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Karlee
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Quizzes Created: 2 | Total Attempts: 216
| Attempts: 104 | Questions: 100 | Updated: Mar 20, 2025
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1. (825) Which GEO program helps deployment planners to make " GO or NO GO" decisions?

Explanation

The correct answer is contingency aircraft parking planner (CAPP). This program helps deployment planners to make "GO or NO GO" decisions by assisting in the planning and allocation of parking spaces for aircraft in contingency situations. It helps determine the feasibility of deploying aircraft to a specific location based on the availability of parking space and other logistical considerations. By using CAPP, planners can assess the readiness of an airfield and determine if it can accommodate the required number of aircraft, ultimately influencing the decision to proceed with the deployment or not.

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About This Quiz
3e6x1 CDC Volume 5 - Quiz

This quiz, titled '3E6X1 CDC VOLUME 5', assesses knowledge on Air Force planning and support in wartime, focusing on deployment logistics, personnel systems, and initial force setup. It is crucial for understanding operational roles and readiness in military settings.

2.

What first name or nickname would you like us to use?

You may optionally provide this to label your report, leaderboard, or certificate.

2. (831) What are the dimensions for a minimum operations strip for fighter aircraft?

Explanation

The dimensions for a minimum operations strip for fighter aircraft are 50 by 5000. This means that the strip needs to be 50 meters wide and 5000 meters long in order to accommodate the operations of fighter aircraft.

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3. (830) What action should take place once a UXO has been found?

Explanation

Once a UXO (unexploded ordnance) has been found, the appropriate action should be to mark the location of the UXO to ensure that others are aware of its presence and to prevent accidental detonation. Additionally, the finding should be reported to the property authority, such as local law enforcement or military personnel, so that they can take the necessary steps to safely dispose of or neutralize the UXO. This approach ensures the safety of individuals in the vicinity and allows for the proper handling and disposal of the UXO by trained professionals.

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4. (829) Along with the primary deployed property custodian, at least how many alternate property custodians must be designated?

Explanation

At least one alternate property custodian must be designated along with the primary deployed property custodian. This ensures that there is a backup person who can assume the responsibilities of the primary custodian in case of their absence or unavailability. Having at least one alternate custodian helps to ensure the proper management and security of the property.

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5. (828) Which deployed personnel accountability tool can be used to recall key personnel?

Explanation

The standby roster is a deployed personnel accountability tool that can be used to recall key personnel. This roster includes a list of individuals who are available and ready to be called upon if needed. By referring to the standby roster, the responsible personnel can quickly identify and contact the necessary individuals in case of an emergency or important event. The standby roster ensures that key personnel can be recalled promptly and efficiently when required.

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6. (828) Which deployed personnel accountability tool provides a list of people and the teams they are assigned to?

Explanation

The duty roster is a deployed personnel accountability tool that provides a list of people and the teams they are assigned to. It helps in keeping track of personnel and their assignments, ensuring that everyone is accounted for and properly assigned to their respective teams.

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7. (828) Whose responsibility is it to track the status and whereabouts of every civil engineer?

Explanation

Ops managers are responsible for tracking the status and whereabouts of every civil engineer. They oversee the operations and management of the engineering team, including monitoring their progress, assigning tasks, and ensuring that they are available and ready for duty. Ops managers play a crucial role in coordinating and tracking the activities of civil engineers to ensure efficient and effective project management.

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8. (826) What should you do to keep the tent sidewalls from being caught in the frame joings when raising the tent sides?

Explanation

To keep the tent sidewalls from being caught in the frame joings when raising the tent sides, it is recommended to roll the sidewalls up. By rolling them up, you can prevent them from getting tangled or caught in the frame joints, ensuring a smooth and easy setup process.

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9. (826) How many frame sections must be assembled before the tent fabric is ready to be installed?

Explanation

Before the tent fabric is ready to be installed, five frame sections must be assembled. This implies that there are multiple parts or components that need to be put together to form the complete frame structure of the tent. Once all five frame sections are assembled, the tent fabric can then be installed onto the frame to complete the tent assembly.

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10. (826) What is assembled first on the TEMPER tent?

Explanation

The tent frame is assembled first on the TEMPER tent. This is because the tent frame provides the structure and support for the rest of the tent components. Once the frame is assembled, the other sections such as the fly, end section, and window sections can be attached to complete the tent.

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11. (826) 'What is the first thing you must do when preparing to erect a TEMPER tent?

Explanation

When preparing to erect a TEMPER tent, the first thing you must do is select a site. This is important because the location should be suitable for setting up the tent, taking into consideration factors such as level ground, accessibility, and any potential hazards. By selecting a site first, you can ensure that the tent is set up in a safe and appropriate location before proceeding with unpacking and separating the sections.

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12. (831)The two damage reference systems commonly used in the AF are the crash grid system and the

Explanation

The correct answer is the pavement reference marking system. This system is commonly used in the Air Force to assess and document damage to the pavement on runways and other surfaces. It involves marking the damaged areas with specific symbols or codes, which can then be used for reference and planning repairs. This system helps to ensure that damage is accurately recorded and addressed, allowing for efficient maintenance and operation of airfields.

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13. (825) What can be produced from the final base engineer survey tool kit (BEST) product?

Explanation

The final base engineer survey tool kit (BEST) product can produce a tent city map. This suggests that the BEST product is designed to assist in the planning and construction of a temporary tent city, likely for military or emergency response purposes. The other options, such as an estimated labor hours report, deployed equipment list, and aircraft parking plan, do not directly relate to the creation of a tent city.

