3D152-01-1509 Ed 2 Vol 1

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  • 1/100 Questions

    (040) What active test is selected on a protocol analyzer to determine if a network node is connected or responding?

    • Packet internetwork groper (PING).
    • Traffic generator.
    • Route generator.
    • Trace route.
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3D152 Quizzes & Trivia
About This Quiz

This quiz titled '3D152-01-1509 Ed 2 Vol 1' assesses knowledge in Cyber Transport Systems, focusing on skills like deployment and troubleshooting of transmission devices, understanding communications security, and recognizing Air Force forms and hazards. It's essential for learners in military communications roles.


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  • 2. 

    (001) Which 3D career field deploys, sustains, troubleshoots, and repairs wireless, line-of-sight, beyond line-of-sight, wideband and ground-based satellite and encryption transmission devices?

    • Radio Frequency Transmission Systems (3D1X3).

    • Cyber Transport Systems (3D1X2).

    • Spectrum Operations (3D1X4).

    • Client Systems (3D1X1).

    Correct Answer
    A. Radio Frequency Transmission Systems (3D1X3).
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Radio Frequency Transmission Systems (3D1X3). This career field involves deploying, sustaining, troubleshooting, and repairing various types of transmission devices, including wireless, line-of-sight, beyond line-of-sight, wideband, and ground-based satellite systems. This job requires expertise in working with encryption and ensuring secure communication.

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  • 3. 

    (006) To whom does the risk management (RM) process apply?

    • All personnel.

    • Only safety personnel.

    • Only civilian personnel.

    • Only medical personnel.

    Correct Answer
    A. All personnel.
    Explanation
    The risk management (RM) process applies to all personnel. This means that everyone within an organization, regardless of their role or department, is responsible for identifying, assessing, and mitigating risks. By involving all personnel in the RM process, organizations can ensure that risks are effectively managed and that everyone is aware of their role in maintaining a safe and secure environment.

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  • 4. 

    (009) At which open systems interconnect (OSI) layer does an application-level firewall operate?

    • 4

    • 5

    • 6

    • 7

    Correct Answer
    A. 7
    Explanation
    An application-level firewall operates at the seventh layer of the OSI model, which is the application layer. This layer is responsible for providing services directly to the user applications. An application-level firewall can monitor and control the traffic based on specific application protocols, such as HTTP, FTP, or SMTP. It can inspect the content of the application data and make decisions on whether to allow or block certain traffic based on predefined rules or policies. By operating at the application layer, the firewall can provide more granular control and better security for specific applications.

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  • 5. 

    (012) What is the first line of defense in securing laptops?

    • Set a login ID and password combination for access.

    • Install biometrics and encryption certificates.

    • Place a lock on computer.

    • Store in locked case.

    Correct Answer
    A. Set a login ID and password combination for access.
    Explanation
    The first line of defense in securing laptops is setting a login ID and password combination for access. This helps to prevent unauthorized individuals from accessing the laptop and its contents. By requiring a unique login ID and password, it adds an extra layer of security and ensures that only authorized users can gain access to the laptop. Other options such as installing biometrics and encryption certificates, placing a lock on the computer, or storing it in a locked case may provide additional security measures, but setting a login ID and password is the initial and fundamental step in securing laptops.

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  • 6. 

    (021) Which of these activities would generate the most electrostatic current?

    • Working at a bench.

    • Walking across carpet.

    • Walking across a vinyl floor.

    • Picking up a common plastic bag.

    Correct Answer
    A. Walking across carpet.
    Explanation
    Walking across carpet generates the most electrostatic current because the friction between the carpet and the person's shoes causes the transfer of electrons. This buildup of static charge can result in a discharge when the person touches a conductive object, such as a doorknob, causing a small electric shock. The other activities mentioned do not involve as much friction or the same materials that facilitate the transfer of electrons, thus generating less electrostatic current.

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  • 7. 

    (022) Which power line fault category is symptomatic of a total loss of utility power?

    • Sag.

    • Spike.

    • Noise.

    • Blackout.

    Correct Answer
    A. Blackout.
    Explanation
    A blackout refers to a complete loss of utility power, where there is a total absence of electricity supply. This fault category is characterized by a sudden and complete interruption of power, resulting in a complete loss of electrical energy to all connected devices. During a blackout, there is no voltage or current flowing through the power lines, leading to a complete blackout or darkness in the affected area. This is in contrast to other power line faults such as sag, spike, or noise, which may cause fluctuations or disturbances in the power supply but do not result in a complete loss of utility power.

