurse caring for this client asks why he isn't complying with his medication. The client states, "I don't want to take those pills anymore." The nurse informs the client that he must take all the medication the physician orders. With this statement, the nurse has violated the:

    • Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act and the client's privacy.

    • Client's right to refuse medication.

    • Client's advance directive.

    • Client's right to accurate medication administration.

    Correct Answer
    A. Client's right to refuse medication.
    Explanation
    RATIONALE: The nurse has violated the client's right to refuse medication by telling him that he must take all ordered medication. The nurse hasn't violated client privacy because she didn't share any information. An advance directivestates a client's wishes if he's in a terminal condition and can't express them, which doesn't apply at this time. The nurse hasn't violated the client's right to accurate medication administration.

    CLIENT NEEDS CATEGORY: Safe, effective care environment
    CLIENT NEEDS SUBCATEGORY: Management of care
    COGNITIVE LEVEL: Application

    REFERENCE: Craven, R.F., and Hirnle, C.J. Fundamentals of Nursing: Human Health and Function,5th ed. Philadelphia: Lippincott Williams & Wilkins, 2007, p. 557.

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  • 25. 

    A nurse is caring for an 8-year-old girl with multiple chronic urinary tract infections. The child's parents appear protective, never leaving their daughter's side. While the nurse helps the child's mother provide morning care, the child states, "My uncle doesn't clean me that way." Her mother becomes visibly upset and gives the girl a stern warning not to discuss the matter. She states, "Don't tell anyone about that again." The nurse has a legal responsibility to:

    • Notify the nursing supervisor and the authorities of the possibility of abuse.

    • Offer to clean the child the way her uncle does.

    • Leave the room so the mother and daughter can have privacy.

    • Note on the child's chart that the mother is overprotective.

    Correct Answer
    A. Notify the nursing supervisor and the authorities of the possibility of abuse.
    Explanation
    RATIONALE: The nurse has a legal responsibility to report suspected abuseof a child or an elderly person. It's inappropriate to offer to clean the child in the same way as the suspected abuser. Leaving the room doesn't fulfill that responsibility. A chart entry about the parent's behavior reflects the nurse's opinion and isn't based on subjective assessment and objective data.

    CLIENT NEEDS CATEGORY: Safe, effective care environment
    CLIENT NEEDS SUBCATEGORY: Management of care
    COGNITIVE LEVEL: Application

    REFERENCE: Craven, R.F., and Hirnle, C.J. Fundamentals of Nursing: Human Health and Function,5th ed. Philadelphia: Lippincott Williams & Wilkins, 2007, p. 1298.

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  • 26. 

    A client with a history of bladder retention hasn't voided for 8 hours. A nurse concerned that the client is retaining urine notifies the physician. He orders a bladder ultrasonic scan and placement of an indwelling catheter if the residual urine is greater than 350 ml. The nurse knows that using the bladder ultrasonic scan to measure residual urine instead of placing a straight catheter reduces the risk of:

    • Microorganism transfer.

    • Prostate irritation.

    • Client discomfort.

    • Incorrect urine output values.

    Correct Answer
    A. Microorganism transfer.
    Explanation
    RATIONALE: Bladder ultrasonic scanning, a noninvasive way of calculating the amount of urine in the bladder, reduces the risk of transferring microorganisms into the bladder. Use of a straight catheter to measure residual urine increases the transfer of microorganisms into the bladder, and increases, rather than reduces, client discomfort. A bladder ultrasonic scan doesn't reduce the risk of prostate irritation or incorrect urine output values.

    CLIENT NEEDS CATEGORY: Physiological integrity
    CLIENT NEEDS SUBCATEGORY: Reduction of risk potential
    COGNITIVE LEVEL: Application

    REFERENCE: Smeltzer, S.C., et al. Brunner & Suddarth's Textbook of Medical Surgical-Nursing,11th ed. Philadelphia: Lippincott Williams & Wilkins, 2008, p. 1507.

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  • 27. 

    A client is scheduled for a creatinine clearance test. The nurse should explain that this test is done to assess the kidneys' ability to remove a substance from the plasma in:

    • 1 minute.

