3D152-01-1509 Ed 2 Vol 1

100 Questions | Total Attempts: 144

Settings
Please wait...
3D152 Quizzes & Trivia

.


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    (001) Which 3D career field deploys, sustains, troubleshoots, and repairs wireless, line-of-sight, beyond line-of-sight, wideband and ground-based satellite and encryption transmission devices?
    • A. 

      Radio Frequency Transmission Systems (3D1X3).

    • B. 

      Cyber Transport Systems (3D1X2).

    • C. 

      Spectrum Operations (3D1X4).

    • D. 

      Client Systems (3D1X1).

  • 2. 
    (002) Which of the following is not a communications security program duty and responsibility for Cyber Transport Systems?
    • A. 

      Transmission security.

    • B. 

      Technical security.

    • C. 

      Emission security.

    • D. 

      Physical security.

  • 3. 
    (003) What is defined as an integrated bundle of expert knowledge and organizational skills inherent to a particular career field?
    • A. 

      Core duty.

    • B. 

      Core value.

    • C. 

      Core competency.

    • D. 

      Core responsibility.

  • 4. 
    (003) Which of the following is a core competency of Cyber Transport Systems?
    • A. 

      Fixed cable systems.

    • B. 

      Voice network systems.

    • C. 

      Application software systems.

    • D. 

      Client-server database systems.

  • 5. 
    (004) Which AF form is used to report hazardous conditions that place Air Force personnel or property at risk?
    • A. 

      1118

    • B. 

      457

    • C. 

      55

    • D. 

      3

  • 6. 
    (005) Which hazard is not one of the four major types of hazards?
    • A. 

      Biological.

    • B. 

      Chemical.

    • C. 

      Physical.

    • D. 

      Nuclear.

  • 7. 
    (005) Which hazard is caused by heavy workloads, lack of control over the pace of work, shift work, noise, working by yourself, and conflict with coworkers and employers?
    • A. 

      Biological

    • B. 

      Chemical.

    • C. 

      Physical.

    • D. 

      Stress.

  • 8. 
    (005) To prevent manual handling hazards, utilize team lifting when lifting items that weigh more than how many pounds?
    • A. 

      25

    • B. 

      50

    • C. 

      75

    • D. 

      100

  • 9. 
    (005) When working on electrical circuits, the role of safety observer is normally performed by the
    • A. 

      Trainer.

    • B. 

      Certifier.

    • C. 

      Technician.

    • D. 

      Supervisor.

  • 10. 
    (005) When working on electrical circuits, you may only wear metal framed eyeglasses if
    • A. 

      The circuit is energized

    • B. 

      You have a valid prescription.

    • C. 

      They are certified for high voltage.

    • D. 

      They are secured with a nonmetallic cord.

  • 11. 
    (006) To whom does the risk management (RM) process apply?
    • A. 

      All personnel.

    • B. 

      Only safety personnel.

    • C. 

      Only civilian personnel.

    • D. 

      Only medical personnel.

  • 12. 
    (006) What simple, systematic process allows commanders to maximize combat capability, while limiting risk?
    • A. 

      Risk control.

    • B. 

      Safety control.

    • C. 

      Risk management.

    • D. 

      Safety management.

  • 13. 
    (007) Which of the following is a principle of risk management (RM)?
    • A. 

      Accept unnecessary risk.

    • B. 

      Apply the RM process continuously.

    • C. 

      Train and adhere to safety guidelines.

    • D. 

      Make risk decisions at the lowest level.

  • 14. 
    (007) How many steps are in the risk management (RM) process?
    • A. 

      Four.

    • B. 

      Five.

    • C. 

      Six.

    • D. 

      Seven.

  • 15. 
    (008) An enclave that does not have a firewall and intrusion detection system (IDS) is classified as having what category of vulnerability?
    • A. 

      I

    • B. 

      II

    • C. 

      III

    • D. 

      IV

  • 16. 
    (008) How many Integrated Network and Operation Security Centers (INOSC) does the Air Force have?
    • A. 

      One.

    • B. 

      Two.

    • C. 

      Three.

    • D. 

      Four.

  • 17. 
    (008) The Integrated Network Operations and Security Centers (INOSC) has several responsibilities except
    • A. 

      Maintain sole administrative privileges on the firewall.

    • B. 

      Standardize, configure, back up, and otherwise maintain the firewall.

    • C. 

      Maintain a single naming/configuration standard for boundary devices.

    • D. 