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  • 8. 

    (022) Which power line fault category is typically referred to as electro-magnetic interference and radio frequency interference?

    • Sag.

    • Spike.

    • Noise.

    • Blackout.

    Correct Answer
    A. Noise.
    Explanation
    Electro-magnetic interference and radio frequency interference are typically categorized as noise in power lines. This refers to any unwanted electrical signals or disturbances that can affect the quality and reliability of the power supply. Noise can be caused by various factors such as electrical equipment, appliances, or external sources like radio waves. It can disrupt the normal operation of electronic devices and communication systems, leading to interference and signal degradation. Therefore, noise is the correct answer in this context.

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  • 9. 

    (038) Which section of a bit error rate test (BERT) set measures the received test pattern?

    • Emitter.

    • Receiver.

    • Transmitter.

    • Synchronizer.

    Correct Answer
    A. Receiver.
    Explanation
    The receiver section of a bit error rate test (BERT) set measures the received test pattern. This section is responsible for receiving the transmitted test pattern and comparing it with the expected pattern to determine the number of bit errors that occurred during transmission. By analyzing the received test pattern, the receiver can accurately assess the quality and reliability of the communication link.

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  • 10. 

    (005) When working on electrical circuits, you may only wear metal framed eyeglasses if

    • The circuit is energized

    • You have a valid prescription.

    • They are certified for high voltage.

    • They are secured with a nonmetallic cord.

    Correct Answer
    A. They are secured with a nonmetallic cord.
    Explanation
    Metal framed eyeglasses conduct electricity, which can be dangerous when working on electrical circuits. However, if the eyeglasses are secured with a nonmetallic cord, it prevents them from falling off and coming into contact with the circuit. This ensures that the person working on the circuit is protected from any potential electrical hazards.

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  • 11. 

    (008) How many Integrated Network and Operation Security Centers (INOSC) does the Air Force have?

    • One.

    • Two.

    • Three.

    • Four.

    Correct Answer
    A. Two.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Two. This means that the Air Force has two Integrated Network and Operation Security Centers (INOSC). These centers are responsible for ensuring the security and integrity of the Air Force's integrated network and operations. Having two INOSCs allows for redundancy and backup capabilities in case one center experiences any issues or disruptions.

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  • 12. 

    (013) The definition of integrity as applied to identification, authentication, and encryption is

    • Having information ready when needed.

    • Not being able to deny who performed network actions.

    • The protection of the network from those not authorized access.

    • The assurance that no one has changed or destroyed information without permission.

    Correct Answer
    A. The assurance that no one has changed or destroyed information without permission.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "the assurance that no one has changed or destroyed information without permission." This definition of integrity refers to the protection and trustworthiness of data. It ensures that information remains intact and unaltered, guaranteeing its reliability and authenticity. This is crucial for maintaining the security and integrity of a network, as it prevents unauthorized modifications or destruction of data.

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  • 13. 

    (020) What does an integral system of air terminals, roof conductors, and down conductors, securely interconnected to the shortest practicable path to earth provide for a facility?

    • Protection from noise.

    • Protection from lightning.

    • Protection from blackouts.

    • Protection from brownouts.

    Correct Answer
    A. Protection from lightning.
    Explanation
    An integral system of air terminals, roof conductors, and down conductors that are securely interconnected to the shortest practicable path to earth provides protection from lightning. This system is designed to divert the electrical current from a lightning strike away from the facility and safely into the ground, reducing the risk of damage to the structure and its occupants.

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  • 14. 

    (030) What is the standard conductor used for data networking?

    • RJ–11.

    • RJ–15.

    • RJ–45.

    • RJ–49.

    Correct Answer
    A. RJ–45.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is RJ-45. RJ-45 is the standard conductor used for data networking. It is a type of connector commonly used for Ethernet connections. RJ-45 connectors have 8 pins and are used to connect network cables to devices such as computers, routers, and switches. They are widely used in both residential and commercial settings for wired internet connections. RJ-11, RJ-15, and RJ-49 are not commonly used for data networking and are typically used for telephone connections.

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  • 15. 

    (031) What has made very high data rate transmission possible on a fiber optics cable?

    • The use of light-emitting diodes.

    • The broad bandwidth of the cable.

    • The low signal to noise ratio of the cable.