    • 30 minutes.

    • 1 hour.

    • 24 hours.

    Correct Answer
    A. 1 minute.
    Explanation
    RATIONALE: The creatinine clearance test determines the kidneys' ability to remove a substance from the plasma in 1 minute. It doesn't measure the kidneys' ability to remove a substance over a longer period.

    CLIENT NEEDS CATEGORY: Health promotion and maintenance
    CLIENT NEEDS SUBCATEGORY: None
    COGNITIVE LEVEL: Knowledge

    REFERENCE: Smeltzer, S.C., et al. Brunner & Suddarth's Textbook of Medical-Surgical Nursing,11th ed. Philadelphia: Lippincott Williams & Wilkins, 2008, p. 1507.

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  • 28. 

    After having transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP), a client returns to the unit with a three-way indwelling urinary catheter and continuous closed bladder irrigation. Which finding suggests that the client's catheter is occluded?

    • The urine in the drainage bag appears red to pink.

    • The client reports bladder spasms and the urge to void.

    • The normal saline irrigant is infusing at a rate of 50 drops/minute.

    • About 1,000 ml of irrigant have been instilled; 1,200 ml of drainage have been returned.

    Correct Answer
    A. The client reports bladder spasms and the urge to void.
    Explanation
    RATIONALE: Reports of bladder spasms and the urge to void suggest that a blood clot may be occluding the catheter. After TURP, urine normally appears red to pink, and normal saline irrigant usually is infused at a rate of 40 to 60 drops/minute or according to facility protocol. The amount of returned fluid (1,200 ml) should correspond to the amount of instilled fluid, plus the client's urine output (1,000 ml + 200 ml), which reflects catheter patency.

    CLIENT NEEDS CATEGORY: Physiological integrity
    CLIENT NEEDS SUBCATEGORY: Basic care and comfort
    COGNITIVE LEVEL: Application

    REFERENCE: Smeltzer, S.C., et al. Brunner & Suddarth's Textbook of Medical-Surgical Nursing,11th ed. Philadelphia: Lippincott Williams & Wilkins, 2008, p. 1767.

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  • 29. 

    A client with benign prostatic hyperplasia doesn't respond to medical treatment and is admitted to the facility for prostate gland removal. Before providing preoperative and postoperative instructions to the client, the nurse asks the surgeon which prostatectomy procedure will be done. What is the most widely used procedure for prostate gland removal?

    • Transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP)

    • Suprapubic prostatectomy

    • Retropubic prostatectomy

    • Transurethral laser incision of the prostate

    Correct Answer
    A. Transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP)
    Explanation
    RATIONALE: TURP is the most widely used procedure for prostate gland removal. Because it requires no incision, TURP is especially suitable for men with relatively minor prostatic enlargements and for those who are poor surgical risks. Suprapubic prostatectomy, retropubic prostatectomy, and transurethral laser incision of the prostate are less common procedures; each requires an incision.

    CLIENT NEEDS CATEGORY: Physiological integrity
    CLIENT NEEDS SUBCATEGORY: Physiological adaptation
    COGNITIVE LEVEL: Knowledge

    REFERENCE: Smeltzer, S.C., et al. Brunner & Suddarth's Textbook of Medical-Surgical Nursing,11th ed., Philadelphia: Lippincott Williams & Wilkins, 2008, p. 1761.

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  • 30. 

    A client with a history of chronic renal failure receives hemodialysis treatments three times per week through an arteriovenous (AV) fistula in the left arm. Which intervention should the nurse include in the care plan?

    • Keep the AV fistula site dry.

    • Keep the AV fistula wrapped in gauze.

    • Take the client's blood pressure in the left arm.

    • Assess the AV fistula for a bruit and thrill.

    Correct Answer
    A. Assess the AV fistula for a bruit and thrill.
    Explanation
    RATIONALE: The nurse needs to assess the AV fistula for a bruit and thrill because if these findings aren't present, the fistula isn't functioning. The AV fistula may get wet when the client isn't being dialyzed. Immediately after a dialysis treatment, the access site should be covered with adhesive bandages, not gauze. Blood pressure readings or venipunctures shouldn't be taken in the arm with the AV fistula.

