Expeditionary Communications, Plans And Project Management

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Quizzes Created: 2 | Total Attempts: 271

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1/70 Questions

Which type of Joint Expeditionary Tasking (JET) tasking is a service providing a force or capability in place of another service’s core mission?
- A. Standard unit type code (UTC).
- B. Joint force/capability.
- C. In-lieu-of (ILO).
- D. Ad hoc.

About This Quiz

Project management is a process, and this being said, some steps should be followed to ensure that the desired objective is met. What do you know about expeditionary communications, plans, and project management? Take up this great quiz and get to learn more about project management and what it entails. All the best and keep a lookout for more quizzes See morelike this.

Expeditionary Communications, Plans And Project Management - Quiz

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2.

Which of the following is not a readiness category measured by Air and Space Expeditionary Force Reporting Tool (ART)?
- A. Training.
- B. Personnel.
- C. Home station mission.
- D. Equipment condition.
Correct Answer

A. C. Home station mission.

Explanation

The Air and Space Expeditionary Force Reporting Tool (ART) is used to measure readiness categories for the Air and Space Expeditionary Force. These categories include training, personnel, and equipment condition. However, the readiness category of "home station mission" is not measured by ART. This means that ART does not assess the readiness of the unit's mission at its home station.

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3.

Which is not an initial capability of the open the airbase force module?
- A. Force protection.
- B. Airfield operations.
- C. Force accountability.
- D. Explosive Ordinance Disposal (EOD).
Correct Answer

A. D. Explosive Ordinance Disposal (EOD).

Explanation

The open the airbase force module is designed to provide initial capabilities for various tasks related to airbase operations. Force protection, airfield operations, and force accountability are all initial capabilities of this module, as they are essential for the functioning and security of an airbase. However, explosive ordnance disposal (EOD) is not listed as an initial capability, indicating that it is not a primary function of the module.

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4.

What is the typical pay grade of the deployed Contingency Response Group commander?
- A. O–4.
- B. O–5.
- C. O–6.
- D. O–7.
Correct Answer

A. C. O–6.

Explanation

The typical pay grade of the deployed Contingency Response Group commander is O-6. Pay grades in the military are used to determine the rank and corresponding pay of service members. O-6 corresponds to the rank of Colonel in the United States military.

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5.

What are the source documents that define a needed cyberspace infrastructure capability called?
- A. Processes.
- B. Priorities.
- C. Requirements.
- D. Technical solutions.
Correct Answer

A. C. Requirements.

Explanation

The source documents that define a needed cyberspace infrastructure capability are called requirements. Requirements outline the necessary features, functionalities, and specifications that a cyberspace infrastructure capability must have in order to meet the desired objectives and goals. These documents serve as a guideline for the development and implementation of the capability, ensuring that it aligns with the specific needs and requirements of the organization or system.

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6.

Which of these items is contained in the Project Plan?
- A. Cost management plan.
- B. Allied support plan.
- C. Technical plan.
- D. Material plan.
Correct Answer

A. A. Cost management plan.

Explanation

The correct answer is a. Cost management plan. The project plan is a comprehensive document that outlines the objectives, scope, deliverables, and timeline of a project. It also includes various management plans, such as the cost management plan, which outlines how the project budget will be estimated, allocated, and controlled. The cost management plan is essential for ensuring that the project stays within budget and that resources are allocated effectively.

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7.

What document marks the end of a project and validates the successful installation of a communications system?
- A. AFTO Form 745.
- B. AFTO Form 747.
- C. AFTO Form 749.
- D. AF Form 1747.
Correct Answer

A. B. AFTO Form 747.

Explanation

AFTO Form 747 is the correct answer because it is the document that marks the end of a project and validates the successful installation of a communications system. This form is used in the United States Air Force to document and certify the completion of maintenance or installation tasks. It serves as a record of the work performed and ensures that all necessary steps have been taken for the successful implementation of the communications system.

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8.

Which of the following funding options does the local communications squadron implement using base level support and resources?
- A. Organic.
- B. Contract.
- C. Inorganic.
- D. Self-Help.
Correct Answer

A. D. Self-Help.

Explanation

The local communications squadron implements the funding option of self-help using base level support and resources. Self-help refers to the ability of an organization to use its own resources and capabilities to address its needs and requirements, without relying on external funding or assistance. In this case, the squadron is able to fund its operations and projects internally, utilizing the resources available at the base level. This allows them to maintain control over their funding and prioritize their own needs.

