EOC Pretest Trivia Questions!
Questions and Answers
- 1.
Access to air force weapons and munitions and the information pertaining to them is?
- A.
Free information
- B.
Strictly controlled
- C.
Determined by rank
- D.
For official use only
Correct Answer
B. Strictly controlledExplanation
Access to air force weapons and munitions and the information pertaining to them is "strictly controlled" because these resources are highly sensitive and can pose a significant risk if they fall into the wrong hands. The air force needs to ensure that only authorized personnel have access to these resources and that they are used appropriately and securely. Strict control helps in maintaining the safety and security of the weapons and munitions, preventing unauthorized use or dissemination of sensitive information.Rate this question:
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- 2.
The number of weapons and storage facilities on an installation should be kept
- A.
An absolute secret
- B.
To an absolute minimum
- C.
To an amount necessary for the mission
- D.
Written in the squadron operating procedures
Correct Answer
B. To an absolute minimumExplanation
The correct answer is "to an absolute minimum." This means that the number of weapons and storage facilities on an installation should be reduced to the lowest possible amount. This is important because keeping the number of weapons and storage facilities to a minimum helps to maintain security and prevent unauthorized access. It also ensures that resources are used efficiently and effectively for the mission at hand. By minimizing the number of weapons and storage facilities, the risk of accidents, theft, or misuse is also reduced.Rate this question:
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- 3.
Which type of eye protection should be used as primary eye and face protection in areas where splashing or dust, rather than impact resistance is a concern?
- A.
Safety glasses
- B.
Eye goggles
- C.
Wrap shades
- D.
Face shield
Correct Answer
D. Face shieldExplanation
In areas where splashing or dust is a concern, face shields should be used as the primary eye and face protection. Face shields provide full coverage and protection against splashes, particles, and debris, making them more suitable for this type of environment compared to safety glasses, eye goggles, or wrap shades. Face shields offer a larger protective surface, shielding not only the eyes but also the entire face, reducing the risk of exposure to hazardous materials.Rate this question:
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- 4.
Which type of exposure is a result of oxide dust or the fumes of metallic lead from bullets impacting or becoming lodge in a backstop surfaces or indoor or outdoor firing ranges?
- A.
Zinc exposure
- B.
Lead exposure
- C.
Noxious gas exposure
- D.
Carbon dioxide exposure
Correct Answer
B. Lead exposureExplanation
The correct answer is lead exposure. This is because oxide dust or fumes of metallic lead from bullets can be released when they impact or become lodged in backstop surfaces or firing ranges. These particles can be inhaled or ingested, leading to exposure to lead, which can be harmful to human health.Rate this question:
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- 5.
Who does the air force rely on to determine the dangers related to the use of hazardous material (HAZMAT)?
- A.
The supplier or manufacturer of the chemical or agent
- B.
The base environment health department
- C.
The hazardous materials department
- D.
The material data section
Correct Answer
A. The supplier or manufacturer of the chemical or agentExplanation
The air force relies on the supplier or manufacturer of the chemical or agent to determine the dangers related to the use of hazardous material (HAZMAT). This is because the supplier or manufacturer is responsible for providing accurate information about the chemical or agent, including any potential hazards associated with its use. They have the necessary expertise and knowledge about the composition and properties of the material, making them the most reliable source for determining the dangers. The base environment health department, hazardous materials department, and material data section may also play a role in managing and handling hazardous materials, but they would typically rely on the information provided by the supplier or manufacturer.Rate this question:
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- 6.
These data sheets provide in-depth information concerning any hazardous and toxic materials.
- A.
Hazardous control prevention sheet
- B.
Material safety distribution sheet
- C.
Hazardous material control sheet
- D.
Base environment safety sheet
Correct Answer
B. Material safety distribution sheetExplanation
The correct answer is "material safety distribution sheet" because it accurately describes the purpose of the data sheets mentioned in the question. These sheets provide detailed information about hazardous and toxic materials, including how to handle and distribute them safely. The other options do not accurately describe the content or purpose of these data sheets.Rate this question:
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- 7.
Hazardous material (HAZMAT) training is documented on which form?
- A.
AF Form 55
- B.
DD Form 55
- C.
HAZMAT Form 55
- D.
HAZCOM Form 55
Correct Answer
A. AF Form 55Explanation
The correct answer is AF Form 55. This form is used to document hazardous material (HAZMAT) training. It is likely that AF stands for Air Force, indicating that this form is specific to the Air Force and their procedures for documenting HAZMAT training.Rate this question:
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- 8.