    CLIENT NEEDS CATEGORY: Physiological integrity
    CLIENT NEEDS SUBCATEGORY: Physiological adaptation
    COGNITIVE LEVEL: Application

    REFERENCE: Smeltzer, S.C., et al. Brunner & Suddarth's Textbook of Medical-Surgical Nursing,11th ed. Philadelphia: Lippincott Williams & Wilkins, 2008, p. 1539.

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  • 31. 

    A client comes to the emergency department complaining of sudden onset of sharp, severe pain in the lumbar region that radiates around the side and toward the bladder. The client also reports nausea and vomiting and appears pale, diaphoretic, and anxious. The physician tentatively diagnoses renal calculi and orders flat-plate abdominal X-rays. Renal calculi can form anywhere in the urinary tract. What is their most common formation site?

    • Kidney

    • Ureter

    • Bladder

    • Urethra

    Correct Answer
    A. Kidney
    Explanation
    RATIONALE: The most common site of renal calculi formation is the kidney. Calculi may travel down the urinary tract with or without causing damage and lodge anywhere along the tract or may stay within the kidney. The ureter, bladder, and urethra are less common sites of renal calculi formation.

    CLIENT NEEDS CATEGORY: Physiological integrity
    CLIENT NEEDS SUBCATEGORY: Physiological adaptation
    COGNITIVE LEVEL: Knowledge

    REFERENCE: Smeltzer, S.C., et al. Brunner & Suddarth's Textbook of Medical-Surgical Nursing,11th ed. Philadelphia: Lippincott Williams & Wilkins, 2008, p. 1589.

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  • 32. 

    A client admitted with a gunshot wound to the abdomen is transferred to the intensive care unit after an exploratory laparotomy. I.V. fluid is being infused at 150 ml/hour. Which assessment finding suggests that the client is experiencing acute renal failure (ARF)?

    • Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) level of 22 mg/dl

    • Serum creatinine level of 1.2 mg/dl

    • Temperature of 100.2° F (37.8° C)

    • Urine output of 250 ml/24 hours

    Correct Answer
    A. Urine output of 250 ml/24 hours
    Explanation
    RATIONALE: ARF, characterized by abrupt loss of kidney function, commonly causes oliguria, which is characterized by a urine output of 250 ml/24 hours. A serum creatinine level of 1.2 mg/dl isn't diagnostic of ARF. A BUN level of 22 mg/dl or a temperature of 100.2° F (37.8° C) wouldn't result from this disorder.

    CLIENT NEEDS CATEGORY: Physiological integrity
    CLIENT NEEDS SUBCATEGORY: Physiological adaptation
    COGNITIVE LEVEL: Application

    REFERENCE: Smeltzer, S.C., et al. Brunner & Suddarth's Textbook of Medical-Surgical Nursing,11th ed. Philadelphia: Lippincott Williams & Wilkins, 2008, p. 1523.

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  • 33. 

    A nurse is reviewing a client's fluid intake and output record. Fluid intake and urine output should relate in which way?

    • Fluid intake should be double the urine output.

    • Fluid intake should be about equal to the urine output.

    • Fluid intake should be half the urine output.

    • Fluid intake should be inversely proportional to the urine output.

    Correct Answer
    A. Fluid intake should be about equal to the urine output.
    Explanation
    RATIONALE: Normally, fluid intake is about equal to the urine output. Any other relationship signals an abnormality. For example, fluid intake that is double the urine output indicates fluid retention; fluid intake that is half the urine output indicates dehydration. Normally, fluid intake isn't inversely proportional to the urine output.

    CLIENT NEEDS CATEGORY: Health promotion and maintenance
    CLIENT NEEDS SUBCATEGORY: None
    COGNITIVE LEVEL: Comprehension

    REFERENCE: Taylor, C., et al. Fundamentals of Nursing: The Art and Science of Nursing Care,6th ed. Philadelphia: Lippincott Williams & Wilkins, 2008, p. 1679.