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14. (824) How many hours should your daily schedule cover when performing force beddown?

Explanation

When performing force beddown, the daily schedule should cover 24 hours. Force beddown refers to the rapid deployment and establishment of military forces in a new location. In order to ensure continuous operations and readiness, a 24-hour schedule is necessary to cover all aspects of force beddown, including transportation, logistics, security, and coordination. This allows for round-the-clock operations and ensures that all necessary tasks are completed within the required timeframe.

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15. (824) Which publication provides a list of labor hour estimates by AFS for common beddown tasks?

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

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16. (824) Which publication provides a list of CE team structures?

Explanation

AFPAM 10-219, vol 5, attachment 19 provides a list of CE team structures.

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17. (823) What bare base priority tasking deals with preparing petroleum oil and lubricants (POL)?

Explanation

Bare base priority tasking deals with preparing petroleum oil and lubricants (POL). This means that task 2 is responsible for handling the preparation of POL in a bare base situation.

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18. (822) How is a SITREP used?

Explanation

A SITREP, or Situation Report, is used to provide a concise summary of the current situation or status of a particular event or operation. It contains important information such as updates, progress, and any issues or challenges that may have arisen. By having access to a SITREP, decision-makers can gather the necessary information they need to make informed decisions regarding the event or operation at hand. It helps them understand the current state of affairs and evaluate potential courses of action.

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19. (822) What should be eliminated from SITREP?

Explanation

The answer is unwanted or frivolous information because a SITREP (Situation Report) is meant to provide concise and relevant information about a particular situation. Including unnecessary or trivial details in a SITREP can make it less effective and harder to understand. Therefore, eliminating unwanted or frivolous information ensures that the report remains focused and provides only the necessary details.

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20. (820) How are the craftsman dispatched to perform expedient repairs?

Explanation

Craftsmen are dispatched to perform expedient repairs based on work priority. This means that the craftsman who is assigned to a repair task depends on the urgency and importance of the repair job. The higher the priority of the repair, the sooner a craftsman will be dispatched to address it. This method ensures that repairs are carried out in a timely manner, with the most critical repairs receiving immediate attention.

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21. (820) How is ADR status reported to make it difficult for the enemy to determine what is going on?

Explanation

ADR status is reported using checklist items to make it difficult for the enemy to determine what is going on. By using checklist items, the reporting is done in a systematic and structured manner, without giving away specific details that could be used by the enemy to gain an advantage. This method ensures that only essential information is shared while maintaining operational security and minimizing the risk of compromising the mission.

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22. (819) When changes are made to status boards, you are expected to report them to the

Explanation

When changes are made to status boards, you are expected to report them to the EOC (Emergency Operations Center). The EOC is responsible for coordinating and managing emergency response activities. By reporting changes to the EOC, it ensures that all relevant information is communicated and updated in a timely manner, allowing for effective decision-making and response efforts.

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23. (838) How many sets of batteries does the defense GPS require to fully operate?

Explanation

The defense GPS requires two sets of batteries to fully operate.

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24. (846) What is provided by an after action report?

Explanation

An after action report provides the final results of a particular event or action. It summarizes the outcomes and findings, giving a comprehensive overview of what was achieved or accomplished. This report helps in evaluating the effectiveness of the action taken and provides valuable insights for future decision-making and planning. It is an important tool for analyzing the success or failure of a project and identifying areas for improvement.

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25. (845) What is used to maintain balances for AF Form 4009s during a contingency?

Explanation

Manual spreadsheets are used to maintain balances for AF Form 4009s during a contingency. This means that instead of relying on automated systems or statements, the balances are recorded and tracked manually using spreadsheets. This method allows for more control and flexibility in managing the balances, especially in situations where automated systems may not be available or reliable.

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26. (844) Who is responsible for funding US civilian employees evacuated or relocated during emergency conditions?

Explanation

The losing command is responsible for funding US civilian employees who are evacuated or relocated during emergency conditions. This means that the command from which the employees are being evacuated or relocated is responsible for providing the necessary funds for their support and assistance during this time.

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27. (843) When performing job analysis for a statement of work, why is it important to keep directives to a minimum?

Explanation

When performing job analysis for a statement of work, it is important to keep directives to a minimum because the Air Force (AF) is primarily concerned with the result of the service. By providing too many directives, it limits the contractor's flexibility and creativity in finding the most efficient and effective way to achieve the desired outcome. Additionally, excessive directives can make the contract more complicated and potentially lead to misunderstandings or misinterpretations by the contractor. Therefore, minimizing directives allows the contractor to have more autonomy and freedom in determining how the work should be performed.

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28. (842) Who conducts quality assurance evaluator (QAE) phase 1 training?

Explanation

The correct answer is AETC mobile instructor. AETC stands for Air Education and Training Command, which is responsible for the training of Air Force personnel. AETC mobile instructors are specifically trained to conduct quality assurance evaluator (QAE) phase 1 training. They have the expertise and knowledge to effectively train individuals in this role, ensuring that they are equipped with the necessary skills and understanding to carry out quality assurance evaluations.

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29. (842) When should the customer complaint method of contract surveillance be used?

Explanation

The customer complaint method of contract surveillance should be used whenever nonconformance can be validated by customer complaints. This means that if there is evidence or proof that the product or service does not meet the requirements or standards set in the contract, the customer complaint method can be used to address and resolve the issue. It is important to rely on customer complaints in such cases as they provide valuable feedback and insights into the nonconformance.