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9.

Which type of planning meeting identifies civil engineering projects including new construction, renovations, or demolitions of facilities, and relocations of organizations?
- A. Communications and Information (C&I) Systems Planning Forum.
- B. Facilities Utilization Board.
- C. Mission Briefings.
- D. Informal Meeting.
Correct Answer

A. B. Facilities Utilization Board.

Explanation

The Facilities Utilization Board is the correct answer because it is a planning meeting that specifically focuses on civil engineering projects such as new construction, renovations, demolitions, and relocations of organizations. The other options do not specifically mention civil engineering projects or facilities planning. The Communications and Information (C&I) Systems Planning Forum focuses on communication and information systems planning, while Mission Briefings are typically used to communicate mission-related information. An Informal Meeting does not have a specific focus or agenda.

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10.

Who initiates the requirements or deployment sourcing process?
- A. Air Force Personnel Center (AFPC) Aerospace Expeditionary Forces (AEF) Center.
- B. Installation Deployment Officer (IDO).
- C. Unit Deployment Monitor (UDM).
- D. Joint Staff.
Correct Answer

A. A. Air Force Personnel Center (AFPC) Aerospace Expeditionary Forces (AEF) Center.

Explanation

The correct answer is a. Air Force Personnel Center (AFPC) Aerospace Expeditionary Forces (AEF) Center. The AFPC AEF Center is responsible for initiating the requirements or deployment sourcing process. They coordinate and manage the deployment of Air Force personnel and resources for expeditionary operations. They ensure that the necessary personnel and equipment are available and properly sourced for deployment.

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11.

Who develops logistics details (LOGDETS) to allow for 30 days of sustainment for unit type codes (UTC)?
- A. Pilot Units.
- B. Joint Planners.
- C. Logistics Readiness Squadron.
- D. Each unit is responsible for building its own LOGDET.
Correct Answer

A. A. Pilot Units.

Explanation

Pilot Units develop logistics details (LOGDETS) to allow for 30 days of sustainment for unit type codes (UTC). This means that these units are responsible for planning and organizing the necessary logistics support to sustain their operations for a period of 30 days. They take into account factors such as transportation, supply chain management, and maintenance support to ensure that the unit has the necessary resources and capabilities to operate effectively for the specified duration.

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12.

The key capabilities for establishing control in the Command and Control module are
- A. force protection and logistics.
- B. intelligence and force protection.
- C. secure communications and intelligence.
- D. secure communications and force accountability.
Correct Answer

A. C. secure communications and intelligence.

Explanation

The key capabilities for establishing control in the Command and Control module are secure communications and intelligence. Secure communications are essential for transmitting sensitive information and commands securely, ensuring that unauthorized individuals cannot intercept or manipulate the communication. Intelligence refers to gathering and analyzing information about the operational environment, enemy forces, and other relevant factors. This information is crucial for making informed decisions and effectively controlling and coordinating military operations.

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13.

The Contingency Response Wing headquarters is located at
- A. Scott AFB, IL.
- B. Travis AFB, CA.
- C. Peterson AFB, CO.
- D. Joint Base McGuire-Dix-Lakehurst, NJ.
Correct Answer

A. D. Joint Base McGuire-Dix-Lakehurst, NJ.
14.

In the operate the air base module, what is the maximum distance an extended site can be located from the base Network Control Center Deployed (NCC-D)?
- A. 2 kilometers (km).
- B. 4 km.
- C. 8 km.
- D. 16 km.
Correct Answer

A. D. 16 km.

Explanation

The maximum distance an extended site can be located from the base Network Control Center Deployed (NCC-D) is 16 km.

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15.