    • The multiplexing technique used in fiber optics.

    Correct Answer
    A. The use of light-emitting diodes.
    Explanation
    The use of light-emitting diodes (LEDs) has made very high data rate transmission possible on a fiber optics cable. LEDs are used as the light source in fiber optic communication systems. They emit light signals that can carry a large amount of data over long distances. The high-speed data transmission is achieved by encoding the data onto the light signals and sending them through the fiber optic cable. LEDs are capable of emitting light at high frequencies, allowing for faster data rates.

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  • 16. 

    (034) When using an ohmmeter to take a resistance reading, what preliminary precaution should you take?

    • Properly seat the test lead into the current input terminal jack.

    • Disconnect the power from the circuit being tested.

    • Place the meter in the frequency mode.

    • Set the range for maximum reading.

    Correct Answer
    A. Disconnect the power from the circuit being tested.
    Explanation
    When using an ohmmeter to take a resistance reading, it is important to disconnect the power from the circuit being tested as a preliminary precaution. This is necessary to ensure the safety of the person conducting the measurement and to prevent any potential damage to the ohmmeter or the circuit. By disconnecting the power, the risk of electrical shock or short-circuiting the circuit is minimized, allowing for accurate and safe resistance readings to be obtained.

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  • 17. 

    (003) What is defined as an integrated bundle of expert knowledge and organizational skills inherent to a particular career field?

    • Core duty.

    • Core value.

    • Core competency.

    • Core responsibility.

    Correct Answer
    A. Core competency.
    Explanation
    Core competency is defined as an integrated bundle of expert knowledge and organizational skills inherent to a particular career field. It refers to the specialized capabilities and expertise that individuals or organizations possess, which sets them apart from others in the same field. Core competencies are essential for achieving success and competitive advantage in a specific industry or profession. They represent the unique strengths and abilities that enable individuals or organizations to deliver superior performance and meet the demands of their customers or clients.

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  • 18. 

    (003) Which of the following is a core competency of Cyber Transport Systems?

    • Fixed cable systems.

    • Voice network systems.

    • Application software systems.

    • Client-server database systems.

    Correct Answer
    A. Voice network systems.
    Explanation
    Voice network systems are a core competency of Cyber Transport Systems. This means that Cyber Transport Systems is skilled and proficient in designing, implementing, and managing voice network systems. These systems are essential for transmitting voice communications over networks, such as telephone systems or Voice over IP (VoIP) systems. By specializing in voice network systems, Cyber Transport Systems can provide reliable and efficient communication solutions to their clients.

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  • 19. 

    (006) What simple, systematic process allows commanders to maximize combat capability, while limiting risk?

    • Risk control.

    • Safety control.

    • Risk management.

    • Safety management.

    Correct Answer
    A. Risk management.
    Explanation
    Risk management is the correct answer because it is a simple, systematic process that allows commanders to maximize combat capability while limiting risk. This process involves identifying potential risks, assessing their likelihood and impact, and implementing measures to mitigate or eliminate them. By effectively managing risks, commanders can make informed decisions that balance the need for combat effectiveness with the need to protect personnel and resources. Safety control and safety management may be components of risk management, but they do not encompass the full scope of the process.

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  • 20. 

    (022) Which power line fault category is symptomatic of an instantaneous or dramatic increase in voltage?

    • Sag.

    • Spike.

    • Noise.

    • Blackout.

    Correct Answer
    A. Spike.
    Explanation
    A spike is a power line fault category that is symptomatic of an instantaneous or dramatic increase in voltage. A spike is a short duration voltage surge that can occur due to lightning strikes, switching operations, or other causes. It can cause damage to electronic devices and appliances connected to the power line. Unlike a sag, which is a decrease in voltage, a spike is characterized by a sudden and significant increase in voltage. Noise refers to unwanted electrical signals that can interfere with the normal operation of equipment, while a blackout is a complete loss of power.

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  • 21. 

    (030) Pin 1 on a typical Electronics Industry Association/Telecommunications Industry Association (EIA/TIA) 568B connector is what color?

    • Blue.

    • Orange.

    • White/blue.

    • White/orange.

    Correct Answer
    A. White/orange.
    Explanation
    Pin 1 on a typical EIA/TIA 568B connector is white/orange in color. This is because the EIA/TIA 568B wiring standard uses a specific color code scheme for identifying different pins in the connector. In this scheme, white/orange is assigned to pin 1.

