Expeditionary Communications, Plans And Project Management
Project management is a process, and this being said, some steps should be followed to ensure that the desired objective is met. What do you know about expeditionary communications, plans, and project management? Take up this great quiz and get to learn more about project management and what it entails. All the best and keep a lookout for more quizzes like this.
Questions and Answers
- 1.
Which deployment planning process develops predetermined responses to potential crises, determines forces required to achieve objectives, prepares deployment plans, and continually evaluates selected courses of action (COA)?
- A.
A. Deliberate planning.
- B.
B. Crisis action planning.
- C.
C. Mobilization planning.
- D.
D. Force rotational planning.
Correct Answer
A. A. Deliberate planning.Explanation
Deliberate planning is the correct answer because it involves developing predetermined responses to potential crises, determining the forces required to achieve objectives, preparing deployment plans, and continually evaluating selected courses of action. This process is systematic and thorough, allowing for effective decision-making and preparedness in the face of potential crises. Crisis action planning, mobilization planning, and force rotational planning may involve some elements of deployment planning, but they do not encompass the full range of activities described in the question.Rate this question:
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- 2.
Which War and Mobilization Plan (WMP) volume provides a consolidated reference source for general policies and guidance for mobilization planning and the support of combat forces in time of war?
- A.
A. Volume 1.
- B.
B. Volume 2.
- C.
C. Volume 3.
- D.
D. Volume 4.
Correct Answer
A. A. Volume 1.Explanation
Volume 1 is the correct answer because it provides a consolidated reference source for general policies and guidance for mobilization planning and the support of combat forces in time of war.Rate this question:
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- 3.
Who initiates the requirements or deployment sourcing process?
- A.
A. Air Force Personnel Center (AFPC) Aerospace Expeditionary Forces (AEF) Center.
- B.
B. Installation Deployment Officer (IDO).
- C.
C. Unit Deployment Monitor (UDM).
- D.
D. Joint Staff.
Correct Answer
A. A. Air Force Personnel Center (AFPC) Aerospace Expeditionary Forces (AEF) Center.Explanation
The correct answer is a. Air Force Personnel Center (AFPC) Aerospace Expeditionary Forces (AEF) Center. The AFPC AEF Center is responsible for initiating the requirements or deployment sourcing process. They coordinate and manage the deployment of Air Force personnel and resources for expeditionary operations. They ensure that the necessary personnel and equipment are available and properly sourced for deployment.Rate this question:
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- 4.
Which type of Joint Expeditionary Tasking (JET) tasking is a service providing a force or capability in place of another service’s core mission?
- A.
A. Standard unit type code (UTC).
- B.
B. Joint force/capability.
- C.
C. In-lieu-of (ILO).
- D.
D. Ad hoc.
Correct Answer
B. B. Joint force/capability.Explanation
The correct answer is b. Joint force/capability. This type of Joint Expeditionary Tasking (JET) tasking involves one service providing a force or capability in place of another service's core mission. This allows for a more efficient and coordinated use of resources and expertise across different branches of the military.Rate this question:
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- 5.
Which of these is not an area measured and reported by Status of Resources and Training System (SORTS)?
- A.
A. Training.
- B.
B. Personnel.
- C.
C. Facility condition.
- D.
D. Equipment condition.
Correct Answer
C. C. Facility condition.Explanation
The Status of Resources and Training System (SORTS) is a system used to measure and report various areas related to resources and training. It includes measuring and reporting on training, personnel, and equipment condition. However, facility condition is not an area measured and reported by SORTS.Rate this question:
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- 6.
Which of the following is not a readiness category measured by Air and Space Expeditionary Force Reporting Tool (ART)?
- A.
A. Training.
- B.
B. Personnel.
- C.
C. Home station mission.
- D.
D. Equipment condition.
Correct Answer
C. C. Home station mission.Explanation
The Air and Space Expeditionary Force Reporting Tool (ART) is used to measure readiness categories for the Air and Space Expeditionary Force. These categories include training, personnel, and equipment condition. However, the readiness category of "home station mission" is not measured by ART. This means that ART does not assess the readiness of the unit's mission at its home station.Rate this question:
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- 7.