      Install patches or perform any upgrades provided by the Air Force Enterprise Network (AFEN).

  • 18. 
    (009) Which term is used to describe the technology for transmitting voice communications over a data network using open-standard-based internet protocol (IP)?
    • A. 

      IP telephony.

    • B. 

      Network telephony.

    • C. 

      Voice protection system.

    • D. 

      Voice over Internet Protocol (VoIP).

  • 19. 
    (009) You should implement all of the following security features to help defend internet protocol (IP) telephony systems from attackers except
    • A. 

      Enabling access control lists (ACL) on firewalls, routers, and switches.

    • B. 

      Deploying protection from dynamic host configuration protocol (DHCP) spoofing.

    • C. 

      Consolidating your voice with your data using virtual local area networks (VLAN).

    • D. 

      Enabling port security access to only allow the required devices needed by the client.

  • 20. 
    (009) At which open systems interconnect (OSI) layer does a packet filter gateway operate at?
    • A. 

      2

    • B. 

      3

    • C. 

      4

    • D. 

      5

  • 21. 
    (009) At which open systems interconnect (OSI) layer does a circuit layer gateway operate?
    • A. 

      3

    • B. 

      4

    • C. 

      5

    • D. 

      6

  • 22. 
    (009) At which open systems interconnect (OSI) layer does an application-level firewall operate?
    • A. 

      4

    • B. 

      5

    • C. 

      6

    • D. 

      7

  • 23. 
    (010) The disadvantage of a host-based intrusion detection system (HIDS) is that it
    • A. 

      Can analyze any encrypted data if it is decrypted before reaching the target host.

    • B. 

      Consumes resources on the host it resides on and slows that device down.

    • C. 

      Monitors log files for inadvisable settings or passwords.

    • D. 

      Monitors traffic on the host on which it is installed.

  • 24. 
    (010) One advantage of a network-based intrusion detection system (NIDS) is that it
    • A. 

      Can decrypt data.

    • B. 

      Uses very few network resources.

    • C. 

      Monitors logs for policy violations.

    • D. 

      Can analyze encrypted network traffic.

  • 25. 
    (010) Which intrusion detection system (IDS) uses software sensors?
    • A. 

      Active.

    • B. 

      Passive.

    • C. 

      Host-based.

    • D. 

      Network-based.

  • 26. 
    (010) Which intrusion detection system (IDS) monitors packets for protocol anomalies and known virus signatures?
    • A. 

      Active.

    • B. 

      Passive.

    • C. 

      Host-based.

    • D. 

      Network-based.

  • 27. 
    (010) Host-based intrusion detection systems (HIDS) are
    • A. 

      Active only.

    • B. 

      Passive only.

    • C. 

      Passive and active.

    • D. 

      Neither passive nor active.

  • 28. 
    (010) Network-based intrusion detection systems (NIDS) are
    • A. 

      Active only.

    • B. 

      Passive only.

    • C. 

      Passive and active.

    • D. 

      Neither passive nor active.

  • 29. 
    (011) What security posture permits everything that is not specifically denied?
    • A. 

      Default deny.

    • B. 

      Default allow.

    • C. 

      Close.

    • D. 

      Open.

  • 30. 
    (012) What type of certificate authenticates the identity of the user?
    • A. 

      Digital.

    • B. 

      Biometric.

    • C. 

      Encryption.

    • D. 

      E-mail signing.

  • 31. 
    (012) What is the first line of defense in securing laptops?
    • A. 

      Set a login ID and password combination for access.

    • B. 

      Install biometrics and encryption certificates.

    • C. 

      Place a lock on computer.

    • D. 

      Store in locked case.

  • 32. 
    (013) The definition of integrity as applied to identification, authentication, and encryption is
    • A. 

      Having information ready when needed.

    • B. 

      Not being able to deny who performed network actions.

    • C. 

      The protection of the network from those not authorized access.

    • D. 

      The assurance that no one has changed or destroyed information without permission.

  • 33. 
    • A. 

      2000

    • B. 

      3000

    • C. 

      7000

    • D. 

      8500

  • 34. 
    (014) What Air Force Systems Security Instruction (AFSSI) series covers emission security (EMSEC)?
    • A. 

      7700

    • B. 

      7701

    • C. 

      7702

    • D. 

      7703

  • 35. 
    (015) Which method of containing radiated emanations requires both facility and equipment testing?
    • A. 

      Zoning.

    • B. 

      Shielding.