What should you refer to when determining the requirements for the safety operations of your firing range?
- A.
MAJCOM range safety guideline
- B.
Air Force Occupational health instructions
- C.
Air Force bioengineering safety instructions
- D.
USAF safety standards and range construction instructions
Correct Answer
B. Air Force Occupational health instructionsExplanation
The Air Force Occupational health instructions should be referred to when determining the requirements for the safety operations of a firing range. These instructions provide guidelines and regulations related to occupational health and safety in the Air Force, which would include safety measures and protocols for operating a firing range. By referring to these instructions, one can ensure that the necessary precautions and procedures are in place to maintain a safe environment for personnel using the firing range.Rate this question:
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- 9.
Who is responsible for contacting the appropriate base agencies on technical issues pertaining to range design?
- A.
AF Security Forces Center/Combat Arms
- B.
Security Forces Commander
- C.
NCOIC of Combat Arms
- D.
Base Commander
Correct Answer
C. NCOIC of Combat ArmsExplanation
The NCOIC (Non-Commissioned Officer in Charge) of Combat Arms is responsible for contacting the appropriate base agencies on technical issues pertaining to range design. This individual is in charge of coordinating and overseeing the combat arms training and range operations on the base. They have the knowledge and expertise to handle technical issues related to range design and can communicate with the necessary agencies to address these matters effectively.Rate this question:
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- 10.
One important aspect of designing a small arms firing range is to determine
- A.
If you have enough personnel to staff it
- B.
The type that will best fit your needs
- C.
If the the local area will support it
- D.
The amount of money needed
Correct Answer
B. The type that will best fit your needsExplanation
When designing a small arms firing range, it is crucial to determine the type that will best fit your needs. This involves considering factors such as the purpose of the range, the types of firearms that will be used, the number of shooters that will be accommodated, and any specific requirements or regulations that need to be met. By selecting the appropriate type of firing range, you can ensure that it meets your specific needs in terms of safety, functionality, and overall effectiveness.Rate this question:
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- 11.
Which is an angled baffle installed downrange to deflect and contain direct-fired rounds?
- A.
An overhead baffle
- B.
A platform baffle
- C.
A sidewall baffle
- D.
A canopy baffle
Correct Answer
A. An overhead baffleExplanation
An overhead baffle is installed downrange to deflect and contain direct-fired rounds. It is positioned above the target area and is angled in a way that redirects the bullets or projectiles away from the surrounding area, preventing them from causing damage or injury. This type of baffle is commonly used in shooting ranges or military training facilities to ensure safety and containment of fired rounds.Rate this question:
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- 12.
Side slope of earth berms must not exceed what vertical to horizontal ratio, unless materials are stabilized?
- A.
2:3
- B.
3:4
- C.
4:1
- D.
4:2
Correct Answer
A. 2:3Explanation
The side slope of earth berms must not exceed a vertical to horizontal ratio of 2:3, unless materials are stabilized. This means that for every 2 units of vertical rise, there should be 3 units of horizontal distance. This ratio ensures stability and prevents erosion or collapse of the berm.Rate this question:
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- 13.
Which type of backstop was typically used on older partially or fully contained firing ranges?
- A.
Natural grasses
- B.
Metal
- C.
Earth
- D.
Clay
Correct Answer
B. MetalExplanation
Metal backstops were typically used on older partially or fully contained firing ranges. This is because metal is a durable and strong material that can withstand the impact of bullets and provide effective containment. It also provides a smooth surface that helps to prevent ricochets and redirects the bullets safely into the ground. Natural grasses, earth, and clay are not suitable for backstops as they do not have the same level of durability and containment capabilities as metal.Rate this question:
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- 14.
Compliance with environmental cleanup and residue disposal is
- A.
Everyones responsibility
- B.
Conducted weekly
- C.
Mandatory
- D.
Optional
Correct Answer
C. MandatoryExplanation
The correct answer is mandatory because compliance with environmental cleanup and residue disposal is a necessary requirement that must be followed by everyone. It is not optional or conducted weekly, but rather it is a responsibility that is mandatory for all individuals to ensure the proper cleanup and disposal of environmental residues.Rate this question:
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- 15.
Design for rifle, handgun and shotgun firing ranges should provide for a minimum of how many firing points
- A.
7
- B.
9
- C.
11
- D.
