Are You A Civil Engineer In The Air Force Prime Beef?

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Are You A Civil Engineer In The Air Force Prime Beef? - Quiz


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    Which position is usually held by the highest grade civilian in the civil engineering squadron?  

    • A. 

      Resource Manager

    • B. 

      Chief of engineering

    • C. 

      Operations commander

    • D. 

      Deputy base civil engineer

    Correct Answer
    D. Deputy base civil engineer
    Explanation
    The highest grade civilian in the civil engineering squadron is usually the Deputy Base Civil Engineer. This position holds a high level of responsibility and authority within the squadron. They are responsible for overseeing and managing the civil engineering operations on the base, including planning, designing, and executing construction projects. They work closely with the military personnel and other civilian staff to ensure the efficient and effective functioning of the civil engineering squadron.

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  • 2. 

    Which flight contains tools that will be the foundation for a more systematic and integrated management approach throughout the squadron?

    • A. 

      Planning

    • B. 

      Resources

    • C. 

      Asset management

    • D. 

      Financial management

    Correct Answer
    B. Resources
    Explanation
    The flight that contains tools that will be the foundation for a more systematic and integrated management approach throughout the squadron is the Resources flight. This flight is responsible for managing and allocating the necessary resources, such as personnel, equipment, and supplies, to support the squadron's operations. By having effective tools and processes in place, the Resources flight can ensure that resources are distributed efficiently and effectively, leading to improved overall squadron management.

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  • 3. 

    Readiness to respond with an engineering capability is best provided through mobility posturing of civil engineering personnel and

    • A. 

      Practicing the Air and Space Expeditionary Force concept

    • B. 

      Exercising extensively during peacetime

    • C. 

      Supporting force bed-down of Air Force units and weapon systems

    • D. 

      Operating and maintain essential functions of facilities and utilities

    Correct Answer
    B. Exercising extensively during peacetime
    Explanation
    Exercising extensively during peacetime allows civil engineering personnel to practice and refine their engineering capability, ensuring they are prepared and ready to respond in times of need. By conducting regular exercises, they can identify any weaknesses or areas for improvement, and develop strategies to address them. This helps to enhance their skills and expertise, enabling them to effectively support force bed-down, operate and maintain facilities and utilities, and contribute to the overall readiness of Air Force units and weapon systems.

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  • 4. 

    As outlines in Air Force Instruction 10-401, Air Force Operations Planning and Execution, and Air and Space Expeditionary Force describes a deployed

    • A. 

      Unit, squadron, or wing

    • B. 

      Unit, squadron, or group

    • C. 

      Squadron, group, or base

    • D. 

      Squadron, group, or wing

    Correct Answer
    D. Squadron, group, or wing
    Explanation
    The correct answer is squadron, group, or wing. This is because Air Force Instruction 10-401, Air Force Operations Planning and Execution, and Air and Space Expeditionary Force describe a deployed unit, which can be a squadron, group, or wing. These are all different levels of organizational units within the Air Force, with a squadron being the smallest, followed by a group, and then a wing. Depending on the size and mission requirements, a deployed unit can be any of these three options.

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  • 5. 

    In order to meet mission requirements, the primary goal of RED HORSE is to develop and maintain a highly skilled, self-sufficient combat engineering force capable of what?

    • A. 

      Rapid response and independent operations

    • B. 

      Force protection and independent deployment

    • C. 

      Rapid construction and independent movement

    • D. 

      Force combat support and independent operations

    Correct Answer
    A. Rapid response and independent operations
    Explanation
    The primary goal of RED HORSE is to develop and maintain a highly skilled, self-sufficient combat engineering force capable of rapid response and independent operations. This means that RED HORSE aims to have a force that can quickly react and mobilize in various situations and be able to operate independently without relying on external support. This is important for mission requirements as it ensures that the force can effectively carry out their tasks and contribute to the overall success of the mission.

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  • 6. 

