Expeditionary Communications, Plans And Project Management

70 Questions | Total Attempts: 60

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Project Management Quizzes & Trivia

Project management is a process, and this being said, some steps should be followed to ensure that the desired objective is met. What do you know about expeditionary communications, plans, and project management? Take up this great quiz and get to learn more about project management and what it entails. All the best and keep a lookout for more quizzes like this.


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    Which deployment planning process develops predetermined responses to potential crises, determines forces required to achieve objectives, prepares deployment plans, and continually evaluates selected courses of action (COA)?
    • A. 

      A. Deliberate planning.

    • B. 

      B. Crisis action planning.

    • C. 

      C. Mobilization planning.

    • D. 

      D. Force rotational planning.

  • 2. 
    Which War and Mobilization Plan (WMP) volume provides a consolidated reference source for general policies and guidance for mobilization planning and the support of combat forces in time of war?
    • A. 

      A. Volume 1.

    • B. 

      B. Volume 2.

    • C. 

      C. Volume 3.

    • D. 

      D. Volume 4.

  • 3. 
    Who initiates the requirements or deployment sourcing process?
    • A. 

      A. Air Force Personnel Center (AFPC) Aerospace Expeditionary Forces (AEF) Center.

    • B. 

      B. Installation Deployment Officer (IDO).

    • C. 

      C. Unit Deployment Monitor (UDM).

    • D. 

      D. Joint Staff.

  • 4. 
    Which type of Joint Expeditionary Tasking (JET) tasking is a service providing a force or capability in place of another service’s core mission?
    • A. 

      A. Standard unit type code (UTC).

    • B. 

      B. Joint force/capability.

    • C. 

      C. In-lieu-of (ILO).

    • D. 

      D. Ad hoc.

  • 5. 
    Which of these is not an area measured and reported by Status of Resources and Training System (SORTS)?
    • A. 

      A. Training.

    • B. 

      B. Personnel.

    • C. 

      C. Facility condition.

    • D. 

      D. Equipment condition.

  • 6. 
    Which of the following is not a readiness category measured by Air and Space Expeditionary Force Reporting Tool (ART)?
    • A. 

      A. Training.

    • B. 

      B. Personnel.

    • C. 

      C. Home station mission.

    • D. 

      D. Equipment condition.

  • 7. 
    The Governing guidance for Air and Space Expeditionary Force Reporting Tool (ART) reporting is AFI
    • A. 

      A. 10–201.

    • B. 

      B. 10–244.

    • C. 

      C. 10–401.

    • D. 

      D. 10–403.

  • 8. 
    Which document provides detailed information and instructions on Designated Operational Capability (DOC) statements?
    • A. 

      A. AFI 10–201.

    • B. 

      B. AFI 10–244.

    • C. 

      C. AFI 10–401.

    • D. 

      D. AFI 10–403.

  • 9. 
    Who develops logistics details (LOGDETS) to allow for 30 days of sustainment for unit type codes (UTC)?
    • A. 

      A. Pilot Units.

    • B. 

      B. Joint Planners.

    • C. 

      C. Logistics Readiness Squadron.

    • D. 

      D. Each unit is responsible for building its own LOGDET.

  • 10. 
    Which is not an initial capability of the open the airbase force module?
    • A. 

      A. Force protection.

    • B. 

      B. Airfield operations.

    • C. 

      C. Force accountability.

    • D. 

      D. Explosive Ordinance Disposal (EOD).

  • 11. 
    The key capabilities for establishing control in the Command and Control module are
    • A. 

      A. force protection and logistics.

    • B. 

      B. intelligence and force protection.

    • C. 

      C. secure communications and intelligence.

    • D. 

      D. secure communications and force accountability.

  • 12. 
    Which force module facilitates integration of open the airbase and command and control force module capabilities to enable the airfield to generate air support to accomplish its assigned mission?
    • A. 

      A. Robust the airbase.

    • B. 

      B. Operate the airbase.

    • C. 

      C. Establish the airbase.

    • D. 