The Governing guidance for Air and Space Expeditionary Force Reporting Tool (ART) reporting is AFI
- A.
A. 10–201.
- B.
B. 10–244.
- C.
C. 10–401.
- D.
D. 10–403.
Correct Answer
B. B. 10–244.Explanation
The correct answer is b. 10-244. This answer is based on the given information that the governing guidance for Air and Space Expeditionary Force Reporting Tool (ART) reporting is AFI. The AFI (Air Force Instruction) number that corresponds to this reporting tool is 10-244.Rate this question:
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- 8.
Which document provides detailed information and instructions on Designated Operational Capability (DOC) statements?
- A.
A. AFI 10–201.
- B.
B. AFI 10–244.
- C.
C. AFI 10–401.
- D.
D. AFI 10–403.
Correct Answer
A. A. AFI 10–201.Explanation
AFI 10-201 provides detailed information and instructions on Designated Operational Capability (DOC) statements.Rate this question:
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- 9.
Who develops logistics details (LOGDETS) to allow for 30 days of sustainment for unit type codes (UTC)?
- A.
A. Pilot Units.
- B.
B. Joint Planners.
- C.
C. Logistics Readiness Squadron.
- D.
D. Each unit is responsible for building its own LOGDET.
Correct Answer
A. A. Pilot Units.Explanation
Pilot Units develop logistics details (LOGDETS) to allow for 30 days of sustainment for unit type codes (UTC). This means that these units are responsible for planning and organizing the necessary logistics support to sustain their operations for a period of 30 days. They take into account factors such as transportation, supply chain management, and maintenance support to ensure that the unit has the necessary resources and capabilities to operate effectively for the specified duration.Rate this question:
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- 10.
Which is not an initial capability of the open the airbase force module?
- A.
A. Force protection.
- B.
B. Airfield operations.
- C.
C. Force accountability.
- D.
D. Explosive Ordinance Disposal (EOD).
Correct Answer
D. D. Explosive Ordinance Disposal (EOD).Explanation
The open the airbase force module is designed to provide initial capabilities for various tasks related to airbase operations. Force protection, airfield operations, and force accountability are all initial capabilities of this module, as they are essential for the functioning and security of an airbase. However, explosive ordnance disposal (EOD) is not listed as an initial capability, indicating that it is not a primary function of the module.Rate this question:
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- 11.
The key capabilities for establishing control in the Command and Control module are
- A.
A. force protection and logistics.
- B.
B. intelligence and force protection.
- C.
C. secure communications and intelligence.
- D.
D. secure communications and force accountability.
Correct Answer
C. C. secure communications and intelligence.Explanation
The key capabilities for establishing control in the Command and Control module are secure communications and intelligence. Secure communications are essential for transmitting sensitive information and commands securely, ensuring that unauthorized individuals cannot intercept or manipulate the communication. Intelligence refers to gathering and analyzing information about the operational environment, enemy forces, and other relevant factors. This information is crucial for making informed decisions and effectively controlling and coordinating military operations.Rate this question:
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- 12.
Which force module facilitates integration of open the airbase and command and control force module capabilities to enable the airfield to generate air support to accomplish its assigned mission?
- A.
A. Robust the airbase.
- B.
B. Operate the airbase.
- C.
C. Establish the airbase.
- D.
D. Generate the mission.
Correct Answer
C. C. Establish the airbase.Explanation
The force module that facilitates integration of open the airbase and command and control force module capabilities to enable the airfield to generate air support to accomplish its assigned mission is the "Establish the airbase" force module. This module is responsible for setting up and organizing the necessary infrastructure, equipment, and personnel at the airbase to support air operations. It involves tasks such as constructing runways, hangars, and support facilities, as well as coordinating the movement and deployment of aircraft and personnel.Rate this question:
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- 13.
Within how many days after open the airbase does the operate the airbase force module arrive, and when is delivery estimated to be complete?