13
Correct Answer
A. 7Explanation
The design for rifle, handgun, and shotgun firing ranges should provide for a minimum of 7 firing points. This means that the range should have at least 7 designated areas where individuals can safely shoot their firearms. Having multiple firing points allows for more shooters to use the range simultaneously and helps prevent overcrowding and potential accidents.Rate this question:
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- 16.
Test fire is not required for which type of small arms firing range?
- A.
Semipartially contained
- B.
Partially contained
- C.
Fully contained
- D.
Noncontained
Correct Answer
D. NoncontainedExplanation
A noncontained small arms firing range does not require a test fire. This means that the range does not have any protective barriers or structures in place to contain the bullets or prevent them from leaving the designated area. Therefore, there is no need for a test fire to ensure the safety and effectiveness of the range.Rate this question:
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- 17.
Who is responsible to train, qualify and certify personnel on Air Force ground weapons and courses of fire?
- A.
Range NCOIC
- B.
Tower Operator
- C.
Primary instructor
- D.
Assistant instructor
Correct Answer
C. Primary instructorExplanation
The primary instructor is responsible for training, qualifying, and certifying personnel on Air Force ground weapons and courses of fire. This individual is the main point of contact and expert in their field, ensuring that all personnel are properly trained and meet the necessary qualifications and certifications. They play a crucial role in maintaining the readiness and proficiency of Air Force personnel in handling ground weapons and executing courses of fire.Rate this question:
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- 18.
Who is responsible for conducting immediate and remedial actions on the firing line?
- A.
Shooter
- B.
Tower operator
- C.
Firing line official
- D.
Assistant instructor
Correct Answer
A. ShooterExplanation
The shooter is responsible for conducting immediate and remedial actions on the firing line. As the person handling the weapon, it is their duty to ensure the safety of themselves and others on the firing line. They are trained to react quickly and appropriately in case of any issues or emergencies that may arise during shooting. Therefore, the shooter is the one who takes immediate action to address any problems and implement necessary corrective measures.Rate this question:
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- 19.
Who is ultimately responsible for all range operations?
- A.
The primary instructor
- B.
The firing line official
- C.
The tower operator
- D.
Range NCOIC
Correct Answer
C. The tower operatorExplanation
The tower operator is ultimately responsible for all range operations. They oversee the overall functioning of the range and ensure that all activities are conducted safely and efficiently. They coordinate with the firing line officials, range NCOIC, and other personnel involved to ensure proper communication and coordination. The tower operator is responsible for monitoring and controlling range activities, including the movement of personnel, equipment, and vehicles. They play a crucial role in maintaining the safety and smooth operation of the range.Rate this question:
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- 20.
the keys to effective firing line operations is clear
- A.
Communication
- B.
Rank structure
- C.
Understanding
- D.
Orders
Correct Answer
A. CommunicationExplanation
Effective firing line operations require clear communication among team members. This is crucial for ensuring that everyone understands their roles and responsibilities, as well as any orders or instructions given. Without clear communication, there is a high risk of miscommunication, confusion, and ultimately, failure to execute the operation effectively. Therefore, communication is a key factor in the success of firing line operations.Rate this question:
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- 21.
How often are operating instructions required to be reviewed
- A.
Semi-annualy
- B.
As needed
- C.
Annually
- D.
Monthly
Correct Answer
C. AnnuallyExplanation
Operating instructions are required to be reviewed annually to ensure that they are up to date and reflect any changes in procedures or regulations. This review process helps to maintain the accuracy and effectiveness of the instructions, ensuring that employees have the most current information to perform their tasks safely and efficiently. By conducting an annual review, any necessary updates or revisions can be made to address any identified issues or improvements. This regular review cycle helps to ensure that the operating instructions remain relevant and useful in guiding operations.Rate this question:
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- 22.
Which number, assigned by the manufacturer, is used to readily identify and account for ammunition?
- A.
Ammunition lot number
- B.
Functional lot number
- C.
Caliber lot number
- D.
Lost lot number
Correct Answer
A. Ammunition lot numberExplanation
The correct answer is "ammunition lot number". This number is assigned by the manufacturer to easily identify and keep track of ammunition. It helps in inventory management, quality control, and tracing the source of any issues or defects that may arise. By using the ammunition lot number, manufacturers and distributors can efficiently manage their stock and ensure that only safe and reliable ammunition is being used.Rate this question:
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- 23.
Which website shows the training munitions allowances for different career fields and units in the Air Force?
