1.
A nurse is caring for a client who had a stroke. Which nursing intervention promotes urinary continence?
Correct Answer
A. Encouraging intake of at least 2 L of fluid daily
Explanation
RATIONALE: Encouraging a daily fluid intake of at least 2 L helps fill the client's bladder, thereby promoting bladder retraining by stimulating the urge to void. The nurse shouldn't give the client soda before bedtime; soda acts as a diureticand may make the client incontinent. The nurse should take the client to the bathroom or offer the bedpan at least every 2 hours throughout the day; twice per day is insufficient. Consultation with a dietitian won't address the problem of urinary incontinence.
CLIENT NEEDS CATEGORY: Physiological integrity
CLIENT NEEDS SUBCATEGORY: Basic care and comfort
COGNITIVE LEVEL: Comprehension
REFERENCE: Smeltzer, S.C., et al. Brunner & Suddarth's Textbook of Medical-Surgical Nursing,11th ed. Philadelphia: Lippincott Williams & Wilkins, 2008, p. 1583.
2.
A client with an indwelling urinary catheter is suspected of having a urinary tract infection. The nurse should collect a urine specimen for culture and sensitivity by:
Correct Answer
B. Wiping the self-sealing aspiration port with antiseptic solution and aspirating urine with a sterile needle.
Explanation
RATIONALE: Most catheters have a self-sealing port for obtaining a urine specimen. Antiseptic solution is used to reduce the risk of introducing microorganisms into the catheter. Tubing shouldn't be disconnected from the urinary catheter. Any break in the closed urine drainage system may allow the entry of microorganisms. Urine in urine drainage bags may not be fresh and may contain bacteria, giving false test results. When there's no urine in the tubing, the catheter may be clamped for no more than 30 minutes to allow urine to collect.
CLIENT NEEDS CATEGORY: Physiological integrity
CLIENT NEEDS SUBCATEGORY: Reduction of risk potential
COGNITIVE LEVEL: Application
REFERENCE: Taylor, C., et al. Fundamentals of Nursing: The Art and Science of Nursing Care,6th ed. Philadelphia: Lippincott Williams & Wilkins, 2008, p. 1495.
3.
A nurse is caring for a client with chronic renal failure. The laboratory results indicate hypocalcemia and hyperphosphatemia. When assessing the client, the nurse should be alert for which signs and symptoms? Select all that apply.
Correct Answer(s)
A. Trousseau's sign
B. Cardiac arrhythmias
F. Fractures
Explanation
RATIONALE: Hypocalcemia is a calcium deficit that causes nerve fiber irritability and repetitive muscle spasms. Signs and symptoms of hypocalcemia include Trousseau's sign, cardiacarrhythmias, diarrhea, increased clotting times, anxiety, and irritability. The calcium-phosphorus imbalance leads to brittle bones and pathologic fractures.
CLIENT NEEDS CATEGORY: Physiological integrity
CLIENT NEEDS SUBCATEGORY: Reduction of risk potential
COGNITIVE LEVEL: Application
REFERENCE: Smeltzer, S.C., et al. Brunner & Suddarth's Textbook of Medical-Surgical Nursing,11th ed. Philadelphia: Lippincott Williams & Wilkins, 2008, p. 325.
4.
A nurse is collecting a health history on a client who's to undergo a renal angiography. Which statement by the client should be the priority for the nurse to address?
Correct Answer
B. "I'm allergic to shellfish."
Explanation
RATIONALE: An allergy to iodine, shellfish, or other seafood should immediately be investigated because the contrast agent used in the procedure may contain iodine, which can cause a severe allergic reaction. Although contrast agents should be used cautiously in clients with diabetes mellitus, investigating this isn't the nurse's priority if the client also has a shellfish allergy. It's appropriate for the client to not eat after midnight before the procedure. The client's hypertension isn't a priority because this condition is the likely reason the renal angiography was ordered.
CLIENT NEEDS CATEGORY: Safe, effective care environment
CLIENT NEEDS SUBCATEGORY: Safety and infection control
COGNITIVE LEVEL: Analysis
REFERENCE: Smeltzer, S.C., et al. Brunner & Suddarth's Textbook of Medical-Surgical Nursing,11th ed. Philadelphia: Lippincott Williams & Wilkins, 2008, p. 1508.
5.
A client receiving total parenteral nutritionis ordered a 24-hour urine test. When initiating a 24-hour urine specimen, the collection time should:
Correct Answer
B. Start after a known voiding.
Explanation
RATIONALE: When initiating a 24-hour urine specimen, have the client void, then start the timing. The collection should start on an empty bladder. The exact time the test starts isn't important but the test is commonly started in the morning.
CLIENT NEEDS CATEGORY: Physiological integrity
CLIENT NEEDS SUBCATEGORY: Reduction of risk potential
COGNITIVE LEVEL: Knowledge
REFERENCE: Taylor, C., et al. Fundamentals of Nursing: The Art and Science of Nursing Care,6th ed. Philadelphia: Lippincott Williams & Wilkins, 2008, p. 1496.
6.
A client is ordered continuous bladder irrigation at a rate of 60 gtt/minute. The nurse hangs a 2 L bag of sterile solution with tubing on a three-legged I.V. pole. She then attaches the tubing to the client's three-way urinary catheter, adjusts the flow rate, and leaves the room. Which important procedural step did the nurse fail to follow?
Correct Answer
A. Evaluating patency of the drainage lumen
Explanation
RATIONALE: The nurse should evaluate patency of the drainage tubing before leaving the client's room. If the lumen is obstructed, the solution infuses into the bladder but isn't eliminated through the drainage tubing, a situation that may cause client injury. Balancing the pole is important; however, the nurse would have had to address this issue immediately after hanging the 2 L bag. Using an I.V. pump isn't necessary for continuous bladder irrigation. Unless specifically ordered, obtaining a urine specimen before beginning continuous bladder irrigation isn't necessary.
CLIENT NEEDS CATEGORY: Physiological integrity
CLIENT NEEDS SUBCATEGORY: Reduction of risk potential
COGNITIVE LEVEL: Analysis
REFERENCE: Smeltzer, S.C., et al. Brunner & Suddarth's Textbook of Medical-Surgical Nursing,11th ed. Philadelphia: Lippincott Williams & Wilkins, 2008, p. 1767.
7.
Which statement best describes the therapeutic action of loop diuretics?
Correct Answer
C. They block sodium reabsorption in the ascending loop and dilate renal vessels.
Explanation
RATIONALE: Loop diuretics block sodium reabsorption in the ascending loop of Henle, which promotes water diuresis. They also dilate renal vessels. Although loop diuretics block potassium reabsorption, this isn't a therapeutic action. Thiazide diuretics, not loop diuretics, promote sodium secretion into the distal tubule.