- A.
A. 2 days, 7 days.
- B.
B. 2 days, 14 days.
- C.
C. 7 days, 14 days.
- D.
D. 14 days, 30 days.
Correct Answer
B. B. 2 days, 14 days.Explanation
The airbase force module is expected to arrive within 2 days after the airbase is opened. The estimated completion of the delivery is 14 days.Rate this question:
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- 14.
Which force module contains support forces that would generally not arrive until 30 days after the deployed location is established?
- A.
A. Generate the mission.
- B.
B. Establish the airbase.
- C.
C. Operate the airbase.
- D.
D. Robust the airbase.
Correct Answer
D. D. Robust the airbase.Explanation
The force module that contains support forces that would generally not arrive until 30 days after the deployed location is established is the "Robust the airbase" force module. This module focuses on strengthening and fortifying the airbase, which includes the arrival of additional support forces. These forces are typically not immediately available upon establishing the location but are brought in later to enhance the security and operational capabilities of the airbase.Rate this question:
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- 15.
The Contingency Response Wing headquarters is located at
- A.
A. Scott AFB, IL.
- B.
B. Travis AFB, CA.
- C.
C. Peterson AFB, CO.
- D.
D. Joint Base McGuire-Dix-Lakehurst, NJ.
Correct Answer
D. D. Joint Base McGuire-Dix-Lakehurst, NJ. -
- 16.
What is the typical pay grade of the deployed Contingency Response Group commander?
- A.
A. O–4.
- B.
B. O–5.
- C.
C. O–6.
- D.
D. O–7.
Correct Answer
C. C. O–6.Explanation
The typical pay grade of the deployed Contingency Response Group commander is O-6. Pay grades in the military are used to determine the rank and corresponding pay of service members. O-6 corresponds to the rank of Colonel in the United States military.Rate this question:
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- 17.
Which force module supported by Theater Deployable Communications (TDC) is established within 48 hours and supports 50 to150 users in a café environment?
- A.
A. Command and control.
- B.
B. Operate the airbase.
- C.
C. Robust the airbase.
- D.
D. Open the airbase.
Correct Answer
A. A. Command and control.Explanation
The correct answer is a. Command and control. The force module supported by Theater Deployable Communications (TDC) that can be established within 48 hours and supports 50 to 150 users in a café environment is the Command and control force module. This module is responsible for coordinating and directing military operations, ensuring effective communication and decision-making in a deployed environment. It enables commanders to have real-time situational awareness and control over their forces, allowing them to make informed decisions and execute missions successfully.Rate this question:
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- 18.
In the operate the air base module, what is the maximum distance an extended site can be located from the base Network Control Center Deployed (NCC-D)?
- A.
A. 2 kilometers (km).
- B.
B. 4 km.
- C.
C. 8 km.
- D.
D. 16 km.
Correct Answer
D. D. 16 km.Explanation
The maximum distance an extended site can be located from the base Network Control Center Deployed (NCC-D) is 16 km.Rate this question:
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- 19.
Which is not a division of the Air and Space Operations Center?
- A.
A. Strategy.
- B.
B. Combat plans.
- C.
C. Combat support.
- D.
D. Combat operations.
Correct Answer
C. C. Combat support.Explanation
The Air and Space Operations Center is responsible for coordinating and executing air and space operations. The divisions within the center are focused on different aspects of these operations. Strategy involves developing long-term plans and objectives, Combat plans involve developing and coordinating tactical plans, and Combat operations involve executing those plans in real-time. Combat support, on the other hand, refers to the functions that provide logistical, intelligence, and other support to the combat operations. Therefore, Combat support is not a division of the Air and Space Operations Center.Rate this question:
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- 20.
Which of the following is categorized as a small unmanned aerial system (UAS)?
- A.
A. MQ–9 Reaper.
- B.
B. RQ–11B Raven.
- C.
C. MQ–1B Predator.
- D.
