Drugs & Medications Quiz: How Much Do You Know?

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Medical Quizzes & Trivia

How much do you know about various drugs and medications? Do you have good knowledge about medicines like memantine, macrodantin, etc.? Think you can pass a quiz? You must know that all the medications are drugs used to diagnose, treat, or prevent and disease. Normally people need drugs and medications at some point in their life. Take the quiz below and learn interesting information about the commonly used drugs and medications.


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    Brand name for donepezil?

    Correct Answer
    Aricept
    Explanation
    Aricept is the brand name for the medication donepezil. It is commonly prescribed to treat symptoms of Alzheimer's disease, such as memory loss and cognitive decline. Donepezil works by increasing levels of a neurotransmitter called acetylcholine in the brain, which helps improve communication between nerve cells. Aricept is available in tablet form and is typically taken once a day. It is important to follow the prescribed dosage and consult with a healthcare professional for proper use and potential side effects.

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  • 2. 

    Generic name for Atarax?

    Correct Answer
    hydroxyzine hydrochloride, hydroxyzine hcl
    Explanation
    The generic name for Atarax is hydroxyzine hydrochloride or hydroxyzine HCl. This is the active ingredient in the medication and is used to treat anxiety, itching, and allergic reactions. Hydroxyzine works by blocking certain natural substances in the body that cause allergic symptoms. It is available in various forms such as tablets, capsules, and syrup.

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  • 3. 

    What is the therapeutic category for buspirone?

    • A.

      Antiallergy agent

    • B.

      Antianxiety agent

    • C.

      Antiepileptic

    • D.

      Anticonvulsant

    Correct Answer
    B. Antianxiety agent
    Explanation
    Buspirone is classified as an antianxiety agent. It is commonly prescribed to treat anxiety disorders by affecting certain chemicals in the brain that may be unbalanced in individuals with anxiety. Unlike other medications for anxiety, buspirone does not cause sedation or addiction, making it a preferred choice for long-term treatment.

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  • 4. 

    Common patient counseling tips for Suboxone? (select all that apply)

    • A.

      Take on an empty stomach

    • B.

      May cause drowsiness, use caution when operating machinery or when mental alertness is required

    • C.

      Abruptly stopping therapy may precipitate withdrawal symptoms

    • D.

      Swallow tablets whole, do not chew or crush

    • E.

      Avoid prolonged sun exposure

    Correct Answer(s)
    B. May cause drowsiness, use caution when operating machinery or when mental alertness is required
    C. Abruptly stopping therapy may precipitate withdrawal symptoms
    Explanation
    Patient counseling tips for Suboxone include caution when operating machinery or when mental alertness is required due to the potential for drowsiness. Additionally, abruptly stopping therapy may lead to withdrawal symptoms.

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  • 5. 

    Generic name for Vistaril? (hint: salt)

    Correct Answer(s)
    hydroxyzine pamoate
    Explanation
    Hydroxyzine pamoate is the generic name for Vistaril. It is a medication that belongs to the class of antihistamines and is used to treat anxiety, itching, and other allergic reactions. The term "generic name" refers to the chemical name of a drug, which is usually derived from its active ingredient. In this case, hydroxyzine is the active ingredient, and pamoate refers to the salt form in which it is formulated. Therefore, hydroxyzine pamoate is the correct generic name for Vistaril.

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  • 6. 

    What are the components in Fioricet? (select all)

    • A.

      Acetaminophen

    • B.

      Aspirin

    • C.

      Butalbital

    • D.

      Caffeine

    • E.

      Phenobarbital

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Acetaminophen
    C. Butalbital
    D. Caffeine
    Explanation
    Fioricet is a medication that contains a combination of acetaminophen, butalbital, and caffeine. Acetaminophen is a pain reliever and fever reducer, butalbital is a barbiturate that helps to relax muscle contractions, and caffeine is a stimulant that can enhance the effects of the other ingredients. This combination is commonly used to treat tension headaches and migraines. Phenobarbital is not a component of Fioricet.

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  • 7. 

    Common adverse reactions from nitroglycerin: (select all)

    • A.

      Renal impairment

    • B.

      Dizziness

    • C.

      Drowsiness

    • D.

      Flushing of face/neck

    • E.

      Transient headache

    Correct Answer(s)
    B. Dizziness
    D. Flushing of face/neck
    E. Transient headache
    Explanation
    The common adverse reactions from nitroglycerin include dizziness, flushing of the face/neck, and transient headache. These side effects are often experienced by individuals taking nitroglycerin.