CLIENT NEEDS CATEGORY: Physiological integrity
CLIENT NEEDS SUBCATEGORY: Pharmacological and parenteral therapies
COGNITIVE LEVEL: Comprehension
REFERENCE: Smeltzer, S.C., et al. Brunner & Suddarth's Textbook of Medical-Surgical Nursing,11th ed. Philadelphia: Lippincott Williams & Wilkins, 2008, p. 953.
8.
A nurse is planning to administer a sodium polystyrene sulfonate (Kayexalate) enema to a client with a potassium level of 6.2 mEq/L. Correct administration and the effects of this enema should include having the client:
Correct Answer
A. Retain the enema for 30 minutes to allow for sodium exchange; afterward, the client should have diarrhea.
Explanation
RATIONALE: Kayexalate is a sodium-exchange resin. Thus, the client will gain sodium as potassium is lost in the bowel. For the exchange to occur, Kayexalate must be in contact with the bowel for at least 30 minutes. Sorbitol in the Kayexalate enema causes diarrhea, which increases potassium loss and decreases the potential for Kayexalate retention.
CLIENT NEEDS CATEGORY: Physiological integrity
CLIENT NEEDS SUBCATEGORY: Pharmacological and parenteral therapies
COGNITIVE LEVEL: Comprehension
REFERENCE: Springhouse Nurse's Drug Guide 2007.Philadelphia: Lippincott Williams & Wilkins, 2007, p. 1163.
9.
A client is admitted for treatment of chronic renal failure (CRF). The nurse knows that this disorder increases the client's risk of:
Correct Answer
A. Water and sodium retention secondary to a severe decrease in the glomerular filtration rate.
Explanation
RATIONALE: The client with CRF is at risk for fluid imbalance — dehydrationif the kidneys fail to concentrate urine, or fluid retention if the kidneys fail to produce urine. Electrolyte imbalances associated with this disorder result from the kidneys' inability to excrete phosphorus; such imbalances may lead tohyperphosphatemiawith reciprocal hypocalcemia. CRF may causemetabolic acidosis, notmetabolic alkalosis, secondary to inability of the kidneys to excrete hydrogen ions.
CLIENT NEEDS CATEGORY: Physiological integrity
CLIENT NEEDS SUBCATEGORY: Physiological adaptation
COGNITIVE LEVEL: Knowledge
REFERENCE: Smeltzer, S.C., et al. Brunner & Suddarth's Textbook of Medical-Surgical Nursing,11th ed. Philadelphia: Lippincott Williams & Wilkins, 2008, p. 1529.
10.
A nurse is caring for a client who's ordered continuous ambulatory peritoneal dialysis (CAPD). Which finding should lead the nurse to question the client's suitability for CAPD?
Correct Answer
C. The client has a history of diverticulitis.
Explanation
RATIONALE: A history of diverticulitiscontraindicates CAPD because CAPD has been associated with the rupture of diverticulum. A history of severe anemia while on hemodialysis or being on the transplant waiting list doesn't contraindicate CAPD. The client who's blind or partially blind can still learn to perform CAPD.
CLIENT NEEDS CATEGORY: Health promotion and maintenance
CLIENT NEEDS SUBCATEGORY: None
COGNITIVE LEVEL: Analysis
REFERENCE: Smeltzer, S.C., et al. Brunner & Suddarth's Textbook of Medical-Surgical Nursing,11th ed. Philadelphia: Lippincott Williams & Wilkins, 2008, p. 1549.
11.
A nurse is providing postprocedure care for a client who underwent percutaneous lithotripsy. In this procedure, an ultrasonic probe inserted through a nephrostomy tube into the renal pelvis generates ultra–high-frequency sound waves to shatter renal calculi. The nurse should instruct the client to:
Correct Answer
C. Notify the physician about cloudy or foul-smelling urine.
Explanation
RATIONALE: The nurse should instruct the client to report the presence of foul-smelling or cloudy urine to the physician. Unless contraindicated, the client should be instructed to drink large quantities of fluid each day to flush the kidneys. Sandlike debris is normal because of residual stone products. Hematuriais common after lithotripsy.
CLIENT NEEDS CATEGORY: Physiological integrity
CLIENT NEEDS SUBCATEGORY: Physiological adaptation
COGNITIVE LEVEL: Analysis
REFERENCE: Smeltzer, S.C., et al. Brunner & Suddarth's Textbook of Medical-Surgical Nursing,11th ed. Philadelphia: Lippincott Williams & Wilkins, 2008, p. 1594.
12.
A nurse is caring for a client diagnosed with ovarian cancer. Diagnostic testing reveals that the cancer has spread outside the pelvis. The client has previously undergone a right oophorectomyand receivedchemotherapy. The client now wants palliative care instead of aggressive therapy. The nurse determines that the care plan's priority nursing diagnosis should be:
Correct Answer
A. Acute pain
Explanation
RATIONALE: Palliative care for the client with advanced cancer includes pain management, emotional support, and comfort measures. The client is in the hospital, so home maintenance doesn't apply at this time. The client has chosen palliative care, so she isn't noncompliant. The client isn't breast-feeding, so the diagnosis of Ineffective breast-feedingdoesn't apply.
CLIENT NEEDS CATEGORY: Physiological integrity
CLIENT NEEDS SUBCATEGORY: Basic care and comfort
COGNITIVE LEVEL: Application
REFERENCE: Craven, R.F., and Hirnle, C.J. Fundamentals of Nursing: Human Health and Function,5th ed. Philadelphia: Lippincott Williams & Wilkins, 2007, p. 1329.
13.
A client develops acute renal failure (ARF) after receiving I.V. therapy with a nephrotoxic antibiotic. Because the client's 24-hour urine output totals 240 ml, the nurse suspects that the client is at risk for:
Correct Answer
A. Cardiac arrhythmia.
Explanation
RATIONALE: As urine output decreases, the serum potassium level rises; if it rises sufficiently, hyperkalemia may occur, possibly triggering a cardiac arrhythmia. Hyperkalemia doesn't causeparesthesia(sensations of numbness and tingling).Dehydrationdoesn't occur during this oliguric phase of ARF, although typically it does arise during thediureticphase. In the client with ARF,pruritusresults from increased phosphates and isn't associated with hyperkalemia.
CLIENT NEEDS CATEGORY: Physiological integrity
CLIENT NEEDS SUBCATEGORY: Physiological adaptation
COGNITIVE LEVEL: Application
REFERENCE: Smeltzer, S.C., et al. Brunner & Suddarth's Textbook of Medical-Surgical Nursing,11th ed. Philadelphia: Lippincott Williams & Wilkins, 2008, p. 1526.