D. RQ–4B Global Hawk.
Correct Answer
B. B. RQ–11B Raven.Explanation
The RQ-11B Raven is categorized as a small unmanned aerial system (UAS) because it is a lightweight, hand-launched surveillance drone that is commonly used by the military for short-range reconnaissance missions. It is designed for low-altitude, low-speed operations and has a small size and weight, making it easily deployable and maneuverable in various environments. The other options, such as the MQ-9 Reaper, MQ-1B Predator, and RQ-4B Global Hawk, are larger and more advanced unmanned aerial systems that are typically used for long-range surveillance and strike missions.Rate this question:
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- 21.
Which of the following is not a career field assigned to engineering installation units?
- A.
A. 3D0X3, Cyber Surety.
- B.
B. 3D1X2, Cyber Transport Systems.
- C.
C. 3D1X3, RF Transmission Systems.
- D.
D. 3D1X7, Cable and Antenna Systems.
Correct Answer
A. A. 3D0X3, Cyber Surety.Explanation
The correct answer is a. 3D0X3, Cyber Surety. This is because the other options listed (b. 3D1X2, Cyber Transport Systems, c. 3D1X3, RF Transmission Systems, and d. 3D1X7, Cable and Antenna Systems) are all career fields related to engineering installation units. Cyber Surety, on the other hand, is a career field related to cybersecurity and not specifically assigned to engineering installation units.Rate this question:
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- 22.
Which Engineering Installation (EI) unit has the only flight assigned that supports a 72 hour rapid response force during crisis providing specialized engineering support in telecommunications and electromagnetic spectrum field analysis?
- A.
A. 38 Engineering Squadron (ES).
- B.
B. 38 Contracting Squadron (CONS).
- C.
C. 38 Operations Support Squadron (OSS).
- D.
D. 85 Engineering Installation Squadron (EIS).
Correct Answer
D. D. 85 Engineering Installation Squadron (EIS).Explanation
The correct answer is d. 85 Engineering Installation Squadron (EIS). This unit is the only one that supports a 72-hour rapid response force during a crisis and provides specialized engineering support in telecommunications and electromagnetic spectrum field analysis.Rate this question:
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- 23.
All armed forces broadcasting affiliates merged under the American Forces Network
- A.
A. 1942.
- B.
B. 1954.
- C.
C. 1988.
- D.
D. 1998.
Correct Answer
D. D. 1998.Explanation
The correct answer is d. 1998. This means that all armed forces broadcasting affiliates merged under the American Forces Network in 1998.Rate this question:
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- 24.
What Methods and Procedures Technical Order (MPTO) defines project management as the application of knowledge, skills, tools, and techniques to project activities to meet project objectives?
- A.
A. MPTO 00–33A–1001.
- B.
B. MPTO 00–33A–1002.
- C.
C. MPTO 00–33A–2001.
- D.
D. MPTO 00–33A–2002.
Correct Answer
A. A. MPTO 00–33A–1001. -
- 25.
The five phases of Project Management are initiate,
- A.
A. funding, execute, close, and control.
- B.
B. plan, execute, monitor, and control.
- C.
C. plan, execute, close, and control.
- D.
D. plan, control, close, and support.
Correct Answer
C. C. plan, execute, close, and control.Explanation
The correct answer is c. plan, execute, close, and control. This answer accurately represents the five phases of project management. The first phase is planning, where the project objectives and scope are defined. The second phase is execution, where the project plan is put into action. The third phase is closure, where the project is completed and delivered to the customer. The fourth phase is control, where progress is monitored and adjustments are made as necessary to ensure the project stays on track.Rate this question:
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- 26.
What does the project manager provide in the Initiate Phase?
- A.
A. Funding.
- B.
B. Technical solution.
- C.
C. Requirements management plan.
- D.
