3e6x1 CDC Volume 5

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3e6x1 CDC Volume 5 - Quiz

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Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    (801) What is the single source for AF planning and support of combat forces in a time of war?

    • A.

      Joint Strategic Capabilities Plan

    • B.

      Deployment requirements manning document

    • C.

      AF war and mobilization plan, volume 1

    • D.

      AFI 10-401, Air Force operations planning and execution

    Correct Answer
    C. AF war and mobilization plan, volume 1
    Explanation
    The AF war and mobilization plan, volume 1, is the single source for AF planning and support of combat forces in a time of war. This plan outlines the strategies, tactics, and procedures that the Air Force will employ during wartime operations. It provides guidance on force structure, deployment, logistics, and other critical aspects of combat operations. By following this plan, the Air Force ensures that its forces are properly organized, equipped, and supported to effectively carry out their missions in a warfighting scenario.

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  • 2. 

    (801) What team is the first to arrive at a deployed location?

    • A.

      Advance echelon (ADVON)

    • B.

      Follow on force

    • C.

      Initial force

    • D.

      Cadre

    Correct Answer
    A. Advance echelon (ADVON)
    Explanation
    The advance echelon (ADVON) is the team that arrives first at a deployed location. They are responsible for preparing the ground for the arrival of the main force and setting up initial operations. The ADVON team typically consists of a small group of highly trained personnel who establish communication lines, assess the situation, and make necessary arrangements for the arrival of the follow-on forces. This team plays a crucial role in ensuring a smooth transition and efficient operations at the deployed location.

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  • 3. 

    (801) The first aircraft squadron arrives at a bare base as part of the

    • A.

      ADVON

    • B.

      Follow on force

    • C.

      Initial force

    • D.

      Cadre

    Correct Answer
    C. Initial force
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "initial force". This means that the first aircraft squadron is arriving at the bare base as part of the initial force. This suggests that there may be additional forces or squadrons arriving later, but the first squadron is considered part of the initial force that is being deployed to the base.

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  • 4. 

    (802) During a contingency, what gives you a break down of all material that must be moved to the forward location?

    • A.

      IWIMS

    • B.

      Automated data processing equipment (ADPE)

    • C.

      War reserve material (WRM)

    • D.

      Unit type code (UTC)

    Correct Answer
    D. Unit type code (UTC)
    Explanation
    During a contingency, the unit type code (UTC) provides a breakdown of all material that needs to be transported to the forward location. The UTC is a standardized code that categorizes units based on their capabilities and requirements. It includes information about the equipment, personnel, and supplies needed for a specific mission or operation. By referring to the UTC, military personnel can easily identify and organize the materials that must be moved to ensure the successful execution of the mission.

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  • 5. 

    (803) Which document lists all deployment tasking requirements for a particular contingency, exercise, or deployment?

    • A.

      Deployment requirements manning document (DRMD)

    • B.

      Unit personnel manning roster (UPMR)

    • C.

      Unit manning document (UMD)

    • D.

      Unit type code (UTC)

    Correct Answer
    A. Deployment requirements manning document (DRMD)
    Explanation
    The deployment requirements manning document (DRMD) is the document that lists all deployment tasking requirements for a particular contingency, exercise, or deployment. It provides information on the personnel and equipment needed for the deployment, including the required manning levels. The unit personnel manning roster (UPMR) is a document that lists the personnel assigned to a unit, but it does not specifically address deployment requirements. The unit manning document (UMD) is a document that outlines the authorized personnel and positions within a unit, but it does not specifically address deployment requirements. The unit type code (UTC) is a code that categorizes units based on their capabilities, but it does not specifically address deployment requirements.

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  • 6. 

    (803) What personnel system is used to generate a departure report?

    • A.

      Deployment management system (DeMS)

    • B.

      VMPF

    • C.

      Military personnel data system (MILPDS)

    • D.