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  • 34. 

    A client with an indwelling urinary catheter is suspected of having a urinary tract infection. The nurse should collect a urine specimen for culture and sensitivity by:

    • Disconnecting the tubing from the urinary catheter and letting the urine flow into a sterile container.

    • Wiping the self-sealing aspiration port with antiseptic solution and aspirating urine with a sterile needle.

    • Draining urine from the drainage bag into a sterile container.

    • Clamping the tubing for 60 minutes and inserting a sterile needle into the tubing above the clamp to aspirate urine.

    Correct Answer
    A. Wiping the self-sealing aspiration port with antiseptic solution and aspirating urine with a sterile needle.
    Explanation
    RATIONALE: Most catheters have a self-sealing port for obtaining a urine specimen. Antiseptic solution is used to reduce the risk of introducing microorganisms into the catheter. Tubing shouldn't be disconnected from the urinary catheter. Any break in the closed urine drainage system may allow the entry of microorganisms. Urine in urine drainage bags may not be fresh and may contain bacteria, giving false test results. When there's no urine in the tubing, the catheter may be clamped for no more than 30 minutes to allow urine to collect.

    CLIENT NEEDS CATEGORY: Physiological integrity
    CLIENT NEEDS SUBCATEGORY: Reduction of risk potential
    COGNITIVE LEVEL: Application

    REFERENCE: Taylor, C., et al. Fundamentals of Nursing: The Art and Science of Nursing Care,6th ed. Philadelphia: Lippincott Williams & Wilkins, 2008, p. 1495.

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  • 35. 

    Which statement describing urinary incontinence in an elderly client is true?

    • Urinary incontinence is a normal part of aging.

    • Urinary incontinence isn't a disease.

    • Urinary incontinence in the elderly population can't be treated.

    • Urinary incontinence is a disease.

    Correct Answer
    A. Urinary incontinence isn't a disease.
    Explanation
    RATIONALE: Urinary incontinence isn't a normal part of aging nor is it a disease. It may be caused by confusion, dehydration, fecal impaction, restricted mobility, or other causes. Certain medications, includingdiuretics, hypnotics, sedatives,anticholinergics, and antihypertensives, may trigger urinary incontinence. Most clients with urinary incontinence can be treated; some can be cured.

    CLIENT NEEDS CATEGORY: Physiological integrity
    CLIENT NEEDS SUBCATEGORY: Basic care and comfort
    COGNITIVE LEVEL: Analysis

    REFERENCE: Smeltzer, S.C., et al. Brunner & Suddarth's Textbook of Medical-Surgical Nursing,11th ed. Philadelphia: Lippincott Williams & Wilkins, 2008, p. 1578.

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  • 36. 

    A nurse is caring for a male client with gonorrhea. The client asks how he can reduce his risk of contracting another sexually transmitted disease (STD). The nurse should instruct the client to:

    • Ask all potential sexual partners if they have an STD.

    • Wear a condom every time he has intercourse.

    • Consider intercourse safe if his partner has no visible discharge, lesions, or rashes.

    • Expect to limit the number of sexual partners to less than five over his lifetime.

    Correct Answer
    A. Wear a condom every time he has intercourse.
    Explanation
    RATIONALE: Wearing a condom during intercourse considerably reduces the risk of contracting STDs. Asking all potential sexual partners if they have an STD; considering intercourse safe if his partner has no visible discharge, lesions, or rashes; and expecting to limit the number of sexual partners won't reduce the risk of contracting an STD to the extent wearing a condom will. A monogamous relationship also reduces the risk of contracting STDs.

    CLIENT NEEDS CATEGORY: Health promotion and maintenance
    CLIENT NEEDS SUBCATEGORY: None
    COGNITIVE LEVEL: Application

    REFERENCE: Smeltzer, S.C., et al. Brunner & Suddarth's Textbook of Medical-Surgical Nursing,11th ed. Philadelphia: Lippincott Williams & Wilkins, 2008, p. 2509.

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  • 37. 