D. Answers, guidance, and education.
Correct Answer
C. C. Requirements management plan.Explanation
In the Initiate Phase, the project manager provides a requirements management plan. This plan outlines how the project team will gather, document, and manage the requirements throughout the project lifecycle. It includes processes and procedures for identifying, analyzing, prioritizing, and validating requirements. The requirements management plan ensures that the project team has a clear understanding of what needs to be delivered and how it will be managed, helping to prevent scope creep and ensure project success. Funding, technical solution, and answers, guidance, and education are not specifically provided by the project manager in this phase.Rate this question:
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- 27.
What are the source documents that define a needed cyberspace infrastructure capability called?
- A.
A. Processes.
- B.
B. Priorities.
- C.
C. Requirements.
- D.
D. Technical solutions.
Correct Answer
C. C. Requirements.Explanation
The source documents that define a needed cyberspace infrastructure capability are called requirements. Requirements outline the necessary features, functionalities, and specifications that a cyberspace infrastructure capability must have in order to meet the desired objectives and goals. These documents serve as a guideline for the development and implementation of the capability, ensuring that it aligns with the specific needs and requirements of the organization or system.Rate this question:
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- 28.
Which of these items is contained in the Project Plan?
- A.
A. Cost management plan.
- B.
B. Allied support plan.
- C.
C. Technical plan.
- D.
D. Material plan.
Correct Answer
A. A. Cost management plan.Explanation
The correct answer is a. Cost management plan. The project plan is a comprehensive document that outlines the objectives, scope, deliverables, and timeline of a project. It also includes various management plans, such as the cost management plan, which outlines how the project budget will be estimated, allocated, and controlled. The cost management plan is essential for ensuring that the project stays within budget and that resources are allocated effectively.Rate this question:
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- 29.
The desired outcome, product, or service of a project is referred to as
- A.
A. the status.
- B.
B. a milestone.
- C.
C. a deliverable.
- D.
D. the final result.
Correct Answer
C. C. a deliverable.Explanation
The desired outcome, product, or service of a project is referred to as a deliverable. This term is used to describe the tangible or intangible results that are produced at the end of a project. Deliverables are typically specific, measurable, and time-bound, and they represent the key objectives or goals that need to be achieved. They can include documents, reports, software, prototypes, or any other tangible or intangible outputs that are expected to be delivered to the stakeholders.Rate this question:
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- 30.
Which of the following is a type of change request used to correct a portion of the project not meeting requirement specifications?
- A.
A. Status request.
- B.
B. Defect repairs.
- C.
C. Preventive action.
- D.
D. Corrective action.
Correct Answer
B. B. Defect repairs.Explanation
Defect repairs is the correct answer because it refers to a type of change request that is used to fix a portion of the project that does not meet the requirement specifications. When a defect or error is identified in the project, a change request is submitted to correct it, ensuring that the project meets the desired specifications. This type of change request focuses specifically on addressing and resolving defects in the project.Rate this question:
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- 31.
What document marks the end of a project and validates the successful installation of a communications system?
- A.
A. AFTO Form 745.
- B.
B. AFTO Form 747.
- C.
C. AFTO Form 749.
- D.
D. AF Form 1747.
Correct Answer
B. B. AFTO Form 747.Explanation
AFTO Form 747 is the correct answer because it is the document that marks the end of a project and validates the successful installation of a communications system. This form is used in the United States Air Force to document and certify the completion of maintenance or installation tasks. It serves as a record of the work performed and ensures that all necessary steps have been taken for the successful implementation of the communications system.Rate this question:
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- 32.
Exceptions that could prevent a system from meeting specified operational requirements are termed
- A.
A. major.
- B.
B. minor.
- C.
C. major and minor.
- D.
D. major and critical.
Correct Answer
A. A. major.Explanation
Exceptions that could prevent a system from meeting specified operational requirements are termed "major". This means that these exceptions are significant and have a significant impact on the system's ability to fulfill its operational requirements. They are not minor issues that can be easily overlooked or resolved. Instead, they are major obstacles that need to be addressed in order to ensure that the system can function properly and meet its intended goals.Rate this question:
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- 33.
What is critical to controlling and ensuring the overall project progresses accordingly, regardless of the phase?b. Controlling.
- A.
A. Follow-up.
- B.