- A.
Global ammunitions control point
- B.
Ground munitions authorization tables
- C.
World wide ammunitions allowance listing
- D.
Global ammunition authorized allowance listing
Correct Answer
A. Global ammunitions control pointExplanation
The correct answer is "global ammunitions control point". This website is the one that displays the training munitions allowances for various career fields and units in the Air Force. It serves as a centralized control point for managing and regulating the distribution and allocation of ammunition resources within the Air Force.Rate this question:
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- 24.
What percentage of each weapon type an organization has in extended storage/preferred packing must be inspected annually?
- A.
10
- B.
20
- C.
30
- D.
40
Correct Answer
B. 20Explanation
The correct answer is 20. This suggests that an organization must inspect annually 20% of each weapon type they have in extended storage/preferred packing. This ensures that the organization maintains regular checks and assessments of their weapon inventory to ensure functionality, safety, and readiness. By inspecting a portion of each weapon type annually, the organization can identify any potential issues or maintenance needs, allowing them to address them promptly and maintain a high level of preparedness.Rate this question:
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- 25.
The moment during breathing when most of the air has been exhaled from your lungs before you inhale is known as
- A.
Diaphragm
- B.
Oxygen deficiency
- C.
Point of re-breathing
- D.
Natural respiratory pause
Correct Answer
D. Natural respiratory pauseExplanation
The natural respiratory pause refers to the moment during breathing when most of the air has been exhaled from the lungs before inhaling again. This pause allows the body to rest and prepare for the next inhalation. It is a normal and necessary part of the breathing process, ensuring that the body receives enough oxygen and expels carbon dioxide efficiently.Rate this question:
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- 26.
Which of the following is probably the most challenging fundamental?
- A.
Trigger control
- B.
Breath control
- C.
Sight picture
- D.
Aiming
Correct Answer
A. Trigger controlExplanation
Trigger control is likely the most challenging fundamental because it requires the shooter to have precise control and coordination of their trigger finger. Proper trigger control involves applying steady, consistent pressure on the trigger without disturbing the sight alignment or sight picture. It requires discipline, focus, and practice to develop the muscle memory and fine motor skills necessary for smooth and accurate trigger pulls. Mistakes in trigger control can result in jerking or flinching, leading to inaccurate shots. Therefore, mastering trigger control is crucial for achieving consistent and precise shooting.Rate this question:
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- 27.
When making windage adjustment, rotating the knob clockwise will move the strike of the bullets
- A.
Up
- B.
Down
- C.
Right
- D.
Left
Correct Answer
C. RightExplanation
When making windage adjustments, rotating the knob clockwise will move the strike of the bullets to the right. This is because windage refers to the horizontal adjustment needed to compensate for the effect of wind on the bullet's trajectory. By rotating the knob clockwise, the shooter is increasing the horizontal adjustment, causing the bullets to strike to the right of the target.Rate this question:
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- 28.
Which of the following is refereed as to the push pull method?
- A.
Two handed tension
- B.
Isometric tension
- C.
One handed grip
- D.
Isosceles grip
Correct Answer
B. Isometric tensionExplanation
The push-pull method refers to a type of exercise technique where both pushing and pulling movements are combined. Isometric tension, which involves contracting muscles without any visible movement, can be considered as the push-pull method because it requires exerting force in opposing directions. This technique helps to engage multiple muscle groups and improve overall strength and stability.Rate this question:
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- 29.
At which stage of the draw will you rotate the weapon toward the target while keeping it close to the body?
- A.
Grab
- B.
Draw
- C.
Smack
- D.
Look and press
Correct Answer
B. DrawExplanation
In the given question, the correct answer is "draw". This suggests that during the draw stage of the process, one should rotate the weapon towards the target while keeping it close to the body. This implies that the act of drawing the weapon is the appropriate stage to begin rotating it towards the target, ensuring that it remains in close proximity to the body for better control and accuracy.Rate this question:
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- 30.
Correct sight picture for the M203 includes sight alignment and
- A.
Range sensing
- B.
Sight alignment
- C.
Placing of aiming point
- D.
Trigger squeeze and P-R-E-S-S
Correct Answer
C. Placing of aiming pointExplanation
The correct sight picture for the M203 includes placing of the aiming point. This means that when aiming the weapon, the shooter needs to align the sights properly and position the aiming point on the target. This ensures accuracy and precision when firing the M203 grenade launcher. The other options mentioned, such as range sensing, sight alignment, and trigger squeeze, are important factors to consider when using the weapon, but the specific aspect mentioned in the correct answer is the placing of the aiming point.Rate this question:
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- 31.