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  • 8. 

    FDA indication for Zyloprim?

    • A.

      Anxiety

    • B.

      Diabetes

    • C.

      Gout

    • D.

      Hypertension

    • E.

      Weight Loss

    Correct Answer
    C. Gout
    Explanation
    Zyloprim is indicated by the FDA for the treatment of gout. Gout is a type of arthritis that occurs when there is a buildup of uric acid crystals in the joints, leading to inflammation and pain. Zyloprim works by reducing the production of uric acid in the body, thus helping to prevent gout attacks. It is not indicated for the treatment of anxiety, diabetes, hypertension, or weight loss.

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  • 9. 

    Tramadol is manufactured in which strength(s)? (select all)

    • A.

      25 mg

    • B.

      50 mg

    • C.

      100 mg

    • D.

      150 mg

    • E.

      300 mg

    Correct Answer(s)
    B. 50 mg
    C. 100 mg
    E. 300 mg
    Explanation
    Tramadol is manufactured in three different strengths: 50 mg, 100 mg, and 300 mg. These strengths provide different options for patients depending on their specific needs and the severity of their pain. The 50 mg strength is typically used for mild to moderate pain, while the 100 mg and 300 mg strengths are used for more severe pain. By offering these different strengths, tramadol can be tailored to meet the individual needs of patients.

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  • 10. 

    Memantine is available in which of the following dosage forms? (select all)

    • A.

      ER Capsule

    • B.

      ER Tablet

    • C.

      Injection

    • D.

      Oral Solution

    • E.

      Rectal Gel

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. ER Capsule
    D. Oral Solution
    Explanation
    Memantine is available in the form of extended-release (ER) capsules and oral solution. The ER capsule is a dosage form that allows for a slow release of the medication over an extended period of time, while the oral solution is a liquid form of the medication that can be taken orally.

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  • 11. 

    Brand name of montelukast?

    Correct Answer(s)
    Singulair
    Explanation
    Singulair is the brand name of the medication montelukast. It is commonly used to treat asthma and allergies by reducing inflammation in the airways and preventing symptoms such as wheezing, coughing, and shortness of breath. Singulair works by blocking the action of certain substances in the body that cause inflammation and constriction of the airways. It is available in tablet, chewable tablet, and granule forms and should be taken as directed by a healthcare professional.

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  • 12. 

    Generic name for Macrodantin?

    Correct Answer(s)
    nitrofurantoin
    Explanation
    Nitrofurantoin is the generic name for Macrodantin. Generic names are the non-proprietary names given to drugs, which are usually derived from the drug's chemical structure. Macrodantin is a brand name for a medication that contains nitrofurantoin as its active ingredient. Therefore, nitrofurantoin is the correct answer as it accurately represents the generic name for Macrodantin.

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  • 13. 

    Therapeutic class for amoxicillin?

    • A.

      Antibacterial

    • B.

      Antibiotic

    • C.

      Antiviral

    • D.

      Antimicrobial

    Correct Answer
    B. Antibiotic
    Explanation
    The therapeutic class for amoxicillin is antibiotic. Amoxicillin is a type of penicillin antibiotic that is used to treat various bacterial infections. It works by stopping the growth of bacteria and killing them. Therefore, the correct answer is antibiotic.

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  • 14. 

    Lorazepam is commercially available in which of the following dosage forms? (select all)

    • A.

      Capsule

    • B.

      Injection

    • C.

      Ointment

    • D.

      Oral solution

    • E.

      Tablet

    Correct Answer(s)
    B. Injection
    D. Oral solution
    E. Tablet
    Explanation
    Lorazepam is commercially available in three different dosage forms: injection, oral solution, and tablet. These forms allow for different routes of administration, providing options for patients who may have difficulty swallowing tablets or prefer a liquid formulation. The injection form is typically used in hospital settings or for patients who cannot take medication orally. The oral solution and tablet forms are more commonly used for outpatient treatment.

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  • 15. 

    What are the active ingredients in Symbicort? (select all)

    • A.

      Albuterol

    • B.

      Budesonide

    • C.

      Formoterol

    • D.

      Fluticasone

    • E.