Which of the following is not a career field assigned to engineering installation units?
- A. 3D0X3, Cyber Surety.
- B. 3D1X2, Cyber Transport Systems.
- C. 3D1X3, RF Transmission Systems.
- D. 3D1X7, Cable and Antenna Systems.
Correct Answer

A. A. 3D0X3, Cyber Surety.

Explanation

The correct answer is a. 3D0X3, Cyber Surety. This is because the other options listed (b. 3D1X2, Cyber Transport Systems, c. 3D1X3, RF Transmission Systems, and d. 3D1X7, Cable and Antenna Systems) are all career fields related to engineering installation units. Cyber Surety, on the other hand, is a career field related to cybersecurity and not specifically assigned to engineering installation units.

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16.

Which Engineering Installation (EI) unit has the only flight assigned that supports a 72 hour rapid response force during crisis providing specialized engineering support in telecommunications and electromagnetic spectrum field analysis?
- A. 38 Engineering Squadron (ES).
- B. 38 Contracting Squadron (CONS).
- C. 38 Operations Support Squadron (OSS).
- D. 85 Engineering Installation Squadron (EIS).
Correct Answer

A. D. 85 Engineering Installation Squadron (EIS).

Explanation

The correct answer is d. 85 Engineering Installation Squadron (EIS). This unit is the only one that supports a 72-hour rapid response force during a crisis and provides specialized engineering support in telecommunications and electromagnetic spectrum field analysis.

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17.

All armed forces broadcasting affiliates merged under the American Forces Network
- A. 1942.
- B. 1954.
- C. 1988.
- D. 1998.
Correct Answer

A. D. 1998.

Explanation

The correct answer is d. 1998. This means that all armed forces broadcasting affiliates merged under the American Forces Network in 1998.

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18.

The desired outcome, product, or service of a project is referred to as
- A. the status.
- B. a milestone.
- C. a deliverable.
- D. the final result.
Correct Answer

A. C. a deliverable.

Explanation

The desired outcome, product, or service of a project is referred to as a deliverable. This term is used to describe the tangible or intangible results that are produced at the end of a project. Deliverables are typically specific, measurable, and time-bound, and they represent the key objectives or goals that need to be achieved. They can include documents, reports, software, prototypes, or any other tangible or intangible outputs that are expected to be delivered to the stakeholders.

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19.

Exceptions that could prevent a system from meeting specified operational requirements are termed
- A. major.
- B. minor.
- C. major and minor.
- D. major and critical.
Correct Answer

A. A. major.

Explanation

Exceptions that could prevent a system from meeting specified operational requirements are termed "major". This means that these exceptions are significant and have a significant impact on the system's ability to fulfill its operational requirements. They are not minor issues that can be easily overlooked or resolved. Instead, they are major obstacles that need to be addressed in order to ensure that the system can function properly and meet its intended goals.

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20.

Changes are requested during a project using an
- A. AF Form 1146.
- B. AF Form 1747.
- C. AFTO Form 46.
- D. AFTO Form 47.
Correct Answer

A. A. AF Form 1146.

Explanation

During a project, changes are requested using an AF Form 1146. This form is specifically designed for requesting changes to technical orders, manuals, or other project-related documents. It allows for clear and organized communication between the requester and the appropriate authorities, ensuring that all necessary information is provided and documented. The use of AF Form 1146 helps streamline the change request process and ensures that all changes are properly reviewed and implemented.

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21.

Which Cyberspace Infrastructure Planning System (CIPS) functional area supports enhancements to current capabilities funded and accomplished at the base level generally in less than 30 days and in the form of a maintenance task order?
- A. Work orders.
- B. Trouble tickets.
- C. Infrastructure requirements.
- D. Communications and Information Systems Installation Records (CSIR).
Correct Answer

A. A. Work orders.

Explanation

The Cyberspace Infrastructure Planning System (CIPS) functional area that supports enhancements to current capabilities funded and accomplished at the base level generally in less than 30 days and in the form of a maintenance task order is work orders. Work orders are used to initiate and track maintenance tasks, allowing for efficient and timely completion of enhancements to the cyberspace infrastructure.

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22.

When tasked by the supported combatant commander which type of plan is prepared in support of the contingency plans?
- A. Concept Plan.
- B. Functional Plan.
- C. Supporting Plan.
- D. Operational Plan.
Correct Answer

A. C. Supporting Plan.

Explanation

When tasked by the supported combatant commander, a supporting plan is prepared in support of the contingency plans. A supporting plan is a detailed plan that provides specific guidance and resources to execute a contingency plan. It outlines the specific actions, tasks, and responsibilities of various units and organizations involved in the execution of the contingency plan. The supporting plan ensures that all necessary resources and support are provided to successfully implement the contingency plan and achieve the desired objectives.