14.
During a rectal examination, which finding is evidence of a urethral injury?
Correct Answer
B. The presence of a boggy mass
Explanation
RATIONALE: When the urethra is ruptured, a hematoma or collection of blood separates the two sections of the urethra. This condition may feel like a boggy mass on rectal examination. Because of the rupture and hematoma, the prostate becomes high riding. A palpable prostate gland usually indicates a nonurethral injury. Absent sphincter tone would refer to a spinal cord injury. The presence of blood (a positive Hemoccult) would probably correlate with GI bleeding or a colon injury.
CLIENT NEEDS CATEGORY: Physiological integrity
CLIENT NEEDS SUBCATEGORY: Physiological adaptation
COGNITIVE LEVEL: Knowledge
REFERENCE: Smeltzer, S.C., et al. Brunner & Suddarth's Textbook of Medical-Surgical Nursing,11th ed. Philadelphia: Lippincott Williams & Wilkins, 2008, p. 1595.
15.
A client is admitted for treatment of glomerulonephritis. On initial assessment, the nurse detects one of the classic signs of acute glomerulonephritis of sudden onset. Such signs include:
Correct Answer
A. Periorbital edema.
Explanation
RATIONALE: Periorbital edema is a classic sign of acute glomerulonephritis of sudden onset. Other classic signs and symptoms of this disorder include hematuria(not green-tinged urine), proteinuria, fever, chills, weakness, pallor,anorexia, nausea, and vomiting. The client also may have moderate to severe hypertension (not hypotension),oliguriaor anuria (notpolyuria), headache, reduced visual acuity, and abdominal or flank pain.
CLIENT NEEDS CATEGORY: Physiological integrity
CLIENT NEEDS SUBCATEGORY: Physiological adaptation
COGNITIVE LEVEL: Knowledge
REFERENCE: Smeltzer, S.C., et al. Brunner & Suddarth's Textbook of Medical-Surgical Nursing,11th ed. Philadelphia: Lippincott Williams & Wilkins, 2008, p. 1517.
16.
During rounds, a client admitted with gross hematuriaasks the nurse about the physician's diagnosis. To facilitate effective communication, what should the nurse do?
Correct Answer
C. Provide privacy for the conversation.
Explanation
RATIONALE: Providing privacy for the conversation is a form of active listening, which focuses solely on the client's needs. Asking why the client is concerned, changing the subject, or giving advice tends to block therapeutic communication.
CLIENT NEEDS CATEGORY: Psychosocial integrity
CLIENT NEEDS SUBCATEGORY: None
COGNITIVE LEVEL: Application
REFERENCE: Taylor, C., et al. Fundamentals of Nursing: The Art and Science of Nursing Care,6th ed. Philadelphia: Lippincott Williams & Wilkins, 2008, p. 486.
17.
Which client is at highest risk for developing a hospital-acquired infection?
Correct Answer
C. A client with an indwelling urinary catheter
Explanation
RATIONALE: The invasive nature of an indwelling urinary catheter increases the client's risk of a hospital-acquired infection. The nurse must perform careful, frequent catheter care to minimize the client's risk. Although the client with a laceration, the client who's taking prednisone, and the client with Crohn's disease have a risk of infection, the one with an indwelling catheter is at the greatest risk.
CLIENT NEEDS CATEGORY: Safe, effective care environment
CLIENT NEEDS SUBCATEGORY: Safety and infection control
COGNITIVE LEVEL: Analysis
REFERENCE: Smeltzer, S.C., et al. Brunner & Suddarth's Textbook of Medical-Surgical Nursing,11th ed. Philadelphia: Lippincott Williams & Wilkins, 2008, p. 1588.
18.
After a retropubic prostatectomy, a client needs continuous bladder irrigation. The client has an I.V. of dextrose 5% in water infusing at 40 ml/hour, and a triple-lumen urinary catheter with normal saline solution infusing at 200 ml/hour. The nurse empties the urinary catheter drainage bag three times during an 8-hour period for a total of 2,780 ml. How many milliliters does the nurse calculate as urine? Record your answer using a whole number. Answer: ___milliliters
Correct Answer
1180
Explanation
The correct answer is 1180.
RATIONALE: During 8 hours, 1,600 ml of bladder irrigation has been infused (200 ml × 8 hour = 1,600 ml/8 hour). The nurse then subtracts this amount of infused bladder irrigation from the total volume in the drainage bag (2,780 ml − 1,600 ml = 1,180 ml) to determine urinary output.
CLIENT NEEDS CATEGORY: Physiological integrity
CLIENT NEEDS SUBCATEGORY: Basic care and comfort
COGNITIVE LEVEL: Analysis
REFERENCE: Karch, A.M. Focus on Nursing Pharmacology,4th ed. Philadelphia: Lippincott Williams & Wilkins, 2007, p. 57.
19.
After undergoing renal arteriogram, in which the left groin was accessed, a client complains of left calf pain. Which intervention should the nurse perform first?
Correct Answer
A. Assess peripheral pulses in the left leg.
Explanation
RATIONALE: The nurse should begin by assessing peripheral pulses in the left leg to determine if blood flow was interrupted by the procedure. The client may also have thrombophlebitis. Cool compresses aren't used to relieve pain and inflammation in thrombophlebitis. The leg should remain straight after the procedure. Calf pain isn't a symptom ofanaphylaxis.
CLIENT NEEDS CATEGORY: Physiological integrity
CLIENT NEEDS SUBCATEGORY: Reduction of risk potential
COGNITIVE LEVEL: Analysis
REFERENCE: Smeltzer, S.C., et al. Brunner & Suddarth's Textbook of Medical-Surgical Nursing,11th ed. Philadelphia: Lippincott Williams & Wilkins, 2008, p. 1509.
20.
A nurse is teaching a client with genital herpes. Education for this client should include an explanation of:
Correct Answer
D. The importance of informing his partners of the disease.
Explanation
RATIONALE: Clients with genital herpes should inform their partners of the disease to help prevent transmission. Petroleum products should be avoided because they can cause the virus to spread. The notion that genital herpes is only transmittable when visible lesions are present is false. Anyone not in a long-term, monogamous relationship, regardless of current health status, should follow safer-sex practices.
CLIENT NEEDS CATEGORY: Health promotion and maintenance
CLIENT NEEDS SUBCATEGORY: None
COGNITIVE LEVEL: Application
REFERENCE: Smeltzer, S.C., et al. Brunner & Suddarth's Textbook of Medical-Surgical Nursing,11th ed. Philadelphia: Lippincott Williams & Wilkins, 2008, p. 1668.