      Ipratropium

    Correct Answer(s)
    B. Budesonide
    C. Formoterol
    Explanation
    The active ingredients in Symbicort are Budesonide and Formoterol. These two drugs work together to help control and prevent symptoms of asthma and chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). Budesonide is a corticosteroid that reduces inflammation in the airways, while Formoterol is a long-acting bronchodilator that helps to relax the muscles in the airways, making it easier to breathe. Together, these medications provide both anti-inflammatory and bronchodilator effects to improve respiratory function.

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  • 16. 

    What are recommended patient counseling tips for diazepam? (select all)

    • A.

      Avoid alcohol while taking this medication

    • B.

      Flushing is a common adverse effect and usually subsides after a few weeks of therapy

    • C.

      May cause drowsiness, use caution when operating machinery or when mental alertness is required

    • D.

      Take on an empty stomach

    • E.

      This medication may be habit-forming

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Avoid alcohol while taking this medication
    C. May cause drowsiness, use caution when operating machinery or when mental alertness is required
    E. This medication may be habit-forming
    Explanation
    The recommended patient counseling tips for diazepam include avoiding alcohol while taking the medication, as it can increase the sedative effects and potential side effects. Diazepam may cause drowsiness, so caution should be exercised when operating machinery or when mental alertness is required. Additionally, patients should be informed that diazepam can be habit-forming and should be used only as prescribed by their healthcare provider.

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  • 17. 

    What are recommended counseling tips for metronidazole? (select all)

    • A.

      Avoid alcohol during therapy and for one day after therapy due to disulfiram-type reactions

    • B.

      Complete full course of therapy

    • C.

      May cause drowsiness, use caution when operating machinery or when mental alertness is required

    • D.

      May take with food or milk if GI upset occurs

    • E.

      Use of condoms is recommended if treating trichomoniasis to avoid reinfection

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Avoid alcohol during therapy and for one day after therapy due to disulfiram-type reactions
    B. Complete full course of therapy
    D. May take with food or milk if GI upset occurs
    E. Use of condoms is recommended if treating trichomoniasis to avoid reinfection
    Explanation
    The recommended counseling tips for metronidazole are to avoid alcohol during therapy and for one day after therapy due to disulfiram-type reactions, to complete the full course of therapy, to take with food or milk if gastrointestinal upset occurs, and to use condoms if treating trichomoniasis to avoid reinfection.

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  • 18. 

    Sotalol is FDA-approved to treat which condition?

    • A.

      Asthma

    • B.

      COPD

    • C.

      CHF

    • D.

      Hypertension

    • E.

      Ventricular arrhythmias

    Correct Answer
    E. Ventricular arrhythmias
    Explanation
    Sotalol is FDA-approved to treat ventricular arrhythmias. Ventricular arrhythmias are abnormal heart rhythms that originate in the ventricles, the lower chambers of the heart. Sotalol is a medication that belongs to a class of drugs called beta-blockers, which work by blocking the effects of adrenaline on the heart. By doing so, sotalol helps to regulate the heart rhythm and prevent dangerous arrhythmias in patients with ventricular arrhythmias. It is important to note that sotalol should only be used under the supervision of a healthcare professional, as it can have significant side effects and interactions with other medications.

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  • 19. 

    Which of the following inhalers should a patient rinse their mouth after use? (select all)

    • A.

      Advair

    • B.

      Combivent

    • C.

      Flovent

    • D.

      Spiriva

    • E.

      Symbicort

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Advair
    C. Flovent
    E. Symbicort
    Explanation
    Patients should rinse their mouth after using Advair, Flovent, and Symbicort inhalers. These inhalers contain corticosteroids, which can increase the risk of developing oral thrush or a fungal infection in the mouth. Rinsing the mouth helps to prevent these side effects and maintain oral health. Combivent and Spiriva inhalers do not contain corticosteroids, so rinsing the mouth after use is not necessary.

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  • 20. 

    Which is the usual maintenance dose for amiodarone?

    • A.

      200 mg

    • B.

      400 mg

    • C.

      800 mg

    • D.

      1200 mg

    • E.

      1600 mg

    Correct Answer
    B. 400 mg
    Explanation
    The usual maintenance dose for amiodarone is 400 mg. This dose is commonly prescribed to patients who require long-term treatment for certain heart rhythm disorders. It is important to note that the actual dosage may vary depending on the individual patient's condition and response to the medication. It is always recommended to consult a healthcare professional for accurate dosage instructions.

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  • 21. 

    What is the brand name for amitriptyline?

