154 Periodotalogy- Prof. Sok Chea

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154 Periodotalogy- Prof. Sok Chea - Quiz


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    We need to consider which of the following in the treatment of refractory periodontal disease :?

    • A.

      Surgery

    • B.

      Antibiotic

    • C.

      Systemic health

    • D.

      Mechanical debridement

    • E.

      All of the above

    Correct Answer
    E. All of the above
    Explanation
    All of the options mentioned (surgery, antibiotic, systemic health, and mechanical debridement) should be considered in the treatment of refractory periodontal disease. Refractory periodontal disease refers to a severe form of gum disease that does not respond well to conventional treatment methods. Surgery may be necessary to remove deep-seated infection or to reshape the gums. Antibiotics can help control the bacterial infection causing the disease. Systemic health, such as managing underlying medical conditions, can impact the progression of periodontal disease. Mechanical debridement, which involves removing plaque and tartar from the teeth and gums, is a crucial part of managing periodontal disease. Therefore, all of these factors should be taken into account for effective treatment.

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  • 2. 

    In an adult patient with chronic adult periodontitis the most successful approach to treatment is:?

    • A.

      Surgery

    • B.

      Extreme initial treatment followed by reviews every year

    • C.

      Initial periodontal therapy followed by maintenance therapy alone

    Correct Answer
    C. Initial periodontal therapy followed by maintenance therapy alone
    Explanation
    The most successful approach to treatment for an adult patient with chronic adult periodontitis is initial periodontal therapy followed by maintenance therapy alone. This approach involves a thorough cleaning of the teeth and gums to remove plaque and tartar buildup, followed by regular maintenance visits to prevent further disease progression. Surgery may be necessary in some cases, but it is not the most successful approach for all patients. Extreme initial treatment followed by yearly reviews may not provide long-term success in managing the condition.

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  • 3. 

    What are common indications for Apically Positioned Flap?

    • A.

      Crown lengthening

    • B.

      Pocket reduction

    • C.

      Root coverage

    • D.

      All of the above

    • E.

      Crown lengthening and Pocket reduction

    Correct Answer
    E. Crown lengthening and Pocket reduction
    Explanation
    Apically Positioned Flap is a surgical procedure used in periodontics to treat various gum conditions. Crown lengthening involves removing gum tissue to expose more of the tooth's surface, usually done to prepare for a dental restoration. Pocket reduction aims to reduce the depth of periodontal pockets, which are spaces between the gums and teeth that can harbor bacteria and cause gum disease. Therefore, both crown lengthening and pocket reduction are common indications for Apically Positioned Flap. Root coverage, on the other hand, usually involves a different surgical technique and is not typically associated with Apically Positioned Flap.

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  • 4. 

    What bacteria are associated with ANUG?

    • A.

      P. gingivalis

    • B.

      Actinobacillus actinomycetemcomitans,

    • C.

      Fusobacterium nucleatum and Prevetella intermedia,

    • D.

      Fusospirochetal complex (fusiform bacteria and spirochetes).

    Correct Answer
    D. Fusospirochetal complex (fusiform bacteria and spirochetes).
    Explanation
    ANUG stands for Acute Necrotizing Ulcerative Gingivitis, which is a severe form of gum disease. The bacteria associated with ANUG include P. gingivalis, Actinobacillus actinomycetemcomitans, Fusobacterium nucleatum, and Prevotella intermedia. However, the primary bacteria involved in ANUG are the fusospirochetal complex, which consists of fusiform bacteria and spirochetes. These bacteria contribute to the progression of ANUG and the formation of necrotic ulcers in the gums.

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  • 5. 

    When should a soft tissue graft be considered as an appropriate treatment of gingival recession?

    • A.

      Probing extents beyond the mucogingival junction

    • B.

      Abnormal frenum attachment

    • C.

      Root sensitivity, root caries

    • D.

      All above

    Correct Answer
    D. All above
    Explanation
    A soft tissue graft should be considered as an appropriate treatment of gingival recession when there are probing extents beyond the mucogingival junction, abnormal frenum attachment, and symptoms such as root sensitivity and root caries. These conditions indicate a significant amount of gum recession and potential damage to the roots, which can be effectively addressed through a soft tissue graft procedure.

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  • 6. 

    In an adult patient with chronic adult periodontitis the most successful approach to treatment is?

    • A.

      Surgery

    • B.

      Extreme initial treatment followed by reviews every year

    • C.

      Initial periodontal therapy followed by maintenance therapy alone

    Correct Answer
    C. Initial periodontal therapy followed by maintenance therapy alone
    Explanation
    The most successful approach to treatment for an adult patient with chronic adult periodontitis is initial periodontal therapy followed by maintenance therapy alone. This approach involves treating the initial infection and inflammation through procedures such as scaling and root planing, and then maintaining oral hygiene through regular cleanings and check-ups. This approach aims to control the disease and prevent further progression, leading to long-term success in managing chronic adult periodontitis.

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  • 7. 

    Pre-operative preparation of exposed roots following gingival recession can be accomplished using substances such as EDTA or Tetracycline paste, for what period of time must this be applied to the root surface?

    • A.

      1mm

    • B.