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30. (841) Which functional areas are usually delegated SF Form 44 authority?

Explanation

The functional areas that are usually delegated SF Form 44 authority are contracting and transportation. This means that individuals in these areas have the authority to make decisions and take actions related to contracting and transportation matters within their organization. They have the responsibility to ensure that contracting processes are followed and transportation needs are met efficiently and effectively.

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31. (841) Who should be informed of deployed contract needs?

Explanation

The contingency contracting officer (CCO) should be informed of deployed contract needs. The CCO is responsible for overseeing and managing contracts in contingency operations. They have the knowledge and expertise to ensure that the appropriate contracts are in place and that the needs of the deployed personnel are met. Informing the CCO allows for effective coordination and communication regarding contract requirements and ensures that the necessary resources are allocated correctly.

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32. (840) In which phase of bare base employment are water points established?

Explanation

In the beddown phase of bare base employment, water points are established. This phase involves setting up the necessary infrastructure and facilities to support operations, including establishing temporary living quarters, utilities, and other essential services. Water points are crucial in providing access to clean and safe drinking water for personnel stationed at the bare base.

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33. (838) What type of real-time map formats does the geoXT utilize?

Explanation

The geoXT utilizes both raster and vector real-time map formats. Raster maps are made up of a grid of pixels and are useful for displaying satellite imagery or scanned maps. Vector maps, on the other hand, use mathematical formulas to represent geographic features as points, lines, and polygons. This allows for more flexibility in zooming, panning, and editing the map data. By supporting both raster and vector formats, the geoXT can provide a comprehensive and dynamic mapping experience.

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34. (801) What team is the first to arrive at a deployed location?

Explanation

The advance echelon (ADVON) is the team that arrives first at a deployed location. They are responsible for preparing the ground for the arrival of the main force and setting up initial operations. The ADVON team typically consists of a small group of highly trained personnel who establish communication lines, assess the situation, and make necessary arrangements for the arrival of the follow-on forces. This team plays a crucial role in ensuring a smooth transition and efficient operations at the deployed location.

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35. (834) To navigate to a location using a GPS unit, what must the user enter into the GPS?

Explanation

To navigate to a location using a GPS unit, the user does not need to enter anything into the GPS. The GPS unit uses signals from satellites to determine the user's current location and then calculates the route to the desired location based on that information. Therefore, the user does not need to enter a waypoint, date and time, or their current location into the GPS.

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36. (837) What does "message follows" refer to in land mobile radio (LMR) common statements?

Explanation

"Message follows" in land mobile radio (LMR) common statements refers to the instruction given to the recipient to be prepared for a long message. It indicates that the sender has important information to convey and the recipient should be ready to receive a lengthy communication.

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37. (836) What kind of radio frequency propagates more easily via sky and direct wave becayse obstacles easily absorb them?

Explanation

Higher frequency waves propagate more easily via sky and direct wave because obstacles easily absorb them. This is because higher frequency waves have shorter wavelengths and higher energy, allowing them to penetrate obstacles less effectively. As a result, they are more likely to be absorbed or scattered by buildings, trees, and other objects in their path. In contrast, lower frequency waves have longer wavelengths and lower energy, which allows them to pass through obstacles more easily.

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38. (835) Normally, silikal polymer is used for

Explanation

Silikal polymer is typically used for spall repair. Spalling refers to the breaking or chipping of concrete surfaces, and it often occurs due to freeze-thaw cycles, chemical damage, or heavy impact. Silikal polymer is a type of concrete repair material that is known for its high strength, durability, and ability to bond well with existing concrete surfaces. It is specifically designed to fill and repair spalled areas, restoring the structural integrity of the concrete and preventing further damage.

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39. (833) What method of expedient repair is used to protect people or equipment from the elements?

Explanation

Patching is a method of expedient repair that is used to protect people or equipment from the elements. It involves covering or sealing holes, cracks, or other damage with a temporary material or patch to prevent the entry of water, wind, or other environmental elements. This temporary fix helps to maintain the integrity of the structure or equipment until a more permanent solution can be implemented.

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40. (833) What method of expedient repair provides structural integrity to weakened areas?

Explanation

Shoring is a method of expedient repair that provides structural integrity to weakened areas. It involves the use of temporary supports or braces to stabilize and reinforce the weakened structure, preventing further damage and collapse. Shoring is commonly used in construction, especially during emergency situations or when immediate repairs are needed. It is an effective way to ensure the safety and stability of structures while more permanent repairs or renovations are planned or executed.

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41. (833) What work method is geared toward making a building safe for occupancy and providing minimal protection from elements?

Explanation

Expedient repair is the correct answer because it refers to a work method that focuses on quickly and efficiently repairing a building to make it safe for occupancy and provide minimal protection from the elements. This method is often used in emergency situations or when immediate repairs are needed to ensure the building is habitable. Decontamination, reconstruction, and minor construction do not specifically address the goal of making a building safe for occupancy and providing minimal protection from elements.

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42. (832) How many MOPP levels are there?

Explanation

There are five MOPP (Mission Oriented Protective Posture) levels. MOPP levels are used in military operations to indicate the degree of protection and readiness for chemical, biological, radiological, and nuclear (CBRN) threats. Each level corresponds to a specific set of protective measures and equipment that individuals must wear and follow.