21.
A client with renal failure is undergoing continuous ambulatory peritoneal dialysis. Which nursing diagnosis is the most appropriate for this client?
Correct Answer
C. Risk for infection
Explanation
RATIONALE: The peritoneal dialysis catheter and regular exchanges of the dialysis bag provide a direct portal for bacteria to enter the body. If the client experiences repeated peritoneal infections, continuous ambulatory peritoneal dialysis may no longer be effective in clearing waste products.Impaired urinary elimination, Toileting self-care deficit,andActivity intolerancemay be pertinent but are secondary to the risk of infection.
CLIENT NEEDS CATEGORY: Physiological integrity
CLIENT NEEDS SUBCATEGORY: Reduction of risk potential
COGNITIVE LEVEL: Application
REFERENCE: Smeltzer, S.C., et al. Brunner & Suddarth's Textbook of Medical-Surgical Nursing,11th ed. Philadelphia: Lippincott Williams & Wilkins, 2008, p. 1548.
22.
A female client reports to a nurse that she experiences a loss of urine when she jogs. The nurse's assessment reveals no nocturia, burning, discomfort when voiding, or urine leakage before reaching the bathroom. The nurse explains to the client that this type of problem is called:
Correct Answer
C. Stress incontinence.
Explanation
RATIONALE: Stress incontinence is a small loss of urine with activities that increase intra-abdominal pressure, such as running, laughing, sneezing, jumping, coughing, and bending. These symptoms occur only in the daytime. Functional incontinence is the inability of a usually continent client to reach the toilet in time to avoid unintentional loss of urine. Reflex incontinence is an involuntary loss of urine at predictable intervals when a specific bladder volume is reached. Total incontinence occurs when a client experiences a continuous and unpredictable loss of urine.
CLIENT NEEDS CATEGORY: Physiological integrity
CLIENT NEEDS SUBCATEGORY: Basic care and comfort
COGNITIVE LEVEL: Application
REFERENCE: Smeltzer, S.C., et al. Brunner & Suddarth's Textbook of Medical-Surgical Nursing,11th ed. Philadelphia: Lippincott Williams & Wilkins, 2008, p. 215.
23.
A nurse is assessing a male client diagnosed with gonorrhea. Which symptom most likely prompted the client to seek medical attention?
Correct Answer
D. Foul-smelling discharge from the penis
Explanation
RATIONALE: Symptoms of gonorrhea in men include purulent, foul-smelling drainage from the penis and painful urination. Rashes on the palms of the hands and soles of the feet are symptoms of the secondary stage of syphilis. Cauliflower-like warts on the penis are a sign of human papillomavirus. Painful red papules on the shaft of the penis may be a sign of the first stage of genital herpes.
CLIENT NEEDS CATEGORY: Physiological integrity
CLIENT NEEDS SUBCATEGORY: Physiological adaptation
COGNITIVE LEVEL: Application
REFERENCE: Smeltzer, S.C., et al. Brunner & Suddarth's Textbook of Medical-Surgical Nursing,11th ed. Philadelphia: Lippincott Williams & Wilkins, 2008, p. 2507.
24.
A client presents to the emergency department complaining of a dull, constant ache along the right costovertebral angle along with nausea and vomiting. The most likely cause of the client's symptoms is:
Correct Answer
A. Renal calculi.
Explanation
RATIONALE: Renal calculi usually presents as a dull, constant ache at the costovertebral angle. The client may also present with nausea and vomiting, diaphoresis, and pallor. The client with an overdistended bladder and interstitial cystitis presents with dull, continuous pain at the suprapubic area that's intense with voiding. The client also complains of urinary urgency and straining to void. The client with acute prostatitis presents with a feeling of fullness in the perineum and vague back pain, along with frequency, urgency, and dysuria.
CLIENT NEEDS CATEGORY: Physiological integrity
CLIENT NEEDS SUBCATEGORY: Physiological adaptation
COGNITIVE LEVEL: Application
REFERENCE: Smeltzer, S.C., et al. Brunner & Suddarth's Textbook of Medical-Surgical Nursing,11th ed. Philadelphia: Lippincott Williams & Wilkins, 2008, p. 1502.
25.
A client requires hemodialysis. Which type of drug should be withheld before this procedure?
Correct Answer
D. Cardiac glycosides
Explanation
RATIONALE: Cardiac glycosides such as digoxin (Lanoxin) should be withheld before hemodialysis. Hypokalemia is one of the electrolyte shifts that occur during dialysis, and a hypokalemic client is at risk for arrhythmiassecondary to digoxin toxicity. Phosphate binders and insulin can be administered because they aren't removed from the blood by dialysis. Some antibiotics are removed by dialysis and should be administered after the procedure to ensure their therapeutic effects. The nurse should check a formulary to determine whether a particular antibiotic should be administered before or after dialysis.
CLIENT NEEDS CATEGORY: Physiological integrity
CLIENT NEEDS SUBCATEGORY: Pharmacological and parenteral therapies
COGNITIVE LEVEL: Application
REFERENCE: Smeltzer, S.C., et al. Brunner & Suddarth's Textbook of Medical-Surgical Nursing,11th ed. Philadelphia: Lippincott Williams & Wilkins, 2008, p. 1552.
26.
A client with a history of chronic cystitis comes to an outpatient clinic with signs and symptoms of this disorder. To prevent cystitis from recurring, the nurse recommends maintaining an acid-ash diet to acidify the urine, thereby decreasing the rate of bacterial multiplication. On an acid-ash diet, the client must restrict which beverage?
Correct Answer
D. Milk
Explanation
RATIONALE: A client on an acid-ash diet must avoid milk and milk products because these make the urine more alkaline, encouraging bacterial growth. Other foods to avoid on this diet include all vegetables except corn and lentils; all fruits except cranberries, plums, and prunes; and any food containing large amounts of potassium, sodium, calcium, or magnesium. Cranberry and prune juice are encouraged because they acidify the urine. Coffee and tea are considered neutral because they don't alter the urine pH.
CLIENT NEEDS CATEGORY: Physiological integrity
CLIENT NEEDS SUBCATEGORY: Reduction of risk potential
COGNITIVE LEVEL: Comprehension
REFERENCE: Smeltzer, S.C., et al. Brunner & Suddarth's Textbook of Medical-Surgical Nursing,11th ed. Philadelphia: Lippincott Williams & Wilkins, 2008, p. 1577.
27.