Determining were a grenade explodes with respect to the target is called
- A.
Estimating
- B.
Guessing
- C.
Sensing
- D.
Hunch
Correct Answer
C. SensingExplanation
Sensing refers to the act of perceiving or detecting something using the senses. In the context of the question, determining where a grenade explodes with respect to the target requires sensing the location or direction of the explosion. This involves using sensory information to assess the position of the explosion in relation to the target.Rate this question:
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- 32.
Which range sensing command indicates you hit part of the target
- A.
Target
- B.
Over
- C.
Short
- D.
Doubtful
Correct Answer
A. TargetExplanation
The correct answer is "target" because the word "target" refers to the object or area that is being aimed at or focused on. In the context of the question, the range sensing command "target" would indicate that the user has successfully hit or reached a part of the intended target.Rate this question:
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- 33.
When zeroing the M203 using either the leaf or quadrant sight, you will engage a target at how many meters?
- A.
25
- B.
50
- C.
100
- D.
200
Correct Answer
D. 200Explanation
When zeroing the M203 using either the leaf or quadrant sight, you will engage a target at 200 meters. This means that when adjusting the sight to align with the target, it is calibrated to accurately hit the target at a distance of 200 meters.Rate this question:
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- 34.
Which of the following is an excellent machine gun firing position that provides a stable firing platform?
- A.
Fighting position, bipod supported
- B.
Fighting position, tripod supported
- C.
Prone position, bipod supported
- D.
Prone position, tripod supported
Correct Answer
A. Fighting position, bipod supportedExplanation
A fighting position with bipod support is an excellent machine gun firing position that provides a stable firing platform. Bipods are designed to stabilize the weapon and reduce recoil, allowing for accurate and controlled firing. This position allows the gunner to maintain a lower profile and have a wider field of view, making it an effective choice for engaging targets while maintaining stability.Rate this question:
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- 35.
In regard to marksmanship techniques, centering the sights within their maximum adjustment area is the definition for
- A.
Adjustment calibration method
- B.
Adjusting aiming point
- C.
Mechanical zero
- D.
Battle sight zero
Correct Answer
C. Mechanical zeroExplanation
The term "mechanical zero" refers to the process of centering the sights within their maximum adjustment area in marksmanship techniques. This ensures that the sights are properly aligned and calibrated, allowing for accurate aiming and shooting. By setting the sights to their mechanical zero, the shooter can make precise adjustments to compensate for factors such as windage and elevation. This technique is crucial for achieving consistent and reliable results in marksmanship.Rate this question:
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- 36.
To ensure training aids are used effectively, they should
- A.
Appeal to one or more of the senses
- B.
Be produced locally
- C.
Be interesting
- D.
Be colorful
Correct Answer
A. Appeal to one or more of the sensesExplanation
Training aids should appeal to one or more of the senses in order to be used effectively. This means that the aids should engage the learners' senses, such as sight, hearing, or touch, to enhance their understanding and retention of the information being presented. By appealing to the senses, the aids can make the training more interactive, engaging, and memorable for the learners. This can lead to better comprehension and application of the knowledge being taught.Rate this question:
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- 37.
Which training aid is probably the most versatile and frequently used?
- A.
Overhead transparencies
- B.
Dry erase board
- C.
Video footage
- D.
Handout
Correct Answer
B. Dry erase boardExplanation
The correct answer is the dry erase board because it is a versatile training aid that can be used in various ways. It allows for easy writing and erasing, making it suitable for brainstorming, note-taking, and illustrating concepts. It can be used in both small and large group settings, making it a frequently used tool in training sessions. Additionally, it can be easily transported and used in different locations, adding to its versatility.Rate this question:
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- 38.
Which category of training equipment includes items that retain their assigned nomenclature and federal supply classification in the training program?`
- A.
Trainers
- B.
Training aids
- C.
Instructional aids
- D.
Standard equipement
Correct Answer
D. Standard equipementExplanation
Standard equipment refers to items that retain their assigned nomenclature and federal supply classification in the training program. This means that these items are used in the training program exactly as they would be used in real-life situations. They are not modified or adapted for training purposes. Trainers, training aids, and instructional aids may be specifically designed or modified for training purposes, but standard equipment remains unchanged.Rate this question:
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- 39.