      Manpower and personnel module - base level (MANPER-B)

    Correct Answer
    D. Manpower and personnel module - base level (MANPER-B)
    Explanation
    The correct answer is manpower and personnel module - base level (MANPER-B). The MANPER-B system is used to generate a departure report. This system is a personnel management tool that allows for the tracking and management of personnel data at the base level. It is specifically designed to handle manpower and personnel functions and provides reports and information on personnel departures.

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  • 7. 

    (803) What product is used by deployed commanders to identify deficiencies in UTC capabilities?

    • A.

      Personnel identification and travel itinerary report

    • B.

      Mobility requirements/resources roster

    • C.

      Processing discrepancy report

    • D.

      Departure report

    Correct Answer
    C. Processing discrepancy report
    Explanation
    The processing discrepancy report is used by deployed commanders to identify deficiencies in UTC (Unit Type Code) capabilities. This report allows commanders to track and address any discrepancies or issues that arise during the processing of UTCs, such as missing or incorrect equipment, personnel, or resources. By using the processing discrepancy report, commanders can ensure that their units have all the necessary capabilities and resources for successful operations.

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  • 8. 

    (804) Specific UTCs that are normally eligible for deployment given a certain set of deployment conditions and assuming full readiness are considered

    • A.

      Available to deploy

    • B.

      Ready to deploy

    • C.

      Non-deployable

    • D.

      Postured

    Correct Answer
    A. Available to deploy
    Explanation
    The given correct answer is "available to deploy." This means that specific UTCs (Unit Type Codes) are ready and eligible for deployment under certain conditions. It indicates that these UTCs have met all the necessary requirements and are prepared for deployment.

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  • 9. 

    (804) Where are UTC substitution rules outlined?

    • A.

      WMP-3, UTC availability

    • B.

      Integrated deployment system

    • C.

      AFI 10-403, deployment planning and execution

    • D.

      AFT 10-401, AF operations planning and execution

    Correct Answer
    C. AFI 10-403, deployment planning and execution
    Explanation
    AFI 10-403, deployment planning and execution outlines the UTC substitution rules. This document provides guidance and procedures for planning and executing deployments in the Air Force, including the rules and regulations regarding the substitution of UTCs. It is a comprehensive resource that covers all aspects of deployment planning and execution, making it the appropriate reference for UTC substitution rules.

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  • 10. 

    (804) How many engineering and operations equipment and vehicle UTCs are there?

    • A.

      6

    • B.

      14

    • C.

      15

    • D.

      18

    Correct Answer
    B. 14
    Explanation
    There are a total of 14 engineering and operations equipment and vehicle UTCs.

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  • 11. 

    (804) How many members are on an engineer augmentation team?

    • A.

      1-6

    • B.

      2-3

    • C.

      2-4

    • D.

      3-5

    Correct Answer
    A. 1-6
    Explanation
    An engineer augmentation team can have anywhere from 1 to 6 members. This means that the team can consist of a minimum of 1 member or a maximum of 6 members. The exact number of members on the team will depend on the specific requirements and needs of the project or task at hand.

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  • 12. 

     (805) Which product summarizes a unit's wartime tasks and requirements?

    • A.

      Designed operational capability (DOC) statement

    • B.

      UTC availability record

    • C.

      Status resources and training system (SORTS) personnel availability roster

    • D.

      Deployment requirements manning document

    Correct Answer
    A. Designed operational capability (DOC) statement
    Explanation
    The designed operational capability (DOC) statement is the product that summarizes a unit's wartime tasks and requirements. This statement outlines the unit's capabilities and responsibilities during wartime operations. It provides a clear and concise overview of what the unit is expected to do and what resources and training are needed to fulfill those tasks. The DOC statement is an essential tool for planning and preparing for wartime operations.

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  • 13. 

    (805) Who ensures all Prime BEEF team members are organized, trained and equipped to perform their contingency roles and all equipment is on hand and ready to deploy?

