3D152-01-1509 Ed 2 Vol 1

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3D152 Quizzes & Trivia

Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    (001) Which 3D career field deploys, sustains, troubleshoots, and repairs wireless, line-of-sight, beyond line-of-sight, wideband and ground-based satellite and encryption transmission devices?

    • A.

      Radio Frequency Transmission Systems (3D1X3).

    • B.

      Cyber Transport Systems (3D1X2).

    • C.

      Spectrum Operations (3D1X4).

    • D.

      Client Systems (3D1X1).

    Correct Answer
    A. Radio Frequency Transmission Systems (3D1X3).
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Radio Frequency Transmission Systems (3D1X3). This career field involves deploying, sustaining, troubleshooting, and repairing various types of transmission devices, including wireless, line-of-sight, beyond line-of-sight, wideband, and ground-based satellite systems. This job requires expertise in working with encryption and ensuring secure communication.

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  • 2. 

    (002) Which of the following is not a communications security program duty and responsibility for Cyber Transport Systems?

    • A.

      Transmission security.

    • B.

      Technical security.

    • C.

      Emission security.

    • D.

      Physical security.

    Correct Answer
    B. Technical security.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Technical security. Technical security refers to the protection of computer systems and networks from unauthorized access, attacks, and vulnerabilities. While it is an important aspect of overall cybersecurity, it is not specifically a duty and responsibility for Cyber Transport Systems. Communications security programs for Cyber Transport Systems typically focus on ensuring the secure transmission of information, protecting against unauthorized disclosure, and maintaining the integrity of the communication systems.

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  • 3. 

    (003) What is defined as an integrated bundle of expert knowledge and organizational skills inherent to a particular career field?

    • A.

      Core duty.

    • B.

      Core value.

    • C.

      Core competency.

    • D.

      Core responsibility.

    Correct Answer
    C. Core competency.
    Explanation
    Core competency is defined as an integrated bundle of expert knowledge and organizational skills inherent to a particular career field. It refers to the specialized capabilities and expertise that individuals or organizations possess, which sets them apart from others in the same field. Core competencies are essential for achieving success and competitive advantage in a specific industry or profession. They represent the unique strengths and abilities that enable individuals or organizations to deliver superior performance and meet the demands of their customers or clients.

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  • 4. 

    (003) Which of the following is a core competency of Cyber Transport Systems?

    • A.

      Fixed cable systems.

    • B.

      Voice network systems.

    • C.

      Application software systems.

    • D.

      Client-server database systems.

    Correct Answer
    B. Voice network systems.
    Explanation
    Voice network systems are a core competency of Cyber Transport Systems. This means that Cyber Transport Systems is skilled and proficient in designing, implementing, and managing voice network systems. These systems are essential for transmitting voice communications over networks, such as telephone systems or Voice over IP (VoIP) systems. By specializing in voice network systems, Cyber Transport Systems can provide reliable and efficient communication solutions to their clients.

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  • 5. 

    (004) Which AF form is used to report hazardous conditions that place Air Force personnel or property at risk?

    • A.

      1118

    • B.

      457

    • C.

      55

    • D.

      3

    Correct Answer
    B. 457
    Explanation
    AF Form 457 is used to report hazardous conditions that pose a risk to Air Force personnel or property. This form allows individuals to document and report any unsafe conditions they encounter, such as faulty equipment, hazardous materials, or potential safety hazards. By reporting these conditions, the Air Force can take appropriate measures to mitigate the risks and ensure the safety of its personnel and assets.

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  • 6. 

    (005) Which hazard is not one of the four major types of hazards?

    • A.

      Biological.

    • B.

      Chemical.

    • C.

      Physical.

    • D.

      Nuclear.

    Correct Answer
    D. Nuclear.
    Explanation
    The question asks for a hazard that is not one of the four major types of hazards. The options given are biological, chemical, physical, and nuclear. Biological, chemical, and physical hazards are commonly recognized as the three major types of hazards. Nuclear hazards, on the other hand, are not typically classified as a separate major type of hazard. Therefore, the correct answer is nuclear.

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  • 7. 