    • C. 

      Suppression.

    • D. 

      Profile matching.

  • 36. 
    (015) A facility with an inspectable space of more than 20 meters, but less than 100 meters would be considered to be in facility zone
    • A. 

      A

    • B. 

      B

    • C. 

      C

    • D. 

      D

  • 37. 
    (015) Equipment with an equipment radiation TEMPEST zone (ERTZ) of 20 to 100 meters would be considered to be in equipment zone
    • A. 

      A

    • B. 

      B

    • C. 

      C

    • D. 

      D

  • 38. 
    (015) Why must the use of TEMPEST-certified equipment be validated by an AF Certified TEMPEST technical authority (CTTA) prior to testing an inspectable space?
    • A. 

      It requires Department of Defense (DOD) approval.

    • B. 

      It requires certification

    • C. 

      It is time consuming.

    • D. 

      It is expensive

  • 39. 
    (015) What plays a major role in a conductor’s ability to minimizing compromising emanations?
    • A. 

      Distance and angle.

    • B. 

      Distance and separation.

    • C. 

      Induction and grounding.

    • D. 

      Induction and impedance.

  • 40. 
    (016) Equipment is comprised as machines that process information in electronic or electrical form. What equipment should be designated as RED?
    • A. 

      Equipment processing clear-text confidential information.

    • B. 

      Equipment processing clear-text unclassified information

    • C. 

      Equipment processing encrypted classified information.

    • D. 

      Equipment processing clear-text classified information.

  • 41. 
    (016) What equipment should be designated as BLACK when designating equipment that supports physical and electrical concepts?
    • A. 

      Equipment processing unencrypted classified information.

    • B. 

      Equipment processing encrypted classified information.

    • C. 

      Equipment processing clear-text classified information.

    • D. 

      Equipment processing plaintext classified information

  • 42. 
    (016) Which type of separation ensures that every signal conductor from a RED device routes to another RED device, or becomes encrypted before connecting to a BLACK device?
    • A. 

      Physical.

    • B. 

      Electrical.

    • C. 

      Equipment.

    • D. 

      Mechanical.

  • 43. 
    (017) What is the grounding resistance goal for military communications electronics (C-E) facilities?
    • A. 

      100 ohms or less.

    • B. 

      50 ohms or less.

    • C. 

      20 ohms or less.

    • D. 

      10 ohms or less.

  • 44. 
    (017) Which facility ground subsystem uses surge arrestors?
    • A. 

      Earth electrode.

    • B. 

      Fault protection.

    • C. 

      Signal reference.

    • D. 

      Lightning protection.

  • 45. 
    (017) Which facility ground subsystem is also called the safety ground?
    • A. 

      Earth electrode.

    • B. 

      Fault protection.

    • C. 

      Signal reference.

    • D. 

      Lightning protection.

  • 46. 
    (017) Which facility ground subsystem is also called the "signal ground" and controls electrical noise and static in a facility?
    • A. 

      Earth electrode.

    • B. 

      Fault protection.

    • C. 

      Signal reference.

    • D. 

      Lightning protection.

  • 47. 
    (018) Bonds in the earth electrode subsystem normally are direct permanent bonds and do not exceed a resistance of
    • A. 

      1 milliohm.

    • B. 

      2 milliohms.

    • C. 

      5 milliohms.

    • D. 

      10 milliohms.

  • 48. 
    (018) What kind of bond is normally applied to signal reference bonds?
    • A. 

      None.

    • B. 

      Brazing.

    • C. 

      Welding.

    • D. 

      Mechanical.

  • 49. 
    (019) What is required in electronic settings to prevent equipment and signals from propagating interference and to protect equipment and signals from the effects of interference propagated by other devices?
    • A. 

      Bonding.

    • B. 

      Shielding

    • C. 

      Annealing.

    • D. 

      Grounding.

  • 50. 
    (019) Which type of shielding utilizes braid, foil, metal wrap, conduit or twisted wire around a conductor?
    • A. 

      Cable.

    • B. 

      Circuit.

    • C. 

      Facility.

    • D. 

      Equipment.

  • 51. 
    (020) What does an integral system of air terminals, roof conductors, and down conductors, securely interconnected to the shortest practicable path to earth provide for a facility?
    • A. 

      Protection from noise.

    • B. 

      Protection from lightning.

    • C. 

      Protection from blackouts.

    • D. 

      Protection from brownouts.