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  • 22. 

    (036) What happens to the observed signal if you advance the oscilloscope synchronizing control too far?

    • Masking.

    • Distortion.

    • Deflection.

    • Overloading.

    Correct Answer
    A. Distortion.
    Explanation
    If you advance the oscilloscope synchronizing control too far, it can lead to distortion in the observed signal. Distortion refers to any alteration or deformation of the original waveform, which can result in inaccurate measurements or misinterpretation of the signal. This distortion can occur due to incorrect synchronization between the oscilloscope and the input signal, causing the waveform to be distorted or stretched. Therefore, advancing the synchronizing control too far can introduce distortion into the observed signal.

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  • 23. 

    (005) When working on electrical circuits, the role of safety observer is normally performed by the

    • Trainer.

    • Certifier.

    • Technician.

    • Supervisor.

    Correct Answer
    A. Supervisor.
    Explanation
    The supervisor is responsible for overseeing the safety of the work environment, including when working on electrical circuits. They ensure that proper safety protocols are followed, monitor the work being done, and intervene if any unsafe conditions or practices are observed. The supervisor has the authority to stop work if necessary to prevent accidents or injuries. Therefore, the supervisor is the most appropriate person to act as the safety observer when working on electrical circuits.

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  • 24. 

    (007) Which of the following is a principle of risk management (RM)?

    • Accept unnecessary risk.

    • Apply the RM process continuously.

    • Train and adhere to safety guidelines.

    • Make risk decisions at the lowest level.

    Correct Answer
    A. Apply the RM process continuously.
    Explanation
    The principle of risk management is to apply the RM process continuously. This means that risk management should be an ongoing and iterative process, rather than a one-time event. By continuously applying the RM process, organizations can identify and assess risks, implement appropriate controls, monitor the effectiveness of these controls, and make necessary adjustments. This helps to ensure that risks are effectively managed and mitigated over time, reducing the likelihood and impact of potential incidents or accidents.

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  • 25. 

    (009) You should implement all of the following security features to help defend internet protocol (IP) telephony systems from attackers except

    • Enabling access control lists (ACL) on firewalls, routers, and switches.

    • Deploying protection from dynamic host configuration protocol (DHCP) spoofing.

    • Consolidating your voice with your data using virtual local area networks (VLAN).

    • Enabling port security access to only allow the required devices needed by the client.

    Correct Answer
    A. Consolidating your voice with your data using virtual local area networks (VLAN).
    Explanation
    The other three options are valid security features for defending IP telephony systems from attackers. Enabling access control lists (ACL) on firewalls, routers, and switches helps control and restrict access to the system. Deploying protection from DHCP spoofing helps prevent attackers from impersonating legitimate devices on the network. Enabling port security access to only allow the required devices needed by the client helps prevent unauthorized devices from connecting to the system. However, consolidating voice with data using VLAN does not provide any specific security benefits and is not directly related to defending against attackers.

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  • 26. 

    (010) The disadvantage of a host-based intrusion detection system (HIDS) is that it

    • Can analyze any encrypted data if it is decrypted before reaching the target host.

    • Consumes resources on the host it resides on and slows that device down.

    • Monitors log files for inadvisable settings or passwords.

    • Monitors traffic on the host on which it is installed.

    Correct Answer
    A. Consumes resources on the host it resides on and slows that device down.
    Explanation
    A host-based intrusion detection system (HIDS) consumes resources on the host it resides on and slows that device down. This is a disadvantage because it can impact the performance and responsiveness of the host system. HIDS works by continuously monitoring the activities and processes on the host, analyzing them for any signs of intrusion or malicious behavior. However, this constant monitoring and analysis require processing power and memory resources, which can lead to a decrease in the overall performance of the host device.

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  • 27. 

    (040) Which component of a protocol analyzer discards frames based on its definition or activates a trigger based on the trigger definition?

    • Filter.

    • Buffer.

    • Counter.

    • Central processing unit.

    Correct Answer
    A. Filter.
    Explanation
    A protocol analyzer is a tool used to capture and analyze network traffic. The component of a protocol analyzer that discards frames based on its definition or activates a trigger based on the trigger definition is called a filter. Filters allow the user to specify specific criteria or conditions that need to be met for a frame to be captured or discarded. By applying filters, the user can focus on capturing only the relevant network traffic and discard unnecessary frames, making the analysis process more efficient.

