2.
Generic name for Atarax?
Explanation
The generic name for Atarax is hydroxyzine hydrochloride or hydroxyzine HCl. This is the active ingredient in the medication and is used to treat anxiety, itching, and allergic reactions. Hydroxyzine works by blocking certain natural substances in the body that cause allergic symptoms. It is available in various forms such as tablets, capsules, and syrup.
3.
What is the therapeutic category for buspirone?
Correct Answer
A. Antianxiety agent
Explanation
Buspirone is classified as an antianxiety agent. It is commonly prescribed to treat anxiety disorders by affecting certain chemicals in the brain that may be unbalanced in individuals with anxiety. Unlike other medications for anxiety, buspirone does not cause sedation or addiction, making it a preferred choice for long-term treatment.
4.
Generic name for Vistaril? (hint: salt)
Correct Answer
hydroxyzine pamoate
Explanation
Hydroxyzine pamoate is the generic name for Vistaril. It is a medication that belongs to the class of antihistamines and is used to treat anxiety, itching, and other allergic reactions. The term "generic name" refers to the chemical name of a drug, which is usually derived from its active ingredient. In this case, hydroxyzine is the active ingredient, and pamoate refers to the salt form in which it is formulated. Therefore, hydroxyzine pamoate is the correct generic name for Vistaril.
5.
Generic name for Macrodantin?
Correct Answer
nitrofurantoin
Explanation
Nitrofurantoin is the generic name for Macrodantin. Generic names are the non-proprietary names given to drugs, which are usually derived from the drug's chemical structure. Macrodantin is a brand name for a medication that contains nitrofurantoin as its active ingredient. Therefore, nitrofurantoin is the correct answer as it accurately represents the generic name for Macrodantin.
6.
What is the brand name for amitriptyline?
Correct Answer
Elavil
Explanation
Elavil is the brand name for amitriptyline. It is a tricyclic antidepressant medication commonly used to treat depression, anxiety, and certain types of chronic pain. By blocking the reuptake of certain neurotransmitters in the brain, Elavil helps to restore the balance of chemicals that affect mood and emotions. It is important to note that Elavil may cause side effects and should only be used under the guidance of a healthcare professional.
7.
What is the generic name for Keppra?
Correct Answer
levetiracetam
Explanation
The generic name for Keppra is levetiracetam.
8.
Rivaroxaban is a selective inhibitor of:
Correct Answer
A. Factor Xa
Explanation
Rivaroxaban is a selective inhibitor of Factor Xa. Factor Xa is a crucial enzyme in the coagulation cascade that plays a role in the formation of blood clots. By inhibiting Factor Xa, rivaroxaban prevents the formation of thrombin, a key enzyme in the clotting process. This ultimately leads to the prevention of blood clot formation and reduces the risk of thromboembolic events.
9.
Brand name for duloxetine?
Correct Answer
Cymbalta
Explanation
Cymbalta is the brand name for duloxetine. This medication is commonly used to treat depression, anxiety, and certain types of pain. It works by restoring the balance of certain natural substances in the brain, which helps to improve mood, sleep, appetite, and energy levels. Cymbalta is available in capsule form and should be taken as prescribed by a healthcare professional.
10.
Brand name for Micronase?
Correct Answer
glyburide
Explanation
Glyburide is the brand name for the medication Micronase. It is an oral diabetes medicine that helps control blood sugar levels in individuals with type 2 diabetes. Glyburide works by stimulating the pancreas to produce insulin and helping the body use insulin more effectively. It is important for individuals with diabetes to take their medication as prescribed and maintain a healthy lifestyle to manage their condition effectively.
11.
What is the brand name for phenytoin?
Correct Answer
Dilantin
Explanation
Dilantin is the brand name for phenytoin.
12.
What is the generic name for Trileptal?
Correct Answer
Oxcarbazepine
Explanation
The generic name for Trileptal is Oxcarbazepine.
13.
What is the brand name for insulin glargine?(Hint: Pick the one which is 100 units/mL and is not the biosimilar formulation)
Correct Answer
Lantus
Explanation
Lantus is the brand name for insulin glargine, which is a type of insulin with a concentration of 100 units/mL. It is not a biosimilar formulation, meaning it is not a copy of a previously approved insulin product. Therefore, Lantus is the correct answer to the question.