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23.

Which of the following is not a step required in the modification proposal process?
- A. Request for action and organization validation.
- B. Using command and lead command validation.
- C. Work center manager certification and approval.
- D. Program manager review and approval of technical requirements and solution.
Correct Answer

A. C. Work center manager certification and approval.
24.

As a minimum, a support agreement must be reviewed how soon after its effective date?
- A. 6 months.
- B. 1 year.
- C. 2 years.
- D. 3 years.
Correct Answer

A. D. 3 years.

Explanation

A support agreement must be reviewed at least 3 years after its effective date. This ensures that the agreement is still relevant and meets the current needs and requirements of both parties involved. Reviewing the agreement after a certain period of time allows for any necessary updates or modifications to be made, ensuring that the support agreement remains effective and beneficial for both parties.

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25.

Who is responsible for assigning competent and capable functional experts as primary and alternate Contract Officer Representatives (COR)?
- A. Contracting Officer Representative.
- B. Functional Director/Commander.
- C. Quality Assurance Evaluator.
- D. Contracting Office.
Correct Answer

A. B. Functional Director/Commander.

Explanation

The responsibility of assigning competent and capable functional experts as primary and alternate Contract Officer Representatives (COR) lies with the Functional Director/Commander. This individual is in charge of overseeing the specific functional area and has the knowledge and expertise to select individuals who are qualified to fulfill the COR role. The Contracting Officer Representative may be involved in the process of selecting the COR, but the ultimate responsibility lies with the Functional Director/Commander.

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26.

Who is responsible for inspecting all “real property” on an installation to ensure it meets applicable standards?
- A. Base Civil Engineering.
- B. Gaining Work Center.
- C. Contracting Office.
- D. Quality Assurance.
Correct Answer

A. A. Base Civil Engineering.

Explanation

Base Civil Engineering is responsible for inspecting all "real property" on an installation to ensure it meets applicable standards. They are in charge of managing and maintaining the infrastructure and facilities on the base, including conducting regular inspections to ensure compliance with safety and quality standards. This includes inspections of buildings, utilities, roads, and other physical assets. The Base Civil Engineering team plays a crucial role in maintaining the overall infrastructure of the installation and ensuring the safety and functionality of the facilities.

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27.

Which War and Mobilization Plan (WMP) volume provides a consolidated reference source for general policies and guidance for mobilization planning and the support of combat forces in time of war?
- A. Volume 1.
- B. Volume 2.
- C. Volume 3.
- D. Volume 4.
Correct Answer

A. A. Volume 1.

Explanation

Volume 1 is the correct answer because it provides a consolidated reference source for general policies and guidance for mobilization planning and the support of combat forces in time of war.

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28.

Which of the following is categorized as a small unmanned aerial system (UAS)?
- A. MQ–9 Reaper.
- B. RQ–11B Raven.
- C. MQ–1B Predator.
- D. RQ–4B Global Hawk.
Correct Answer

A. B. RQ–11B Raven.

Explanation

The RQ-11B Raven is categorized as a small unmanned aerial system (UAS) because it is a lightweight, hand-launched surveillance drone that is commonly used by the military for short-range reconnaissance missions. It is designed for low-altitude, low-speed operations and has a small size and weight, making it easily deployable and maneuverable in various environments. The other options, such as the MQ-9 Reaper, MQ-1B Predator, and RQ-4B Global Hawk, are larger and more advanced unmanned aerial systems that are typically used for long-range surveillance and strike missions.

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29.

What Methods and Procedures Technical Order (MPTO) defines project management as the application of knowledge, skills, tools, and techniques to project activities to meet project objectives?
- A. MPTO 00–33A–1001.
- B. MPTO 00–33A–1002.
- C. MPTO 00–33A–2001.
- D. MPTO 00–33A–2002.
Correct Answer

A. A. MPTO 00–33A–1001.
30.

What is critical to controlling and ensuring the overall project progresses accordingly, regardless of the phase?b. Controlling.
- A. Follow-up.
- B. Controlling.
- C. Organization.
- D. Documenting.
Correct Answer

A. A. Follow-up.

Explanation

Follow-up is critical to controlling and ensuring the overall project progresses accordingly, regardless of the phase. It involves regularly checking and monitoring the progress of different project activities, ensuring that tasks are completed on time, and addressing any issues or risks that may arise. By following up, project managers can maintain control over the project and take necessary actions to keep it on track.