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  • 28. 

    (005) Which hazard is caused by heavy workloads, lack of control over the pace of work, shift work, noise, working by yourself, and conflict with coworkers and employers?

    • Biological

    • Chemical.

    • Physical.

    • Stress.

    Correct Answer
    A. Stress.
    Explanation
    Stress is the correct answer because heavy workloads, lack of control over the pace of work, shift work, noise, working by yourself, and conflict with coworkers and employers are all factors that can contribute to increased stress levels in the workplace. These factors can lead to feelings of overwhelm, anxiety, and pressure, which can have negative effects on an individual's mental and physical health. Stress is a common hazard in many work environments and can impact productivity, job satisfaction, and overall well-being.

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  • 29. 

    (021) Which electronic discharge sensitive (ESD) class has a sensitivity range from 0 – 999 volts?

    • Class I.

    • Class II.

    • Class III.

    • Class IV.

    Correct Answer
    A. Class I.
    Explanation
    Class I is the correct answer because it is the only ESD class that has a sensitivity range from 0 – 999 volts. Class II, III, and IV do not have this specific sensitivity range.

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  • 30. 

    (029) What is used to identify the polarity of a wire pair in a cable?

    • Tip and Ring.

    • Tip and Color.

    • Rate and Color.

    • Pair and Position.

    Correct Answer
    A. Tip and Ring.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Tip and Ring." In telecommunications, the terms "tip" and "ring" are used to identify the two conductors of a wire pair. The tip is the positive conductor, while the ring is the negative conductor. This terminology is commonly used in telephone systems to distinguish between the two wires in a cable.

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  • 31. 

    (019) Which type of shielding utilizes braid, foil, metal wrap, conduit or twisted wire around a conductor?

    • Cable.

    • Circuit.

    • Facility.

    • Equipment.

    Correct Answer
    A. Cable.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Cable. Cable shielding utilizes braid, foil, metal wrap, conduit, or twisted wire around a conductor to protect it from electromagnetic interference (EMI) and radio frequency interference (RFI). This shielding helps to maintain signal integrity and prevent signal degradation or loss.

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  • 32. 

    (022) Which type of uninterruptible power supply (UPS) is traditionally referred to as "offline"?

    • Passive standby.

    • Line interactive.

    • Double conversion.

    • Ferro resonant standby.

    Correct Answer
    A. Passive standby.
    Explanation
    Passive standby is traditionally referred to as "offline" type of uninterruptible power supply (UPS). In this type, the primary power source directly powers the connected equipment, and the UPS only activates when there is a power outage or disturbance. It provides basic power protection and is less expensive compared to other UPS types.

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  • 33. 

    (027) Support intervals for cables requiring surface installation will not exceed how many feet?

    • 5

    • 10

    • 15

    • 20

    Correct Answer
    A. 5
    Explanation
    Support intervals for cables requiring surface installation will not exceed 5 feet. This means that the distance between each support for the cables should not be more than 5 feet. This is important to ensure that the cables are properly supported and do not sag or get damaged. By keeping the support intervals within 5 feet, the cables will have sufficient support and will be able to maintain their integrity and functionality.

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  • 34. 

    (033) When using a polishing cloth, remove a little bit of the protruding fiber at a time, until the fiber is perfectly

    • Round.

    • Elliptical.

    • Flat and level.

    • Flat with a 45-degree angle.

    Correct Answer
    A. Flat and level.
    Explanation
    When using a polishing cloth, it is important to remove a little bit of the protruding fiber at a time in order to achieve a flat and level surface. This ensures that the cloth is evenly distributing the polishing compound and prevents any inconsistencies in the polishing process. Removing the fiber gradually allows for a more controlled and precise polishing action, resulting in a smooth and level finish.

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  • 35. 

    (002) Which of the following is not a communications security program duty and responsibility for Cyber Transport Systems?

    • Transmission security.

    • Technical security.

    • Emission security.

    • Physical security.

    Correct Answer
    A. Technical security.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Technical security. Technical security refers to the protection of computer systems and networks from unauthorized access, attacks, and vulnerabilities. While it is an important aspect of overall cybersecurity, it is not specifically a duty and responsibility for Cyber Transport Systems. Communications security programs for Cyber Transport Systems typically focus on ensuring the secure transmission of information, protecting against unauthorized disclosure, and maintaining the integrity of the communication systems.

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  • 36. 