B. Controlling.
- C.
C. Organization.
- D.
D. Documenting.
Correct Answer
A. A. Follow-up.Explanation
Follow-up is critical to controlling and ensuring the overall project progresses accordingly, regardless of the phase. It involves regularly checking and monitoring the progress of different project activities, ensuring that tasks are completed on time, and addressing any issues or risks that may arise. By following up, project managers can maintain control over the project and take necessary actions to keep it on track.Rate this question:
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- 34.
Changes are requested during a project using an
- A.
A. AF Form 1146.
- B.
B. AF Form 1747.
- C.
C. AFTO Form 46.
- D.
D. AFTO Form 47.
Correct Answer
A. A. AF Form 1146.Explanation
During a project, changes are requested using an AF Form 1146. This form is specifically designed for requesting changes to technical orders, manuals, or other project-related documents. It allows for clear and organized communication between the requester and the appropriate authorities, ensuring that all necessary information is provided and documented. The use of AF Form 1146 helps streamline the change request process and ensures that all changes are properly reviewed and implemented.Rate this question:
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- 35.
Who implements a technical solution for a base?
- A.
A. Project monitor.
- B.
B. Project manager.
- C.
C. Communication squadron.
- D.
D. Implementing organization.
Correct Answer
D. D. Implementing organization.Explanation
The implementing organization is responsible for implementing a technical solution for a base. They are the ones who actually carry out the tasks and activities required to put the solution into action. The project monitor oversees the progress and performance of the project, the project manager coordinates and manages the project as a whole, and the communication squadron may be involved in providing communication support, but it is ultimately the implementing organization that executes the technical solution.Rate this question:
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- 36.
What title is given to anyone assigned to assist the program manager in fulfilling program management duties?
- A.
A. Project monitor.
- B.
B. Project manager.
- C.
C. Program action officer.
- D.
D. Program action monitor.
Correct Answer
C. C. Program action officer.Explanation
A program action officer is a title given to someone who assists the program manager in fulfilling program management duties. This individual is responsible for taking action and implementing strategies to ensure the successful execution of the program. They work closely with the program manager to coordinate activities, monitor progress, and make necessary adjustments to achieve program goals. The role of a program action officer is crucial in supporting the program manager and ensuring the smooth operation of the program.Rate this question:
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- 37.
The five key stages of the Information Technology Infrastructure Library (ITIL) service life cycle are service strategy,
- A.
A. service design, service transition, service plan, and continual service improvement.
- B.
B. service plan, service transition, service operation, and continual service improvement.
- C.
C. service design, service transition, service operation, and continual service improvement.
- D.
D. service design, service disposition, service operation, and continual service improvement.
Correct Answer
C. C. service design, service transition, service operation, and continual service improvement.Explanation
The correct answer is c. The five key stages of the ITIL service life cycle are service design, service transition, service operation, and continual service improvement. These stages represent the different phases that an IT service goes through, from its initial design and planning to its implementation, operation, and ongoing improvement. This framework helps organizations effectively manage their IT services and ensure they align with business goals and deliver value to customers.Rate this question:
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- 38.
In what Information Technology Infrastructure Library (ITIL) stage do you determine the underlying principles used for developing the policies, objectives, guidelines, and processes required throughout the Service Life Cycle?
- A.
A. Service improvement.
- B.
B. Service transition.
- C.
C. Service strategy.
- D.
D. Service design.
Correct Answer
C. C. Service strategy.Explanation
In the Service Strategy stage of ITIL, the underlying principles used for developing the policies, objectives, guidelines, and processes required throughout the Service Life Cycle are determined. This stage focuses on understanding the business requirements and aligning IT services with the organization's overall strategy. It involves making decisions on which services to offer, how to differentiate from competitors, and how to allocate resources effectively. Therefore, Service Strategy is the stage where the principles for developing the policies, objectives, guidelines, and processes are determined.Rate this question:
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- 39.
In what Information Technology Infrastructure Library (ITIL) stage do you create the framework to ensure the designed service is effectively and efficiently implemented in the live environment?