14.
What is the generic name for Lopid?
Correct Answer
gemfibrozil
Explanation
Gemfibrozil is the generic name for Lopid. Generic names are the official names given to medications, which are not brand-specific. Lopid is a brand name for the medication gemfibrozil. Therefore, gemfibrozil is the correct answer as it represents the generic name for Lopid.
15.
What is the brand name product containing amlodipine and benazepril?
Correct Answer
Lotrel
Explanation
Lotrel is a brand name product that contains a combination of amlodipine and benazepril. Amlodipine is a calcium channel blocker that relaxes the blood vessels, while benazepril is an ACE inhibitor that helps lower blood pressure. Lotrel is commonly prescribed to treat hypertension (high blood pressure) in patients who require treatment with both medications.
16.
What is the generic name for Toprol XL?
Correct Answer
metoprolol succinate
Explanation
Metoprolol succinate is the generic name for Toprol XL. Generic names are the non-proprietary names given to medications, which are usually based on the active ingredients in the drug. In this case, metoprolol succinate is the active ingredient in Toprol XL, a medication used to treat high blood pressure, angina, and heart failure. By using the generic name, healthcare professionals and pharmacists can identify and prescribe the appropriate medication, regardless of the brand name.
17.
What is the generic name for Lopressor?
Correct Answer
metoprolol tartrate
Explanation
Metoprolol tartrate is the generic name for the medication Lopressor. Generic names are the official names given to drugs, which are not specific to any brand or manufacturer. Lopressor is a brand name for metoprolol tartrate, indicating that it is a specific version of the medication produced by a particular pharmaceutical company. Therefore, metoprolol tartrate is the correct generic name for Lopressor.
18.
What are the components in Fioricet? (select all)
Correct Answer(s)
A. Acetaminophen
A. Butalbital
A. Caffeine
Explanation
Fioricet is a medication that contains a combination of acetaminophen, butalbital, and caffeine. Acetaminophen is a pain reliever and fever reducer, butalbital is a barbiturate that helps to relax muscle contractions, and caffeine is a stimulant that can enhance the effects of the other ingredients. This combination is commonly used to treat tension headaches and migraines. Phenobarbital is not a component of Fioricet.
19.
Brand name of montelukast?
Correct Answer(s)
Singulair
Explanation
Singulair is the brand name of the medication montelukast. It is commonly used to treat asthma and allergies by reducing inflammation in the airways and preventing symptoms such as wheezing, coughing, and shortness of breath. Singulair works by blocking the action of certain substances in the body that cause inflammation and constriction of the airways. It is available in tablet, chewable tablet, and granule forms and should be taken as directed by a healthcare professional.
20.
What are recommended patient counseling tips for diazepam? (select all)
Correct Answer(s)
A. Avoid alcohol while taking this medication
A. May cause drowsiness, use caution when operating machinery or when mental alertness is required
A. This medication may be habit-forming
Explanation
The recommended patient counseling tips for diazepam include avoiding alcohol while taking the medication, as it can increase the sedative effects and potential side effects. Diazepam may cause drowsiness, so caution should be exercised when operating machinery or when mental alertness is required. Additionally, patients should be informed that diazepam can be habit-forming and should be used only as prescribed by their healthcare provider.
21.
What is the therapeutic class for gabapentin?
Correct Answer
A. Anticonvulsant/Antineuralgic
Explanation
Gabapentin is classified as an anticonvulsant/antineuralgic. This means that it is primarily used to treat seizures and epilepsy (anticonvulsant), as well as neuropathic pain (antineuralgic). This medication works by reducing abnormal brain activity and relieving nerve pain. It is commonly prescribed for conditions such as epilepsy, postherpetic neuralgia, and restless leg syndrome.
22.
What are the components of Augmentin? (select all)
Correct Answer(s)
A. Amoxicillin
A. Clavulanic acid
Explanation
Augmentin is a combination medication that contains two active ingredients: amoxicillin and clavulanic acid. These components work together to treat various bacterial infections. Sulfamethoxazole, trimethoprim, and valacyclovir are not components of Augmentin.
23.