    (004) Which AF form is used to report hazardous conditions that place Air Force personnel or property at risk?

    • 1118

    • 457

    • 55

    • 3

    Correct Answer
    A. 457
    Explanation
    AF Form 457 is used to report hazardous conditions that pose a risk to Air Force personnel or property. This form allows individuals to document and report any unsafe conditions they encounter, such as faulty equipment, hazardous materials, or potential safety hazards. By reporting these conditions, the Air Force can take appropriate measures to mitigate the risks and ensure the safety of its personnel and assets.

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  • 37. 

    (008) An enclave that does not have a firewall and intrusion detection system (IDS) is classified as having what category of vulnerability?

    • I

    • II

    • III

    • IV

    Correct Answer
    A. I
    Explanation
    An enclave that does not have a firewall and intrusion detection system (IDS) is classified as having a category I vulnerability. This means that the enclave lacks basic security measures to protect against unauthorized access and potential attacks. Without a firewall, the enclave is more susceptible to network-based threats, while the absence of an IDS leaves it vulnerable to intrusion attempts and unauthorized activities within the network. Overall, category I vulnerability signifies a significant security risk that needs to be addressed promptly.

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  • 38. 

    (019) What is required in electronic settings to prevent equipment and signals from propagating interference and to protect equipment and signals from the effects of interference propagated by other devices?

    • Bonding.

    • Shielding

    • Annealing.

    • Grounding.

    Correct Answer
    A. Shielding
    Explanation
    Shielding is required in electronic settings to prevent equipment and signals from propagating interference and to protect equipment and signals from the effects of interference propagated by other devices. Shielding involves using conductive materials to create a barrier around sensitive electronic components or devices. This barrier helps to block or reduce the electromagnetic interference (EMI) or radio frequency interference (RFI) that can disrupt the proper functioning of electronic equipment. By shielding the equipment, unwanted signals or noise are kept out, and the equipment is protected from external interference sources.

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  • 39. 

    (024) What function do facility batteries provide during normal operating conditions (commercial alternate current [AC] power available)?

    • They generate direct current (DC) power and run the switch.

    • They act as a DC filter for the commercial AC power.

    • They rectify the commercial AC to DC and power the system.

    • They serve no function unless commercial power is disconnected.

    Correct Answer
    A. They act as a DC filter for the commercial AC power.
    Explanation
    During normal operating conditions with commercial AC power available, facility batteries act as a DC filter for the commercial AC power. This means that they remove any unwanted noise or fluctuations from the AC power supply, ensuring a clean and stable DC power output. This filtered DC power is then used to power the system and run the switch. The other options are incorrect as they do not accurately describe the function of facility batteries during normal operating conditions.

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  • 40. 

    (034) When a multimeter has three input terminal jacks, which jack is always used?

    • Common.

    • Voltage.

    • Amperage.

    • Frequency.

    Correct Answer
    A. Common.
    Explanation
    When a multimeter has three input terminal jacks, the jack that is always used is the "Common" jack. The common jack is used as the reference point for voltage and amperage measurements. It is typically connected to the ground or the negative terminal of the circuit under test. The other two jacks, voltage and amperage, are used depending on the type of measurement being taken. The voltage jack is used for measuring voltage, while the amperage jack is used for measuring current. The frequency jack is not always present on a multimeter and is used specifically for measuring frequency.

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  • 41. 

    (035) The purpose of the miniature ON/OFF switches on a breakout box is to

    • Measure the individual interface signals

    • Change the voltage of individual interface signals.

    • Allow the cross-patching of the individual interface conductors.

    • Allow the interruption of the individual interface conductors for isolated testing.

    Correct Answer
    A. Allow the interruption of the individual interface conductors for isolated testing.
    Explanation
    The purpose of the miniature ON/OFF switches on a breakout box is to allow the interruption of the individual interface conductors for isolated testing. This means that the switches can be used to temporarily disconnect specific interface signals, allowing them to be tested or isolated without affecting the rest of the system. This can be useful for troubleshooting or diagnosing issues in complex systems with multiple interface signals.

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  • 42. 

    (037) Sampled data points are stored in the memory of a digital storage oscilloscope as

    • Sequential records.

    • Waveform points.

    • Record lengths.

    • Record points.