    When an Air National Guard or Air Force Reserve RED HORSE unit mobilizes, who does the unit directly report to?

    • A. 

      Gaining MAJCOM

    • B. 

      In garrison commander

    • C. 

      Deployed base civil engineer

    • D. 

      Area of responsibility commander

    Correct Answer
    A. Gaining MAJCOM
    Explanation
    When an Air National Guard or Air Force Reserve RED HORSE unit mobilizes, the unit directly reports to the Gaining MAJCOM. The Gaining MAJCOM refers to the Major Command that the unit is being deployed to. This command is responsible for overseeing and coordinating the operations and activities of the unit during their mobilization. The Gaining MAJCOM ensures that the unit is integrated into the larger command structure and provides guidance and support as needed.

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  • 7. 

    What unit is capable of major bare base development and typically the first one in to set up a bare base site?

    • A. 

      Air and Space Expeditionary Force

    • B. 

      Air and Space Expeditionary Wing

    • C. 

      Prime BEEF

    • D. 

      RED HORSE

    Correct Answer
    D. RED HORSE
    Explanation
    RED HORSE stands for Rapid Engineer Deployable Heavy Operational Repair Squadron Engineer. They are a specialized unit within the U.S. Air Force that is capable of major bare base development. They are typically the first ones to be deployed to set up a bare base site, which involves constructing infrastructure and facilities in remote or austere locations. RED HORSE units are trained in various engineering disciplines and have the equipment and expertise to quickly establish operational bases in support of military operations.

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  • 8. 

    What two units supplement active duty units to create a major force in worldwide deployments to meet mission requirements?

    • A. 

      RED HORSE and Prime BEEF units

    • B. 

      Air Force Reserve and Prime BEEF units

    • C. 

      Air National Guard and Prime BEEF units

    • D. 

      Air National Guard and Air Force Reserve units

    Correct Answer
    D. Air National Guard and Air Force Reserve units
    Explanation
    Air National Guard and Air Force Reserve units supplement active duty units to create a major force in worldwide deployments to meet mission requirements. These units provide additional manpower and resources, enhancing the capabilities of the active duty units and allowing for a broader reach and increased operational effectiveness. The Air National Guard and Air Force Reserve play a crucial role in supporting active duty forces and are often called upon to assist in various missions and operations around the world.

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  • 9. 

    Which units are under authority of their respective state governor?

    • A. 

      Prime BEEF

    • B. 

      RED HORSE

    • C. 

      Air national Guard

    • D. 

      Air Force Reserve Command

    Correct Answer
    C. Air national Guard
    Explanation
    The Air National Guard is under the authority of their respective state governor. Each state has its own Air National Guard unit, which is responsible for providing air defense, disaster response, and support to local communities. The governor serves as the commander-in-chief of the state's National Guard forces and has the authority to deploy them within the state or in response to federal requests for assistance. This allows the governor to have direct control over the Air National Guard units within their state.

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  • 10. 

    The requirements for the Prime BEEF program are contained in what Air Force publication?

    • A. 

      AFPD 2-4

    • B. 

      AFI 10-210

    • C. 

      AFI 10-203

    • D. 

      AFPD 2-4.4

    Correct Answer
    B. AFI 10-210
    Explanation
    AFI 10-210 is the correct answer because it is the Air Force Instruction that contains the requirements for the Prime BEEF (Base Engineer Emergency Force) program. This publication provides guidance and instructions on the organization, training, and utilization of Prime BEEF units, which are responsible for rapid response and recovery operations in support of Air Force installations worldwide. The other options, AFPD 2-4, AFI 10-203, and AFPD 2-4.4, are not specifically related to the Prime BEEF program.

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  • 11. 

    MAJCOMs establish unit type codes for the operations within the command. These codes establish the size, composition, and equipment that make up what type of teams?

    • A. 

      Prime BEEF

    • B. 

      RED HORSE

    • C. 