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43. (832) The four types of decontamination are immediate, operational, thorough and

Explanation

The correct answer is "reconstruction". Reconstruction is the final type of decontamination, which involves restoring the affected area to its original condition after the initial decontamination process. This may include repairing any damage caused by the contamination and ensuring that the area is safe for use again.

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44. (831) What plotting symbol symbolizes a crater?

Explanation

A circle is the plotting symbol that symbolizes a crater. Craters are typically circular in shape, so using a circle as the plotting symbol makes logical sense.

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45. (808) Where are cargo container keys kept?

Explanation

The cargo container keys are kept with the cargo.

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46. (804) Specific UTCs that are normally eligible for deployment given a certain set of deployment conditions and assuming full readiness are considered

Explanation

The given correct answer is "available to deploy." This means that specific UTCs (Unit Type Codes) are ready and eligible for deployment under certain conditions. It indicates that these UTCs have met all the necessary requirements and are prepared for deployment.

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47. (812) What are all the AF incident management system (AFIMS) phases of incident management?

Explanation

The AF incident management system (AFIMS) follows a comprehensive approach to incident management, consisting of five phases: prevention, preparedness, response, recovery, and mitigation. Prevention involves taking measures to prevent incidents from occurring. Preparedness involves planning, training, and equipping personnel to effectively respond to incidents. Response refers to the immediate actions taken to address an incident. Recovery involves restoring normal operations and returning to pre-incident conditions. Mitigation focuses on reducing the impact of future incidents.

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48. (811) Who is notified immediately when cargo is frustrated?

Explanation

The deployment control center (DCC) is the correct answer because it is responsible for coordinating and overseeing the deployment of cargo. When cargo is frustrated, meaning it is delayed or unable to be delivered as planned, the DCC needs to be notified immediately so that they can take appropriate action to resolve the issue and ensure that the cargo is delivered successfully. The other options, cargo deployment function (CDF), personnel development function (PDF), and marshaling yard, are not directly involved in the coordination and resolution of frustrated cargo.

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49. (811) Where is cargo weighed, measured, and the cargo documentation validated?

Explanation

The cargo is weighed, measured, and the cargo documentation is validated at the cargo deployment function (CDF). This is where the necessary checks and verification processes take place to ensure that the cargo is accurately documented and ready for deployment. The CDF is responsible for overseeing the logistics of cargo deployment and ensuring that all necessary procedures are followed before the cargo is transported.

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50. (811) Which LOGMOD report created through the schedule module shows suffix items within an item assigned to an increment?

Explanation

The packing list is a LOGMOD report created through the schedule module that shows suffix items within an item assigned to an increment. It provides a detailed breakdown of the items included in a shipment, including any suffix items that may be associated with the main item. This report is useful for tracking and managing the contents of a shipment, ensuring that all items are accounted for and properly documented.

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51. (810) What kind of order does the SecDef approve and transmit to the supported commander and joint planning and execution community (JPEC) announcing the selected course of action (COA)?

Explanation

The SecDef approves and transmits an alert order to the supported commander and joint planning and execution community (JPEC) to announce the selected course of action (COA). This alert order serves as a notification to the relevant parties about the chosen COA, allowing them to prepare and make necessary arrangements accordingly.

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52. (809) Who is the functional expert for their respective area and is essential to the WRM program?

Explanation

Unit WRM managers are the functional experts for their respective area and are essential to the WRM program. They have the knowledge and expertise in managing the War Reserve Material (WRM) and ensuring its availability and readiness. They are responsible for coordinating and overseeing the maintenance, storage, and distribution of WRM assets within their unit. Without their expertise and involvement, the WRM program would not be able to effectively meet the needs and requirements of the mission.

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53. (809) What is not considered war reserve material (WRM)

Explanation

Subsistence items are not considered war reserve material (WRM). War reserve material refers to the resources, equipment, and supplies that are stockpiled and maintained for use during times of war or national emergency. While rations, vehicles, and consumable items are all examples of WRM, subsistence items, which typically include food and water, are not included in this category. These items are typically procured and supplied separately, as they are necessary for the sustenance and well-being of military personnel during war or emergency situations.

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54. (812) What type of command would be established if off base agencies responded on base?

Explanation

A unified command would be established if off base agencies responded on base. This means that multiple agencies from different jurisdictions would come together under a single command structure to coordinate their efforts and resources in responding to the situation. This helps to ensure effective communication, coordination, and collaboration between the agencies involved, enabling them to work together seamlessly towards a common goal.

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55. (807) Which mobility bag contains extreme cold weather equipment?

Explanation

The correct answer is B. The question asks which mobility bag contains extreme cold weather equipment. Since the question does not provide any additional information about the mobility bags A, C-1, and X, we can only rely on the given options. Therefore, the correct answer is B, as it is the only option provided.

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56. (807) Which deployment database contains the logistics details of each UTC and provides model load and packaging lists for each cargo increment/pallet?

Explanation

The correct answer is logistics force (LOGFOR). LOGFOR is the deployment database that contains the logistics details of each UTC (Unit Type Code) and provides model load and packaging lists for each cargo increment/pallet. This database is specifically designed to handle logistics information and ensure effective planning and execution of deployments.

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57. (806) When must a prime BEEF courier carry an authorization letter that identifies the individual and describes the cargo they are escorting?