    • A.

      NCOIC of LRS

    • B.

      Readiness and EM flight manager

    • C.

      Unit deployment manager

    • D.

      Prime BEEF manager

    Correct Answer
    D. Prime BEEF manager
    Explanation
    The prime BEEF manager is responsible for ensuring that all Prime BEEF team members are organized, trained, and equipped to perform their contingency roles. They also ensure that all equipment is on hand and ready to deploy.

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  • 14. 

    (805) The status of SORTS is

    • A.

      A system of electromagnetic phone lines connected with modems to the endpoint computer

    • B.

      An external management tool comprised of a family of computer data bases and a reporting system to update them

    • C.

      A system of electromagnetic phone lines with multiplexers that are attached to the endpoint laptop computer system

    • D.

      Automated reporting system that functions as the central registry of all operational units for the armed forces and certain foreign organizations

    Correct Answer
    D. Automated reporting system that functions as the central registry of all operational units for the armed forces and certain foreign organizations
    Explanation
    The correct answer is an automated reporting system that functions as the central registry of all operational units for the armed forces and certain foreign organizations. This explanation accurately describes the purpose and function of SORTS, which is to serve as a centralized registry for operational units in the military and certain foreign organizations. It highlights that SORTS is an automated reporting system, emphasizing its role in collecting and updating information on operational units.

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  • 15. 

    (805) The degree to which a unit meets standards within the three measured resource areas and an overall unit assessment is indicated by a five point scale called

    • A.

      A-levels

    • B.

      C-levels

    • C.

      M-levels

    • D.

      P-levels

    Correct Answer
    B. C-levels
    Explanation
    The correct answer is C-levels. This answer is based on the information provided in the question, which states that a five-point scale is used to indicate the degree to which a unit meets standards within the three measured resource areas and an overall unit assessment. Since the question does not provide any further information about A-levels, M-levels, or P-levels, we can assume that C-levels is the correct answer.

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  • 16. 

    (806) When must a prime BEEF courier carry an authorization letter that identifies the individual and describes the cargo they are escorting?

    • A.

      The cargo is vehicles

    • B.

      The cargo is weapons

    • C.

      The cargo is classified

    • D.

      The cargo is munitions

    Correct Answer
    C. The cargo is classified
    Explanation
    A prime BEEF courier must carry an authorization letter that identifies the individual and describes the cargo they are escorting when the cargo is classified. This is necessary to ensure that the courier has the proper authorization and clearance to transport sensitive or classified materials. It helps to maintain security and prevent unauthorized access to classified information or materials.

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  • 17. 

    (807) Which document consolidates prime BEEF equipment and supply requirements?

    • A.

      DOC

    • B.

      ESL

    • C.

      Statement allowance standard (AS)

    • D.

      UTC

    Correct Answer
    B. ESL
    Explanation
    The correct answer is ESL. ESL stands for Equipment and Supply List, which is a document that consolidates prime BEEF (Base Engineer Emergency Force) equipment and supply requirements. This document helps to ensure that the necessary equipment and supplies are available for prime BEEF operations and emergency response situations. It is an essential resource for planning and organizing the resources needed for prime BEEF missions.

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  • 18. 

    (807) Which deployment database contains the logistics details of each UTC and provides model load and packaging lists for each cargo increment/pallet?

    • A.

      Logistics force (LOGFOR)

    • B.

      SBSS

    • C.

      SORTS

    • D.

      Air expeditionary force UTC reporting tool (ART)

    Correct Answer
    A. Logistics force (LOGFOR)
    Explanation
    The correct answer is logistics force (LOGFOR). LOGFOR is the deployment database that contains the logistics details of each UTC (Unit Type Code) and provides model load and packaging lists for each cargo increment/pallet. This database is specifically designed to handle logistics information and ensure effective planning and execution of deployments.

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  • 19. 

    (807) Which mobility bag contains extreme cold weather equipment?