    (005) Which hazard is caused by heavy workloads, lack of control over the pace of work, shift work, noise, working by yourself, and conflict with coworkers and employers?

    • A.

      Biological

    • B.

      Chemical.

    • C.

      Physical.

    • D.

      Stress.

    Correct Answer
    D. Stress.
    Explanation
    Stress is the correct answer because heavy workloads, lack of control over the pace of work, shift work, noise, working by yourself, and conflict with coworkers and employers are all factors that can contribute to increased stress levels in the workplace. These factors can lead to feelings of overwhelm, anxiety, and pressure, which can have negative effects on an individual's mental and physical health. Stress is a common hazard in many work environments and can impact productivity, job satisfaction, and overall well-being.

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  • 8. 

    (005) To prevent manual handling hazards, utilize team lifting when lifting items that weigh more than how many pounds?

    • A.

      25

    • B.

      50

    • C.

      75

    • D.

      100

    Correct Answer
    A. 25
    Explanation
    To prevent manual handling hazards, team lifting should be utilized when lifting items that weigh more than 25 pounds. This is because lifting heavy objects on your own can put excessive strain on your body and increase the risk of injuries such as back strain or muscle sprains. By using team lifting, the weight is distributed among multiple individuals, reducing the strain on each person and minimizing the risk of accidents or injuries.

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  • 9. 

    (005) When working on electrical circuits, the role of safety observer is normally performed by the

    • A.

      Trainer.

    • B.

      Certifier.

    • C.

      Technician.

    • D.

      Supervisor.

    Correct Answer
    D. Supervisor.
    Explanation
    The supervisor is responsible for overseeing the safety of the work environment, including when working on electrical circuits. They ensure that proper safety protocols are followed, monitor the work being done, and intervene if any unsafe conditions or practices are observed. The supervisor has the authority to stop work if necessary to prevent accidents or injuries. Therefore, the supervisor is the most appropriate person to act as the safety observer when working on electrical circuits.

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  • 10. 

    (005) When working on electrical circuits, you may only wear metal framed eyeglasses if

    • A.

      The circuit is energized

    • B.

      You have a valid prescription.

    • C.

      They are certified for high voltage.

    • D.

      They are secured with a nonmetallic cord.

    Correct Answer
    D. They are secured with a nonmetallic cord.
    Explanation
    Metal framed eyeglasses conduct electricity, which can be dangerous when working on electrical circuits. However, if the eyeglasses are secured with a nonmetallic cord, it prevents them from falling off and coming into contact with the circuit. This ensures that the person working on the circuit is protected from any potential electrical hazards.

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  • 11. 

    (006) To whom does the risk management (RM) process apply?

    • A.

      All personnel.

    • B.

      Only safety personnel.

    • C.

      Only civilian personnel.

    • D.

      Only medical personnel.

    Correct Answer
    A. All personnel.
    Explanation
    The risk management (RM) process applies to all personnel. This means that everyone within an organization, regardless of their role or department, is responsible for identifying, assessing, and mitigating risks. By involving all personnel in the RM process, organizations can ensure that risks are effectively managed and that everyone is aware of their role in maintaining a safe and secure environment.

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  • 12. 

    (006) What simple, systematic process allows commanders to maximize combat capability, while limiting risk?

    • A.

      Risk control.

    • B.

      Safety control.

    • C.

      Risk management.

    • D.

      Safety management.

    Correct Answer
    C. Risk management.
    Explanation
    Risk management is the correct answer because it is a simple, systematic process that allows commanders to maximize combat capability while limiting risk. This process involves identifying potential risks, assessing their likelihood and impact, and implementing measures to mitigate or eliminate them. By effectively managing risks, commanders can make informed decisions that balance the need for combat effectiveness with the need to protect personnel and resources. Safety control and safety management may be components of risk management, but they do not encompass the full scope of the process.

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  • 13. 

    (007) Which of the following is a principle of risk management (RM)?

    • A.

      Accept unnecessary risk.

    • B.

      Apply the RM process continuously.

    • C.

      Train and adhere to safety guidelines.

    • D.