Explanation

A prime BEEF courier must carry an authorization letter that identifies the individual and describes the cargo they are escorting when the cargo is classified. This is necessary to ensure that the courier has the proper authorization and clearance to transport sensitive or classified materials. It helps to maintain security and prevent unauthorized access to classified information or materials.

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58. (805) The degree to which a unit meets standards within the three measured resource areas and an overall unit assessment is indicated by a five point scale called

Explanation

The correct answer is C-levels. This answer is based on the information provided in the question, which states that a five-point scale is used to indicate the degree to which a unit meets standards within the three measured resource areas and an overall unit assessment. Since the question does not provide any further information about A-levels, M-levels, or P-levels, we can assume that C-levels is the correct answer.

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59. (804) How many members are on an engineer augmentation team?

Explanation

An engineer augmentation team can have anywhere from 1 to 6 members. This means that the team can consist of a minimum of 1 member or a maximum of 6 members. The exact number of members on the team will depend on the specific requirements and needs of the project or task at hand.

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60. (805) The status of SORTS is

Explanation

The correct answer is an automated reporting system that functions as the central registry of all operational units for the armed forces and certain foreign organizations. This explanation accurately describes the purpose and function of SORTS, which is to serve as a centralized registry for operational units in the military and certain foreign organizations. It highlights that SORTS is an automated reporting system, emphasizing its role in collecting and updating information on operational units.

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61. (805) Who ensures all Prime BEEF team members are organized, trained and equipped to perform their contingency roles and all equipment is on hand and ready to deploy?

Explanation

The prime BEEF manager is responsible for ensuring that all Prime BEEF team members are organized, trained, and equipped to perform their contingency roles. They also ensure that all equipment is on hand and ready to deploy.

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62. (816) What must be emphasized when preparing comm-out procedures?

Explanation

When preparing comm-out procedures, it is important to emphasize early notification of key personnel. This means that notifying the relevant individuals as soon as possible is crucial in order to ensure a smooth and efficient communication process. By notifying key personnel early, any potential issues or delays can be addressed promptly, minimizing any negative impact on operations. This emphasizes the importance of effective communication and coordination within the organization.

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63. (819) What information is included on a damage status board?

Explanation

A damage status board includes information about the priority of work that needs to be done. This helps in determining the order in which repairs or maintenance tasks should be carried out. The work priority allows for efficient allocation of resources and ensures that urgent or critical issues are addressed promptly. The board may also include other details such as the work order number and work justification, but the primary focus is on the work priority.

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64. (819) What sequence is involved when updating UCC status boards?

Explanation

The correct sequence for updating UCC status boards is to first update the events log, then record the damage on a status board, and finally report the information to the EOC. This ensures that all relevant information is accurately documented and communicated in a timely manner.

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65. (818) Who establishes and maintains the events log?

Explanation

Ops managers are responsible for establishing and maintaining the events log. They oversee the operations and logistics of an organization, including the tracking and documentation of events. This task falls under their purview as it requires coordination and management of various events and activities within the organization.

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66. (801) What is the single source for AF planning and support of combat forces in a time of war?

Explanation

The AF war and mobilization plan, volume 1, is the single source for AF planning and support of combat forces in a time of war. This plan outlines the strategies, tactics, and procedures that the Air Force will employ during wartime operations. It provides guidance on force structure, deployment, logistics, and other critical aspects of combat operations. By following this plan, the Air Force ensures that its forces are properly organized, equipped, and supported to effectively carry out their missions in a warfighting scenario.

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67. (801) The first aircraft squadron arrives at a bare base as part of the

Explanation

The correct answer is "initial force". This means that the first aircraft squadron is arriving at the bare base as part of the initial force. This suggests that there may be additional forces or squadrons arriving later, but the first squadron is considered part of the initial force that is being deployed to the base.

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68. (817) Who is responsible for periodically inventorying UCC equipment and supplies?

Explanation

The ops management apprentice is responsible for periodically inventorying UCC equipment and supplies. This role involves managing and maintaining inventory records, ensuring that all equipment and supplies are accounted for, and conducting regular audits to identify any discrepancies. The ops management apprentice is typically trained in inventory management techniques and is responsible for ensuring that the UCC has accurate and up-to-date inventory information.

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69. (817) Who commands CE UCC?

Explanation

The chief of ops is the correct answer because they are responsible for commanding the CE UCC. This position oversees the operations of the CE UCC and ensures that it functions effectively. The wing commander is the overall commander of the wing, but they may not directly command the CE UCC. The support group commander is in charge of the support group, which may provide support to the CE UCC but does not command it. The base civil engineer is responsible for the engineering operations on the base but may not have direct command over the CE UCC.

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70. (803) What personnel system is used to generate a departure report?

Explanation

The correct answer is manpower and personnel module - base level (MANPER-B). The MANPER-B system is used to generate a departure report. This system is a personnel management tool that allows for the tracking and management of personnel data at the base level. It is specifically designed to handle manpower and personnel functions and provides reports and information on personnel departures.

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71. (816) What is the primary means of communication when contacting personnel on leave?

Explanation

The primary means of communication when contacting personnel on leave is the telephone. This is because it allows for immediate and direct communication, ensuring that messages can be relayed quickly and efficiently. Using a telephone also allows for real-time conversation and clarification, which may be necessary when contacting personnel on leave for urgent matters or important updates. Additionally, telephone communication allows for confidentiality and privacy, as sensitive information can be discussed securely over the phone.

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72. (815) What step in creating the checklist identifies the main categories?