  • 52. 
    (021) Which electronic discharge sensitive (ESD) class has a sensitivity range from 0 – 999 volts?
    • A. 

      Class I.

    • B. 

      Class II.

    • C. 

      Class III.

    • D. 

      Class IV.

  • 53. 
    (021) Which of these activities would generate the most electrostatic current?
    • A. 

      Working at a bench.

    • B. 

      Walking across carpet.

    • C. 

      Walking across a vinyl floor.

    • D. 

      Picking up a common plastic bag.

  • 54. 
    (022) Which power line fault category is symptomatic of a total loss of utility power?
    • A. 

      Sag.

    • B. 

      Spike.

    • C. 

      Noise.

    • D. 

      Blackout.

  • 55. 
    (022) Which power line fault category is symptomatic of an instantaneous or dramatic increase in voltage?
    • A. 

      Sag.

    • B. 

      Spike.

    • C. 

      Noise.

    • D. 

      Blackout.

  • 56. 
    (022) Which power line fault category is typically referred to as electro-magnetic interference and radio frequency interference?
    • A. 

      Sag.

    • B. 

      Spike.

    • C. 

      Noise.

    • D. 

      Blackout.

  • 57. 
    (022) Which type of uninterruptible power supply (UPS) is traditionally referred to as "offline"?
    • A. 

      Passive standby.

    • B. 

      Line interactive.

    • C. 

      Double conversion.

    • D. 

      Ferro resonant standby.

  • 58. 
    (022) Which type of uninterruptible power supply (UPS) offers the highest level of protection?
    • A. 

      Passive standby.

    • B. 

      Line interactive.

    • C. 

      Double conversion.

    • D. 

      Ferro resonant standby.

  • 59. 
    (023) How many phases of generator power are usually required for industrial and commercial applications?
    • A. 

      Single.

    • B. 

      Double.

    • C. 

      Three.

    • D. 

      Four.

  • 60. 
    (024) Which is not a consideration for selecting facility batteries?
    • A. 

      The facility power requirements.

    • B. 

      The facility power reserve times.

    • C. 

      The number of AC converters required for the facility.

    • D. 

      The amount of current and future floor space available

  • 61. 
    (024) What function do facility batteries provide during normal operating conditions (commercial alternate current [AC] power available)?
    • A. 

      They generate direct current (DC) power and run the switch.

    • B. 

      They act as a DC filter for the commercial AC power.

    • C. 

      They rectify the commercial AC to DC and power the system.

    • D. 

      They serve no function unless commercial power is disconnected.

  • 62. 
    (025) Which publication series covers standard Air Force installation practices?
    • A. 

      TO 31–20 series

    • B. 

      TO 61–20 series.

    • C. 

      TO 31–10 series.

    • D. 

      TO 61–10 series.

  • 63. 
    (026) How are connectorized cables labeled?
    • A. 

      The first label is placed within 6 inches of the connector and marked “TO”, and the second is placed within one (1) inch of the first label and marked “FROM”.

    • B. 

      The first label is placed within 6 inches of the connector and marked “TO”, and the second is placed within two (2) inches of the first label and marked “FROM”.

    • C. 

      The first label is placed within 12 inches of the connector and marked “TO”, and the second is placed within one (1) inch of the first label and marked “FROM”.

    • D. 

      The first label is placed within 12 inches of the connector and marked “TO”, and the second is placed within two (2) inches of the first label and marked “FROM”.

  • 64. 
    (027) Which section of a horizontal cable duct is used for signal and control cables?
    • A. 

      Lower.

    • B. 

      Upper.

    • C. 

      Right

    • D. 

      Left.

  • 65. 
    (027) Support intervals for cables requiring surface installation will not exceed how many feet?
    • A. 

      5

    • B. 

      10

    • C. 

      15

    • D. 

      20

  • 66. 
    (028) The advantage of using coaxial cable over paired cable is that coaxial cable
    • A. 

      Is less expensive.

    • B. 

      Is easier to install.

    • C. 

      Does not radiate energy.

    • D. 

      Has a low frequency range.

  • 67. 
    (028) Which type of cable does not radiate energy and is not affected by nearby magnetic fields?
    • A. 

      Unshielded.

    • B. 

      Shielded.

    • C. 

      Twisted pair.

    • D. 

      Multipair.

  • 68. 
    (029) The thin plastic colored tape that spirals around a specific number of pairs that replicate in color is a
    • A. 

      Marker.

    • B. 

      Bundle.

    • C. 

      Casing.