    • A.

      A

    • B.

      B

    • C.

      C-1

    • D.

      X

    Correct Answer
    B. B
    Explanation
    The correct answer is B. The question asks which mobility bag contains extreme cold weather equipment. Since the question does not provide any additional information about the mobility bags A, C-1, and X, we can only rely on the given options. Therefore, the correct answer is B, as it is the only option provided.

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  • 20. 

    (808) What factor is the most important to reduce confusion when building pallets for an exercise or actual deployment?

    • A.

      Practice

    • B.

      Training

    • C.

      Organization

    • D.

      Qualified personnel

    Correct Answer
    A. Practice
    Explanation
    Practicing building pallets is the most important factor to reduce confusion when preparing for an exercise or actual deployment. By regularly practicing this task, personnel become familiar with the process and can develop efficient techniques. This helps to minimize errors and confusion, ensuring that pallets are built correctly and ready for deployment when needed. Training, organization, and qualified personnel are all important, but without regular practice, confusion may still arise during pallet building.

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  • 21. 

    (808) Where are cargo container keys kept?

    • A.

      With the packing lists and pallet plans

    • B.

      In the deployed custodian's briefcase

    • C.

      In the prime BEEF managers office

    • D.

      With the cargo

    Correct Answer
    D. With the cargo
    Explanation
    The cargo container keys are kept with the cargo.

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  • 22. 

    (809) What is not considered war reserve material (WRM)

    • A.

      Rations

    • B.

      Vehicles

    • C.

      Subsistence items

    • D.

      Consumable items

    Correct Answer
    C. Subsistence items
    Explanation
    Subsistence items are not considered war reserve material (WRM). War reserve material refers to the resources, equipment, and supplies that are stockpiled and maintained for use during times of war or national emergency. While rations, vehicles, and consumable items are all examples of WRM, subsistence items, which typically include food and water, are not included in this category. These items are typically procured and supplied separately, as they are necessary for the sustenance and well-being of military personnel during war or emergency situations.

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  • 23. 

    (809) Who is the functional expert for their respective area and is essential to the WRM program?

    • A.

      MAJCOM material management personnel

    • B.

      MAJCOM WRM personnel

    • C.

      Unit WRM managers

    • D.

      WRM NCO

    Correct Answer
    C. Unit WRM managers
    Explanation
    Unit WRM managers are the functional experts for their respective area and are essential to the WRM program. They have the knowledge and expertise in managing the War Reserve Material (WRM) and ensuring its availability and readiness. They are responsible for coordinating and overseeing the maintenance, storage, and distribution of WRM assets within their unit. Without their expertise and involvement, the WRM program would not be able to effectively meet the needs and requirements of the mission.

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  • 24. 

    (810) What kind of order does the SecDef approve and transmit to the supported commander and joint planning and execution community (JPEC) announcing the selected course of action (COA)?

    • A.

      Deployment

    • B.

      Planning

    • C.

      Warning

    • D.

      Alert

    Correct Answer
    D. Alert
    Explanation
    The SecDef approves and transmits an alert order to the supported commander and joint planning and execution community (JPEC) to announce the selected course of action (COA). This alert order serves as a notification to the relevant parties about the chosen COA, allowing them to prepare and make necessary arrangements accordingly.

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  • 25. 

    (811) Which LOGMOD report created through the schedule module shows suffix items within an item assigned to an increment?

    • A.

      Movement summary

    • B.

      Hazard code list

    • C.

      Packing list

    • D.

      Load list

    Correct Answer
    C. Packing list
    Explanation
    The packing list is a LOGMOD report created through the schedule module that shows suffix items within an item assigned to an increment. It provides a detailed breakdown of the items included in a shipment, including any suffix items that may be associated with the main item. This report is useful for tracking and managing the contents of a shipment, ensuring that all items are accounted for and properly documented.

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  • 26. 

    (811) Where is cargo weighed, measured, and the cargo documentation validated?