    A client with a urinary tract infectionis ordered co-trimoxazole (trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole). The nurse should provide which medication instruction?

    • "Take the medication with food."

    • "Drink at least eight 8-oz glasses of fluid daily."

    • "Avoid taking antacids during co-trimoxazole therapy."

    • "Don't be afraid to go out in the sun."

    Correct Answer
    A. "Drink at least eight 8-oz glasses of fluid daily."
    Explanation
    RATIONALE: The nurse should instruct a client receiving a sulfonamide such as co-trimoxazole to drink at least eight 8-oz glasses of fluid daily to maintain a urine output of at least 1,500 ml/day. Otherwise, inadequate urine output may lead to crystalluria or tubular deposits. For maximum absorption, the client should take this drug at least 1 hour before or 2 hours after meals. No evidence indicates that antacids interfere with the effects of sulfonamides. To prevent a photosensitivity reaction, the client should avoid direct sunlight during co-trimoxazole therapy.

    CLIENT NEEDS CATEGORY: Physiological integrity
    CLIENT NEEDS SUBCATEGORY: Pharmacological and parenteral therapies
    COGNITIVE LEVEL: Application

    REFERENCE: Springhouse Nurse's Drug Guide 2007.Philadelphia: Lippincott Williams & Wilkins, 2007, p. 366.

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  • 38. 

    A nurse is planning a group teaching session on the topic of urinary tract infection(UTI) prevention. Which point should the nurse include?

    • Limit fluid intake to reduce the need to urinate.

    • Take medication ordered for a UTI until the symptoms subside.

    • Notify the physician if urinary urgency, burning, frequency, or difficulty occurs.

    • Wear only nylon underwear to reduce the chance of irritation.

    Correct Answer
    A. Notify the physician if urinary urgency, burning, frequency, or difficulty occurs.
    Explanation
    RATIONALE: Urgency, burning, frequency, and difficulty urinating are all common symptoms of a UTI. The client should notify the physician so that a microscopic urinalysis can be done and appropriate treatment can be initiated. The client should be instructed to drink 2 to 3 L of fluid per day to dilute the urine and reduce irritation of the bladder mucosa. To prevent UTI recurrence, the full amount of antibiotics ordered must be taken despite the fact that the symptoms may have subsided. Women are told to avoid scented toilet tissue and bubble baths and to wear cotton underwear, not nylon, to reduce the chance of irritation.

    CLIENT NEEDS CATEGORY: Health promotion and maintenance
    CLIENT NEEDS SUBCATEGORY: None
    COGNITIVE LEVEL: Application

    REFERENCE: Smeltzer, S.C., et al. Brunner & Suddarth's Textbook of Medical-Surgical Nursing,11th ed. Philadelphia: Lippincott Williams & Wilkins, 2008, p. 1577.

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  • 39. 

    After undergoing retropubic prostatectomy, a client returns to his room. The client is on nothing-by-mouth status and has an I.V. infusing in his right forearm at a rate of 100 ml/hour. The client also has an indwelling urinary catheter that's draining light pink urine. While assessing the client, the nurse notes that his urine output is red and has dropped to 15 ml and 10 ml for the last 2 consecutive hours. How can the nurse best explain this drop in urine output?

    • It's a normal finding caused by blood loss during surgery.

    • It's a normal finding associated with the client's nothing-by-mouth status.

    • It's an abnormal finding that requires further assessment.

    • It's an abnormal finding that will correct itself when the client ambulates.

    Correct Answer
    A. It's an abnormal finding that requires further assessment.
    Explanation
    RATIONALE: The drop in urine output to less than 30 ml/hour is abnormal and requires further assessment. The reduction in urine output may be caused by an obstruction in the urinary catheter tubing or deficient fluid volume from blood loss. The client's nothing-by-mouth status isn't the cause of the low urine output because the client is receiving I.V. fluid to compensate for the lack of oral intake. Ambulation promotes urination; however, the client should produce at least 30 ml of urine/hour.