    • D. 

      Binder.

  • 69. 
    (029) What is used to identify the polarity of a wire pair in a cable?
    • A. 

      Tip and Ring.

    • B. 

      Tip and Color.

    • C. 

      Rate and Color.

    • D. 

      Pair and Position.

  • 70. 
    (030) What is the standard conductor used for data networking?
    • A. 

      RJ–11.

    • B. 

      RJ–15.

    • C. 

      RJ–45.

    • D. 

      RJ–49.

  • 71. 
    (030) Pin 1 on a typical Electronics Industry Association/Telecommunications Industry Association (EIA/TIA) 568B connector is what color?
    • A. 

      Blue.

    • B. 

      Orange.

    • C. 

      White/blue.

    • D. 

      White/orange.

  • 72. 
    (030) What cable type connects devices that operate at similar layers of the open system interconnection (OSI) model?
    • A. 

      Straight-through.

    • B. 

      Crossover.

    • C. 

      Rollover.

    • D. 

      Coaxial.

  • 73. 
    (031) What has made very high data rate transmission possible on a fiber optics cable?
    • A. 

      The use of light-emitting diodes.

    • B. 

      The broad bandwidth of the cable.

    • C. 

      The low signal to noise ratio of the cable.

    • D. 

      The multiplexing technique used in fiber optics.

  • 74. 
    (031) What is the maximum operating temperature of fiber optic cable?
    • A. 

      500°C

    • B. 

      1,000°C

    • C. 

      5,000°C

    • D. 

      10,000°C

  • 75. 
    (032) What are the three sections of a fiber optic cable?
    • A. 

      Core, cladding, and shield.

    • B. 

      Core, cladding, and jacket.

    • C. 

      Core, conductor, and shield.

    • D. 

      Core, conductor, and jacket.

  • 76. 
    (032) Which type of cable is the easiest to splice?
    • A. 

      Multimode graded-index fiber.

    • B. 

      Multimode step index fiber.

    • C. 

      Single mode fiber.

    • D. 

      Coaxial cable.

  • 77. 
    (033) How long do most fiber-optic epoxies take to set?
    • A. 

      30–40 minutes

    • B. 

      12–24 hours.

    • C. 

      24–48 hours.

    • D. 

      48–72 hours.

  • 78. 
    (033) What do you use to remove excess fiber after the connector has cooled and epoxy has dried on a fiber cable?
    • A. 

      Scribe.

    • B. 

      Strippers.

    • C. 

      Alco wipes.

    • D. 

      Polishing cloth.

  • 79. 
    (033) When using a polishing cloth, remove a little bit of the protruding fiber at a time, until the fiber is perfectly
    • A. 

      Round.

    • B. 

      Elliptical.

    • C. 

      Flat and level.

    • D. 

      Flat with a 45-degree angle.

  • 80. 
    (034) When a multimeter has three input terminal jacks, which jack is always used?
    • A. 

      Common.

    • B. 

      Voltage.

    • C. 

      Amperage.

    • D. 

      Frequency.

  • 81. 
    (034) When using an ohmmeter to take a resistance reading, what preliminary precaution should you take?
    • A. 

      Properly seat the test lead into the current input terminal jack.

    • B. 

      Disconnect the power from the circuit being tested.

    • C. 

      Place the meter in the frequency mode.

    • D. 

      Set the range for maximum reading.

  • 82. 
    (035) The purpose of a breakout box is to
    • A. 

      Provide wiring maps at both ends of the cable.

    • B. 

      Allow monitoring and access to multiple conductors.

    • C. 

      Measure electrical voltage, current, frequency, and resistance.

    • D. 

      Locate sheath faults, damaged conductors, splices, bridge taps, and split pairs.

  • 83. 
    (035) The purpose of the miniature ON/OFF switches on a breakout box is to
    • A. 

      Measure the individual interface signals

    • B. 

      Change the voltage of individual interface signals.

    • C. 

      Allow the cross-patching of the individual interface conductors.

    • D. 

      Allow the interruption of the individual interface conductors for isolated testing.

  • 84. 
    (035) What do the jumper cables and side switch pins on a breakout box allow?
    • A. 

      Measurement of individual interface signals.

    • B. 

      Interruption of voltage/current to the interfaces.

    • C. 

      Cross-patching of individual interface conductors.

    • D. 

      Changing the voltage of individual interface signals.

  • 85. 
    (036) What happens to the observed signal if you advance the oscilloscope synchronizing control too far?
    • A. 