    Correct Answer
    A. Waveform points.
    Explanation
    In a digital storage oscilloscope, sampled data points are stored in the memory as waveform points. These points represent the amplitude of the signal at specific time intervals. By storing the waveform points, the oscilloscope can accurately reconstruct and display the waveform on the screen for analysis and measurement purposes. The waveform points allow for a detailed representation of the signal, capturing its shape and characteristics.

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  • 43. 

    (038) What type of error is the result of two successive logic one pulses of the same polarity that violates alternate mark inversion coding rules?

    • Cyclic redundancy check

    • Bipolar violation.

    • Bit slip.

    • Frame.

    Correct Answer
    A. Bipolar violation.
    Explanation
    A bipolar violation is the type of error that occurs when two successive logic one pulses of the same polarity violate alternate mark inversion coding rules. Alternate mark inversion is a coding scheme used in telecommunications to ensure that the signal remains balanced and that a long string of ones or zeros does not cause timing or synchronization issues. A bipolar violation indicates a violation of this coding scheme and can lead to errors in data transmission.

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  • 44. 

    (040) What active test on a protocol analyzer is selected to see the path that the packets are traveling and the time it takes the packets to compete the trip?

    • Trace route.

    • Route generator.

    • Traffic generator.

    • Packet internetwork groper (PING).

    Correct Answer
    A. Trace route.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Trace route. Trace route is an active test on a protocol analyzer that allows users to see the path that packets are traveling and the time it takes for the packets to complete the trip. It helps in identifying the routers or hops that the packets go through, providing valuable information for troubleshooting network connectivity issues.

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  • 45. 

    (007) How many steps are in the risk management (RM) process?

    • Four.

    • Five.

    • Six.

    • Seven.

    Correct Answer
    A. Five.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is five because the question asks about the number of steps in the risk management process. The answer options provide different numbers, and the correct answer is the one that accurately represents the number of steps.

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  • 46. 

    (017) What is the grounding resistance goal for military communications electronics (C-E) facilities?

    • 100 ohms or less.

    • 50 ohms or less.

    • 20 ohms or less.

    • 10 ohms or less.

    Correct Answer
    A. 10 ohms or less.
    Explanation
    The grounding resistance goal for military communications electronics (C-E) facilities is 10 ohms or less. This means that the resistance between the ground and the facility should be 10 ohms or lower. This is important because a low grounding resistance helps to ensure that electrical equipment and systems within the facility are properly grounded, which can prevent electrical shocks, reduce the risk of equipment damage from electrical surges, and improve overall safety and performance of the facility.

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  • 47. 

    (027) Which section of a horizontal cable duct is used for signal and control cables?

    • Lower.

    • Upper.

    • Right

    • Left.

    Correct Answer
    A. Upper.
    Explanation
    The upper section of a horizontal cable duct is used for signal and control cables. This section is typically designated for the placement and organization of cables that carry signals and control various systems and devices. It is important to separate these cables from power cables and other types of cables to prevent interference and ensure proper functioning of the signal and control systems.

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  • 48. 

    (028) Which type of cable does not radiate energy and is not affected by nearby magnetic fields?

    • Unshielded.

    • Shielded.

    • Twisted pair.

    • Multipair.

    Correct Answer
    A. Shielded.
    Explanation
    Shielded cables are designed with a protective layer of shielding material, such as a conductive metal foil or braided wire, which helps to prevent the transmission of electromagnetic interference (EMI) and also reduces the emission of electromagnetic radiation. This shielding effectively blocks out external magnetic fields and prevents them from interfering with the signals transmitted through the cable. As a result, shielded cables are not affected by nearby magnetic fields and do not radiate energy, making them ideal for applications where electromagnetic interference is a concern.

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  • 49. 

    (029) The thin plastic colored tape that spirals around a specific number of pairs that replicate in color is a

    • Marker.

    • Bundle.

    • Casing.

    • Binder.

    Correct Answer
    A. Binder.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is binder. A binder is a type of stationary item used to hold and organize loose papers or documents. The thin plastic colored tape described in the question is commonly found wrapped around the rings of a binder, indicating the color-coding system used to categorize and identify the contents inside. A marker is a writing tool used to make marks or highlight text, and it does not match the description given in the question. A bundle refers to a group of items tied or wrapped together, and a casing typically refers to an outer covering or protective case. Neither of these options align with the given description. Therefore, the most suitable answer is binder.

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Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Mar 22, 2023 +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 22, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Mar 16, 2016
    Quiz Created by
    Catherine Halcomb
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