    CLIENT NEEDS CATEGORY: Physiological integrity
    CLIENT NEEDS SUBCATEGORY: Reduction of risk potential
    COGNITIVE LEVEL: Analysis

    REFERENCE: Smeltzer, S.C., et al. Brunner & Suddarth's Textbook of Medical-Surgical Nursing,11th ed. Philadelphia: Lippincott Williams & Wilkins, 2008, p. 1586.

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  • 40. 

    A client with bladder cancer had his bladder removed and an ileal conduit created for urine diversion. While changing this client's pouch, the nurse observes that the area around the stomais red, weeping, and painful. What should the nurse conclude?

    • The skin wasn't lubricated before the pouch was applied.

    • The pouch faceplate doesn't fit the stoma.

    • A skin barrier was applied properly.

    • Stoma dilation wasn't performed.

    Correct Answer
    A. The pouch faceplate doesn't fit the stoma.
    Explanation
    RATIONALE: If the pouch faceplate doesn't fit the stoma properly, the skin around the stoma will be exposed to continuous urine flow from the stoma, causing excoriation and red, weeping, and painful skin. A lubricant shouldn't be used because it would prevent the pouch from adhering to the skin. When properly applied, a skin barrier prevents skin excoriation. Stoma dilation isn't performed with an ileal conduit, although it may be done with a colostomy if ordered.

    CLIENT NEEDS CATEGORY: Physiological integrity
    CLIENT NEEDS SUBCATEGORY: Basic care and comfort
    COGNITIVE LEVEL: Analysis

    REFERENCE: Smeltzer, S.C., et al. Brunner & Suddarth's Textbook of Medical-Surgical Nursing,11th ed. Philadelphia: Lippincott Williams & Wilkins, 2008, p. 1605.

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  • 41. 

    A client undergoes extracorporeal shock wave lithotripsy. Before discharge, the nurse should provide which instruction?

    • "Take your temperature every 4 hours."

    • "Increase your fluid intake to 2 to 3 L per day."

    • "Apply an antibacterial dressing to the incision daily."

    • "Be aware that your urine will be cherry-red for 5 to 7 days."

    Correct Answer
    A. "Increase your fluid intake to 2 to 3 L per day."
    Explanation
    RATIONALE: The nurse should instruct the client to increase his fluid intake. Increasing fluid intake flushes the renal calculi fragments through — and prevents obstruction of — the urinary system. Measuring temperature every 4 hours isn't needed. Lithotripsy doesn't require an incision. Hematuriamay occur for a few hours after lithotripsy but should then disappear.

    CLIENT NEEDS CATEGORY: Physiological integrity
    CLIENT NEEDS SUBCATEGORY: Reduction of risk potential
    COGNITIVE LEVEL: Application

    REFERENCE: Smeltzer, S.C., et al. Brunner & Suddarth's Textbook of Medical-Surgical Nursing,11th ed. Philadelphia: Lippincott Williams & Wilkins, 2008, p. 1594.

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  • 42. 

    A client in a short-procedure unit is recovering from renal angiography in which a femoral puncture site was used. When providing postprocedure care, the nurse should:

    • Keep the client's knee on the affected side bent for 6 hours.

    • Apply pressure to the puncture site for 30 minutes.

    • Check the client's pedal pulses frequently.

    • Remove the dressing on the puncture site after vital signs stabilize.

    Correct Answer
    A. Check the client's pedal pulses frequently.
    Explanation
    RATIONALE: After renal angiography involving a femoral puncture site, the nurse should check the client's pedal pulses frequently to detect reduced circulation to the feet caused by vascular injury. The nurse also should monitor vital signs for evidence of internal hemorrhage and should observe the puncture site frequently for fresh bleeding. The client should be kept on bed rest for several hours so the puncture site can seal completely. Keeping the client's knee bent is unnecessary. By the time the client returns to the short-procedure unit, manual pressure over the puncture site is no longer needed because a pressure dressing is in place. The nurse should leave this dressing in place for several hours — and only remove it if instructed to do so.