Explanation

The step in creating the checklist that identifies the main categories is to classify and sort the checkpoints. This involves organizing the checkpoints into different groups or categories based on their similarities or relevance. By doing this, it becomes easier to navigate and understand the checklist, as well as ensure that all necessary aspects are covered.

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73. (815) Checkpoints are defined when creating checklists to

Explanation

Checkpoints are defined when creating checklists to enable anyone with the ability to follow through the checklist. This means that the checkpoints are included in the checklist to ensure that anyone who has the necessary skills or knowledge can easily understand and complete the tasks or actions listed in the checklist. The checkpoints serve as clear indicators or guidelines for individuals to ensure that they are on track and have completed the necessary steps in the checklist.

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74. (802) During a contingency, what gives you a break down of all material that must be moved to the forward location?

Explanation

During a contingency, the unit type code (UTC) provides a breakdown of all material that needs to be transported to the forward location. The UTC is a standardized code that categorizes units based on their capabilities and requirements. It includes information about the equipment, personnel, and supplies needed for a specific mission or operation. By referring to the UTC, military personnel can easily identify and organize the materials that must be moved to ensure the successful execution of the mission.

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75. (813) What communication centers make up the ECC?

Explanation

The ECC, or Emergency Communication Center, is comprised of various communication centers that handle different types of emergencies. The correct answer states that the ECC includes fire, security forces, and medical dispatch centers. This means that the ECC is responsible for coordinating and dispatching resources for fire emergencies, security incidents, and medical emergencies. These communication centers work together to ensure a prompt and effective response to emergencies.

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76. (803) Which document lists all deployment tasking requirements for a particular contingency, exercise, or deployment?

Explanation

The deployment requirements manning document (DRMD) is the document that lists all deployment tasking requirements for a particular contingency, exercise, or deployment. It provides information on the personnel and equipment needed for the deployment, including the required manning levels. The unit personnel manning roster (UPMR) is a document that lists the personnel assigned to a unit, but it does not specifically address deployment requirements. The unit manning document (UMD) is a document that outlines the authorized personnel and positions within a unit, but it does not specifically address deployment requirements. The unit type code (UTC) is a code that categorizes units based on their capabilities, but it does not specifically address deployment requirements.

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77. (812) What positions comprise the ICS general staff?

Explanation

The ICS general staff is composed of chiefs from the operations, logistics, planning, and finance and admin sections. These chiefs are responsible for overseeing and coordinating the respective functions within the incident command system.

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78. (812) What are the primary special staff positions within the incident commanders staff (ICS)?

Explanation

The primary special staff positions within the incident commander's staff in the Incident Command System (ICS) are the public information officer, safety officer, and liaison officer. These positions are crucial in ensuring effective communication, maintaining safety standards, and coordinating with external agencies and organizations during an incident response. The public information officer is responsible for managing public information and media relations, the safety officer focuses on ensuring safety measures are implemented and followed, and the liaison officer serves as the primary point of contact for coordinating with other agencies and organizations.

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79. (808) What factor is the most important to reduce confusion when building pallets for an exercise or actual deployment?

Explanation

Practicing building pallets is the most important factor to reduce confusion when preparing for an exercise or actual deployment. By regularly practicing this task, personnel become familiar with the process and can develop efficient techniques. This helps to minimize errors and confusion, ensuring that pallets are built correctly and ready for deployment when needed. Training, organization, and qualified personnel are all important, but without regular practice, confusion may still arise during pallet building.

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80. ((827) Guy ropes are installed on the SSS if wind conditions are over

Explanation

Guy ropes are installed on the SSS (Self-Supporting Structure) if wind conditions are over 40 mph. Guy ropes are used to provide additional stability and support to the structure in high winds. They help to prevent the structure from swaying or toppling over due to strong gusts of wind. Installing guy ropes at wind speeds over 40 mph ensures that the SSS remains secure and stable during extreme weather conditions.

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81. (804) Where are UTC substitution rules outlined?

Explanation

AFI 10-403, deployment planning and execution outlines the UTC substitution rules. This document provides guidance and procedures for planning and executing deployments in the Air Force, including the rules and regulations regarding the substitution of UTCs. It is a comprehensive resource that covers all aspects of deployment planning and execution, making it the appropriate reference for UTC substitution rules.

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82. (804) How many engineering and operations equipment and vehicle UTCs are there?

Explanation

There are a total of 14 engineering and operations equipment and vehicle UTCs.

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83. (839) What methods can you use to update the EOC on base recovery actions?

Explanation

The EOC can be updated on base recovery actions through various methods, including telephone, messenger, or computer. These methods allow for efficient communication and dissemination of information regarding recovery actions. Telephone communication enables real-time updates and quick decision-making, while messengers can physically deliver important documents or messages. Additionally, computers can be used to update the EOC electronically, ensuring accurate and timely information is recorded.

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84. (847) Which function of contingency recovery involves making a list of broken, damaged or missing parts?

Explanation

Re-palletizing involves making a list of broken, damaged, or missing parts. This process typically occurs during contingency recovery when damaged or broken parts need to be replaced or repaired. By creating a list of these parts, organizations can ensure that they have a clear understanding of what needs to be fixed or replaced, allowing for a more efficient and effective recovery process.

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85. (836) Where would you normally receive radio frequencies from when deployed overseas?

Explanation

When deployed overseas, you would normally receive radio frequencies from the host nation. The host nation refers to the country in which you are deployed, and they typically control and regulate the use of radio frequencies within their territory. Therefore, it is necessary to receive radio frequencies from the host nation in order to communicate effectively while deployed overseas.