      Air and Space Expeditionary Force

    • D. 

      Expeditionary Air and Space Force

    Correct Answer
    A. Prime BEEF
    Explanation
    MAJCOMs establish unit type codes for the operations within the command. Prime BEEF (Base Engineer Emergency Force) is a specialized team that is responsible for providing construction, repair, and recovery support in the event of emergencies or disasters. The unit type codes for Prime BEEF would establish the size, composition, and equipment needed for these teams to effectively carry out their mission.

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  • 12. 

    What option can the Air Force Contract Augmentation Program provide to Prime BEEF forces?

    • A. 

      Deployment materials

    • B. 

      Relief or augments forces

    • C. 

      Augments contracts pending for Prime BEEF units

    • D. 

      Creates a stable contract structure for the Air Force

    Correct Answer
    B. Relief or augments forces
    Explanation
    The Air Force Contract Augmentation Program can provide relief or augment forces to Prime BEEF units. This means that the program can offer additional personnel or support to help alleviate the workload or enhance the capabilities of Prime BEEF forces. This can be especially helpful during times of high demand or when additional resources are needed to complete a mission or project.

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  • 13. 

    Being assigned to a Prime BEEF team, you must be ready to mobilize on a moment’s notice. To be ready means you understand your duty responsibilities, making sure your personal affairs are in place, and

    • A. 

      Creating family financial support objectives

    • B. 

      Ensuring your family members are prepared

    • C. 

      Letting family members knows where you are going

    • D. 

      Enrolling family members with the Family Support Center

    Correct Answer
    B. Ensuring your family members are prepared
    Explanation
    The correct answer is ensuring your family members are prepared. As a member of a Prime BEEF team, it is important to ensure that your family members are prepared for your mobilization. This includes making sure they understand the situation, have necessary supplies, and know what to do in your absence. By ensuring your family members are prepared, you can have peace of mind knowing that they will be taken care of while you are away.

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  • 14. 

    Tier 2 training sites make what resource available to units?

    • A. 

      Commonly used deployable equipment

    • B. 

      Specialized contingency equipment

    • C. 

      Technical classroom training

    • D. 

      Computer-based training

    Correct Answer
    B. Specialized contingency equipment
    Explanation
    Tier 2 training sites make specialized contingency equipment available to units. This means that these training sites provide units with specific equipment that is designed for use in emergency or contingency situations. This equipment is not commonly used on a day-to-day basis, but is crucial in times of crisis or special operations. By making this specialized equipment available, Tier 2 training sites ensure that units are prepared and equipped to handle any unforeseen circumstances that may arise.

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  • 15. 

    What provides a Prime BEEF unit with a listing of items to deploy with?

    • A. 

      Equipment and supplies listing

    • B. 

      Air Force Civil Engineer Support Agency

    • C. 

      AFI 32-1001, Operations Management

    • D. 

      Base civil engineer

    Correct Answer
    A. Equipment and supplies listing
    Explanation
    A Prime BEEF unit is provided with a listing of items to deploy with through an equipment and supplies listing. This listing includes all the necessary equipment and supplies that the unit needs to carry out their deployment operations effectively. It helps ensure that the unit has everything they need and can easily keep track of their inventory during the deployment process.

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  • 16. 

    What will be your primary weapon to use when assigned to a Prime BEEF position?

    • A. 

      M-60 machine gun

    • B. 

      M-2 machine gun

    • C. 

      M-9 pistol

    • D. 

      M-16 rifle

    Correct Answer
    D. M-16 rifle
    Explanation
    The M-16 rifle would be the primary weapon to use when assigned to a Prime BEEF position. This weapon is commonly used by military personnel and is known for its reliability and versatility. It is lightweight, easy to maneuver, and has a high rate of fire. The M-16 rifle is suitable for various combat situations and is effective in providing both suppressive and accurate fire.

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  • 17. 