    CLIENT NEEDS CATEGORY: Physiological integrity
    CLIENT NEEDS SUBCATEGORY: Reduction of risk potential
    COGNITIVE LEVEL: Application

    REFERENCE: Smeltzer, S.C., et al. Brunner & Suddarth's Textbook of Medical-Surgical Nursing,11th ed. Philadelphia: Lippincott Williams & Wilkins, 2008, p. 1509.

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  • 43. 

    A client develops decreased renal function and requires a change in antibiotic dosage. On which factor should the physician base the dosage change?

    • GI absorption rate

    • Therapeutic index

    • Creatinine clearance

    • Liver function studies

    Correct Answer
    A. Creatinine clearance
    Explanation
    RATIONALE: The physician should base changes to antibiotic dosages on creatinine clearance test results, which gauge the kidney's glomerular filtration rate; this factor is important because most drugs are excreted at least partially by the kidneys. The GI absorption rate, therapeutic index, and liver function studies don't help determine dosage change in a client with decreased renal function.

    CLIENT NEEDS CATEGORY: Physiological integrity
    CLIENT NEEDS SUBCATEGORY: Reduction of risk potential
    COGNITIVE LEVEL: Application

    REFERENCE: Smeltzer, S.C., et al. Brunner & Suddarth's Textbook of Medical-Surgical Nursing,11th ed. Philadelphia: Lippincott Williams & Wilkins, 2008, p. 1507.

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  • 44. 

    A client comes to the outpatient department complaining of vaginal discharge, dysuria, and genital irritation. Suspecting a sexually transmitted disease (STD), the physician orders diagnostic testing of the vaginal discharge. Which STD must be reported to the public health department?

    • Bacterial vaginitis

    • Gonorrhea

    • Genital herpes

    • Human papillomavirus (HPV)

    Correct Answer
    A. Gonorrhea
    Explanation
    RATIONALE: Gonorrhea must be reported to the public health department. Bacterial vaginitis, genital herpes, and HPV aren't reportable diseases.

    CLIENT NEEDS CATEGORY: Safe, effective care environment
    CLIENT NEEDS SUBCATEGORY: Safety and infection control
    COGNITIVE LEVEL: Knowledge

    REFERENCE: Smeltzer, S.C., et al. Brunner & Suddarth's Textbook of Medical-Surgical Nursing,11th ed. Philadelphia: Lippincott Williams & Wilkins, 2008, p. 2507.

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  • 45. 

    A nurse is caring for a client who had a stroke. Which nursing intervention promotes urinary continence?

    • Encouraging intake of at least 2 L of fluid daily

    • Giving the client a glass of soda before bedtime

    • Taking the client to the bathroom twice per day

    • Consulting with a dietitian

    Correct Answer
    A. Encouraging intake of at least 2 L of fluid daily
    Explanation
    RATIONALE: Encouraging a daily fluid intake of at least 2 L helps fill the client's bladder, thereby promoting bladder retraining by stimulating the urge to void. The nurse shouldn't give the client soda before bedtime; soda acts as a diureticand may make the client incontinent. The nurse should take the client to the bathroom or offer the bedpan at least every 2 hours throughout the day; twice per day is insufficient. Consultation with a dietitian won't address the problem of urinary incontinence.

    CLIENT NEEDS CATEGORY: Physiological integrity
    CLIENT NEEDS SUBCATEGORY: Basic care and comfort
    COGNITIVE LEVEL: Comprehension

    REFERENCE: Smeltzer, S.C., et al. Brunner & Suddarth's Textbook of Medical-Surgical Nursing,11th ed. Philadelphia: Lippincott Williams & Wilkins, 2008, p. 1583.

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  • 46. 

    A client is admitted for treatment of glomerulonephritis. On initial assessment, the nurse detects one of the classic signs of acute glomerulonephritis of sudden onset. Such signs include:

    • Periorbital edema.

    • Green-tinged urine.

    • Moderate to severe hypotension.

    • Polyuria.