    Correct Answer
    Elavil
    Explanation
    Elavil is the brand name for amitriptyline. It is a tricyclic antidepressant medication commonly used to treat depression, anxiety, and certain types of chronic pain. By blocking the reuptake of certain neurotransmitters in the brain, Elavil helps to restore the balance of chemicals that affect mood and emotions. It is important to note that Elavil may cause side effects and should only be used under the guidance of a healthcare professional.

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  • 22. 

    What is the generic name for Keppra?

    Correct Answer
    levetiracetam
    Explanation
    The generic name for Keppra is levetiracetam.

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  • 23. 

    What is the therapeutic class for gabapentin?

    • A.

      Anticonvulsant

    • B.

      Anticonvulsant/Antineuralgic

    • C.

      Anticonvulsant/Antipsychotic

    • D.

      Antiepileptic

    Correct Answer
    B. Anticonvulsant/Antineuralgic
    Explanation
    Gabapentin is classified as an anticonvulsant/antineuralgic. This means that it is primarily used to treat seizures and epilepsy (anticonvulsant), as well as neuropathic pain (antineuralgic). This medication works by reducing abnormal brain activity and relieving nerve pain. It is commonly prescribed for conditions such as epilepsy, postherpetic neuralgia, and restless leg syndrome.

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  • 24. 

    What are the components of Augmentin? (select all)

    • A.

      Amoxicillin

    • B.

      Clavulanic acid

    • C.

      Sulfamethoxazole

    • D.

      Trimethoprim

    • E.

      Valacyclovir

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Amoxicillin
    B. Clavulanic acid
    Explanation
    Augmentin is a combination medication that contains two active ingredients: amoxicillin and clavulanic acid. These components work together to treat various bacterial infections. Sulfamethoxazole, trimethoprim, and valacyclovir are not components of Augmentin.

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  • 25. 

    Select the recommended counseling points for Lyrica: (select all)

    • A.

      Avoid prolonged sun exposure

    • B.

      Avoid alcohol while taking this medication

    • C.

      Do not abruptly discontinue therapy

    • D.

      May cause drowsiness; use caution when performing activities that require alertness

    • E.

      May be taken without regard to meals

    Correct Answer(s)
    B. Avoid alcohol while taking this medication
    C. Do not abruptly discontinue therapy
    D. May cause drowsiness; use caution when performing activities that require alertness
    E. May be taken without regard to meals
    Explanation
    The recommended counseling points for Lyrica are to avoid alcohol while taking this medication, to not abruptly discontinue therapy, to use caution when performing activities that require alertness due to the possibility of drowsiness, and that it may be taken without regard to meals.

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  • 26. 

    Which of these are FDA approved indications for bupropion: (select all)

    • A.

      Acute mania

    • B.

      Depression

    • C.

      Schizophrenia

    • D.

      Seasonal Affective Disorder

    • E.

      Smoking Cessation

    Correct Answer(s)
    B. Depression
    D. Seasonal Affective Disorder
    E. Smoking Cessation
    Explanation
    Bupropion is an FDA-approved medication for the treatment of depression, seasonal affective disorder (SAD), and smoking cessation. It is not indicated for acute mania or schizophrenia. Bupropion is commonly used as an antidepressant and has been found to be effective in managing SAD and helping individuals quit smoking.

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  • 27. 

    Select which of the following agents are known to interact with warfarin: (select all)

    • A.

      Alcohol

    • B.

      Carbamazepine

    • C.

      Erythromycin

    • D.

      Metronidazole

    • E.

      Rifampin

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Alcohol
    B. Carbamazepine
    C. Erythromycin
    D. Metronidazole
    E. Rifampin
    Explanation
    Warfarin is an anticoagulant medication commonly used to prevent blood clots. It works by inhibiting the production of certain clotting factors in the liver. Alcohol is known to interact with warfarin as it can increase the risk of bleeding. Carbamazepine, an anticonvulsant medication, can decrease the effectiveness of warfarin by increasing its metabolism. Erythromycin, an antibiotic, can increase the effects of warfarin by inhibiting its metabolism. Metronidazole, another antibiotic, can also increase the effects of warfarin by inhibiting its metabolism. Rifampin, an antibiotic used to treat tuberculosis, can decrease the effectiveness of warfarin by increasing its metabolism.

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  • 28. 

    Carbamazepine is commercially available in which of the following dosage forms?