    The Air Force comprehensive plan in comprised of four basic parts: general plan, component plans, special plans and studies, and

    • A. 

      Maps

    • B. 

      Signs

    • C. 

      Operational plans

    • D. 

      Intermediate plans

    Correct Answer
    A. Maps
    Explanation
    The Air Force comprehensive plan consists of four basic parts, namely the general plan, component plans, special plans and studies, and maps. Maps are an essential part of the comprehensive plan as they provide visual representations of various aspects such as geographical locations, strategic positions, and operational areas. They help in better understanding and decision-making by providing a clear overview of the situation and aiding in effective communication among different units and personnel.

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  • 18. 

    The general plan generally synopsizes information from the component plans as well as what other documents?

    • A. 

      Other planning documents

    • B. 

      General planning documents

    • C. 

      Operational planning documents

    • D. 

      Major command planning documents

    Correct Answer
    A. Other planning documents
    Explanation
    The general plan generally synopsizes information from the component plans as well as other planning documents. This suggests that the general plan is a comprehensive document that summarizes information from various planning documents, including but not limited to the component plans. It implies that the general plan serves as a central source of information that incorporates inputs from different planning sources to provide a holistic overview of the planning process.

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  • 19. 

    What helps to visually explain the narrative contained in the general plan, component plans, and special plan and studies?

    • A. 

      Maps

    • B. 

      Pictures

    • C. 

      Diagrams

    • D. 

      Information

    Correct Answer
    A. Maps
    Explanation
    Maps help to visually explain the narrative contained in the general plan, component plans, and special plan and studies. Maps provide a visual representation of the spatial relationships and patterns, allowing for a better understanding of the information presented in these plans. They can show the locations of different elements, such as land use zones, transportation networks, and natural features, helping to convey the intended message and facilitate decision-making processes.

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  • 20. 

    What plan provides contractors with information on contract requirements, the level of performance expectations, and how the Air Force will confirm services are provided?

    • A. 

      Surveillance plan

    • B. 

      Quality assessment plan

    • C. 

      Performance-based plan

    • D. 

      Quality assurance surveillance plan

    Correct Answer
    D. Quality assurance surveillance plan
    Explanation
    A quality assurance surveillance plan provides contractors with information on contract requirements, the level of performance expectations, and how the Air Force will confirm services are provided. This plan ensures that the contractor's performance meets the desired standards and allows for effective monitoring and evaluation of the contract. It outlines the specific surveillance methods and techniques that will be used to assess the quality of the services provided by the contractor.

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  • 21. 

    To design mission support strategies that obtain higher levels of contractor performance, foster synergistic partnerships, accommodate changing mission needs, and leverage best commercial practices is the goal of

    • A. 

      Mission data sets

    • B. 

      The performance plan

    • C. 

      The quality assurance surveillance plan

    • D. 

      Performance-based services acquisition

    Correct Answer
    D. Performance-based services acquisition
    Explanation
    Performance-based services acquisition is the goal of designing mission support strategies that obtain higher levels of contractor performance, foster synergistic partnerships, accommodate changing mission needs, and leverage best commercial practices. This approach focuses on defining the desired outcomes and performance standards, rather than prescribing specific methods or processes, allowing contractors to innovate and find the most effective ways to achieve the desired results. By aligning contractor incentives with performance outcomes, performance-based services acquisition aims to improve contractor performance and deliver better value to the government.

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  • 22. 

    Which injury is the number-one cause of lost worker time?

    • A. 

      Eye injury

    • B. 

      Foot injury

    • C. 

      Back injury

    • D. 

      Broken limbs

    Correct Answer
    C. Back injury
    Explanation
    Back injury is the number-one cause of lost worker time because it can be debilitating and affect an individual's ability to perform tasks that require physical exertion. Back injuries can occur due to heavy lifting, repetitive motions, or accidents in the workplace. These injuries often require medical treatment, rehabilitation, and time off work for recovery, resulting in significant lost productivity. Additionally, back injuries can have long-term consequences and may require ongoing medical attention, further impacting the worker's ability to return to work.