A nurse is explaining menstruation to a class. Place the steps of the menstrual cycle listed below in the correct order. Use all options.1. The level of estrogen in the blood peaks.2. Peak endometrial thickening occurs.3. Estrogen and progesterone levels increase.4. Top layer of the endometrium breaks down.5. A follicle matures and ovulation occurs.6. The endometrium begins thickening.
Correct Answer
461523
Explanation
The correct answer is 4,6,1,5,2,3.
RATIONALE: The menstrual cycle begins with the first day of menstruation, when the top layer of the endometrium breaks down and sloughs. The endometrium thickens and the level of estrogen in the blood peaks. Next, a follicle matures and ovulation occurs. Peak endometrial thickening occurs and the estrogen and progesterone levels increase, inhibiting luteinizing hormone.
CLIENT NEEDS CATEGORY: Health promotion and maintenance
CLIENT NEEDS SUBCATEGORY: None
COGNITIVE LEVEL: Application
REFERENCE: Smeltzer, S.C., et al. Brunner & Suddarth's Textbook of Medical-Surgical Nursing,11th ed. Philadelphia: Lippincott Williams & Wilkins, 2008, p. 1615.
28.
A client returns to an intensive care unit after coronary artery bypass graftsurgery, which was complicated by prolonged cardiopulmonary bypass and hypotension. After 3 hours in the unit, the client's condition stabilizes. However, the urine output has decreased despite adequate filling pressures. The nurse expects the physician to add which drug, at which flow rate, to the client's regimen?
Correct Answer
A. Dopamine (Intropin), 3 mcg/kg/minute
Explanation
RATIONALE: This client is at high risk for acute prerenal failure secondary to decreased renal perfusion during surgery. To dilate the renal arteries and help prevent renal shutdown, the physician is likely to order dopamine at a low flow rate (2 to 5 mcg/kg/minute). Although this drug has mixed dopaminergic and beta activity when given at 5 to 10 mcg/kg/minute, the client is stabilized and thus doesn't need the beta effects from the higher flow rate — or the sympathomimetic effects of epinephrine. The dopaminergic effects of dopamine increase renal perfusion, contractility, and vasodilation. Dobutamine is used to increase cardiac output. Norepinephrine is a potent vasoconstrictor that shunts blood away from the kidneys to increase blood pressure.
CLIENT NEEDS CATEGORY: Physiological integrity
CLIENT NEEDS SUBCATEGORY: Pharmacological and parenteral therapies
COGNITIVE LEVEL: Knowledge
REFERENCE: Springhouse Nurse's Drug Guide 2007.Philadelphia: Lippincott Williams & Wilkins, 2007, p. 451.
29.
A nurse is caring for a client with acute pyelonephritis. Which nursing intervention is the most important?
Correct Answer
B. Increasing fluid intake to 3 L/day
Explanation
RATIONALE: Acute pyelonephritis is a sudden inflammation of the interstitial tissue and renal pelvis of one or both kidneys. Infecting bacteria are normal intestinal and fecal flora that grow readily in urine. Pyelonephritis may result from procedures that involve the use of instruments (such as catheterization, cystoscopy, and urologic surgery) or from hematogenic infection. The most important nursing intervention is to increase fluid intake to 3 L/day. Doing so helps empty the bladder of contaminated urine and prevents calculus formation. Administering a sitz bath would increase the likelihood of fecal contamination. Using an indwelling urinary catheter could cause further contamination. Encouraging the client to drink cranberry juice to acidify urine is helpful but isn't the most important intervention.
CLIENT NEEDS CATEGORY: Physiological integrity
CLIENT NEEDS SUBCATEGORY: Reduction of risk potential
COGNITIVE LEVEL: Application
REFERENCE: Smeltzer, S.C., et al. Brunner & Suddarth's Textbook of Medical-Surgical Nursing,11th ed. Philadelphia: Lippincott Williams & Wilkins, 2008, p. 1578.
30.
A female client has just been diagnosed with condylomata acuminata (genital warts). What information is appropriate to tell this client?
Correct Answer
A. This condition puts her at a higher risk for cervical cancer; therefore, she should have a Papanicolaou (Pap) smear annually.
Explanation
RATIONALE: Women with condylomata acuminata are at risk for cancer of the cervix and vulva. Yearly Pap smears are very important for early detection. Because condylomata acuminata is a virus, there is no permanent cure. Because condylomata acuminata can occur on the vulva, a condom won't protect sexual partners. HPV can be transmitted to other parts of the body, such as the mouth, oropharynx, and larynx.
CLIENT NEEDS CATEGORY: Health promotion and maintenance
CLIENT NEEDS SUBCATEGORY: None
COGNITIVE LEVEL: Application
REFERENCE: Smeltzer, S.C., et al. Brunner & Suddarth's Textbook of Medical-Surgical Nursing,11th ed. Philadelphia: Lippincott Williams & Wilkins, 2008, p. 1666.
31.
After undergoing transurethral resection of the prostate to treat benign prostatic hyperplasia, a client returns to the room with continuous bladder irrigation. On the first day after surgery, the client reports bladder pain. What should the nurse do first?
Correct Answer
C. Assess the irrigation catheter for patency and drainage.
Explanation
RATIONALE: Although postoperative pain is expected, the nurse should make sure that other factors, such as an obstructed irrigation catheter, aren't the cause of the pain. After assessing catheter patency, the nurse should administer an analgesic, such as morphine sulfate, as ordered. Increasing the I.V. flow rate may worsen the pain. Notifying the physician isn't necessary unless the pain is severe or unrelieved by the ordered medication.
CLIENT NEEDS CATEGORY: Physiological integrity
CLIENT NEEDS SUBCATEGORY: Reduction of risk potential
COGNITIVE LEVEL: Application
REFERENCE: Smeltzer, S.C., et al. Brunner & Suddarth's Textbook of Medical-Surgical Nursing,11th ed. Philadelphia: Lippincott Williams & Wilkins, 2008, p. 1767.
32.
A client admitted to the unit with a diagnosis of end-stage renal disease is scheduled to undergo hemodialysis. He voices anxiety over shunt placement and management of care at home. A nurse initiates a referral to which members of the interdisciplinary team?
Correct Answer
B. Home health nurse, nutritionist, and social worker
Explanation
RATIONALE: Home care for a client with end-stage renal disease requires ongoing education and referral; team members include the home health nurse, the nutritionist, and social services in this process. The home health nurse assists with client teaching and support, completion of physical assessments, and evaluation of outcomes. The nutritionist explains dietary needs and necessary changes in the diet. The social worker assists with finding resources and provides counseling and support to the client and family members. Physical and occupational therapy and dialysis aren't components of home care. Family members aren't part of the interdisciplinary health care team.