    • A.

      Chewable Tablet

    • B.

      ER Capsule

    • C.

      ER Tablet

    • D.

      Powder for Injection

    • E.

      Suspension

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Chewable Tablet
    B. ER Capsule
    C. ER Tablet
    E. Suspension
    Explanation
    Carbamazepine is available in various dosage forms including chewable tablets, extended-release (ER) capsules and tablets, and suspension. Chewable tablets are designed to be easily chewed and swallowed, making them suitable for patients who have difficulty swallowing. ER capsules and tablets are formulated to release the medication slowly over an extended period, allowing for once-daily dosing. Suspension is a liquid form of the medication that is often used in pediatric patients or those who have difficulty swallowing solid dosage forms.

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  • 29. 

    Rivaroxaban is a selective inhibitor of:

    • A.

      Factor VII

    • B.

      Factor Xa

    • C.

      Platelet Activation Factor

    • D.

      Vitamin K-dependent clotting factors

    • E.

      Thromboxane A2

    Correct Answer
    B. Factor Xa
    Explanation
    Rivaroxaban is a selective inhibitor of Factor Xa. Factor Xa is a crucial enzyme in the coagulation cascade that plays a role in the formation of blood clots. By inhibiting Factor Xa, rivaroxaban prevents the formation of thrombin, a key enzyme in the clotting process. This ultimately leads to the prevention of blood clot formation and reduces the risk of thromboembolic events.

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  • 30. 

    Which of these would be the best choice for a patient with a documented Type I hypersensitivity to penicillin?

    • A.

      Augmentin

    • B.

      Cleocin

    • C.

      Flagyl

    • D.

      Trimox

    • E.

      Veetids

    Correct Answer
    B. Cleocin
    Explanation
    Cleocin would be the best choice for a patient with a documented Type I hypersensitivity to penicillin because it is not a penicillin-based antibiotic. This reduces the risk of an allergic reaction in the patient.

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  • 31. 

    Brand name for duloxetine?

    Correct Answer
    Cymbalta
    Explanation
    Cymbalta is the brand name for duloxetine. This medication is commonly used to treat depression, anxiety, and certain types of pain. It works by restoring the balance of certain natural substances in the brain, which helps to improve mood, sleep, appetite, and energy levels. Cymbalta is available in capsule form and should be taken as prescribed by a healthcare professional.

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  • 32. 

    Brand name for Micronase?

    Correct Answer
    glyburide
    Explanation
    Glyburide is the brand name for the medication Micronase. It is an oral diabetes medicine that helps control blood sugar levels in individuals with type 2 diabetes. Glyburide works by stimulating the pancreas to produce insulin and helping the body use insulin more effectively. It is important for individuals with diabetes to take their medication as prescribed and maintain a healthy lifestyle to manage their condition effectively.

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  • 33. 

    Select the therapeutic class for trazodone:

    • A.

      Antianxiety Agent

    • B.

      Anticonvulsant

    • C.

      Antidepressant

    • D.

      Antiepileptic

    Correct Answer
    C. Antidepressant
    Explanation
    Trazodone is classified as an antidepressant. It is commonly used to treat major depressive disorder and can also be prescribed off-label for sleep disorders such as insomnia. Trazodone works by increasing the levels of serotonin in the brain, which helps to improve mood and alleviate symptoms of depression. It is not classified as an antianxiety agent, anticonvulsant, or antiepileptic, as its primary therapeutic effect is in treating depression.

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  • 34. 

    Which of the following are commercially available forms of fluoxetine?

    • A.

      Chewable tablets

    • B.

      Capsule

    • C.

      Delayed-release Capsule

    • D.

      Oral Liquid

    • E.

      Tablet

    Correct Answer(s)
    B. Capsule
    C. Delayed-release Capsule
    D. Oral Liquid
    E. Tablet
    Explanation
    Fluoxetine is a medication used to treat depression, obsessive-compulsive disorder, and other mental health conditions. It is available in different forms for commercial use. Capsules, delayed-release capsules, oral liquid, and tablets are all commercially available forms of fluoxetine. These different forms allow patients to choose the most convenient and suitable option for their treatment.

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  • 35. 

    Paroxetine has FDA indications for which of the following? (select all)

    • A.

      Depression

    • B.

      Diabetic neuropathy

    • C.

      Fibromyalgia

    • D.

      Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder

    • E.