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31.

Who implements a technical solution for a base?
- A. Project monitor.
- B. Project manager.
- C. Communication squadron.
- D. Implementing organization.
Correct Answer

A. D. Implementing organization.

Explanation

The implementing organization is responsible for implementing a technical solution for a base. They are the ones who actually carry out the tasks and activities required to put the solution into action. The project monitor oversees the progress and performance of the project, the project manager coordinates and manages the project as a whole, and the communication squadron may be involved in providing communication support, but it is ultimately the implementing organization that executes the technical solution.

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32.

Engineering support for MAJCOMs is provided by Cyberspace Systems Integrator Tier
- A. 1.
- B. 2.
- C. 3.
- D. 4.
Correct Answer

A. B. 2.

Explanation

The correct answer is b. 2. This is because the question is asking for the tier of engineering support provided by the Cyberspace Systems Integrator for MAJCOMs. The answer choice 2 is the correct option as it indicates that the engineering support provided is at the second tier. The other answer choices do not provide the correct tier of engineering support.

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33.

Which guidance directs the use of Cyberspace Infrastructure Planning System (CIPS)?
- A. AFI 33–115.
- B. AFI 33–150.
- C. TO 00–33D–3001.
- D. TO 00–33D–3004.
Correct Answer

A. B. AFI 33–150.

Explanation

AFI 33-150 is the correct answer because it is the Air Force Instruction that specifically directs the use of the Cyberspace Infrastructure Planning System (CIPS). This guidance provides the necessary instructions and procedures for planning, managing, and maintaining the cyberspace infrastructure within the Air Force. The other options, AFI 33-115, TO 00-33D-3001, and TO 00-33D-3004, do not pertain to the use of CIPS and are therefore incorrect.

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34.

As a minimum which of the following is not required to review and validate technical solutions?
- A. Base Communications Systems Officer.
- B. Affected Work Center.
- C. Base Civil Engineer.
- D. Project Managers.
Correct Answer

A. C. Base Civil Engineer.

Explanation

The Base Civil Engineer is not required to review and validate technical solutions. This is because their role primarily focuses on infrastructure and construction projects, rather than the technical aspects of solutions. The other options, such as the Base Communications Systems Officer, Affected Work Center, and Project Managers, are more directly involved in reviewing and validating technical solutions in their respective areas of expertise.

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35.

Which of the following is not a cause for requirements to be considered special?
- A. Requires services from outside agencies.
- B. Mobility (deployment) equipment.
- C. Requires additional manpower.
- D. Requires additional funding.
Correct Answer

A. D. Requires additional funding.

Explanation

The correct answer is d. Requires additional funding. This is because the question asks for a cause that does not make requirements special. While the other options (a, b, c) all mention factors that can make requirements special, such as relying on outside agencies, needing specific equipment, or requiring extra manpower, the need for additional funding is not necessarily a unique or special requirement. Many projects or initiatives require additional funding, so it is not a characteristic that sets requirements apart as special.

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36.

If instructions are not detailed enough to warrant a separate annex, information on base functional area support is placed in the
- A. Programming Plan (PPLAN).
- B. Program Action Directive (PAD).
- C. Operations Plan (OPLAN) major paragraph.
- D. Time Phased Force and Deployment Data (TPFDD).
Correct Answer

A. C. Operations Plan (OPLAN) major paragraph.

Explanation

The correct answer is c. Operations Plan (OPLAN) major paragraph. This is because if the instructions are not detailed enough to require a separate annex, the information on base functional area support is placed within the Operations Plan (OPLAN) major paragraph. The OPLAN is a comprehensive document that outlines the operational objectives, tasks, and support requirements for a specific operation or mission. Therefore, it is the appropriate place to include information on base functional area support when detailed instructions are not necessary.

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37.