      Make risk decisions at the lowest level.

    Correct Answer
    B. Apply the RM process continuously.
    Explanation
    The principle of risk management is to apply the RM process continuously. This means that risk management should be an ongoing and iterative process, rather than a one-time event. By continuously applying the RM process, organizations can identify and assess risks, implement appropriate controls, monitor the effectiveness of these controls, and make necessary adjustments. This helps to ensure that risks are effectively managed and mitigated over time, reducing the likelihood and impact of potential incidents or accidents.

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  • 14. 

    (007) How many steps are in the risk management (RM) process?

    • A.

      Four.

    • B.

      Five.

    • C.

      Six.

    • D.

      Seven.

    Correct Answer
    B. Five.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is five because the question asks about the number of steps in the risk management process. The answer options provide different numbers, and the correct answer is the one that accurately represents the number of steps.

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  • 15. 

    (008) An enclave that does not have a firewall and intrusion detection system (IDS) is classified as having what category of vulnerability?

    • A.

      I

    • B.

      II

    • C.

      III

    • D.

      IV

    Correct Answer
    A. I
    Explanation
    An enclave that does not have a firewall and intrusion detection system (IDS) is classified as having a category I vulnerability. This means that the enclave lacks basic security measures to protect against unauthorized access and potential attacks. Without a firewall, the enclave is more susceptible to network-based threats, while the absence of an IDS leaves it vulnerable to intrusion attempts and unauthorized activities within the network. Overall, category I vulnerability signifies a significant security risk that needs to be addressed promptly.

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  • 16. 

    (008) How many Integrated Network and Operation Security Centers (INOSC) does the Air Force have?

    • A.

      One.

    • B.

      Two.

    • C.

      Three.

    • D.

      Four.

    Correct Answer
    B. Two.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Two. This means that the Air Force has two Integrated Network and Operation Security Centers (INOSC). These centers are responsible for ensuring the security and integrity of the Air Force's integrated network and operations. Having two INOSCs allows for redundancy and backup capabilities in case one center experiences any issues or disruptions.

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  • 17. 

    (008) The Integrated Network Operations and Security Centers (INOSC) has several responsibilities except

    • A.

      Maintain sole administrative privileges on the firewall.

    • B.

      Standardize, configure, back up, and otherwise maintain the firewall.

    • C.

      Maintain a single naming/configuration standard for boundary devices.

    • D.

      Install patches or perform any upgrades provided by the Air Force Enterprise Network (AFEN).

    Correct Answer
    D. Install patches or perform any upgrades provided by the Air Force Enterprise Network (AFEN).
    Explanation
    The Integrated Network Operations and Security Centers (INOSC) is responsible for maintaining sole administrative privileges on the firewall, standardizing, configuring, backing up, and otherwise maintaining the firewall, and maintaining a single naming/configuration standard for boundary devices. However, they do not install patches or perform any upgrades provided by the Air Force Enterprise Network (AFEN).

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  • 18. 

    (009) Which term is used to describe the technology for transmitting voice communications over a data network using open-standard-based internet protocol (IP)?

    • A.

      IP telephony.

    • B.

      Network telephony.

    • C.

      Voice protection system.

    • D.

      Voice over Internet Protocol (VoIP).

    Correct Answer
    A. IP telephony.
    Explanation
    IP telephony is the correct term used to describe the technology for transmitting voice communications over a data network using open-standard-based internet protocol (IP). This technology allows voice calls to be made over the internet or any IP-based network, eliminating the need for traditional telephone lines. IP telephony enables cost-effective and efficient communication by converting voice signals into digital data packets that can be transmitted over the network. It has become increasingly popular due to its flexibility, scalability, and ability to integrate with other communication systems.

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  • 19. 

    (009) You should implement all of the following security features to help defend internet protocol (IP) telephony systems from attackers except

    • A.

      Enabling access control lists (ACL) on firewalls, routers, and switches.

    • B.

      Deploying protection from dynamic host configuration protocol (DHCP) spoofing.

    • C.

      Consolidating your voice with your data using virtual local area networks (VLAN).

    • D.