- A.
A. Service design.
- B.
B. Service strategy.
- C.
C. Service transition.
- D.
D. Service operation.
Correct Answer
C. C. Service transition.Explanation
In the Service Transition stage of ITIL, the framework is created to ensure the smooth implementation of the designed service in the live environment. This stage focuses on planning, coordinating, and managing the transition of new or changed services. It includes activities such as testing, training, and deploying the service, as well as managing any risks or issues that may arise during the transition process. Therefore, Service Transition is the stage where the framework is established to effectively and efficiently implement the designed service.Rate this question:
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- 40.
Engineering support for MAJCOMs is provided by Cyberspace Systems Integrator Tier
- A.
A. 1.
- B.
B. 2.
- C.
C. 3.
- D.
D. 4.
Correct Answer
B. B. 2.Explanation
The correct answer is b. 2. This is because the question is asking for the tier of engineering support provided by the Cyberspace Systems Integrator for MAJCOMs. The answer choice 2 is the correct option as it indicates that the engineering support provided is at the second tier. The other answer choices do not provide the correct tier of engineering support.Rate this question:
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- 41.
Which guidance directs the use of Cyberspace Infrastructure Planning System (CIPS)?
- A.
A. AFI 33–115.
- B.
B. AFI 33–150.
- C.
C. TO 00–33D–3001.
- D.
D. TO 00–33D–3004.
Correct Answer
B. B. AFI 33–150.Explanation
AFI 33-150 is the correct answer because it is the Air Force Instruction that specifically directs the use of the Cyberspace Infrastructure Planning System (CIPS). This guidance provides the necessary instructions and procedures for planning, managing, and maintaining the cyberspace infrastructure within the Air Force. The other options, AFI 33-115, TO 00-33D-3001, and TO 00-33D-3004, do not pertain to the use of CIPS and are therefore incorrect.Rate this question:
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- 42.
Which Cyberspace Infrastructure Planning System (CIPS) functional area supports enhancements to current capabilities funded and accomplished at the base level generally in less than 30 days and in the form of a maintenance task order?
- A.
A. Work orders.
- B.
B. Trouble tickets.
- C.
C. Infrastructure requirements.
- D.
D. Communications and Information Systems Installation Records (CSIR).
Correct Answer
A. A. Work orders.Explanation
The Cyberspace Infrastructure Planning System (CIPS) functional area that supports enhancements to current capabilities funded and accomplished at the base level generally in less than 30 days and in the form of a maintenance task order is work orders. Work orders are used to initiate and track maintenance tasks, allowing for efficient and timely completion of enhancements to the cyberspace infrastructure.Rate this question:
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- 43.
Which of the following funding options does the local communications squadron implement using base level support and resources?
- A.
A. Organic.
- B.
B. Contract.
- C.
C. Inorganic.
- D.
D. Self-Help.
Correct Answer
D. D. Self-Help.Explanation
The local communications squadron implements the funding option of self-help using base level support and resources. Self-help refers to the ability of an organization to use its own resources and capabilities to address its needs and requirements, without relying on external funding or assistance. In this case, the squadron is able to fund its operations and projects internally, utilizing the resources available at the base level. This allows them to maintain control over their funding and prioritize their own needs.Rate this question:
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- 44.
Where can you find a list of lead commands or system program offices (SPOs) for each major program?
- A.
A. TO 00–33A–1001.
- B.
B. TO 00–33D–3003.
- C.
C. Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS).
- D.
D. Cyberspace Infrastructure Planning System (CIPS).
Correct Answer
B. B. TO 00–33D–3003. -
- 45.
As a minimum which of the following is not required to review and validate technical solutions?
- A.
A. Base Communications Systems Officer.
- B.
B. Affected Work Center.
- C.
C. Base Civil Engineer.
- D.