CLIENT NEEDS CATEGORY: Physiological integrity
CLIENT NEEDS SUBCATEGORY: Physiological adaptation
COGNITIVE LEVEL: Application
REFERENCE: Craven, R.F., and Hirnle, C.J. Fundamentals of Nursing: Human Health and Function,5th ed. Philadelphia: Lippincott Williams & Wilkins, 2007, p. 32.
33.
A client with heart failureis admitted to an acute care facility and is found to have a cystocele. When planning care for this client, the nurse is most likely to formulate which nursing diagnosis?
Correct Answer
D. Stress urinary incontinence
Explanation
RATIONALE: Stress urinary incontinenceis a urinary problem associated with cystocele — herniation of the bladder into the birth canal. Other problems associated with this disorder include urinary frequency, urinary urgency,urinary tract infection, and difficulty emptying the bladder. Total incontinence, functional incontinence, and reflex incontinence usually result from neurovascular dysfunction, not cystocele.
CLIENT NEEDS CATEGORY: Physiological integrity
CLIENT NEEDS SUBCATEGORY: Physiological adaptation
COGNITIVE LEVEL: Application
REFERENCE: Smeltzer, S.C., et al. Brunner & Suddarth's Textbook of Medical-Surgical Nursing,11th ed. Philadelphia: Lippincott Williams & Wilkins, 2008, p. 1674.
34.
A nurse is inserting a urinary catheter into a client who is extremely anxious about the procedure. The nurse can facilitate the insertion by asking the client to:
Correct Answer
B. Breathe deeply.
Explanation
RATIONALE: When inserting a urinary catheter, the nurse can facilitate insertion by asking the client to breathe deeply. Breathing deeply will relax the urinary sphincter. Initiating a stream of urine isn't recommended during catheter insertion. Turning to the side or holding the labia or penis won't ease insertion, and doing so may contaminate the sterile field.
CLIENT NEEDS CATEGORY: Physiological integrity
CLIENT NEEDS SUBCATEGORY: Basic care and comfort
COGNITIVE LEVEL: Application
REFERENCE: Taylor, C., et al. Fundamentals of Nursing: The Art and Science of Nursing Care,6th ed. Philadelphia: Lippincott Williams & Wilkins, 2008, p. 1531.
35.
An elderly client with a diagnosis of chronic renal failure is being discharged to home with his wife. The home health nurse visits the hospital before discharge to discuss home safety with the client, who reports decreased mobility and a need for greater assistance with activities of daily living. The nurse focuses her home-safety teaching on:
Correct Answer
A. Having adequate lighting, removing cluttered paths, and using nonskid bathroom surfaces.
Explanation
RATIONALE: The home health nurse should focus her safety teaching on factors that promote mobility, such as having adequate lighting, removing cluttered paths, and using nonskid bathroom surfaces. Child safety hazards, such as unsteady ladders, overloaded electrical outlets, and improperly stored plastic bags, guns, flammable liquids, and pesticides aren't applicable to this client. Although factors such as defective smoke detectors and steps with broken concrete or without handrails are important, they aren't the teaching priority at this time.
CLIENT NEEDS CATEGORY: Safe, effective care environment
CLIENT NEEDS SUBCATEGORY: Safety and infection control
COGNITIVE LEVEL: Application
REFERENCE: Craven, R.F., and Hirnle, C.J. Fundamentals of Nursing: Human Health and Function,5th ed. Philadelphia: Lippincott Williams & Wilkins, 2007, p. 677.
36.
Two weeks after being diagnosed with a streptococcal infection, a client develops fatigue, a low-grade fever, and shortness of breath. The nurse auscultates bilateralcracklesand observes jugular vein distention. Urinalysis reveals red and white blood cells and protein. After the physician diagnoses poststreptococcalglomerulonephritis, the client is admitted to the medical-surgical unit. Which immediate action should the nurse take?
Correct Answer
B. Provide a high-protein, fluid-monitored diet.
Explanation
RATIONALE: The nurse must provide a high-protein diet to supply energy and reduce catabolism of protein. The nurse must also closely monitor the client's fluid intake and output. It isn't necessary for the client to be on bed rest. Because of the risk of altered urinary elimination related to oliguria, this client may require hemodialysis or plasmapheresis for several weeks until renal function improves; however, a Tenckhoff catheter is used inperitoneal dialysis, not hemodialysis. Although providing comfort measures (such as placing the client on a sheepskin) are important, this action isn't a priority.
CLIENT NEEDS CATEGORY: Physiological integrity
CLIENT NEEDS SUBCATEGORY: Basic care and comfort
COGNITIVE LEVEL: Application
REFERENCE: Smeltzer, S.C., et al. Brunner & Suddarth's Textbook of Medical-Surgical Nursing,11th ed. Philadelphia: Lippincott Williams & Wilkins, 2008, p. 1518.
37.
A nurse is caring for an elderly male client who complains that he can't pass urine. A bladder scan reveals 600 ml of urine present in the bladder. The nurse attempts to place the indwelling catheter the physician ordered, but resistance prevents her from placing it. A serum prostate-specific antigen (PSA) test indicates a level of 29 g/L. The physician places an indwelling catheter and the urine specimen returns positive for nitrites, leukocytes, and bacteriuria. Which conditions should the nurse suspect? Select all that apply.
Correct Answer(s)
A. Prostate problems
B. Urinary tract infection (UTI)
Explanation
RATIONALE: An elevated PSA level and lower urinary tract symptoms may indicate a prostate problem. A urine specimen positive for leukocytes, nitrites, and bacteriuria indicates UTI. The client's signs and symptoms don't indicate acute renal failure, liver failure, or a vitamin K deficiency.
CLIENT NEEDS CATEGORY: Physiological integrity
CLIENT NEEDS SUBCATEGORY: Reduction of risk potential
COGNITIVE LEVEL: Analysis
REFERENCE: Smeltzer, S.C., et al. Brunner & Suddarth's Textbook of Medical Surgical-Nursing,11th ed. Philadelphia: Lippincott Williams & Wilkins, 2008, p. 1573.
38.
A client scheduled for a vasectomy asks the nurse how soon after the procedure he can have sexual intercourse without using an alternative birth control method. How should the nurse respond?
Correct Answer
B. "You can safely have unprotected intercourse when your sperm count indicates sterilization."
Explanation
RATIONALE: After a vasectomy, sterilization isn't ensured until the client's sperm count measures zero. This usually requires 6 to 36 ejaculations. Having intercourse immediately after the procedure or as soon as discomfort disappears may lead to pregnancy.