Which of these are FDA approved indications for bupropion: (select all)
Correct Answer(s)
A. Depression
A. Seasonal Affective Disorder
A. Smoking Cessation
Explanation
Bupropion is an FDA-approved medication for the treatment of depression, seasonal affective disorder (SAD), and smoking cessation. It is not indicated for acute mania or schizophrenia. Bupropion is commonly used as an antidepressant and has been found to be effective in managing SAD and helping individuals quit smoking.
24.
Select which of the following agents are known to interact with warfarin: (select all)
Correct Answer(s)
A. Alcohol
A. Carbamazepine
A. Erythromycin
A. Metronidazole
A. Rifampin
Explanation
Warfarin is an anticoagulant medication commonly used to prevent blood clots. It works by inhibiting the production of certain clotting factors in the liver. Alcohol is known to interact with warfarin as it can increase the risk of bleeding. Carbamazepine, an anticonvulsant medication, can decrease the effectiveness of warfarin by increasing its metabolism. Erythromycin, an antibiotic, can increase the effects of warfarin by inhibiting its metabolism. Metronidazole, another antibiotic, can also increase the effects of warfarin by inhibiting its metabolism. Rifampin, an antibiotic used to treat tuberculosis, can decrease the effectiveness of warfarin by increasing its metabolism.
25.
What is the brand name for insulin lispro?
Correct Answer(s)
Humalog
Explanation
Humalog is the brand name for insulin lispro. Insulin lispro is a fast-acting insulin that is used to control blood sugar levels in people with diabetes. It works by replacing the insulin that is normally produced by the body and helps to lower blood sugar levels after meals. Humalog is a commonly prescribed brand of insulin lispro and is available in various forms such as vials, cartridges, and pens for easy administration. It is important for individuals with diabetes to take their prescribed insulin as directed by their healthcare provider to effectively manage their condition.
26.
What is the brand name for olmesartan?
Correct Answer(s)
Benicar
Explanation
Benicar is the brand name for the medication olmesartan. The question is asking for the specific brand name associated with olmesartan. Therefore, the correct answer is Benicar.
27.
FDA indication for Zyloprim?
Explanation
Zyloprim is indicated by the FDA for the treatment of gout. Gout is a type of arthritis that occurs when there is a buildup of uric acid crystals in the joints, leading to inflammation and pain. Zyloprim works by reducing the production of uric acid in the body, thus helping to prevent gout attacks. It is not indicated for the treatment of anxiety, diabetes, hypertension, or weight loss.
28.
Which of these would be the best choice for a patient with a documented Type I hypersensitivity to penicillin?
Correct Answer
A. Cleocin
Explanation
Cleocin would be the best choice for a patient with a documented Type I hypersensitivity to penicillin because it is not a penicillin-based antibiotic. This reduces the risk of an allergic reaction in the patient.
29.
Sertraline primarily affects which neurotransmitter?
Correct Answer
A. Serotonin
Explanation
Sertraline primarily affects the neurotransmitter serotonin. Serotonin is involved in regulating mood, emotions, sleep, and appetite. Sertraline is a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI), which means it increases the levels of serotonin in the brain by blocking its reabsorption. This helps to alleviate symptoms of depression, anxiety, and other mood disorders. By targeting serotonin, sertraline can help restore the balance of this neurotransmitter, leading to improved mental well-being.
30.
Venlafaxine (and other agents in its class) bear a black box warning for which of these?
Correct Answer
A. Suicidal thoughts
Explanation
Venlafaxine and other agents in its class have a black box warning for suicidal thoughts. This means that there is a heightened risk of experiencing suicidal thoughts or behaviors while taking this medication. It is important for patients and healthcare providers to closely monitor individuals who are prescribed venlafaxine to ensure their safety and well-being.
31.
Select the therapeutic class for promethazine:
Correct Answer
A. Antiemetic/antiallergy
Explanation
Promethazine is classified as an antiemetic/antiallergy medication. It is commonly used to prevent and treat nausea and vomiting caused by motion sickness or certain medications. Additionally, it is effective in relieving symptoms of allergies such as itching, watery eyes, and runny nose. The dual therapeutic action of promethazine makes it suitable for addressing both antiemetic and antiallergy needs in patients.
32.