D. Project Managers.
Correct Answer
C. C. Base Civil Engineer.Explanation
The Base Civil Engineer is not required to review and validate technical solutions. This is because their role primarily focuses on infrastructure and construction projects, rather than the technical aspects of solutions. The other options, such as the Base Communications Systems Officer, Affected Work Center, and Project Managers, are more directly involved in reviewing and validating technical solutions in their respective areas of expertise.Rate this question:
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- 46.
Which of the following is not a cause for requirements to be considered special?
- A.
A. Requires services from outside agencies.
- B.
B. Mobility (deployment) equipment.
- C.
C. Requires additional manpower.
- D.
D. Requires additional funding.
Correct Answer
D. D. Requires additional funding.Explanation
The correct answer is d. Requires additional funding. This is because the question asks for a cause that does not make requirements special. While the other options (a, b, c) all mention factors that can make requirements special, such as relying on outside agencies, needing specific equipment, or requiring extra manpower, the need for additional funding is not necessarily a unique or special requirement. Many projects or initiatives require additional funding, so it is not a characteristic that sets requirements apart as special.Rate this question:
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- 47.
In which type of plan do writers fully develop the mission, situation, and concept of operations for accomplishing assigned mission in the event of future situation, but only summarize the mobility and logistic requirements?
- A.
A. Concept Plan.
- B.
B. Functional Plan.
- C.
C. Supporting Plan.
- D.
D. Operational Plan.
Correct Answer
A. A. Concept Plan.Explanation
In a concept plan, writers fully develop the mission, situation, and concept of operations for accomplishing the assigned mission in the event of a future situation. However, they only summarize the mobility and logistic requirements. This means that the focus of the concept plan is on the overall strategy and approach to achieving the mission, rather than the specific details of how resources will be mobilized and logistics will be handled.Rate this question:
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- 48.
When tasked by the supported combatant commander which type of plan is prepared in support of the contingency plans?
- A.
A. Concept Plan.
- B.
B. Functional Plan.
- C.
C. Supporting Plan.
- D.
D. Operational Plan.
Correct Answer
C. C. Supporting Plan.Explanation
When tasked by the supported combatant commander, a supporting plan is prepared in support of the contingency plans. A supporting plan is a detailed plan that provides specific guidance and resources to execute a contingency plan. It outlines the specific actions, tasks, and responsibilities of various units and organizations involved in the execution of the contingency plan. The supporting plan ensures that all necessary resources and support are provided to successfully implement the contingency plan and achieve the desired objectives.Rate this question:
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- 49.
If instructions are not detailed enough to warrant a separate annex, information on base functional area support is placed in the
- A.
A. Programming Plan (PPLAN).
- B.
B. Program Action Directive (PAD).
- C.
C. Operations Plan (OPLAN) major paragraph.
- D.
D. Time Phased Force and Deployment Data (TPFDD).
Correct Answer
C. C. Operations Plan (OPLAN) major paragraph.Explanation
The correct answer is c. Operations Plan (OPLAN) major paragraph. This is because if the instructions are not detailed enough to require a separate annex, the information on base functional area support is placed within the Operations Plan (OPLAN) major paragraph. The OPLAN is a comprehensive document that outlines the operational objectives, tasks, and support requirements for a specific operation or mission. Therefore, it is the appropriate place to include information on base functional area support when detailed instructions are not necessary.Rate this question:
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- 50.
What area of the Annex K is used to detail wartime procedures for maintaining the communications systems under contract during peacetime?
- A.
A. Special Measures.
- B.
B. Administration.
- C.
C. Assumptions.
- D.
D. Logistics.
Correct Answer
D. D. Logistics.Explanation
The correct answer is d. Logistics. In Annex K, the area used to detail wartime procedures for maintaining the communications systems under contract during peacetime is the Logistics section. This section focuses on the logistical aspects of maintaining and supporting the communications systems, including supply chain management, equipment maintenance, and transportation. It outlines the procedures and protocols that need to be followed to ensure the smooth operation of the communications systems during wartime.Rate this question:
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Mar 20, 2023Quiz Edited by
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Jan 04, 2017Quiz Created by
Fr3sh_24
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