CLIENT NEEDS CATEGORY: Health promotion and maintenance
CLIENT NEEDS SUBCATEGORY: None
COGNITIVE LEVEL: Comprehension
REFERENCE: Pillitteri, A. Maternal & Child Health Nursing: Care of the Childbearing and Childrearing Family,5th ed. Philadelphia: Lippincott Williams & Wilkins, 2007, p. 122.
39.
Which statement describing urinary incontinence in an elderly client is true?
Correct Answer
B. Urinary incontinence isn't a disease.
Explanation
RATIONALE: Urinary incontinence isn't a normal part of aging nor is it a disease. It may be caused by confusion, dehydration, fecal impaction, restricted mobility, or other causes. Certain medications, includingdiuretics, hypnotics, sedatives,anticholinergics, and antihypertensives, may trigger urinary incontinence. Most clients with urinary incontinence can be treated; some can be cured.
CLIENT NEEDS CATEGORY: Physiological integrity
CLIENT NEEDS SUBCATEGORY: Basic care and comfort
COGNITIVE LEVEL: Analysis
REFERENCE: Smeltzer, S.C., et al. Brunner & Suddarth's Textbook of Medical-Surgical Nursing,11th ed. Philadelphia: Lippincott Williams & Wilkins, 2008, p. 1578.
40.
A nurse is providing inservice education for staff members about evidence collection after sexual assault. The educational session is successful when staff members focus their initial care on which step?
Correct Answer
D. Supporting the client's emotional status
Explanation
RATIONALE: The teaching session is successful when staff members focus first on supporting the client's emotional status. Next, staff members should gain consent to perform the pelvic examination, perform the examination, and collect evidence, such as semen if present.
CLIENT NEEDS CATEGORY: Safe, effective care environment
CLIENT NEEDS SUBCATEGORY: Management of care
COGNITIVE LEVEL: Application
REFERENCE: Smeltzer, S.C., et al. Brunner & Suddarth's Textbook of Medical-Surgical Nursing,11th ed. Philadelphia: Lippincott Williams & Wilkins, 2008, p. 2551.
41.
A client with depression and behavioral changes is transferred from a local assisted living center to the emergency department. The nurse notes that the client cries out when she approaches. When the nurse gains the client's confidence and performs an assessment, the nurse notes bruising of the labia and a lateral laceration in the perineal area. When the nurse asks the client about the injury, the client shakes her head and begins to cry "don't tell, don't tell." The nurse suspects sexual abuse. How should the nurse proceed?
Correct Answer
B. Attend to the client's physiological needs.
Explanation
RATIONALE: The nurse should attend to the client's immediate physiological needs, including physical safety. Next, the nurse can notify the physician and the rape crisis team. The family should be notified if the client consents, but not until the rape investigation is complete.
CLIENT NEEDS CATEGORY: Physiological integrity
CLIENT NEEDS SUBCATEGORY: Basic care and comfort
COGNITIVE LEVEL: Analysis
REFERENCE: Smeltzer, S.C., et al. Brunner & Suddarth's Textbook of Medical-Surgical Nursing,11th ed. Philadelphia: Lippincott Williams & Wilkins, 2008, p. 2551.
42.
After undergoing retropubic prostatectomy, a client returns to his room. The client is on nothing-by-mouth status and has an I.V. infusing in his right forearm at a rate of 100 ml/hour. The client also has an indwelling urinary catheter that's draining light pink urine. While assessing the client, the nurse notes that his urine output is red and has dropped to 15 ml and 10 ml for the last 2 consecutive hours. How can the nurse best explain this drop in urine output?
Correct Answer
C. It's an abnormal finding that requires further assessment.
Explanation
RATIONALE: The drop in urine output to less than 30 ml/hour is abnormal and requires further assessment. The reduction in urine output may be caused by an obstruction in the urinary catheter tubing or deficient fluid volume from blood loss. The client's nothing-by-mouth status isn't the cause of the low urine output because the client is receiving I.V. fluid to compensate for the lack of oral intake. Ambulation promotes urination; however, the client should produce at least 30 ml of urine/hour.
CLIENT NEEDS CATEGORY: Physiological integrity
CLIENT NEEDS SUBCATEGORY: Reduction of risk potential
COGNITIVE LEVEL: Analysis
REFERENCE: Smeltzer, S.C., et al. Brunner & Suddarth's Textbook of Medical-Surgical Nursing,11th ed. Philadelphia: Lippincott Williams & Wilkins, 2008, p. 1586.
43.
A client with bladder cancer had his bladder removed and an ileal conduit created for urine diversion. While changing this client's pouch, the nurse observes that the area around the stomais red, weeping, and painful. What should the nurse conclude?
Correct Answer
B. The pouch faceplate doesn't fit the stoma.
Explanation
RATIONALE: If the pouch faceplate doesn't fit the stoma properly, the skin around the stoma will be exposed to continuous urine flow from the stoma, causing excoriation and red, weeping, and painful skin. A lubricant shouldn't be used because it would prevent the pouch from adhering to the skin. When properly applied, a skin barrier prevents skin excoriation. Stoma dilation isn't performed with an ileal conduit, although it may be done with a colostomy if ordered.
CLIENT NEEDS CATEGORY: Physiological integrity
CLIENT NEEDS SUBCATEGORY: Basic care and comfort
COGNITIVE LEVEL: Analysis
REFERENCE: Smeltzer, S.C., et al. Brunner & Suddarth's Textbook of Medical-Surgical Nursing,11th ed. Philadelphia: Lippincott Williams & Wilkins, 2008, p. 1605.
44.
After undergoing a total cystectomy and urinary diversion, a client has a Kock pouch (continent internal reservoir) in place. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?
Correct Answer
A. "I'll have to wear an external collection pouch for the rest of my life."
Explanation
RATIONALE: The client requires additional teaching if he states that he'll have to wear an external collection pouch for the rest of his life. An internal collection pouch, such as the Kock pouch, allows the client to perform self-catheterization for ileal drainage. This pouch is an internal reservoir, eliminating the need for an external collection pouch. A well-balanced diet is essential for healing; the client need not include or exclude particular foods. The client should drink at least eight glasses of fluid daily to prevent calculi formation and urinary tract infection. Intervals between pouch drainings should be increased gradually until the pouch is emptied two to four times daily.
CLIENT NEEDS CATEGORY: Physiological integrity
CLIENT NEEDS SUBCATEGORY: Basic care and comfort
COGNITIVE LEVEL: Application
REFERENCE: Smeltzer, S.C., et al. Brunner & Suddarth's Textbook of Medical-Surgical Nursing,11th ed. Philadelphia: Lippincott Williams & Wilkins, 2008, p. 1261.
45.