Which of the following is not an exception to the “full and open competition” stipulation of the Competition in Contracting Act?
- A. Unusual or compelling urgency.
- B. Unit commander’s interest.
- C. National security interests.
- D. Sole Source.
Correct Answer

A. B. Unit commander’s interest.

Explanation

The correct answer is b. Unit commander's interest. This is not an exception to the "full and open competition" stipulation of the Competition in Contracting Act. The act requires that government contracts be awarded through a competitive process to ensure fairness and transparency. While unusual or compelling urgency, national security interests, and sole source situations can justify exceptions to this requirement, the unit commander's interest does not meet the criteria for an exception.

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38.

Who is responsible for providing training to Quality Assurance (QA) personnel and functional directors/commanders?
- A. Quality Assurance Program Coordinator.
- B. Contracting Officer Representative.
- C. Quality Assurance Evaluator.
- D. Unit Contract Monitor.
Correct Answer

A. A. Quality Assurance Program Coordinator.

Explanation

The Quality Assurance Program Coordinator is responsible for providing training to both Quality Assurance (QA) personnel and functional directors/commanders. They are in charge of overseeing the quality assurance program and ensuring that all personnel involved are properly trained and equipped with the necessary knowledge and skills to carry out their responsibilities effectively. This includes providing training on quality assurance processes, procedures, and standards to ensure that all personnel involved in the program are aware of their roles and responsibilities.

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39.

The cost threshold for a minor construction project not using Operation and Maintenance (O&M) funds is
- A. $750 thousand (K).
- B. $1 million (M).
- C. $1.5 M.
- D. $5 M.
Correct Answer

A. C. $1.5 M.

Explanation

The cost threshold for a minor construction project not using Operation and Maintenance (O&M) funds is $1.5 million (M). This means that any construction project with a cost below $1.5 million would be considered a minor project and would not require the use of O&M funds. O&M funds are typically used for the operation and maintenance of existing facilities, so projects below this cost threshold would not require additional funding for maintenance purposes.

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40.

Which deployment planning process develops predetermined responses to potential crises, determines forces required to achieve objectives, prepares deployment plans, and continually evaluates selected courses of action (COA)?
- A. Deliberate planning.
- B. Crisis action planning.
- C. Mobilization planning.
- D. Force rotational planning.
Correct Answer

A. A. Deliberate planning.

Explanation

Deliberate planning is the correct answer because it involves developing predetermined responses to potential crises, determining the forces required to achieve objectives, preparing deployment plans, and continually evaluating selected courses of action. This process is systematic and thorough, allowing for effective decision-making and preparedness in the face of potential crises. Crisis action planning, mobilization planning, and force rotational planning may involve some elements of deployment planning, but they do not encompass the full range of activities described in the question.

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41.

Within how many days after open the airbase does the operate the airbase force module arrive, and when is delivery estimated to be complete?
- A. 2 days, 7 days.
- B. 2 days, 14 days.
- C. 7 days, 14 days.
- D. 14 days, 30 days.
Correct Answer

A. B. 2 days, 14 days.

Explanation

The airbase force module is expected to arrive within 2 days after the airbase is opened. The estimated completion of the delivery is 14 days.

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42.

Which force module contains support forces that would generally not arrive until 30 days after the deployed location is established?
- A. Generate the mission.
- B. Establish the airbase.
- C. Operate the airbase.
- D. Robust the airbase.
Correct Answer

A. D. Robust the airbase.

Explanation

The force module that contains support forces that would generally not arrive until 30 days after the deployed location is established is the "Robust the airbase" force module. This module focuses on strengthening and fortifying the airbase, which includes the arrival of additional support forces. These forces are typically not immediately available upon establishing the location but are brought in later to enhance the security and operational capabilities of the airbase.

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43.

Which force module supported by Theater Deployable Communications (TDC) is established within 48 hours and supports 50 to150 users in a café environment?
- A. Command and control.
- B. Operate the airbase.
- C. Robust the airbase.
- D. Open the airbase.
Correct Answer

A. A. Command and control.

Explanation

The correct answer is a. Command and control. The force module supported by Theater Deployable Communications (TDC) that can be established within 48 hours and supports 50 to 150 users in a café environment is the Command and control force module. This module is responsible for coordinating and directing military operations, ensuring effective communication and decision-making in a deployed environment. It enables commanders to have real-time situational awareness and control over their forces, allowing them to make informed decisions and execute missions successfully.