What should you do with a training aid that supports an old topic?
- A.
Leave them out of the students attention
- B.
Put them out of sight so the students can reflect
- C.
Put them out of sight so they do not distract the students
- D.
Place them where the students can review them during breaks
Correct Answer
C. Put them out of sight so they do not distract the studentsExplanation
It is important to put training aids that support an old topic out of sight so that they do not distract the students. By removing them from the students' line of sight, it helps to prevent any potential distractions and allows the students to focus on the current topic being taught. This ensures that the students can fully engage and concentrate on the new material without any unnecessary interference from the old training aids.Rate this question:
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- 40.
Which training exercise is an excellent means of detecting if a shooter is anticipating when the weapon is going to fire
- A.
Pencil drills
- B.
Ball and dummy
- C.
Dime and washer
- D.
Sighting and aiming
Correct Answer
B. Ball and dummyExplanation
Ball and dummy training exercise is an excellent means of detecting if a shooter is anticipating when the weapon is going to fire. This exercise involves mixing live ammunition with dummy rounds randomly in the shooter's magazine without their knowledge. If the shooter anticipates the recoil and flinches when a dummy round is fired, it indicates that they are anticipating the shot and not maintaining proper trigger control and follow-through. This exercise helps identify and correct any anticipation or flinching issues, improving the shooter's accuracy and performance.Rate this question:
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- 41.
Generally, performance test are developed in a format that meets what type of needs?
- A.
Local
- B.
MAJCOM
- C.
Individual
- D.
Air Force
Correct Answer
A. LocalExplanation
Performance tests are generally developed in a format that meets local needs. This means that the tests are tailored to the specific requirements and conditions of the local environment, taking into consideration factors such as resources, infrastructure, and objectives. By developing tests that are specifically designed for the local context, organizations can ensure that the performance evaluation accurately reflects the capabilities and limitations of the system or individual being tested. This approach also allows for greater customization and flexibility in assessing performance, making it more relevant and meaningful for the local stakeholders.Rate this question:
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- 42.
Whats another name for performance evaluation checklist?
- A.
Objective elimination instrument
- B.
Objective evaluation instruction
- C.
Objective elimination instruction
- D.
Objective evaluation instrument
Correct Answer
D. Objective evaluation instrumentExplanation
The correct answer is "objective evaluation instrument." This term refers to a tool or document used to assess and measure an individual's performance based on specific objectives or criteria. It is a systematic way of evaluating and documenting an individual's performance, typically used in performance appraisal processes in organizations. The term "objective" indicates that the evaluation is based on measurable and observable criteria, ensuring fairness and consistency in the assessment process.Rate this question:
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- 43.
Which performance evaluation checklist list the sequential steps the student are to perform?
- A.
End-process
- B.
End-product
- C.
In-product
- D.
In-process
Correct Answer
D. In-processExplanation
The correct answer is "In-process". This checklist evaluates the performance of students based on the sequential steps they are required to perform during a task or activity. It focuses on the progress and actions taken by the students while they are in the process of completing the task, rather than solely on the final outcome or product.Rate this question:
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- 44.
Student feedback the instructor provides generally serves one of two purposes - informational and
- A.
Correctional
- B.
Motivational
- C.
Inspiration
- D.
Educational
Correct Answer
B. MotivationalExplanation
The instructor provides student feedback for two main purposes - informational and correctional. However, in addition to these purposes, the feedback also serves a motivational role. This means that the feedback is intended to inspire and encourage students to continue their efforts and improve their performance. By providing positive reinforcement and highlighting areas of improvement, the instructor aims to motivate students to strive for better results and achieve their goals.Rate this question:
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- 45.
Students usually accept instructor feedback if it is presented with
- A.
Conviction and sincerity
- B.
Care and understanding
- C.
Insults and put downs
- D.
Anger and bias
Correct Answer
A. Conviction and sincerityExplanation
Students are more likely to accept instructor feedback if it is presented with conviction and sincerity. When instructors express their feedback confidently and genuinely, it shows that they believe in what they are saying and that they genuinely care about the student's progress. This creates a positive and supportive learning environment, making it easier for students to accept and act upon the feedback given. Additionally, conviction and sincerity also help to build trust and credibility between the instructor and the student, further enhancing the effectiveness of the feedback.Rate this question:
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Mar 21, 2023Quiz Edited by
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Aug 20, 2015Quiz Created by
Jorge111
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