Because of difficulties with hemodialysis, peritoneal dialysisis initiated to treat a client's uremia. Which finding during this procedure signals a significant problem?
Correct Answer
B. White blood cell (WBC) count of 20,000/mm3
Explanation
RATIONALE: An increased WBC count indicates infection, probably resulting fromperitonitis, which may have been caused by insertion of the peritoneal catheter into the peritoneal cavity. Peritonitis can cause the peritoneal membrane to lose its ability to filter solutes; therefore, peritoneal dialysis would no longer be a treatment option for this client.Hyperglycemia(evidenced by a blood glucose level of 200 mg/dl) occurs during peritoneal dialysis because of the high glucose content of the dialysate; it's readily treatable with sliding-scale insulin. A potassium level of 3.5 mEq/L can be treated by adding potassium to the dialysate solution. An HCT of 35% is lower than normal. However, in this client, the value isn't abnormally low because of the daily blood samplings. A lower HCT is common in clients with chronic renal failure because of the lack of erythropoietin.
CLIENT NEEDS CATEGORY: Physiological integrity
CLIENT NEEDS SUBCATEGORY: Physiological adaptation
COGNITIVE LEVEL: Analysis
REFERENCE: Smeltzer, S.C., et al. Brunner & Suddarth's Textbook of Medical-Surgical Nursing,11th ed. Philadelphia: Lippincott Williams & Wilkins, 2008, p. 1547.
46.
A client with acute renal failure is undergoing dialysis for the first time. The nurse monitors the client closely for dialysis equilibrium syndrome, a complication that's most common during the first few dialysis sessions. Typically, dialysis equilibrium syndrome causes:
Correct Answer
A. Confusion, headache, and seizures.
Explanation
RATIONALE: Dialysis equilibrium syndrome causes confusion, a decreasing level of consciousness, headache, and seizures. These findings, which may last several days, probably result from a relative excess of interstitial or intracellular solutes caused by rapid solute removal from the blood. The resultant organ swelling interferes with normal physiological functions. To prevent this syndrome, many dialysis centers keep first-time sessions short and use a reduced blood flow rate. Acute bone pain and confusion are associated with aluminum intoxication, another potential complication of dialysis. Weakness, tingling, and cardiac arrhythmiassuggest hyperkalemia, which is associated with renal failure. Hypotension,tachycardia, andtachypneasignal hemorrhage, another dialysis complication.
CLIENT NEEDS CATEGORY: Physiological integrity
CLIENT NEEDS SUBCATEGORY: Physiological adaptation
COGNITIVE LEVEL: Knowledge
REFERENCE: Smeltzer, S.C., et al. Brunner & Suddarth's Textbook of Medical-Surgical Nursing,11th ed. Philadelphia: Lippincott Williams & Wilkins, 2008, p. 1540.
47.
A client undergoes extracorporeal shock wave lithotripsy. Before discharge, the nurse should provide which instruction?
Correct Answer
B. "Increase your fluid intake to 2 to 3 L per day."
Explanation
RATIONALE: The nurse should instruct the client to increase his fluid intake. Increasing fluid intake flushes the renal calculi fragments through — and prevents obstruction of — the urinary system. Measuring temperature every 4 hours isn't needed. Lithotripsy doesn't require an incision. Hematuriamay occur for a few hours after lithotripsy but should then disappear.
CLIENT NEEDS CATEGORY: Physiological integrity
CLIENT NEEDS SUBCATEGORY: Reduction of risk potential
COGNITIVE LEVEL: Application
REFERENCE: Smeltzer, S.C., et al. Brunner & Suddarth's Textbook of Medical-Surgical Nursing,11th ed. Philadelphia: Lippincott Williams & Wilkins, 2008, p. 1594.
48.
For a client in the oliguric phase of acute renal failure (ARF), which nursing intervention is the most important?
Correct Answer
C. Limiting fluid intake
Explanation
RATIONALE: During the oliguric phase of ARF, urine output decreases markedly, possibly leading to fluid overload. Limiting oral and I.V. fluid intake can prevent fluid overload and its complications, such as heart failureandpulmonary edema. Encouraging coughing and deep breathing is important for clients with various respiratory disorders. Promoting carbohydrate intake may be helpful in ARF but doesn't take precedence over fluid limitation. Controlling pain isn't important because ARF rarely causes pain.
CLIENT NEEDS CATEGORY: Physiological integrity
CLIENT NEEDS SUBCATEGORY: Reduction of risk potential
COGNITIVE LEVEL: Application
REFERENCE: Smeltzer, S.C., et al. Brunner & Suddarth's Textbook of Medical-Surgical Nursing,11th ed. Philadelphia: Lippincott Williams & Wilkins, 2008, p. 1526.
49.
A nurse is caring for a male client with gonorrhea. The client asks how he can reduce his risk of contracting another sexually transmitted disease (STD). The nurse should instruct the client to:
Correct Answer
B. Wear a condom every time he has intercourse.
Explanation
RATIONALE: Wearing a condom during intercourse considerably reduces the risk of contracting STDs. Asking all potential sexual partners if they have an STD; considering intercourse safe if his partner has no visible discharge, lesions, or rashes; and expecting to limit the number of sexual partners won't reduce the risk of contracting an STD to the extent wearing a condom will. A monogamous relationship also reduces the risk of contracting STDs.
CLIENT NEEDS CATEGORY: Health promotion and maintenance
CLIENT NEEDS SUBCATEGORY: None
COGNITIVE LEVEL: Application
REFERENCE: Smeltzer, S.C., et al. Brunner & Suddarth's Textbook of Medical-Surgical Nursing,11th ed. Philadelphia: Lippincott Williams & Wilkins, 2008, p. 2509.
50.
A registered nurse and a nursing assistant are caring for a group of clients. Which client's care may safely be delegated to the nursing assistant?
Correct Answer
C. A client diagnosed with renal calculi who must ambulate four times daily and drink plenty of fluids.
Explanation
RATIONALE: The care of the client diagnosed with renal calculi may safely be delegated to the nursing assistant. The registered nurse should care for the client who had surgery 12 hours ago because the client requires close assessment. The client with uncontrolled diabetes mellitusalso requires careful assessment by the registered nurse. In addition, the registered nurse should care for the client who requires neurological assessment, which isn't within the scope of practice for the nursing assistant.
CLIENT NEEDS CATEGORY: Safe, effective care environment
CLIENT NEEDS SUBCATEGORY: Management of care
COGNITIVE LEVEL: Analysis
REFERENCE: Taylor, C., et al. Fundamentals of Nursing: The Art and Science of Nursing Care,6th ed. Philadelphia: Lippincott Williams & Wilkins, 2008, p. 323.