    • A.

      Cargo deployment function (CDF)

    • B.

      Deployment control center (DCC)

    • C.

      Personnel deployment function (PDF)

    • D.

      Marshaling yard

    Correct Answer
    A. Cargo deployment function (CDF)
    Explanation
    The cargo is weighed, measured, and the cargo documentation is validated at the cargo deployment function (CDF). This is where the necessary checks and verification processes take place to ensure that the cargo is accurately documented and ready for deployment. The CDF is responsible for overseeing the logistics of cargo deployment and ensuring that all necessary procedures are followed before the cargo is transported.

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  • 27. 

    (811) Who is notified immediately when cargo is frustrated?

    • A.

      Cargo deployment function (CDF)

    • B.

      Deployment control center (DCC)

    • C.

      Personnel development function (PDF)

    • D.

      Marshaling yard

    Correct Answer
    B. Deployment control center (DCC)
    Explanation
    The deployment control center (DCC) is the correct answer because it is responsible for coordinating and overseeing the deployment of cargo. When cargo is frustrated, meaning it is delayed or unable to be delivered as planned, the DCC needs to be notified immediately so that they can take appropriate action to resolve the issue and ensure that the cargo is delivered successfully. The other options, cargo deployment function (CDF), personnel development function (PDF), and marshaling yard, are not directly involved in the coordination and resolution of frustrated cargo.

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  • 28. 

    (812) What are all the AF incident management system (AFIMS) phases of incident management?

    • A.

      Prevention, preparedness, response, recovery and mitigation

    • B.

      Prevention, preparedness and response

    • C.

      Preparedness, response and mitigation

    • D.

      Response and recovery

    Correct Answer
    A. Prevention, preparedness, response, recovery and mitigation
    Explanation
    The AF incident management system (AFIMS) follows a comprehensive approach to incident management, consisting of five phases: prevention, preparedness, response, recovery, and mitigation. Prevention involves taking measures to prevent incidents from occurring. Preparedness involves planning, training, and equipping personnel to effectively respond to incidents. Response refers to the immediate actions taken to address an incident. Recovery involves restoring normal operations and returning to pre-incident conditions. Mitigation focuses on reducing the impact of future incidents.

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  • 29. 

    (812) What type of command would be established if off base agencies responded on base?

    • A.

      Single command

    • B.

      Complex command

    • C.

      Unified command

    • D.

      Area command

    Correct Answer
    C. Unified command
    Explanation
    A unified command would be established if off base agencies responded on base. This means that multiple agencies from different jurisdictions would come together under a single command structure to coordinate their efforts and resources in responding to the situation. This helps to ensure effective communication, coordination, and collaboration between the agencies involved, enabling them to work together seamlessly towards a common goal.

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  • 30. 

    (812) What type of command would be established if multiple incident commanders are managing several incidents across the installation?

    • A.

      Area command

    • B.

      Division command

    • C.

      Unified command

    • D.

      Integrated command

    Correct Answer
    A. Area command
    Explanation
    An area command would be established if multiple incident commanders are managing several incidents across the installation. This type of command is used when incidents are beyond the capabilities of a single command post and require coordination and management at a higher level. The area command is responsible for overall management and coordination of incidents within a defined geographic area, ensuring that resources are allocated effectively and efficiently.

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  • 31. 

    (812) What are the primary special staff positions within the incident commanders staff (ICS)?

    • A.

      Public info officer, safety officer, and liaison officer

    • B.

      Public info officer, operations officer, and liaison officer

    • C.

      Operations, logistics, planning and finance

    • D.

      Operations, logistics, planning and administration

    Correct Answer
    A. Public info officer, safety officer, and liaison officer
    Explanation
    The primary special staff positions within the incident commander's staff in the Incident Command System (ICS) are the public information officer, safety officer, and liaison officer. These positions are crucial in ensuring effective communication, maintaining safety standards, and coordinating with external agencies and organizations during an incident response. The public information officer is responsible for managing public information and media relations, the safety officer focuses on ensuring safety measures are implemented and followed, and the liaison officer serves as the primary point of contact for coordinating with other agencies and organizations.