Which of these is a HMG-CoA reductase inhibitor?
Correct Answer
A. Crestor
Explanation
Crestor is a HMG-CoA reductase inhibitor. This medication belongs to a class of drugs known as statins, which are used to lower cholesterol levels in the body. HMG-CoA reductase is an enzyme involved in the production of cholesterol, and by inhibiting its activity, Crestor helps to reduce the amount of cholesterol synthesized in the liver. This can lead to a decrease in LDL (bad) cholesterol and triglyceride levels, and an increase in HDL (good) cholesterol levels. Therefore, Crestor is an effective medication for managing high cholesterol and reducing the risk of cardiovascular diseases.
33.
Which of the following are adverse effects with lisinopril?
Correct Answer(s)
A. Cough
A. Dizziness
Explanation
Lisinopril is an ACE inhibitor commonly used to treat hypertension and heart failure. One of the most common adverse effects of lisinopril is a persistent dry cough, which is believed to be caused by an accumulation of bradykinin in the lungs. Dizziness is also a possible side effect, as lisinopril can cause a drop in blood pressure. Myopathy, palpitations, and tachycardia are not commonly associated with lisinopril use.
34.
Which of the following is classified as a β-blocker?
Correct Answer
A. Bystolic
Explanation
Bystolic is classified as a β-blocker because it contains the active ingredient nebivolol, which belongs to the class of drugs known as β-blockers. β-blockers work by blocking the effects of the hormone adrenaline on the body's β-receptors, leading to a decrease in heart rate and blood pressure. This makes Bystolic an effective medication for treating conditions such as hypertension and heart failure.
35.
Common patient counseling tips for Suboxone? (select all that apply)
Correct Answer(s)
A. May cause drowsiness, use caution when operating machinery or when mental alertness is required
A. Abruptly stopping therapy may precipitate withdrawal symptoms
Explanation
Patient counseling tips for Suboxone include caution when operating machinery or when mental alertness is required due to the potential for drowsiness. Additionally, abruptly stopping therapy may lead to withdrawal symptoms.
36.
Tramadol is manufactured in which strength(s)? (select all)
Correct Answer(s)
A. 50 mg
A. 100 mg
A. 300 mg
Explanation
Tramadol is manufactured in three different strengths: 50 mg, 100 mg, and 300 mg. These strengths provide different options for patients depending on their specific needs and the severity of their pain. The 50 mg strength is typically used for mild to moderate pain, while the 100 mg and 300 mg strengths are used for more severe pain. By offering these different strengths, tramadol can be tailored to meet the individual needs of patients.
37.
Diflucan would be used to treat which of the following: (select all)
Correct Answer(s)
A. Esophageal candidiasis
A. Vaginal candidiasis
Explanation
Diflucan is an antifungal medication, specifically used to treat fungal infections caused by Candida species. Esophageal candidiasis is a fungal infection of the esophagus caused by Candida, and vaginal candidiasis is a fungal infection of the vagina also caused by Candida. Therefore, Diflucan would be used to treat both esophageal candidiasis and vaginal candidiasis.
38.
Which of these is the common starting dose for metformin?
Correct Answer
A. 500 mg BID
Explanation
The common starting dose for metformin is 500 mg BID, which means taking 500 mg twice a day. This is the initial recommended dose for most patients starting metformin therapy.
39.
What is the maximum dose of atorvastatin?
Explanation
Atorvastatin is a medication used to lower cholesterol and reduce the risk of heart disease. The maximum dose of atorvastatin is 80 mg. This dosage is typically prescribed for individuals with very high levels of cholesterol or those who have not achieved their target cholesterol levels with lower doses. It is important to note that the maximum dose should only be taken under the supervision of a healthcare professional, as higher doses may increase the risk of side effects.
40.
Which is the usual maintenance dose for amiodarone?
Explanation
The usual maintenance dose for amiodarone is 400 mg. This dose is commonly prescribed to patients who require long-term treatment for certain heart rhythm disorders. It is important to note that the actual dosage may vary depending on the individual patient's condition and response to the medication. It is always recommended to consult a healthcare professional for accurate dosage instructions.
41.
Which of these is the maximum dose of amlodipine?