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  • 23. 

    In which are of the engineering profession might you encounter welding hazards?

    • A. 

      Drafting

    • B. 

      Surveying

    • C. 

      Materials testing

    • D. 

      Construction Management

    Correct Answer
    D. Construction Management
    Explanation
    Construction Management is an area of the engineering profession where one might encounter welding hazards. In construction projects, welding is often used for joining metal components, and this process involves various hazards such as exposure to hazardous fumes, high temperatures, and potential fire hazards. Construction managers are responsible for overseeing the entire construction process, including welding activities, and ensuring that proper safety measures are in place to protect workers from these hazards. Therefore, construction managers need to be knowledgeable about welding hazards and take appropriate steps to mitigate them.

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  • 24. 

    What are the best teachers of safety?

    • A. 

      Safety briefings

    • B. 

      Regular meetings

    • C. 

      Real life experiences.

    • D. 

      Posters and other literature.

    Correct Answer
    C. Real life experiences.
    Explanation
    Real life experiences are considered the best teachers of safety because they provide firsthand knowledge and practical understanding of potential hazards and how to avoid them. Unlike safety briefings, regular meetings, and posters, real life experiences offer a more immersive and memorable learning opportunity. Through personal encounters with safety incidents, individuals can gain valuable insights, learn from mistakes, and develop a deeper appreciation for the importance of safety precautions. This experiential learning approach helps individuals internalize safety practices and make better-informed decisions in real-world situations.

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  • 25. 

    Which of the following characters defines the civil engineer career fields?

    • A. 

      3A

    • B. 

      3E

    • C. 

      5A

    • D. 

      5E

    Correct Answer
    B. 3E
    Explanation
    The character "3E" defines the civil engineer career fields.

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  • 26. 

    Which system identifies duties and tasks for every position needed to accomplish the Air Force mission?

    • A. 

      Civil engineer enlisted classification

    • B. 

      Military personnel classification

    • C. 

      Job description category

    • D. 

      AF career placement

    Correct Answer
    B. Military personnel classification
    Explanation
    The military personnel classification system identifies duties and tasks for every position needed to accomplish the Air Force mission. This system helps to categorize and assign personnel based on their skills, qualifications, and job requirements. It ensures that each position is filled with the right personnel who possess the necessary skills and knowledge to carry out their duties effectively. This classification system plays a crucial role in maintaining the operational readiness and success of the Air Force.

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  • 27. 

    Why does the Air Force use AFSC prefixes like "T" in the example "T3E171"?

    • A. 

      Designate an ability, skill, special qualification

    • B. 

      Identifies a special skill within a particular AFSC

    • C. 

      Controls the duty assignments of a particular skill

    • D. 

      Designate a position associated with a particular piece of equipment

    Correct Answer
    A. Designate an ability, skill, special qualification
    Explanation
    The AFSC prefix "T" in the example "T3E171" is used to designate an ability, skill, or special qualification. This prefix helps to identify the specific capabilities and expertise of an individual within a particular AFSC. It allows for better organization and allocation of personnel based on their unique skills and qualifications.

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  • 28. 

    Each Air Force Specialty is combined into a broad and more functional category called

    • A. 

      Military occupation

    • B. 

      Job description

    • C. 

      Infrastructure

    • D. 

      Career field

    Correct Answer
    D. Career field
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "career field" because it is stated that each Air Force Specialty is combined into a broad and more functional category. A "career field" encompasses a range of related job specialties and provides a broader perspective of the various occupations within the Air Force. It is a term commonly used to categorize and organize different job roles and specialties within a specific industry or organization. Therefore, "career field" is the most suitable option that aligns with the given information.

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  • 29. 

    What does the "E" represent in the AFSC 3E451?

    • A. 

      Skill level

    • B. 

      Support career group

    • C. 