    Correct Answer
    A. Periorbital edema.
    Explanation
    RATIONALE: Periorbital edema is a classic sign of acute glomerulonephritis of sudden onset. Other classic signs and symptoms of this disorder include hematuria(not green-tinged urine), proteinuria, fever, chills, weakness, pallor,anorexia, nausea, and vomiting. The client also may have moderate to severe hypertension (not hypotension),oliguriaor anuria (notpolyuria), headache, reduced visual acuity, and abdominal or flank pain.

    CLIENT NEEDS CATEGORY: Physiological integrity
    CLIENT NEEDS SUBCATEGORY: Physiological adaptation
    COGNITIVE LEVEL: Knowledge

    REFERENCE: Smeltzer, S.C., et al. Brunner & Suddarth's Textbook of Medical-Surgical Nursing,11th ed. Philadelphia: Lippincott Williams & Wilkins, 2008, p. 1517.

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  • 47. 

    Which client is at highest risk for developing a hospital-acquired infection?

    • A client with a laceration to the left hand

    • A client who's taking prednisone (Deltasone)

    • A client with an indwelling urinary catheter

    • A client with Crohn's disease

    Correct Answer
    A. A client with an indwelling urinary catheter
    Explanation
    RATIONALE: The invasive nature of an indwelling urinary catheter increases the client's risk of a hospital-acquired infection. The nurse must perform careful, frequent catheter care to minimize the client's risk. Although the client with a laceration, the client who's taking prednisone, and the client with Crohn's disease have a risk of infection, the one with an indwelling catheter is at the greatest risk.

    CLIENT NEEDS CATEGORY: Safe, effective care environment
    CLIENT NEEDS SUBCATEGORY: Safety and infection control
    COGNITIVE LEVEL: Analysis

    REFERENCE: Smeltzer, S.C., et al. Brunner & Suddarth's Textbook of Medical-Surgical Nursing,11th ed. Philadelphia: Lippincott Williams & Wilkins, 2008, p. 1588.

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  • 48. 

    When performing a scrotal examination, a nurse finds a nodule. What should the nurse do next?

    • Notify the physician.

    • Change the client's position and repeat the examination.

    • Perform a rectal examination.

    • Transilluminate the scrotum.

    Correct Answer
    A. Transilluminate the scrotum.
    Explanation
    RATIONALE: The nurse who discovers a nodule, swelling, or other abnormal finding during a scrotal examination should transilluminate the scrotum by darkening the room and shining a flashlight through the scrotum behind the mass. A scrotum filled with serous fluid transilluminates as a red glow; a more solid lesion, such as a hematoma or mass, doesn't transilluminate and may appear as a dark shadow. Although the nurse should notify the physician of the abnormal finding, performing transillumination first provides the physician with additional information. The nurse can't uncover more information about a scrotal mass by changing the client's position and repeating the examination or by performing a rectal examination.

    CLIENT NEEDS CATEGORY: Health promotion and maintenance
    CLIENT NEEDS SUBCATEGORY: None
    COGNITIVE LEVEL: Application

    REFERENCE: Bickley, L.S. Bates' Guide to Physical Examination and History Taking,9th ed. Philadelphia: Lippincott Williams & Wilkins, 2005, p. 418.

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  • 49. 

    Which laboratory value supports a diagnosis of pyelonephritis?

    • Myoglobinuria

    • Ketonuria

    • Pyuria

    • Low white blood cell (WBC) count

    Correct Answer
    A. Pyuria
    Explanation
    RATIONALE: Pyelonephritis is diagnosed by the presence of pyuria, leukocytosis,hematuria, and bacteriuria. The client exhibits fever, chills, and flank pain. Myoglobinuria is seen with any disease process that destroys muscle. Ketonuria indicates a diabetic state. Because the client with pyelonephritis typically has signs ofinfection, the WBC count is more likely to be high rather than low.

    CLIENT NEEDS CATEGORY: Physiological integrity
    CLIENT NEEDS SUBCATEGORY: Physiological adaptation
    COGNITIVE LEVEL: Comprehension

    REFERENCE: Smeltzer, S.C., et al. Brunner & Suddarth's Textbook of Medical-Surgical Nursing,11th ed. Philadelphia: Lippincott Williams & Wilkins, 2008, p. 1577.

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