Explanation
Amlodipine is a medication used to treat high blood pressure and chest pain. The maximum recommended dose of amlodipine is 10 mg. This dose is determined based on factors such as the individual's medical condition, response to treatment, and any other medications they may be taking. Taking a higher dose than recommended can increase the risk of side effects and may not provide any additional benefit in terms of effectiveness. Therefore, 10 mg is the maximum dose of amlodipine.
42.
What is the therapeutic class for Nystatin?
Correct Answer
A. Antifungal
Explanation
Nystatin is classified as an antifungal medication. It is commonly used to treat fungal infections, particularly those caused by Candida species. Nystatin works by disrupting the cell membranes of the fungi, leading to their death. Therefore, the correct therapeutic class for Nystatin is antifungal.
43.
Niacin has which of the following adverse effects associated with it? (select all)
Correct Answer(s)
A. Flushing
A. Pruritis
A. Rash
Explanation
Niacin can cause flushing, pruritis (itching), and rash as adverse effects. Flushing is a common side effect of niacin, characterized by a warm, red, and itchy feeling on the skin. Pruritis refers to itching of the skin, which can be experienced as a result of niacin intake. Additionally, niacin has been known to cause rashes, which are characterized by redness, inflammation, and irritation of the skin. These adverse effects are important to be aware of when considering niacin therapy.
44.
What are the active ingredients in Symbicort? (select all)
Correct Answer(s)
A. Budesonide
A. Formoterol
Explanation
The active ingredients in Symbicort are Budesonide and Formoterol. These two drugs work together to help control and prevent symptoms of asthma and chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). Budesonide is a corticosteroid that reduces inflammation in the airways, while Formoterol is a long-acting bronchodilator that helps to relax the muscles in the airways, making it easier to breathe. Together, these medications provide both anti-inflammatory and bronchodilator effects to improve respiratory function.
45.
Sotalol is FDA-approved to treat which condition?
Correct Answer
A. Ventricular arrhythmias
Explanation
Sotalol is FDA-approved to treat ventricular arrhythmias. Ventricular arrhythmias are abnormal heart rhythms that originate in the ventricles, the lower chambers of the heart. Sotalol is a medication that belongs to a class of drugs called beta-blockers, which work by blocking the effects of adrenaline on the heart. By doing so, sotalol helps to regulate the heart rhythm and prevent dangerous arrhythmias in patients with ventricular arrhythmias. It is important to note that sotalol should only be used under the supervision of a healthcare professional, as it can have significant side effects and interactions with other medications.
46.
Select the therapeutic class for trazodone:
Correct Answer
A. Antidepressant
Explanation
Trazodone is classified as an antidepressant. It is commonly used to treat major depressive disorder and can also be prescribed off-label for sleep disorders such as insomnia. Trazodone works by increasing the levels of serotonin in the brain, which helps to improve mood and alleviate symptoms of depression. It is not classified as an antianxiety agent, anticonvulsant, or antiepileptic, as its primary therapeutic effect is in treating depression.
47.
Paroxetine has FDA indications for which of the following? (select all)
Correct Answer(s)
A. Depression
A. Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder
A. Panic Disorder
Explanation
Paroxetine is a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) that is commonly used to treat depression, obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD), and panic disorder. It is not indicated for the treatment of diabetic neuropathy or fibromyalgia.
48.
Please select the common patient counseling tips and adverse effects for glipizide? (select all)
Correct Answer(s)
A. Avoid excessive alcohol intake
A. May cause hypoglycemia
A. Take 30 minutes prior to meals
Explanation
The common patient counseling tips for glipizide include avoiding excessive alcohol intake and taking the medication 30 minutes prior to meals. Glipizide may also cause hypoglycemia, which is a potential adverse effect of the medication.
49.
Which of these would contraindicate the use of Zocor in a patient? (select all)
Correct Answer(s)
A. Active liver disease
A. Pregnancy
Explanation
Active liver disease and pregnancy are contraindications for the use of Zocor. Active liver disease can worsen liver function and increase the risk of liver damage when taking Zocor. Pregnancy is a contraindication because Zocor can cause harm to the developing fetus. Asthma, impaired renal function, and type I sulfa hypersensitivity are not contraindications for the use of Zocor.