      Enabling port security access to only allow the required devices needed by the client.

    Correct Answer
    C. Consolidating your voice with your data using virtual local area networks (VLAN).
    Explanation
    The other three options are valid security features for defending IP telephony systems from attackers. Enabling access control lists (ACL) on firewalls, routers, and switches helps control and restrict access to the system. Deploying protection from DHCP spoofing helps prevent attackers from impersonating legitimate devices on the network. Enabling port security access to only allow the required devices needed by the client helps prevent unauthorized devices from connecting to the system. However, consolidating voice with data using VLAN does not provide any specific security benefits and is not directly related to defending against attackers.

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  • 20. 

    (009) At which open systems interconnect (OSI) layer does a packet filter gateway operate at?

    • A.

      2

    • B.

      3

    • C.

      4

    • D.

      5

    Correct Answer
    B. 3
    Explanation
    A packet filter gateway operates at the network layer (layer 3) of the OSI model. This layer is responsible for routing and forwarding data packets between different networks. A packet filter gateway examines the headers of incoming and outgoing packets and makes decisions based on predetermined rules, such as allowing or blocking certain types of traffic. By operating at the network layer, a packet filter gateway can effectively filter and control network traffic based on IP addresses, ports, and other criteria.

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  • 21. 

    (009) At which open systems interconnect (OSI) layer does a circuit layer gateway operate?

    • A.

      3

    • B.

      4

    • C.

      5

    • D.

      6

    Correct Answer
    B. 4
    Explanation
    A circuit layer gateway operates at the fourth layer of the open systems interconnect (OSI) model, which is the transport layer. This layer is responsible for providing reliable and transparent transfer of data between end systems. The circuit layer gateway specifically handles the establishment, maintenance, and termination of virtual circuits, which are connections between two endpoints that provide a dedicated communication path. By operating at the transport layer, the circuit layer gateway can efficiently manage these virtual circuits and ensure reliable data transfer.

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  • 22. 

    (009) At which open systems interconnect (OSI) layer does an application-level firewall operate?

    • A.

      4

    • B.

      5

    • C.

      6

    • D.

      7

    Correct Answer
    D. 7
    Explanation
    An application-level firewall operates at the seventh layer of the OSI model, which is the application layer. This layer is responsible for providing services directly to the user applications. An application-level firewall can monitor and control the traffic based on specific application protocols, such as HTTP, FTP, or SMTP. It can inspect the content of the application data and make decisions on whether to allow or block certain traffic based on predefined rules or policies. By operating at the application layer, the firewall can provide more granular control and better security for specific applications.

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  • 23. 

    (010) The disadvantage of a host-based intrusion detection system (HIDS) is that it

    • A.

      Can analyze any encrypted data if it is decrypted before reaching the target host.

    • B.

      Consumes resources on the host it resides on and slows that device down.

    • C.

      Monitors log files for inadvisable settings or passwords.

    • D.

      Monitors traffic on the host on which it is installed.

    Correct Answer
    B. Consumes resources on the host it resides on and slows that device down.
    Explanation
    A host-based intrusion detection system (HIDS) consumes resources on the host it resides on and slows that device down. This is a disadvantage because it can impact the performance and responsiveness of the host system. HIDS works by continuously monitoring the activities and processes on the host, analyzing them for any signs of intrusion or malicious behavior. However, this constant monitoring and analysis require processing power and memory resources, which can lead to a decrease in the overall performance of the host device.

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  • 24. 

    (010) One advantage of a network-based intrusion detection system (NIDS) is that it

    • A.

      Can decrypt data.

    • B.

      Uses very few network resources.

    • C.

      Monitors logs for policy violations.

    • D.

      Can analyze encrypted network traffic.

    Correct Answer
    B. Uses very few network resources.
    Explanation
    A network-based intrusion detection system (NIDS) is designed to monitor network traffic and detect any suspicious or malicious activity. One advantage of NIDS is that it uses very few network resources. This means that it does not consume a significant amount of bandwidth or processing power, allowing the network to operate efficiently. By using minimal resources, NIDS can effectively monitor and analyze network traffic without causing any significant impact on network performance.