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86. (836) Who is the land mobile radio (LMR) focal point?

Explanation

The unit net manager is the focal point for land mobile radio (LMR). This means that they are responsible for managing and coordinating the LMR system within their unit or organization. They handle tasks such as assigning frequencies, maintaining equipment, and ensuring proper communication protocols are followed. They act as the main point of contact for any issues or questions related to the LMR system.

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87. (807) Which document consolidates prime BEEF equipment and supply requirements?

Explanation

The correct answer is ESL. ESL stands for Equipment and Supply List, which is a document that consolidates prime BEEF (Base Engineer Emergency Force) equipment and supply requirements. This document helps to ensure that the necessary equipment and supplies are available for prime BEEF operations and emergency response situations. It is an essential resource for planning and organizing the resources needed for prime BEEF missions.

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88. (827) How many people does it take to pull the cover of the small shelter system (SSS) up over the frame?

Explanation

The correct answer is 4 because it takes four people to pull the cover of the small shelter system (SSS) up over the frame. This suggests that the cover is heavy or requires a certain amount of strength to lift, and it cannot be done by fewer people.

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89. (812) What type of command would be established if multiple incident commanders are managing several incidents across the installation?

Explanation

An area command would be established if multiple incident commanders are managing several incidents across the installation. This type of command is used when incidents are beyond the capabilities of a single command post and require coordination and management at a higher level. The area command is responsible for overall management and coordination of incidents within a defined geographic area, ensuring that resources are allocated effectively and efficiently.

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90. (813) What three functions support the ICC command and control structure?

Explanation

The correct answer is CAT, EOC, and UCC. These three functions support the ICC (Incident Command and Control) structure. CAT (Command and Tactical) is responsible for managing the tactical operations at the incident site. EOC (Emergency Operations Center) is responsible for coordinating and managing resources and information at a higher level. UCC (Unified Command Center) is responsible for coordinating and making decisions among multiple agencies or jurisdictions involved in the incident response. These three functions work together to ensure effective command and control during an incident.

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91. (814) The EOC is comprised of how many emergency support functions (ESF)?

Explanation

The EOC (Emergency Operations Center) is comprised of 15 emergency support functions (ESF). These ESFs are specialized areas of expertise that are responsible for coordinating and providing support during emergency situations. Each ESF focuses on a specific aspect such as transportation, communications, or public health, and works together to ensure a coordinated and effective response to emergencies.

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92. (843) Who can make changes to the terms of an active performance work statement (PWS)?

Explanation

The contracting officer is responsible for making changes to the terms of an active performance work statement (PWS). They have the authority to negotiate and modify the terms of the contract based on the needs and requirements of the project. The contracting officer ensures that any changes made are in compliance with regulations and guidelines, and they have the final say in approving any modifications to the PWS.

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93.  (805) Which product summarizes a unit's wartime tasks and requirements?

Explanation

The designed operational capability (DOC) statement is the product that summarizes a unit's wartime tasks and requirements. This statement outlines the unit's capabilities and responsibilities during wartime operations. It provides a clear and concise overview of what the unit is expected to do and what resources and training are needed to fulfill those tasks. The DOC statement is an essential tool for planning and preparing for wartime operations.

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94. (843) Statements of work must be prepared in accordance with

Explanation

Statements of work must be prepared in accordance with AF instruction 63-124, performance based services acquisition. This instruction provides guidelines and procedures for acquiring services based on performance outcomes rather than specific tasks. It ensures that the statements of work are aligned with the overall acquisition strategy and objectives, promoting efficiency and effectiveness in the procurement process.

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95. (822) Normally, when are situation reports (SITREPS) due?

Explanation

Situation reports (SITREPS) are typically due at shift change. This is because shift change is a crucial time when incoming personnel need to be briefed on the current situation and any important updates or changes. By submitting SITREPS at shift change, the information can be quickly disseminated to the relevant individuals, ensuring that everyone is well-informed and prepared for their shift. This timing allows for seamless communication and coordination between different shifts, promoting efficient operations and situational awareness.

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96. (845) What must an SF 1449, solicitation/contract/order for commercial items have in the "ordered by" block before it can be certified?

Explanation

An SF 1449, solicitation/contract/order for commercial items must have the contracting representative's original signature before it can be certified. This signature ensures that the contracting representative has reviewed and approved the document, indicating their responsibility and authority in the procurement process. It also serves as a form of verification and authorization for the purchase of the commercial items.

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97. (820) Who dispatches and monitors the progress of airfield damage repair (ADR) teams?

Explanation

The UCC, or Unified Command Center, dispatches and monitors the progress of airfield damage repair (ADR) teams. This implies that the UCC is responsible for coordinating and overseeing the efforts of these teams in repairing airfield damage.

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98. (834) What publication deals with the restoration of water systems?

Explanation

AFPAM 10-219, vol 3 is the correct answer because it specifically deals with the restoration of water systems. The other options, AFPAM 10-219, vol 4 and AFPAM 10-220, vol 3 and vol 4, do not mention anything about water systems restoration. Therefore, AFPAM 10-219, vol 3 is the most relevant publication for this topic.

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99. (803) What product is used by deployed commanders to identify deficiencies in UTC capabilities?

