NCLEX Pharmacology Quiz 27 Neurologic And Psychiatric Drugs
All questions are shown, but the results will only be given after you’ve finished the quiz. You are given 1 minute per question, a total of 10 minutes in this quiz.
- 1.
For which of the following medical conditions would the nurse anticipate that an antianxiety agent would not be indicated?
- A.
Seizure disorders
- B.
Alcohol detoxification
- C.
Parkinson’s disease
- D.
Panic disorder
Correct Answer
C. Parkinson’s diseaseExplanation
Benzodiazepines may exacerbate the symptoms of Parkinson’s disease.Rate this question:
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- 2.
When administering antianxiety medications to an elderly client. which of the following actions by the nurse is essential?
- A.
Monitor Vital signs.
- B.
Suggest reduced doses.
- C.
Taper dose before stopping.
- D.
Implement a fall prevention protocol.
Correct Answer
D. Implement a fall prevention protocol.Explanation
Increased sedation. dizziness. and hypotension are side effects that place the elderly at high risk for falls. All clients need to have vital signs monitored periodically when taking these medications. Geriatric clients may require reduced doses. but the risk for falls is still present. Dose tapering is not related to age.Rate this question:
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- 3.
When monitoring a client who is taking benzodiazepines. the nurse should be alert for which CNS side effects?
- A.
Blurred vision. anorexia. dysarthria
- B.
Seizures. tremors. diaphoresis
- C.
Ataxia. sedation. dizziness
- D.
Libido changes. edema. dystonia
Correct Answer
C. Ataxia. sedation. dizzinessExplanation
These are common side effects. Anorexia is a GI effect. Choice B are the result of acute withdrawal. Libido and edema are not CNS-related side effects.Rate this question:
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- 4.
Antidepressants generally exert influence by:
- A.
Increasing the reuptake of norepinephrine
- B.
Altering the action of the cyproprotein (MAO)
- C.
Changing the availability of dopamine
- D.
Changing the availability of select neurotransmitters
Correct Answer
D. Changing the availability of select neurotransmittersExplanation
This choice best describes the effect of antidepressants in general.Rate this question:
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- 5.
The nurse performs an initial assessment and nursing history with a client admitted fir a major depression. The client has a history of narrow-angle glaucoma. The nurse’s best action would be to:
- A.
Encourage the client to use his or her own eyedrops until the drops can be ordered.
- B.
Administer the TCA as orders. and expect an ophthalmology consult.
- C.
Administer the TCA as ordered. and monitor for visual changes.
- D.
Inform the physician of the client’s history before administering the TCA.
Correct Answer
D. Inform the pHysician of the client’s history before administering the TCA.Explanation
Narrow-angle glaucoma is a contraindication for use of TCAs; therefore. the physician should be informed so that an alternative category can be used.Rate this question:
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- 6.
Antipsychotic drugs are indicated:
- A.
For treatment of Tourette’s syndrome.
- B.
For treatment of major depression.
- C.
As an adjunct in the management of seizures.
- D.
To cure psychotic disorders.
Correct Answer
A. For treatment of Tourette’s syndrome.Explanation
Haloperidol (Haldol) is used for this syndrome. Major depression is an affective disorder. When psychotic symptoms accompany depression. antipsychotics may be used to manage the symptoms. However. this choice does not address that situation. Antipsychotics are used with caution in the presence of a history of seizures. Generally. the antipsychotics decrease the seizure threshold. Antipsychotics are used to ameliorate. reduce. or manage psychotic symptoms; they do not provide a cure.Rate this question:
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- 7.
Sheila who has been on a low-potency antipsychotic for 2 weeks has shown minimal response. The most probable explanation is:
- A.
The client probably has refractory illness.
- B.
The client needs a stronger medication.
- C.
It is too early to see a full therapeutic response.
- D.
The client is definitely not taking the medication.
Correct Answer
C. It is too early to see a full therapeutic response.Explanation
The initial response may be seen 1 to 2 days after initiation of treatment. with full therapeutic response in approximately 6 to 8 weeks.Rate this question:
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- 8.
Ansherina who is receiving a traditional antipsychotic agent complains that she is gaining weight. The nurse would:
- A.
Be aware that this is probably delusional thinking because these agents cause weight loss.
- B.
Encourage the client to follow a healthy diet and use diet soda to help stabilize her weight.
- C.
Discuss a switch to a high-potency agent so the weight gain will not be a problem.
- D.
Establish a contract with the client to carefully follow her high-calorie diet.
Correct Answer
B. Encourage the client to follow a healthy diet and use diet soda to help stabilize her weight.Explanation
These agents have a known side effect of weight gain. Managing dietary intake can assist in the management of the potentially distressing effect.Rate this question:
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- 9.
Drugs classified as centrally acting skeletal muscle relaxants are most effective in relieving:
- A.
Spasm due to trauma or inflammation
- B.
Chronic spasm due to old injury
- C.
Pain from arthritis
- D.
Surgical complications
Correct Answer
A. Spasm due to trauma or inflammationExplanation
Centrally acting skeletal muscle relaxants are most effective in relieving spasm due to trauma or inflammation.Rate this question:
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- 10.
Peripherally acting skeletal muscle relaxants are used:
- A.
To treat neuromuscular diseases
- B.
To treat spinal trauma
- C.
To relieve spasms from trauma
- D.
As adjuncts to general anesthesia
Correct Answer
D. As adjuncts to general anesthesiaExplanation
Peripherally acting skeletal muscle relaxants are used as an adjunct to general anesthesia.Rate this question:
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Aug 22, 2023Quiz Edited by
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Aug 10, 2017Quiz Created by
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