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  • 25. 

    (010) Which intrusion detection system (IDS) uses software sensors?

    • A.

      Active.

    • B.

      Passive.

    • C.

      Host-based.

    • D.

      Network-based.

    Correct Answer
    C. Host-based.
    Explanation
    Host-based intrusion detection systems (IDS) use software sensors to monitor and analyze activities on a specific host or device. These sensors are installed directly on the host and collect data about system logs, file integrity, user activity, and other relevant information. By analyzing this data, host-based IDS can detect and alert about any suspicious or malicious activities occurring on the host itself. Unlike network-based IDS, which monitor network traffic, host-based IDS focus on the individual host, making them effective in detecting attacks that may originate from within the host or target specific vulnerabilities on that host.

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  • 26. 

    (010) Which intrusion detection system (IDS) monitors packets for protocol anomalies and known virus signatures?

    • A.

      Active.

    • B.

      Passive.

    • C.

      Host-based.

    • D.

      Network-based.

    Correct Answer
    D. Network-based.
    Explanation
    A network-based intrusion detection system (IDS) monitors packets for protocol anomalies and known virus signatures. It operates at the network level and analyzes network traffic to detect any suspicious or malicious activity. This type of IDS is able to identify abnormal behavior or patterns in network traffic and can also match packets against a database of known virus signatures to identify potential threats. Unlike host-based IDS, which monitors activities on a specific host, network-based IDS is focused on monitoring traffic across the entire network.

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  • 27. 

    (010) Host-based intrusion detection systems (HIDS) are

    • A.

      Active only.

    • B.

      Passive only.

    • C.

      Passive and active.

    • D.

      Neither passive nor active.

    Correct Answer
    C. Passive and active.
    Explanation
    Host-based intrusion detection systems (HIDS) are both passive and active. Passive in the sense that they monitor and analyze system activities, looking for any signs of unauthorized access or malicious behavior. They do not actively disrupt or prevent attacks. On the other hand, HIDS can also be active by taking actions to respond to detected threats, such as sending alerts, blocking suspicious activities, or even terminating connections. This combination of passive monitoring and active response makes HIDS an effective tool for detecting and mitigating intrusions on a host system.

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  • 28. 

    (010) Network-based intrusion detection systems (NIDS) are

    • A.

      Active only.

    • B.

      Passive only.

    • C.

      Passive and active.

    • D.

      Neither passive nor active.

    Correct Answer
    B. Passive only.
    Explanation
    Network-based intrusion detection systems (NIDS) are passive only because they analyze network traffic passively without interfering with the normal operation of the network. NIDS monitor network packets and analyze them for potential security threats or malicious activity. They do not actively block or prevent attacks, but rather provide alerts or notifications to system administrators or security personnel. NIDS can identify suspicious patterns, anomalies, or known attack signatures in network traffic, allowing for timely response and mitigation of potential threats.

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  • 29. 

    (011) What security posture permits everything that is not specifically denied?

    • A.

      Default deny.

    • B.

      Default allow.

    • C.

      Close.

    • D.

      Open.

    Correct Answer
    D. Open.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is not "Open." The correct answer is "Default allow." Default allow is a security posture that permits everything that is not specifically denied. This means that by default, all actions, access, or permissions are allowed unless explicitly restricted. It is the opposite of default deny, which denies everything unless explicitly allowed.

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  • 30. 

    (012) What type of certificate authenticates the identity of the user?

    • A.

      Digital.

    • B.

      Biometric.

    • C.

      Encryption.

    • D.

      E-mail signing.

    Correct Answer
    A. Digital.
    Explanation
    A digital certificate is a type of certificate that authenticates the identity of the user. It is a digital file that contains information about the user and is issued by a trusted third party known as a Certificate Authority (CA). This certificate is used to verify the authenticity of the user's identity when accessing secure systems or conducting online transactions. It ensures that the user is who they claim to be, providing a secure and reliable means of authentication.

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  • 31. 

    (012) What is the first line of defense in securing laptops?

    • A.

      Set a login ID and password combination for access.