      Panic Disorder

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Depression
    D. Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder
    E. Panic Disorder
    Explanation
    Paroxetine is a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) that is commonly used to treat depression, obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD), and panic disorder. It is not indicated for the treatment of diabetic neuropathy or fibromyalgia.

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  • 36. 

    Sertraline primarily affects which neurotransmitter?

    • A.

      Dopamine

    • B.

      Glutamate

    • C.

      GABA

    • D.

      Norepinephine

    • E.

      Serotonin

    Correct Answer
    E. Serotonin
    Explanation
    Sertraline primarily affects the neurotransmitter serotonin. Serotonin is involved in regulating mood, emotions, sleep, and appetite. Sertraline is a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI), which means it increases the levels of serotonin in the brain by blocking its reabsorption. This helps to alleviate symptoms of depression, anxiety, and other mood disorders. By targeting serotonin, sertraline can help restore the balance of this neurotransmitter, leading to improved mental well-being.

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  • 37. 

    Venlafaxine (and other agents in its class) bear a black box warning for which of these?

    • A.

      Anorexia

    • B.

      Increased blood pressure

    • C.

      Nervousness

    • D.

      Suicidal thoughts

    • E.

      Discontinuation syndrome if stopped abruptly

    Correct Answer
    D. Suicidal thoughts
    Explanation
    Venlafaxine and other agents in its class have a black box warning for suicidal thoughts. This means that there is a heightened risk of experiencing suicidal thoughts or behaviors while taking this medication. It is important for patients and healthcare providers to closely monitor individuals who are prescribed venlafaxine to ensure their safety and well-being.

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  • 38. 

    Citalopram is commercially available in which strengths? (select all)

    • A.

      5 mg

    • B.

      10 mg

    • C.

      20 mg

    • D.

      30 mg

    • E.

      40 mg

    Correct Answer(s)
    B. 10 mg
    C. 20 mg
    E. 40 mg
    Explanation
    Citalopram is commercially available in strengths of 10 mg, 20 mg, and 40 mg. This means that the medication can be purchased in these specific dosages for administration to patients. The strengths of 5 mg and 30 mg are not available for citalopram.

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  • 39. 

    What is the maximum dose of Amaryl?

    • A.

      1 mg

    • B.

      2 mg

    • C.

      4 mg

    • D.

      8 mg

    • E.

      10 mg

    Correct Answer
    D. 8 mg
    Explanation
    The maximum dose of Amaryl is 8 mg. This means that a patient should not exceed this dosage in order to avoid potential adverse effects or complications. It is important to follow the prescribed dosage instructions provided by a healthcare professional to ensure the safe and effective use of this medication.

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  • 40. 

    Please select the common patient counseling tips and adverse effects for glipizide? (select all)

    • A.

      Avoid excessive alcohol intake

    • B.

      May cause constipation

    • C.

      May cause hypoglycemia

    • D.

      May cause hypertension

    • E.

      Take 30 minutes prior to meals

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Avoid excessive alcohol intake
    C. May cause hypoglycemia
    E. Take 30 minutes prior to meals
    Explanation
    The common patient counseling tips for glipizide include avoiding excessive alcohol intake and taking the medication 30 minutes prior to meals. Glipizide may also cause hypoglycemia, which is a potential adverse effect of the medication.

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  • 41. 

    What is the brand name for phenytoin?

    Correct Answer(s)
    Dilantin
    Explanation
    Dilantin is the brand name for phenytoin.

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  • 42. 

    What is the generic name for Trileptal?

    Correct Answer(s)
    Oxcarbazepine
    Explanation
    The generic name for Trileptal is Oxcarbazepine.

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  • 43. 

    Select the therapeutic class for promethazine:

    • A.

      Antiemetic

    • B.

      Antiallergy

    • C.

      Antiemetic/antiallergy

    • D.

      Antianxiety Agent

    Correct Answer
    C. Antiemetic/antiallergy
    Explanation
    Promethazine is classified as an antiemetic/antiallergy medication. It is commonly used to prevent and treat nausea and vomiting caused by motion sickness or certain medications. Additionally, it is effective in relieving symptoms of allergies such as itching, watery eyes, and runny nose. The dual therapeutic action of promethazine makes it suitable for addressing both antiemetic and antiallergy needs in patients.

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  • 44. 

    Diflucan would be used to treat which of the following: (select all)

    • A.

      Bacterial vaginosis

    • B.