      D. Generate the mission.

  • 13. 
    Within how many days after open the airbase does the operate the airbase force module arrive, and when is delivery estimated to be complete?
    • A. 

      A. 2 days, 7 days.

    • B. 

      B. 2 days, 14 days.

    • C. 

      C. 7 days, 14 days.

    • D. 

      D. 14 days, 30 days.

  • 14. 
    Which force module contains support forces that would generally not arrive until 30 days after the deployed location is established?
    • A. 

      A. Generate the mission.

    • B. 

      B. Establish the airbase.

    • C. 

      C. Operate the airbase.

    • D. 

      D. Robust the airbase.

  • 15. 
    The Contingency Response Wing headquarters is located at
    • A. 

      A. Scott AFB, IL.

    • B. 

      B. Travis AFB, CA.

    • C. 

      C. Peterson AFB, CO.

    • D. 

      D. Joint Base McGuire-Dix-Lakehurst, NJ.

  • 16. 
    What is the typical pay grade of the deployed Contingency Response Group commander?
    • A. 

      A. O–4.

    • B. 

      B. O–5.

    • C. 

      C. O–6.

    • D. 

      D. O–7.

  • 17. 
    Which force module supported by Theater Deployable Communications (TDC) is established within 48 hours and supports 50 to150 users in a café environment?
    • A. 

      A. Command and control.

    • B. 

      B. Operate the airbase.

    • C. 

      C. Robust the airbase.

    • D. 

      D. Open the airbase.

  • 18. 
    In the operate the air base module, what is the maximum distance an extended site can be located from the base Network Control Center Deployed (NCC-D)?
    • A. 

      A. 2 kilometers (km).

    • B. 

      B. 4 km.

    • C. 

      C. 8 km.

    • D. 

      D. 16 km.

  • 19. 
    Which is not a division of the Air and Space Operations Center?
    • A. 

      A. Strategy.

    • B. 

      B. Combat plans.

    • C. 

      C. Combat support.

    • D. 

      D. Combat operations.

  • 20. 
    Which of the following is categorized as a small unmanned aerial system (UAS)?
    • A. 

      A. MQ–9 Reaper.

    • B. 

      B. RQ–11B Raven.

    • C. 

      C. MQ–1B Predator.

    • D. 

      D. RQ–4B Global Hawk.

  • 21. 
    Which of the following is not a career field assigned to engineering installation units?
    • A. 

      A. 3D0X3, Cyber Surety.

    • B. 

      B. 3D1X2, Cyber Transport Systems.

    • C. 

      C. 3D1X3, RF Transmission Systems.

    • D. 

      D. 3D1X7, Cable and Antenna Systems.

  • 22. 
    Which Engineering Installation (EI) unit has the only flight assigned that supports a 72 hour rapid response force during crisis providing specialized engineering support in telecommunications and electromagnetic spectrum field analysis?
    • A. 

      A. 38 Engineering Squadron (ES).

    • B. 

      B. 38 Contracting Squadron (CONS).

    • C. 

      C. 38 Operations Support Squadron (OSS).

    • D. 

      D. 85 Engineering Installation Squadron (EIS).

  • 23. 
    All armed forces broadcasting affiliates merged under the American Forces Network
    • A. 

      A. 1942.

    • B. 

      B. 1954.

    • C. 

      C. 1988.

    • D. 

      D. 1998.

  • 24. 
    What Methods and Procedures Technical Order (MPTO) defines project management as the application of knowledge, skills, tools, and techniques to project activities to meet project objectives?
    • A. 

      A. MPTO 00–33A–1001.

    • B. 

      B. MPTO 00–33A–1002.

    • C. 

      C. MPTO 00–33A–2001.

    • D. 

      D. MPTO 00–33A–2002.

  • 25. 
    The five phases of Project Management are initiate,
    • A. 

      A. funding, execute, close, and control.

    • B. 

      B. plan, execute, monitor, and control.

    • C. 

      C. plan, execute, close, and control.

    • D. 

      D. plan, control, close, and support.