    • B.

      Install biometrics and encryption certificates.

    • C.

      Place a lock on computer.

    • D.

      Store in locked case.

    Correct Answer
    A. Set a login ID and password combination for access.
    Explanation
    The first line of defense in securing laptops is setting a login ID and password combination for access. This helps to prevent unauthorized individuals from accessing the laptop and its contents. By requiring a unique login ID and password, it adds an extra layer of security and ensures that only authorized users can gain access to the laptop. Other options such as installing biometrics and encryption certificates, placing a lock on the computer, or storing it in a locked case may provide additional security measures, but setting a login ID and password is the initial and fundamental step in securing laptops.

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  • 32. 

    (013) The definition of integrity as applied to identification, authentication, and encryption is

    • A.

      Having information ready when needed.

    • B.

      Not being able to deny who performed network actions.

    • C.

      The protection of the network from those not authorized access.

    • D.

      The assurance that no one has changed or destroyed information without permission.

    Correct Answer
    D. The assurance that no one has changed or destroyed information without permission.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "the assurance that no one has changed or destroyed information without permission." This definition of integrity refers to the protection and trustworthiness of data. It ensures that information remains intact and unaltered, guaranteeing its reliability and authenticity. This is crucial for maintaining the security and integrity of a network, as it prevents unauthorized modifications or destruction of data.

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  • 33. 

    (014) What Air Force Systems Security Instruction (AFSSI) series covers emission security (EMSEC)?

    • A.

      2000

    • B.

      3000

    • C.

      7000

    • D.

      8500

    Correct Answer
    D. 8500
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 8500. The Air Force Systems Security Instruction (AFSSI) series 8500 covers emission security (EMSEC). This series provides guidance and instructions for protecting the electromagnetic emissions of Air Force systems and equipment to prevent unauthorized access or exploitation of sensitive information. It includes procedures for identifying, assessing, and mitigating potential vulnerabilities related to electromagnetic emissions.

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  • 34. 

    (014) What Air Force Systems Security Instruction (AFSSI) series covers emission security (EMSEC)?

    • A.

      7700

    • B.

      7701

    • C.

      7702

    • D.

      7703

    Correct Answer
    A. 7700
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 7700. This Air Force Systems Security Instruction (AFSSI) series specifically covers emission security (EMSEC).

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  • 35. 

    (015) Which method of containing radiated emanations requires both facility and equipment testing?

    • A.

      Zoning.

    • B.

      Shielding.

    • C.

      Suppression.

    • D.

      Profile matching.

    Correct Answer
    A. Zoning.
    Explanation
    Zoning is the method of containing radiated emanations that requires both facility and equipment testing. Zoning involves dividing a facility into different zones based on the level of sensitivity to radiated emanations. Each zone is then tested to ensure that it meets the required standards for containing radiated emanations. This method requires both facility testing to determine the appropriate zoning boundaries and equipment testing to ensure that the equipment used within each zone does not emit excessive radiated emanations. Shielding, suppression, and profile matching are not methods that require both facility and equipment testing.

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  • 36. 

    (015) A facility with an inspectable space of more than 20 meters, but less than 100 meters would be considered to be in facility zone

    • A.

      A

    • B.

      B

    • C.

      C

    • D.

      D

    Correct Answer
    B. B
    Explanation
    A facility with an inspectable space of more than 20 meters, but less than 100 meters would be considered to be in facility zone B.

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  • 37. 

    (015) Equipment with an equipment radiation TEMPEST zone (ERTZ) of 20 to 100 meters would be considered to be in equipment zone

    • A.

      A

    • B.

      B

    • C.

      C

    • D.

      D

    Correct Answer
    C. C
    Explanation
    Equipment with an equipment radiation TEMPEST zone (ERTZ) of 20 to 100 meters would be considered to be in equipment zone C. This is because the ERTZ refers to the area around the equipment where electromagnetic radiation can potentially be intercepted and exploited. Therefore, equipment within this range would fall within the designated equipment zone C.

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  • 38. 