      Career field subdivision

    • D. 

      Engineer career family

    Correct Answer
    D. Engineer career family
    Explanation
    The "E" in the AFSC 3E451 represents the Engineer career family. This means that individuals with this AFSC are part of the career field that focuses on engineering-related tasks and responsibilities. The "E" designation indicates that their job duties are specifically related to engineering within the Air Force.

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  • 30. 

    Which skill level indicates the apprentice skill level?

    • A. 

      One

    • B. 

      Three

    • C. 

      Five

    • D. 

      Seven

    Correct Answer
    B. Three
    Explanation
    The skill level that indicates the apprentice skill level is three.

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  • 31. 

    What is the code that identifies a CMSgt or CMSgt-select as the top enlisted manager for civil engineers?

    • A. 

      3E191

    • B. 

      3E090

    • C. 

      3ECEM

    • D. 

      3E000

    Correct Answer
    D. 3E000
    Explanation
    The code "3E000" identifies a CMSgt or CMSgt-select as the top enlisted manager for civil engineers. This code is specific to this role and distinguishes it from other positions within the military.

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  • 32. 

    Which skill level must you obtain before promotion of staff sergeant?

    • A. 

      Three

    • B. 

      Five

    • C. 

      Seven

    • D. 

      Nine

    Correct Answer
    B. Five
    Explanation
    To be promoted to staff sergeant, one must obtain a skill level of five. This suggests that there are different skill levels within the military hierarchy, and staff sergeant is a rank that requires a certain level of expertise and experience. The question implies that there are multiple skill levels before the promotion to staff sergeant, but it does not provide information about what these skill levels represent or how they are determined.

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  • 33. 

    Who is responsible for obtaining the highest possible score on your end-of-course exam for CDCs?

    • A. 

      Commander

    • B. 

      Superintendent

    • C. 

      Supervisor

    • D. 

      You

    Correct Answer
    D. You
    Explanation
    As an individual, you are ultimately responsible for obtaining the highest possible score on your end-of-course exam for CDCs. While your commander, superintendent, and supervisor may provide guidance and support, the effort and dedication required to achieve a high score rests on your shoulders. Your personal commitment, study habits, and preparation will determine the outcome of your exam.

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  • 34. 

    Completion of what course authorizes you to wear the senior civil engineering (CE) occupational badge?

    • A. 

      Basic course

    • B. 

      NCO Academy

    • C. 

      Airman leadership school

    • D. 

      Craftsman Course

    Correct Answer
    D. Craftsman Course
    Explanation
    The Craftsman Course authorizes individuals to wear the senior civil engineering (CE) occupational badge. This suggests that completing the Craftsman Course is a requirement for achieving the senior level of expertise in civil engineering within the military. The other options mentioned, such as the Basic course, NCO Academy, and Airman leadership school, do not seem to hold the same level of significance or authorization for wearing the senior CE occupational badge.

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  • 35. 

    Why does the Air Force want to provide you with training and education?

    • A. 

      Create a workforce that can accomplish single goals

    • B. 

      Build knowledge and skills to carry out the mission

    • C. 

      Give all airmen a viable trade to carry with them

    • D. 

      Build skill level confidence to complete jobs

    Correct Answer
    B. Build knowledge and skills to carry out the mission
    Explanation
    The Air Force wants to provide training and education in order to build knowledge and skills that are necessary to carry out their mission effectively. By equipping airmen with the necessary knowledge and skills, they can ensure that their workforce is well-prepared and capable of accomplishing their goals. This training and education also helps to build skill level confidence among airmen, enabling them to successfully complete their assigned jobs and tasks. Additionally, providing airmen with a viable trade allows them to have valuable skills that they can carry with them throughout their career.

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  • 36. 

    What does the Air For define as the ability to recall methods, procedures, tools, and equipment?

    • A. 

      Subject knowledge

    • B. 

      Skill knowledge

    • C. 