Explanation

The processing discrepancy report is used by deployed commanders to identify deficiencies in UTC (Unit Type Code) capabilities. This report allows commanders to track and address any discrepancies or issues that arise during the processing of UTCs, such as missing or incorrect equipment, personnel, or resources. By using the processing discrepancy report, commanders can ensure that their units have all the necessary capabilities and resources for successful operations.

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100. (821) Who normally coordinates contingency operation support with appropriate agencies?

Explanation

The EOC, or Emergency Operations Center, is the entity that typically coordinates contingency operation support with the relevant agencies. This is because the EOC serves as the central command and control facility during emergencies or disasters, where different agencies come together to coordinate and manage the response efforts. The EOC ensures effective communication, coordination, and collaboration among the various agencies involved in the contingency operation support.

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(825) Which GEO program helps deployment planners to make " GO or...
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(830) What action should take place once a UXO has been found?
(829) Along with the primary deployed property custodian, at least how...
(828) Which deployed personnel accountability tool can be used to...
(828) Which deployed personnel accountability tool provides a list of...
(828) Whose responsibility is it to track the status and whereabouts...
(826) What should you do to keep the tent sidewalls from being caught...
(826) How many frame sections must be assembled before the tent fabric...
(826) What is assembled first on the TEMPER tent?
(826) 'What is the first thing you must do when preparing to erect...
(831)The two damage reference systems commonly used in the AF are the...
(825) What can be produced from the final base engineer survey tool...
(824) How many hours should your daily schedule cover when performing...
(824) Which publication provides a list of labor hour estimates by AFS...
(824) Which publication provides a list of CE team structures?
(823) What bare base priority tasking deals with preparing petroleum...
(822) How is a SITREP used?
(822) What should be eliminated from SITREP?
(820) How are the craftsman dispatched to perform expedient repairs?
(820) How is ADR status reported to make it difficult for the enemy to...
(819) When changes are made to status boards, you are expected to...
(838) How many sets of batteries does the defense GPS require to fully...
(846) What is provided by an after action report?
(845) What is used to maintain balances for AF Form 4009s during a...
(844) Who is responsible for funding US civilian employees evacuated...
(843) When performing job analysis for a statement of work, why is it...
(842) Who conducts quality assurance evaluator (QAE) phase 1 training?
(842) When should the customer complaint method of contract...
(841) Which functional areas are usually delegated SF Form 44...
(841) Who should be informed of deployed contract needs?
(840) In which phase of bare base employment are water points...
(838) What type of real-time map formats does the geoXT utilize?
(801) What team is the first to arrive at a deployed location?
(834) To navigate to a location using a GPS unit, what must the user...
(837) What does "message follows" refer to in land mobile...
(836) What kind of radio frequency propagates more easily via sky and...
(835) Normally, silikal polymer is used for
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(833) What method of expedient repair provides structural integrity to...
(833) What work method is geared toward making a building safe for...
(832) How many MOPP levels are there?
(832) The four types of decontamination are immediate, operational,...
(831) What plotting symbol symbolizes a crater?
(808) Where are cargo container keys kept?
(804) Specific UTCs that are normally eligible for deployment given a...
(812) What are all the AF incident management system (AFIMS)...
(811) Who is notified immediately when cargo is frustrated?
(811) Where is cargo weighed, measured, and the cargo documentation...
(811) Which LOGMOD report created through the schedule module shows...
(810) What kind of order does the SecDef approve and transmit to the...
(809) Who is the functional expert for their respective area and is...
(809) What is not considered war reserve material (WRM)
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(807) Which mobility bag contains extreme cold weather equipment?
(807) Which deployment database contains the logistics details of each...
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(805) The degree to which a unit meets standards within the three...
(804) How many members are on an engineer augmentation team?
(805) The status of SORTS is
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(816) What must be emphasized when preparing comm-out procedures?
(819) What information is included on a damage status board?
(819) What sequence is involved when updating UCC status boards?
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(801) The first aircraft squadron arrives at a bare base as part of...
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(817) Who commands CE UCC?
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(815) What step in creating the checklist identifies the main...
(815) Checkpoints are defined when creating checklists to
(802) During a contingency, what gives you a break down of all...
(813) What communication centers make up the ECC?
(803) Which document lists all deployment tasking requirements for a...
(812) What positions comprise the ICS general staff?
(812) What are the primary special staff positions within the incident...
(808) What factor is the most important to reduce confusion when...
((827) Guy ropes are installed on the SSS if wind conditions are over
(804) Where are UTC substitution rules outlined?
(804) How many engineering and operations equipment and vehicle UTCs...
(839) What methods can you use to update the EOC on base recovery...
(847) Which function of contingency recovery involves making a list of...
(836) Where would you normally receive radio frequencies from when...
(836) Who is the land mobile radio (LMR) focal point?
(807) Which document consolidates prime BEEF equipment and supply...
(827) How many people does it take to pull the cover of the small...
(812) What type of command would be established if multiple incident...
(813) What three functions support the ICC command and control...
(814) The EOC is comprised of how many emergency support functions...
(843) Who can make changes to the terms of an active performance work...
 (805) Which product summarizes a unit's wartime tasks and...
(843) Statements of work must be prepared in accordance with
(822) Normally, when are situation reports (SITREPS) due?
(845) What must an SF 1449, solicitation/contract/order for commercial...
(820) Who dispatches and monitors the progress of airfield damage...
(834) What publication deals with the restoration of water systems?
(803) What product is used by deployed commanders to identify...
(821) Who normally coordinates contingency operation support with...
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