    (015) Why must the use of TEMPEST-certified equipment be validated by an AF Certified TEMPEST technical authority (CTTA) prior to testing an inspectable space?

    • A.

      It requires Department of Defense (DOD) approval.

    • B.

      It requires certification

    • C.

      It is time consuming.

    • D.

      It is expensive

    Correct Answer
    D. It is expensive
    Explanation
    The use of TEMPEST-certified equipment must be validated by an AF Certified TEMPEST technical authority prior to testing an inspectable space because it is expensive. This suggests that the process of validating the equipment involves significant costs. This could be due to the need for specialized expertise, equipment, or resources required to ensure that the equipment meets the necessary standards for TEMPEST certification. By validating the equipment beforehand, potential risks and expenses associated with using non-certified equipment can be avoided.

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  • 39. 

    (015) What plays a major role in a conductor’s ability to minimizing compromising emanations?

    • A.

      Distance and angle.

    • B.

      Distance and separation.

    • C.

      Induction and grounding.

    • D.

      Induction and impedance.

    Correct Answer
    A. Distance and angle.
    Explanation
    Distance and angle play a major role in a conductor's ability to minimize compromising emanations. By increasing the distance between conductors and reducing the angle at which they are placed, the electromagnetic fields produced by the conductors can be better controlled and mitigated. This helps to minimize the chances of electromagnetic interference and ensures that the conductors do not compromise the integrity of the signals being transmitted.

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  • 40. 

    (016) Equipment is comprised as machines that process information in electronic or electrical form. What equipment should be designated as RED?

    • A.

      Equipment processing clear-text confidential information.

    • B.

      Equipment processing clear-text unclassified information

    • C.

      Equipment processing encrypted classified information.

    • D.

      Equipment processing clear-text classified information.

    Correct Answer
    D. Equipment processing clear-text classified information.
    Explanation
    The equipment that should be designated as RED is the one processing clear-text classified information. This means that the equipment is handling information that is not encrypted and is considered to be confidential and classified.

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  • 41. 

    (016) What equipment should be designated as BLACK when designating equipment that supports physical and electrical concepts?

    • A.

      Equipment processing unencrypted classified information.

    • B.

      Equipment processing encrypted classified information.

    • C.

      Equipment processing clear-text classified information.

    • D.

      Equipment processing plaintext classified information

    Correct Answer
    B. Equipment processing encrypted classified information.
    Explanation
    The equipment that should be designated as BLACK when designating equipment that supports physical and electrical concepts is the one processing encrypted classified information. This is because encrypted classified information requires a higher level of security and protection compared to unencrypted or clear-text classified information.

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  • 42. 

    (016) Which type of separation ensures that every signal conductor from a RED device routes to another RED device, or becomes encrypted before connecting to a BLACK device?

    • A.

      Physical.

    • B.

      Electrical.

    • C.

      Equipment.

    • D.

      Mechanical.

    Correct Answer
    B. Electrical.
    Explanation
    Electrical separation ensures that every signal conductor from a RED device routes to another RED device, or becomes encrypted before connecting to a BLACK device. This type of separation involves using electrical circuits and components to isolate and protect sensitive information from unauthorized access or interference. It ensures that signals are properly controlled and secured, preventing unauthorized access to classified or sensitive data.

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  • 43. 

    (017) What is the grounding resistance goal for military communications electronics (C-E) facilities?

    • A.

      100 ohms or less.

    • B.

      50 ohms or less.

    • C.

      20 ohms or less.

    • D.

      10 ohms or less.

    Correct Answer
    D. 10 ohms or less.
    Explanation
    The grounding resistance goal for military communications electronics (C-E) facilities is 10 ohms or less. This means that the resistance between the ground and the facility should be 10 ohms or lower. This is important because a low grounding resistance helps to ensure that electrical equipment and systems within the facility are properly grounded, which can prevent electrical shocks, reduce the risk of equipment damage from electrical surges, and improve overall safety and performance of the facility.

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  • 44. 

    (017) Which facility ground subsystem uses surge arrestors?

    • A.

      Earth electrode.

    • B.

      Fault protection.

    • C.

      Signal reference.

    • D.