      Task knowledge

    • D. 

      Task performance

    Correct Answer
    C. Task knowledge
    Explanation
    Task knowledge refers to the ability to recall methods, procedures, tools, and equipment. It involves understanding and remembering the specific steps and techniques required to perform a particular task. This knowledge includes knowing the appropriate tools and equipment to use, as well as the correct procedures and methods to follow. Task knowledge is essential for performing tasks efficiently and effectively, as it ensures that individuals have the necessary information and skills to complete their tasks accurately.

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  • 37. 

    What gives you a reference to complete a task that is outlined in the specialty training standard?

    • A. 

      Proficiency code reference in the skill level column

    • B. 

      Core task reference in the second column

    • C. 

      Qualification training package reference in the skill level column

    • D. 

      Technical reference in the first column

    Correct Answer
    D. Technical reference in the first column
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Technical reference in the first column". This is because the first column typically contains information about the technical aspects of a task, such as specific procedures or guidelines to follow. By referring to the technical reference in the first column, one can find the necessary information to complete a task outlined in the specialty training standard.

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  • 38. 

    As a minimum, what amount of core tasks will a trainee have to complete before upgrading their skill level?

    • A. 

      25 percent

    • B. 

      50 percent

    • C. 

      80 percent

    • D. 

      All

    Correct Answer
    D. All
    Explanation
    A trainee will have to complete all of the core tasks before upgrading their skill level. This means that they cannot upgrade their skill level until they have finished every single core task that is required.

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  • 39. 

    A solid triangle (▲) in the qualification training package sub-column indicates the QTP is

    • A. 

      Under development

    • B. 

      Currently available

    • C. 

      Not needed

    • D. 

      Mandatory

    Correct Answer
    B. Currently available
    Explanation
    The presence of a solid triangle (▲) in the qualification training package sub-column indicates that the QTP is currently available.

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  • 40. 

    Which airmen are required to maintain training records?

    • A. 

      Airmen First Class only

    • B. 

      Senior Airmen only

    • C. 

      Airmen basic through technical sergeant

    • D. 

      Airmen basic through master sergeant

    Correct Answer
    C. Airmen basic through technical sergeant
    Explanation
    Airmen basic through technical sergeant are required to maintain training records. This means that airmen in the ranks of basic, airman, airman first class, senior airman, and technical sergeant are all responsible for keeping track of their training records. This ensures that they have a record of the training they have completed and can provide evidence of their qualifications and skills when necessary.

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  • 41. 

    Which screen in the Air Force Training Record contains basic information about you?

    • A. 

      Profile

    • B. 

      623 II

    • C. 

      623 III

    • D. 

      797

    Correct Answer
    A. Profile
    Explanation
    The screen in the Air Force Training Record that contains basic information about you is the Profile screen. This screen provides essential details about an individual, such as their personal information, contact information, and any relevant qualifications or certifications. It serves as a comprehensive overview of an individual's background and is used for administrative purposes and record-keeping within the Air Force Training Record system.

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  • 42. 

    Which Air Force training record screen allows your trainer to document recurring training such as lockout tag-out, hazardous communication, cardiopulmonary resuscitation, and the law of armed conflict?

    • A. 

      623

    • B. 

      797

    • C. 

      803

    • D. 

      1098

    Correct Answer
    D. 1098
  • 43. 

    Where will your supervisor document all of your on the job training in the Air Force training record program?

    • A. 

      623a

    • B. 

      1098

    • C. 

      STS

    • D. 

      JQS

    Correct Answer
    D. JQS
    Explanation
    In the Air Force training record program, your supervisor will document all of your on the job training in the Job Qualification Standard (JQS). The JQS is a comprehensive document that outlines the specific tasks, knowledge, and skills required for a particular job in the Air Force. It serves as a record of your training progress and ensures that you are properly trained and qualified for your assigned duties.

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  • 44. 

    Who does the master task listing identify specific training for in a section?