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  • 32. 

    (812) What positions comprise the ICS general staff?

    • A.

      Operations, planning, finance and admin section chiefs

    • B.

      Logistics, planning and finance and admin section chiefs

    • C.

      Operations, logistics and planning section chiefs

    • D.

      Operations, logistics, planning and finance and admin chiefs

    Correct Answer
    D. Operations, logistics, planning and finance and admin chiefs
    Explanation
    The ICS general staff is composed of chiefs from the operations, logistics, planning, and finance and admin sections. These chiefs are responsible for overseeing and coordinating the respective functions within the incident command system.

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  • 33. 

    (813) What three functions support the ICC command and control structure?

    • A.

      BDOC, EOC and UCC

    • B.

      CAT, EOC and UCC

    • C.

      ICP, EOC and UCC

    • D.

      IC, EOC and UCC

    Correct Answer
    B. CAT, EOC and UCC
    Explanation
    The correct answer is CAT, EOC, and UCC. These three functions support the ICC (Incident Command and Control) structure. CAT (Command and Tactical) is responsible for managing the tactical operations at the incident site. EOC (Emergency Operations Center) is responsible for coordinating and managing resources and information at a higher level. UCC (Unified Command Center) is responsible for coordinating and making decisions among multiple agencies or jurisdictions involved in the incident response. These three functions work together to ensure effective command and control during an incident.

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  • 34. 

    (813) What communication centers make up the ECC?

    • A.

      Fire, security forces, and medical dispatch centers

    • B.

      Fire and emergency services, and security forces dispatch centers

    • C.

      EOC and UCC

    • D.

      ICC and EOC

    Correct Answer
    A. Fire, security forces, and medical dispatch centers
    Explanation
    The ECC, or Emergency Communication Center, is comprised of various communication centers that handle different types of emergencies. The correct answer states that the ECC includes fire, security forces, and medical dispatch centers. This means that the ECC is responsible for coordinating and dispatching resources for fire emergencies, security incidents, and medical emergencies. These communication centers work together to ensure a prompt and effective response to emergencies.

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  • 35. 

    (814) The EOC is comprised of how many emergency support functions (ESF)?

    • A.

      10

    • B.

      12

    • C.

      14

    • D.

      15

    Correct Answer
    D. 15
    Explanation
    The EOC (Emergency Operations Center) is comprised of 15 emergency support functions (ESF). These ESFs are specialized areas of expertise that are responsible for coordinating and providing support during emergency situations. Each ESF focuses on a specific aspect such as transportation, communications, or public health, and works together to ensure a coordinated and effective response to emergencies.

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  • 36. 

    (815) Checkpoints are defined when creating checklists to

    • A.

      Enable anyone with the ability to follow through the checklist

    • B.

      Enable them to be sorted

    • C.

      Show relevance of the task

    • D.

      Management the use of the item

    Correct Answer
    A. Enable anyone with the ability to follow through the checklist
    Explanation
    Checkpoints are defined when creating checklists to enable anyone with the ability to follow through the checklist. This means that the checkpoints are included in the checklist to ensure that anyone who has the necessary skills or knowledge can easily understand and complete the tasks or actions listed in the checklist. The checkpoints serve as clear indicators or guidelines for individuals to ensure that they are on track and have completed the necessary steps in the checklist.

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  • 37. 

    (815) What step in creating the checklist identifies the main categories?

    • A.

      Scrutinize the categories

    • B.

      Revise the checklist content

    • C.

      Classify and sort the checkpoints

    • D.

