NCLEX Practice Exam 31 (10 Questions)

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NCLEX Practice Exam 31 (10 Questions) - Quiz

All questions are shown, but the results will only be given after you’ve finished the quiz. You are given 1 minute per question, a total of 10 minutes in this quiz.


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    The client with suspected meningitis is admitted to the unit. The doctor is performing an assessment to determine meningeal irritation and spinal nerve root inflammation. A positive Kernig’s sign is charted if the nurse notes:

    • A.

      Pain on flexion of the hip and knee

    • B.

      Nuchal rigidity on flexion of the neck

    • C.

      Pain when the head is turned to the left side

    • D.

      Dizziness when changing positions

    Correct Answer
    A. Pain on flexion of the hip and knee
    Explanation
    Kernig’s sign is positive if pain occurs on flexion of the hip and knee. The Brudzinski reflex is positive if pain occurs on flexion of the head and neck onto the chest so answer B is incorrect. Answers C and D might be present but are not related to Kernig’s sign.

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  • 2. 

    The client with Alzheimer’s disease is being assisted with activities of daily living when the nurse notes that the client uses her toothbrush to brush her hair. The nurse is aware that the client is exhibiting:

    • A.

      Agnosia

    • B.

      Apraxia

    • C.

      Anomia

    • D.

      Aphasia

    Correct Answer
    B. Apraxia
    Explanation
    Apraxia is the inability to use objects appropriately. Agnosia is loss of sensory comprehension. anomia is the inability to find words. and aphasia is the inability to speak or understand so answers A. C. and D are incorrect.

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  • 3. 

    The client with dementia is experiencing confusion late in the afternoon and before bedtime. The nurse is aware that the client is experiencing what is known as:

    • A.

      Chronic fatigue syndrome

    • B.

      Normal aging

    • C.

      Sundowning

    • D.

      Delusions

    Correct Answer
    C. Sundowning
    Explanation
    Increased confusion at night is known as “sundowning” syndrome. This increased confusion occurs when the sun begins to set and continues during the night. Answer A is incorrect because fatigue is not necessarily present. Increased confusion at night is not part of normal aging; therefore. answer B is incorrect. A delusion is a firm. fixed belief; therefore. answer D is incorrect.

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  • 4. 

    The client with confusion says to the nurse. “I haven’t had anything to eat all day long. When are they going to bring breakfast?” The nurse saw the client in the day room eating breakfast with other clients 30 minutes before this conversation. Which response would be best for the nurse to make?

    • A.

      “You know you had breakfast 30 minutes ago.”

    • B.

      “I am so sorry that they didn’t get you breakfast. I’ll report it to the charge nurse.”

    • C.

      “I’ll get you some juice and toast. Would you like something else?”

    • D.

      “You will have to wait a while; lunch will be here in a little while.”

    Correct Answer
    C. “I’ll get you some juice and toast. Would you like something else?”
    Explanation
    The client who is confused might forget that he ate earlier. Don’t argue with the client. Simply get him something to eat that will satisfy him until lunch. Answers A and D are incorrect because the nurse is dismissing the client. Answer B is validating the delusion.

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  • 5. 

    The doctor has prescribed Exelon (rivastigmine) for the client with Alzheimer’s disease. Which side effect is most often associated with this drug?

    • A.

      Urinary incontinence

    • B.

      Headaches

    • C.

      Confusion

    • D.

      Nausea

    Correct Answer
    D. Nausea
    Explanation
    Nausea and gastrointestinal upset are very common in clients taking acetylcholinesterase inhibitors such as Exelon. Other side effects include liver toxicity. dizziness. unsteadiness. and clumsiness. The client might already be experiencing urinary incontinence or headaches. but they are not necessarily associated; and the client with Alzheimer’s disease is already confused. Therefore. answers A. B. and C are incorrect.

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  • 6. 

    A client is admitted to the labor and delivery unit in active labor. During examination. the nurse notes a papular lesion on the perineum. Which initial action is most appropriate?

    • A.

      Document the finding

    • B.

      Report the finding to the doctor

    • C.

      Prepare the client for a C-section

    • D.

      Continue primary care as prescribed

    Correct Answer
    B. Report the finding to the doctor
    Explanation
    Any lesion should be reported to the doctor. This can indicate a herpes lesion. Clients with open lesions related to herpes are delivered by Cesarean section because there is a possibility of transmission of the infection to the fetus with direct contact to lesions. It is not enough to document the finding. so answer A is incorrect. The physician must make the decision to perform a C-section. making answer C incorrect. It is not enough to continue primary care. so answer D is incorrect.

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  • 7. 

    A client with a diagnosis of HPV is at risk for which of the following?

    • A.

      Hodgkin’s lymphoma

    • B.

      Cervical cancer

    • C.

      Multiple myeloma

    • D.

      Ovarian cancer

    Correct Answer
    B. Cervical cancer
    Explanation
    The client with HPV is at higher risk for cervical and vaginal cancer related to this STI. She is not at higher risk for the other cancers mentioned in answers A. C. and D. so those are incorrect.

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  • 8. 

    During the initial interview. the client reports that she has a lesion on the perineum. Further investigation reveals a small blister on the vulva that is painful to touch. The nurse is aware that the most likely source of the lesion is:

    • A.

      Syphilis

    • B.

      Herpes

    • C.

      Gonorrhea

    • D.

      Condylomata

    Correct Answer
    B. Herpes
    Explanation
    A lesion that is painful is most likely a herpetic lesion. A chancre lesion associated with syphilis is not painful. so answer A is incorrect. Condylomata lesions are painless warts. so answer D is incorrect. In answer C. gonorrhea does not present as a lesion. but is exhibited by a yellow discharge.

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  • 9. 

    A client visiting a family planning clinic is suspected of having an STI. The best diagnostic test for treponema pallidum is:

    • A.

      Venereal Disease Research Lab (VDRL)

    • B.

      Rapid plasma reagin (RPR)

    • C.

      Florescent treponemal antibody (FTA)

    • D.

      Thayer-Martin culture (TMC)

    Correct Answer
    C. Florescent treponemal antibody (FTA)
    Explanation
    Fluorescent treponemal antibody (FTA) is the test for treponema pallidum. VDRL and RPR are screening tests done for syphilis. so answers A and B are incorrect. The Thayer-Martin culture is done for gonorrhea. so answer D is incorrect.

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  • 10. 

    A 15-year-old primigravida is admitted with a tentative diagnosis of HELLP syndrome. Which laboratory finding is associated with HELLP syndrome?

    • A.

      Elevated blood glucose

    • B.

      Elevated platelet count

    • C.

      Elevated creatinine clearance

    • D.

      Elevated hepatic enzymes

    Correct Answer
    D. Elevated hepatic enzymes
    Explanation
    The criteria for HELLP is hemolysis. elevated liver enzymes. and low platelet count. In answer A. an elevated blood glucose level is not associated with HELLP. Platelets are decreased. not elevated. in HELLP syndrome as stated in answer B. The creatinine levels are elevated in renal disease and are not associated with HELLP syndrome so answer C is incorrect.

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  • Current Version
  • Aug 21, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Jul 11, 2017
    Quiz Created by
    Santepro
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