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44.

What title is given to anyone assigned to assist the program manager in fulfilling program management duties?
- A. Project monitor.
- B. Project manager.
- C. Program action officer.
- D. Program action monitor.
Correct Answer

A. C. Program action officer.

Explanation

A program action officer is a title given to someone who assists the program manager in fulfilling program management duties. This individual is responsible for taking action and implementing strategies to ensure the successful execution of the program. They work closely with the program manager to coordinate activities, monitor progress, and make necessary adjustments to achieve program goals. The role of a program action officer is crucial in supporting the program manager and ensuring the smooth operation of the program.

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45.

In which type of plan do writers fully develop the mission, situation, and concept of operations for accomplishing assigned mission in the event of future situation, but only summarize the mobility and logistic requirements?
- A. Concept Plan.
- B. Functional Plan.
- C. Supporting Plan.
- D. Operational Plan.
Correct Answer

A. A. Concept Plan.

Explanation

In a concept plan, writers fully develop the mission, situation, and concept of operations for accomplishing the assigned mission in the event of a future situation. However, they only summarize the mobility and logistic requirements. This means that the focus of the concept plan is on the overall strategy and approach to achieving the mission, rather than the specific details of how resources will be mobilized and logistics will be handled.

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46.

What area of the Annex K is used to detail wartime procedures for maintaining the communications systems under contract during peacetime?
- A. Special Measures.
- B. Administration.
- C. Assumptions.
- D. Logistics.
Correct Answer

A. D. Logistics.

Explanation

The correct answer is d. Logistics. In Annex K, the area used to detail wartime procedures for maintaining the communications systems under contract during peacetime is the Logistics section. This section focuses on the logistical aspects of maintaining and supporting the communications systems, including supply chain management, equipment maintenance, and transportation. It outlines the procedures and protocols that need to be followed to ensure the smooth operation of the communications systems during wartime.

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47.

The AF Form 1067 is used for defining, validating, and approving requirements for
- A. safety modifications.
- B. T–1 temporary modifications.
- C. T–2 temporary modifications.
- D. all temporary and permanent modifications.
Correct Answer

A. D. all temporary and permanent modifications.

Explanation

The AF Form 1067 is a document that is used to define, validate, and approve requirements for modifications. These modifications can be either temporary or permanent. Option d, "all temporary and permanent modifications," encompasses both types of modifications and is therefore the correct answer.

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48.

Which modification type evaluates, demonstrates, or exercises the technical performance, operational effectiveness, and/or the operational suitability of developmental and/or test materiel (hardware, firmware and software) capabilities?
- A. Safety modifications.
- B. T–1 temporary modification.
- C. T–2 temporary modification.
- D. All temporary and permanent modifications.
Correct Answer

A. C. T–2 temporary modification.

Explanation

The T-2 temporary modification evaluates, demonstrates, or exercises the technical performance, operational effectiveness, and/or the operational suitability of developmental and/or test materiel capabilities. Safety modifications may address safety concerns but do not necessarily evaluate technical performance or operational effectiveness. T-1 temporary modification is not mentioned as an option for this purpose. The answer d, which includes all temporary and permanent modifications, is incorrect because not all modifications necessarily evaluate technical performance or operational effectiveness.

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49.

Within how many days of the delivery date must a fully researched, completed requirement for a fixed-price and cost reimbursement contract with a monetary value of $100,000 be submitted to the Base Contracting Office?
- A. 10 calendar days.
- B. 30 calendar days.
- C. 35 calendar days.
- D. 50 calendar days.
Correct Answer

A. C. 35 calendar days.

Explanation

A fully researched, completed requirement for a fixed-price and cost reimbursement contract with a monetary value of $100,000 must be submitted to the Base Contracting Office within 35 calendar days of the delivery date.

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Jan 04, 2017

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Expeditionary Communications, Plans And Project Management

Which type of Joint Expeditionary Tasking (JET) tasking is a service providing a force or capability in place of another service’s core mission?

Quiz Preview

Which of the following is not a readiness category measured by Air and Space Expeditionary Force Reporting Tool (ART)?