      Lightning protection.

    Correct Answer
    D. Lightning protection.
    Explanation
    The facility ground subsystem that uses surge arrestors is the lightning protection system. Surge arrestors are devices designed to protect electrical systems from voltage spikes caused by lightning strikes. These devices divert the excess current from the lightning strike away from the sensitive equipment, preventing damage and ensuring the safety of the system. Therefore, the correct answer is lightning protection.

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  • 45. 

    (017) Which facility ground subsystem is also called the safety ground?

    • A.

      Earth electrode.

    • B.

      Fault protection.

    • C.

      Signal reference.

    • D.

      Lightning protection.

    Correct Answer
    B. Fault protection.
    Explanation
    The facility ground subsystem that is also called the safety ground is fault protection. Fault protection refers to the measures taken to protect against electrical faults, such as short circuits or ground faults, which can pose safety hazards. The safety ground, or fault protection, ensures that any faulty electrical current is safely directed to the ground, preventing electrical shock or damage to equipment.

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  • 46. 

    (017) Which facility ground subsystem is also called the "signal ground" and controls electrical noise and static in a facility?

    • A.

      Earth electrode.

    • B.

      Fault protection.

    • C.

      Signal reference.

    • D.

      Lightning protection.

    Correct Answer
    C. Signal reference.
    Explanation
    The facility ground subsystem that is also called the "signal ground" is the signal reference. This subsystem is responsible for controlling electrical noise and static in a facility. It ensures that signals are properly grounded and prevents interference or disruptions caused by electrical noise.

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  • 47. 

    (018) Bonds in the earth electrode subsystem normally are direct permanent bonds and do not exceed a resistance of

    • A.

      1 milliohm.

    • B.

      2 milliohms.

    • C.

      5 milliohms.

    • D.

      10 milliohms.

    Correct Answer
    A. 1 milliohm.
    Explanation
    In the earth electrode subsystem, direct permanent bonds are typically used. These bonds ensure a low resistance connection between different components of the subsystem. The resistance of these bonds is usually kept below 1 milliohm to ensure efficient grounding and minimize the risk of electrical hazards.

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  • 48. 

    (018) What kind of bond is normally applied to signal reference bonds?

    • A.

      None.

    • B.

      Brazing.

    • C.

      Welding.

    • D.

      Mechanical.

    Correct Answer
    D. Mechanical.
    Explanation
    Signal reference bonds are typically applied using mechanical bonds. Mechanical bonds involve physically connecting two objects together using fasteners, clamps, or other mechanical means. This type of bond provides a secure and reliable connection, ensuring that the signal reference bond remains intact and stable. Brazing and welding involve the use of heat to join materials together, which may not be suitable for delicate signal reference bonds. Therefore, the correct answer is mechanical.

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  • 49. 

    (019) What is required in electronic settings to prevent equipment and signals from propagating interference and to protect equipment and signals from the effects of interference propagated by other devices?

    • A.

      Bonding.

    • B.

      Shielding

    • C.

      Annealing.

    • D.

      Grounding.

    Correct Answer
    B. Shielding
    Explanation
    Shielding is required in electronic settings to prevent equipment and signals from propagating interference and to protect equipment and signals from the effects of interference propagated by other devices. Shielding involves using conductive materials to create a barrier around sensitive electronic components or devices. This barrier helps to block or reduce the electromagnetic interference (EMI) or radio frequency interference (RFI) that can disrupt the proper functioning of electronic equipment. By shielding the equipment, unwanted signals or noise are kept out, and the equipment is protected from external interference sources.

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  • 50. 

    (019) Which type of shielding utilizes braid, foil, metal wrap, conduit or twisted wire around a conductor?

    • A.

      Cable.

    • B.

      Circuit.

    • C.

      Facility.

    • D.

      Equipment.

    Correct Answer
    A. Cable.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Cable. Cable shielding utilizes braid, foil, metal wrap, conduit, or twisted wire around a conductor to protect it from electromagnetic interference (EMI) and radio frequency interference (RFI). This shielding helps to maintain signal integrity and prevent signal degradation or loss.

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