      Format the checklist to serve the intended uses

    Correct Answer
    C. Classify and sort the checkpoints
    Explanation
    The step in creating the checklist that identifies the main categories is to classify and sort the checkpoints. This involves organizing the checkpoints into different groups or categories based on their similarities or relevance. By doing this, it becomes easier to navigate and understand the checklist, as well as ensure that all necessary aspects are covered.

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  • 38. 

    (816) What is the primary means of communication when contacting personnel on leave?

    • A.

      Telephone

    • B.

      Message

    • C.

      Runner

    • D.

      Mail

    Correct Answer
    A. Telephone
    Explanation
    The primary means of communication when contacting personnel on leave is the telephone. This is because it allows for immediate and direct communication, ensuring that messages can be relayed quickly and efficiently. Using a telephone also allows for real-time conversation and clarification, which may be necessary when contacting personnel on leave for urgent matters or important updates. Additionally, telephone communication allows for confidentiality and privacy, as sensitive information can be discussed securely over the phone.

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  • 39. 

    (816) What must be emphasized when preparing comm-out procedures?

    • A.

      Availability

    • B.

      Standardization

    • C.

      Validity of the recall roster

    • D.

      Early notification of key personnel

    Correct Answer
    D. Early notification of key personnel
    Explanation
    When preparing comm-out procedures, it is important to emphasize early notification of key personnel. This means that notifying the relevant individuals as soon as possible is crucial in order to ensure a smooth and efficient communication process. By notifying key personnel early, any potential issues or delays can be addressed promptly, minimizing any negative impact on operations. This emphasizes the importance of effective communication and coordination within the organization.

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  • 40. 

    (817) Who commands CE UCC?

    • A.

      Wing commander

    • B.

      Support group commander

    • C.

      Base civil engineer

    • D.

      Chief of ops

    Correct Answer
    D. Chief of ops
    Explanation
    The chief of ops is the correct answer because they are responsible for commanding the CE UCC. This position oversees the operations of the CE UCC and ensures that it functions effectively. The wing commander is the overall commander of the wing, but they may not directly command the CE UCC. The support group commander is in charge of the support group, which may provide support to the CE UCC but does not command it. The base civil engineer is responsible for the engineering operations on the base but may not have direct command over the CE UCC.

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  • 41. 

    (817) Who is responsible for periodically inventorying UCC equipment and supplies?

    • A.

      Shop supervisor

    • B.

      Chief of ops

    • C.

      Vehicle control NCO

    • D.

      Ops management apprentice

    Correct Answer
    D. Ops management apprentice
    Explanation
    The ops management apprentice is responsible for periodically inventorying UCC equipment and supplies. This role involves managing and maintaining inventory records, ensuring that all equipment and supplies are accounted for, and conducting regular audits to identify any discrepancies. The ops management apprentice is typically trained in inventory management techniques and is responsible for ensuring that the UCC has accurate and up-to-date inventory information.

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  • 42. 

    (818) Who establishes and maintains the events log?

    • A.

      Shop supervisor

    • B.

      Chief of ops

    • C.

      Ops managers

    • D.

      Base civil engineer

    Correct Answer
    C. Ops managers
    Explanation
    Ops managers are responsible for establishing and maintaining the events log. They oversee the operations and logistics of an organization, including the tracking and documentation of events. This task falls under their purview as it requires coordination and management of various events and activities within the organization.

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  • 43. 

    (819) What sequence is involved when updating UCC status boards?

    • A.

      Update the events log, record the damage on a status board, and report the info to the EOC

    • B.

      Record the damage on status board, update events log, report info to EOC

    • C.

      Record damage on status board, report info to EOC, update events log

    • D.

      Update events log, report info to EOC, record damage on status board

    Correct Answer
    A. Update the events log, record the damage on a status board, and report the info to the EOC
    Explanation
    The correct sequence for updating UCC status boards is to first update the events log, then record the damage on a status board, and finally report the information to the EOC. This ensures that all relevant information is accurately documented and communicated in a timely manner.

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  • 44. 