      Masking.

    • B. 

      Distortion.

    • C. 

      Deflection.

    • D. 

      Overloading.

  • 86. 
    (037) Sampled data points are stored in the memory of a digital storage oscilloscope as
    • A. 

      Sequential records.

    • B. 

      Waveform points.

    • C. 

      Record lengths.

    • D. 

      Record points.

  • 87. 
    (037) What area of a digital storage oscilloscope takes digitized samples and performs numerous manipulations on the data including measuring rise and fall times, periods, time intervals, and math computations?
    • A. 

      Microprocessor.

    • B. 

      Acquisition.

    • C. 

      Memory.

    • D. 

      Input.

  • 88. 
    (037) What type of sampling does a digital storage oscilloscope normally use on single-shot or seldom-occurring signals?
    • A. 

      Sequential.

    • B. 

      Repetitive.

    • C. 

      Real-time.

    • D. 

      Random.

  • 89. 
    (037) What is the standard operating mode for the acquisition mode on a digital storage oscilloscope?
    • A. 

      Sample mode.

    • B. 

      Real-time mode.

    • C. 

      Averaging mode.

    • D. 

      Peak detect mode.

  • 90. 
    (037) Which digital storage oscilloscope button controls all waveforms displayed in the STORE mode?
    • A. 

      CURSORS control.

    • B. 

      MEMORY control.

    • C. 

      SELECT C1/C2 switch.

    • D. 

      SAVE/CONTINUE switch.

  • 91. 
    (038) Which section of a bit error rate test (BERT) set measures the received test pattern?
    • A. 

      Emitter.

    • B. 

      Receiver.

    • C. 

      Transmitter.

    • D. 

      Synchronizer.

  • 92. 
    (038) What determines the size of a test pattern segment transmitted from a bit error rate test (BERT)?
    • A. 

      The total amount of bandwidth in the test pattern

    • B. 

      The total number of bytes that represent the bits test pattern.

    • C. 

      The number of bits that can represent the total number of bits in the test pattern.

    • D. 

      The number of bits in the number of bytes that are equally divided into the test pattern.

  • 93. 
    (038) What type of error is the result of two successive logic one pulses of the same polarity that violates alternate mark inversion coding rules?
    • A. 

      Cyclic redundancy check

    • B. 

      Bipolar violation.

    • C. 

      Bit slip.

    • D. 

      Frame.

  • 94. 
    (039) When using an optical time-domain reflectometer (OTDR), what action might a manufacturer require to prevent false readings?
    • A. 

      Connect a launch cable between the test set and the cable being tested.

    • B. 

      Connect an injector at the end of the cable being tested.

    • C. 

      Set the range for maximum reading.

    • D. 

      Use the frequency mode.

  • 95. 
    (040) Which component of a protocol analyzer discards frames based on its definition or activates a trigger based on the trigger definition?
    • A. 

      Filter.

    • B. 

      Buffer.

    • C. 

      Counter.

    • D. 

      Central processing unit.

  • 96. 
    (040) What protocol analyzer test window provides information concerning the network utilization and frame error that are related to a specific protocol?
    • A. 

      Media access control (MAC) node statistics.

    • B. 

      Connection statistics

    • C. 

      Protocol statistics.

    • D. 

      Node discovery.

  • 97. 
    (040) What protocol analyzer test window reports errors that occur at the physical layer such as bad frame check sequence (FCS), short frames, and jabbers?
    • A. 

      Media access control (MAC) node statistics

    • B. 

      Connection statistics.

    • C. 

      Protocol statistics.

    • D. 

      Node discovery.

  • 98. 
    (040) What protocol analyzer test window automatically runs in the background when the protocol analyzer application is activated?
    • A. 

      Media access control (MAC) node statistics.

    • B. 

      Connection statistics.

    • C. 

      Protocol statistics.

    • D. 

      Node discovery.

  • 99. 
    (040) What active test is selected on a protocol analyzer to determine if a network node is connected or responding?
    • A. 

      Packet internetwork groper (PING).

    • B. 

      Traffic generator.

    • C. 

      Route generator.

    • D. 

      Trace route.

  • 100. 
    (040) What active test on a protocol analyzer is selected to see the path that the packets are traveling and the time it takes the packets to compete the trip?
    • A. 

      Trace route.

    • B. 

      Route generator.

    • C. 

      Traffic generator.

    • D. 

      Packet internetwork groper (PING).