    • A. 

      Each individual

    • B. 

      3-level trainees only

    • C. 

      5-level trainees only

    • D. 

      Individuals needing core task training

    Correct Answer
    A. Each individual
    Explanation
    The master task listing identifies specific training for each individual in a section. This means that the training is tailored and personalized for each person, taking into account their specific needs and requirements. It ensures that each individual receives the necessary training to perform their tasks effectively and efficiently. This approach recognizes the unique abilities and skills of each person and aims to provide them with the appropriate training to excel in their roles.

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  • 45. 

    If the individual meets all of the training goals for your section, what training code will you assign to them?

    • A. 

      B

    • B. 

      C

    • C. 

      R

    • D. 

      Q

    Correct Answer
    C. R
    Explanation
    If the individual meets all of the training goals for your section, the training code assigned to them will be "R".

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  • 46. 

    What are the two parts of a task that you must train in?

    • A. 

      Job knowledge and wartime task

    • B. 

      Knowledge and performance

    • C. 

      Core task and wartime task

    • D. 

      3- and 5- skill level

    Correct Answer
    B. Knowledge and performance
    Explanation
    The two parts of a task that you must train in are knowledge and performance. Knowledge refers to understanding the theoretical concepts and principles related to the task, while performance refers to the practical application of that knowledge in a real-world setting. Training in both knowledge and performance ensures that individuals have a comprehensive understanding of the task and are able to effectively execute it.

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  • 47. 

    What are they key to a training counseling session?

    • A. 

      Documentation

    • B. 

      Accuracy

    • C. 

      Honesty

    • D. 

      Rapport

    Correct Answer
    C. Honesty
    Explanation
    In a training counseling session, honesty is crucial for effective communication and trust-building between the trainer and trainee. Being honest allows the trainer to provide accurate feedback and guidance, which helps the trainee improve their skills and performance. Honesty also fosters an open and transparent environment, where both parties can openly discuss challenges, goals, and progress. By being honest, trainers can build rapport with trainees, creating a strong foundation for a successful training session.

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  • 48. 

    Certifications can be driven by what higher authorities?

    • A. 

      National or state government only

    • B. 

      National, state, or Department of Defense

    • C. 

      Department of Defense or state government only

    • D. 

      US national or foreign national government

    Correct Answer
    B. National, state, or Department of Defense
    Explanation
    Certifications can be driven by national, state, or Department of Defense authorities. This means that these three entities have the power to establish and regulate certifications in various fields. They can set the standards, requirements, and guidelines for obtaining certifications, ensuring that individuals meet the necessary qualifications and competencies. By recognizing and endorsing certifications, national, state, and Department of Defense authorities contribute to maintaining quality and consistency in professional practices and ensuring public safety and welfare.

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  • 49. 

    What will happen with the CerTest program is you happen to fail a second time?

    • A. 

      Locks you out

    • B. 

      Jumps to the end

    • C. 

      Allows you a third attempt

    • D. 

      Returns you to the beginning

    Correct Answer
    A. Locks you out
    Explanation
    If you happen to fail a second time in the CerTest program, it will lock you out. This means that you will be denied access and will not be able to proceed further in the program.

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  • 50. 

    When are major installations required to conduct internal environmental compliance assessments and external compliance assessments?

    • A. 

      Annual; once every three years

    • B. 

      Annual; once every two years

    • C. 

      Even years; odd years

    • D. 

      Semi-annual; annual

    Correct Answer
    A. Annual; once every three years
    Explanation
    Major installations are required to conduct internal environmental compliance assessments annually and external compliance assessments once every three years. This means that every year, the major installations need to assess their internal environmental compliance, ensuring that they are meeting all the necessary regulations and standards. Additionally, they are also required to conduct external compliance assessments every three years, where an external party evaluates their compliance with environmental regulations. This regular assessment helps major installations to identify any non-compliance issues and take necessary actions to rectify them.

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