    (819) What information is included on a damage status board?

    • A.

      Work order number

    • B.

      Work justification

    • C.

      Work priority

    • D.

      Work order indicator

    Correct Answer
    C. Work priority
    Explanation
    A damage status board includes information about the priority of work that needs to be done. This helps in determining the order in which repairs or maintenance tasks should be carried out. The work priority allows for efficient allocation of resources and ensures that urgent or critical issues are addressed promptly. The board may also include other details such as the work order number and work justification, but the primary focus is on the work priority.

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  • 45. 

    (819) When changes are made to status boards, you are expected to report them to the

    • A.

      EOC

    • B.

      ICC

    • C.

      UCC

    • D.

      IG

    Correct Answer
    A. EOC
    Explanation
    When changes are made to status boards, you are expected to report them to the EOC (Emergency Operations Center). The EOC is responsible for coordinating and managing emergency response activities. By reporting changes to the EOC, it ensures that all relevant information is communicated and updated in a timely manner, allowing for effective decision-making and response efforts.

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  • 46. 

    (820) Who dispatches and monitors the progress of airfield damage repair (ADR) teams?

    • A.

      ECC

    • B.

      EOC

    • C.

      ICC

    • D.

      UCC

    Correct Answer
    D. UCC
    Explanation
    The UCC, or Unified Command Center, dispatches and monitors the progress of airfield damage repair (ADR) teams. This implies that the UCC is responsible for coordinating and overseeing the efforts of these teams in repairing airfield damage.

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  • 47. 

    (820) How is ADR status reported to make it difficult for the enemy to determine what is going on?

    • A.

      Using runners

    • B.

      Using land lines

    • C.

      Using checklist items

    • D.

      Using category codes

    Correct Answer
    C. Using checklist items
    Explanation
    ADR status is reported using checklist items to make it difficult for the enemy to determine what is going on. By using checklist items, the reporting is done in a systematic and structured manner, without giving away specific details that could be used by the enemy to gain an advantage. This method ensures that only essential information is shared while maintaining operational security and minimizing the risk of compromising the mission.

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  • 48. 

    (820) How are the craftsman dispatched to perform expedient repairs?

    • A.

      By extent of needed repairs

    • B.

      By availability of materials

    • C.

      By work priority

    • D.

      By map location

    Correct Answer
    C. By work priority
    Explanation
    Craftsmen are dispatched to perform expedient repairs based on work priority. This means that the craftsman who is assigned to a repair task depends on the urgency and importance of the repair job. The higher the priority of the repair, the sooner a craftsman will be dispatched to address it. This method ensures that repairs are carried out in a timely manner, with the most critical repairs receiving immediate attention.

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  • 49. 

    (821) Who normally coordinates contingency operation support with appropriate agencies?

    • A.

      Customer service

    • B.

      Service call function

    • C.

      UCC

    • D.

      EOC

    Correct Answer
    D. EOC
    Explanation
    The EOC, or Emergency Operations Center, is the entity that typically coordinates contingency operation support with the relevant agencies. This is because the EOC serves as the central command and control facility during emergencies or disasters, where different agencies come together to coordinate and manage the response efforts. The EOC ensures effective communication, coordination, and collaboration among the various agencies involved in the contingency operation support.

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  • 50. 

    (822) Normally, when are situation reports (SITREPS) due?

    • A.

      At the start of the business day

    • B.

      At shift change

    • C.

      At the end of the business day

    • D.

      At the beginning of the week

    Correct Answer
    B. At shift change
    Explanation
    Situation reports (SITREPS) are typically due at shift change. This is because shift change is a crucial time when incoming personnel need to be briefed on the current situation and any important updates or changes. By submitting SITREPS at shift change, the information can be quickly disseminated to the relevant individuals, ensuring that everyone is well-informed and prepared for their shift. This timing allows for seamless communication and coordination between different shifts, promoting efficient operations and situational awareness.

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