Which is not an initial capability of the open the airbase force module?

What is the typical pay grade of the deployed Contingency Response Group commander?

What are the source documents that define a needed cyberspace infrastructure capability called?

Which of these items is contained in the Project Plan?

What document marks the end of a project and validates the successful installation of a communications system?

Which of the following funding options does the local communications squadron implement using base level support and resources?

Which type of planning meeting identifies civil engineering projects including new construction, renovations, or demolitions of facilities, and relocations of organizations?

Who initiates the requirements or deployment sourcing process?

Who develops logistics details (LOGDETS) to allow for 30 days of sustainment for unit type codes (UTC)?

The key capabilities for establishing control in the Command and Control module are

The Contingency Response Wing headquarters is located at

In the operate the air base module, what is the maximum distance an extended site can be located from the base Network Control Center Deployed (NCC-D)?

Which of the following is not a career field assigned to engineering installation units?

Which Engineering Installation (EI) unit has the only flight assigned that supports a 72 hour rapid response force during crisis providing specialized engineering support in telecommunications and electromagnetic spectrum field analysis?

All armed forces broadcasting affiliates merged under the American Forces Network

The desired outcome, product, or service of a project is referred to as

Exceptions that could prevent a system from meeting specified operational requirements are termed

Changes are requested during a project using an

Which Cyberspace Infrastructure Planning System (CIPS) functional area supports enhancements to current capabilities funded and accomplished at the base level generally in less than 30 days and in the form of a maintenance task order?

When tasked by the supported combatant commander which type of plan is prepared in support of the contingency plans?

Which of the following is not a step required in the modification proposal process?

As a minimum, a support agreement must be reviewed how soon after its effective date?

Who is responsible for assigning competent and capable functional experts as primary and alternate Contract Officer Representatives (COR)?

Who is responsible for inspecting all “real property” on an installation to ensure it meets applicable standards?

Which War and Mobilization Plan (WMP) volume provides a consolidated reference source for general policies and guidance for mobilization planning and the support of combat forces in time of war?

Which of the following is categorized as a small unmanned aerial system (UAS)?

What Methods and Procedures Technical Order (MPTO) defines project management as the application of knowledge, skills, tools, and techniques to project activities to meet project objectives?

What is critical to controlling and ensuring the overall project progresses accordingly, regardless of the phase?b. Controlling.

Who implements a technical solution for a base?

Engineering support for MAJCOMs is provided by Cyberspace Systems Integrator Tier

Which guidance directs the use of Cyberspace Infrastructure Planning System (CIPS)?

As a minimum which of the following is not required to review and validate technical solutions?

Which of the following is not a cause for requirements to be considered special?

If instructions are not detailed enough to warrant a separate annex, information on base functional area support is placed in the

Which of the following is not an exception to the “full and open competition” stipulation of the Competition in Contracting Act?

Who is responsible for providing training to Quality Assurance (QA) personnel and functional directors/commanders?

The cost threshold for a minor construction project not using Operation and Maintenance (O&M) funds is

Which deployment planning process develops predetermined responses to potential crises, determines forces required to achieve objectives, prepares deployment plans, and continually evaluates selected courses of action (COA)?

Within how many days after open the airbase does the operate the airbase force module arrive, and when is delivery estimated to be complete?

Which force module contains support forces that would generally not arrive until 30 days after the deployed location is established?

Which force module supported by Theater Deployable Communications (TDC) is established within 48 hours and supports 50 to150 users in a café environment?

What title is given to anyone assigned to assist the program manager in fulfilling program management duties?

In which type of plan do writers fully develop the mission, situation, and concept of operations for accomplishing assigned mission in the event of future situation, but only summarize the mobility and logistic requirements?

What area of the Annex K is used to detail wartime procedures for maintaining the communications systems under contract during peacetime?

The AF Form 1067 is used for defining, validating, and approving requirements for

Which modification type evaluates, demonstrates, or exercises the technical performance, operational effectiveness, and/or the operational suitability of developmental and/or test materiel (hardware, firmware and software) capabilities?

Within how many days of the delivery date must a fully researched, completed requirement for a fixed-price and cost reimbursement contract with a monetary value of $100,000 be submitted to the Base Contracting Office?