      Esophageal candidiasis

    • C.

      Esophageal varices

    • D.

      Prostatitis

    • E.

      Vaginal candidiasis

    Correct Answer(s)
    B. Esophageal candidiasis
    E. Vaginal candidiasis
    Explanation
    Diflucan is an antifungal medication, specifically used to treat fungal infections caused by Candida species. Esophageal candidiasis is a fungal infection of the esophagus caused by Candida, and vaginal candidiasis is a fungal infection of the vagina also caused by Candida. Therefore, Diflucan would be used to treat both esophageal candidiasis and vaginal candidiasis.

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  • 45. 

    Which of the following are FDA indications for topiramate? (Select all)

    • A.

      Alcohol withdrawal

    • B.

      Bulimia nervosa

    • C.

      Depression

    • D.

      Migraine prophylaxis

    • E.

      Seizures

    Correct Answer(s)
    D. Migraine prophylaxis
    E. Seizures
    Explanation
    Topiramate is a medication that is approved by the FDA for the treatment of migraine prophylaxis and seizures. It is not indicated for alcohol withdrawal, bulimia nervosa, or depression.

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  • 46. 

    What is the brand name for insulin lispro?

    Correct Answer(s)
    Humalog
    Explanation
    Humalog is the brand name for insulin lispro. Insulin lispro is a fast-acting insulin that is used to control blood sugar levels in people with diabetes. It works by replacing the insulin that is normally produced by the body and helps to lower blood sugar levels after meals. Humalog is a commonly prescribed brand of insulin lispro and is available in various forms such as vials, cartridges, and pens for easy administration. It is important for individuals with diabetes to take their prescribed insulin as directed by their healthcare provider to effectively manage their condition.

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  • 47. 

    Select the commercially available forms of ondansetron: (select all)

    • A.

      Capsule

    • B.

      Injection

    • C.

      Oral Film

    • D.

      Orally-Disintegrating Tablet

    • E.

      Tablet

    Correct Answer(s)
    B. Injection
    C. Oral Film
    D. Orally-Disintegrating Tablet
    E. Tablet
    Explanation
    The commercially available forms of ondansetron include injection, oral film, orally-disintegrating tablet, and tablet. These different forms provide options for patients who may have difficulty swallowing tablets or prefer alternative methods of administration. Injection allows for direct administration into the bloodstream, while oral film and orally-disintegrating tablet provide convenient options for patients who have difficulty swallowing. Tablets are a common and widely used form of medication that can be easily swallowed with water.

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  • 48. 

    Which of these is the common starting dose for metformin?

    • A.

      500 mg BID

    • B.

      850 mg BID

    • C.

      1000 mg BID

    • D.

      XR 500 mg daily

    • E.

      XR 1000 mg daily

    Correct Answer
    A. 500 mg BID
    Explanation
    The common starting dose for metformin is 500 mg BID, which means taking 500 mg twice a day. This is the initial recommended dose for most patients starting metformin therapy.

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  • 49. 

    What is the brand name for insulin glargine?(Hint: Pick the one which is 100 units/mL and is not the biosimilar formulation)

    Correct Answer
    Lantus
    Explanation
    Lantus is the brand name for insulin glargine, which is a type of insulin with a concentration of 100 units/mL. It is not a biosimilar formulation, meaning it is not a copy of a previously approved insulin product. Therefore, Lantus is the correct answer to the question.

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  • 50. 

    What are the common counseling recommendations for lamotrigine? (select all)

    • A.

      Do not adjust your dose or stop without specific instructions

    • B.

      Do not take antacids, sucralfate, metal cations such as iron, and multivitamins containing zinc within 2 hours of dose

    • C.

      May cause drowsines; use caution when performing activities that require alertness

    • D.

      Promptly report any signs of hypersensitivity or rash

    • E.

      Take on an empty stomach

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Do not adjust your dose or stop without specific instructions
    C. May cause drowsines; use caution when performing activities that require alertness
    D. Promptly report any signs of hypersensitivity or rash
    Explanation
    The common counseling recommendations for lamotrigine include not adjusting the dose or stopping without specific instructions, as well as being cautious when performing activities that require alertness due to the possibility of drowsiness. It is also important to promptly report any signs of hypersensitivity or rash, as this could indicate a serious reaction.

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Quiz Review Timeline +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 30, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Feb 21, 2017
    Quiz Created by
    Sdevlin
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