      2mm

    • C.

      4mm

    • D.

      5mm

    • E.

      3mm

    Correct Answer
    E. 3mm
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 3mm. When preparing exposed roots following gingival recession, substances such as EDTA or Tetracycline paste should be applied to the root surface for a period of time equal to the depth of the recession, which in this case is 3mm. This ensures proper cleaning and disinfection of the root surface before any further treatment or procedures.

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  • 8. 

    The following substance(s) can be used to condition the root surface prior to grafting?

    • A.

      EDTA

    • B.

      Tetracycline

    • C.

      Acidic acid

    • D.

      Nitric acid

    • E.

      EDTA, Tetracycline and Citric acid

    Correct Answer
    E. EDTA, Tetracycline and Citric acid
    Explanation
    EDTA, Tetracycline, and Citric acid can be used to condition the root surface prior to grafting. EDTA is a chelating agent that helps remove the smear layer and expose collagen fibers. Tetracycline is an antibiotic that helps in disinfection and promotes attachment of fibroblasts. Citric acid is an acidic agent that aids in demineralization and exposes dentin tubules. Using these substances before grafting helps prepare the root surface for better graft integration and success.

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  • 9. 

    The use autogenous grafts utilizing the palatal connective tissue the initial incision for graft harvesting should be made at what measurement above the gingival margin of the maxillary teeth?

    • A.

      1mm

    • B.

      3mm

    • C.

      4mm

    • D.

      The measurement is relatively unimportant

    • E.

      2mm

    Correct Answer
    E. 2mm
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 2mm. When using autogenous grafts utilizing the palatal connective tissue, the initial incision for graft harvesting should be made at a measurement of 2mm above the gingival margin of the maxillary teeth. This specific measurement is important to ensure proper graft harvesting and to minimize any potential damage to the surrounding tissues.

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  • 10. 

    Incision in the esthetic zone with regards to semi-lunar graft treatment of gingival recession: ?

    • A.

      Should whenever possible be vertical

    • B.

      Should where ever possible be made through thin connective tissue

    • C.

      Should initially be made of full thickness

    • D.

      Initially should be made at the mucogingival junction

    Correct Answer
    D. Initially should be made at the mucogingival junction
    Explanation
    The initial incision in the esthetic zone for semi-lunar graft treatment of gingival recession should be made at the mucogingival junction. This is because the mucogingival junction is the boundary between the attached gingiva and the alveolar mucosa, and making the incision at this point allows for better access and visibility during the procedure. Additionally, starting the incision at the mucogingival junction helps to preserve the blood supply to the graft and ensures a more esthetically pleasing outcome.

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  • 11. 

    Modified Widman Flap was first introduce by ?

    • A.

      Neuman in 1920

    • B.

      Widman in 1918

    • C.

      Ramfiord and Widman in 1974

    • D.

      Ramfiord and Neuman in 1945

    • E.

      Ramfiord and Nissele in 1974

    Correct Answer
    E. Ramfiord and Nissele in 1974
  • 12. 

    Apical position flap was first introduced by ?

    • A.

      Neuman in 1918

    • B.

      Kirkland, O. in 1920

    • C.

      Nebers, Neuman in 1954

    • D.

      Nebers, C.L in 1954

    Correct Answer
    D. Nebers, C.L in 1954
  • 13. 

    Papilla preservation flap was first introduced by ?

    • A.

      Kirkland, O. in 1985

    • B.

      Friedman and Neuman in 1985

    • C.

      Neuman and Arjaudo, a.a & Tyrell in 1985

    • D.

      Takei, H,H in 1985

    Correct Answer
    D. Takei, H,H in 1985
  • 14. 

    Two releasing incisions demarcate the area schedule for surgical therapy. A scalloped reverse bevel incision is made in the gingival margin to connected the two releasing incision. This technic called:?

    • A.

      Apical position flap

    • B.

      Modified Widman flap

    • C.

      Papilla preservation flap

    • D.

      Kirdland flap

    • E.

      Original Widman flap

    Correct Answer
    E. Original Widman flap
    Explanation
    The Original Widman flap technique involves making two releasing incisions to mark the area scheduled for surgical therapy. A scalloped reverse bevel incision is then made in the gingival margin to connect the two releasing incisions. This technique aims to remove the inflamed pocket lining and reshape the gingiva to promote healing and prevent further periodontal disease progression. The other options mentioned (Apical position flap, Modified Widman flap, Papilla preservation flap, and Kirdland flap) are different periodontal surgical techniques with their own specific indications and procedures.

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  • 15. 

    Intracrevicular incision then the gingiva is retracted to expose the diseased root surfaces and the exposed root surfaces are subjected to mechanical debridement then the flap are replaced to their original position and sutured. This technic called. ?

    • A.

      Apical position flap

    • B.

      Original Widman flap

    • C.

      Modified Widman flap

    • D.

      Papilla preservation flap

    • E.

      Kirdland flap

    Correct Answer
    E. Kirdland flap
  • 16. 

    The initial incision is placed 0.5-1mm from the gingival margin and parallel to the long axis of the tooth. Following careful elevation of flaps, second intracrevicular incision is made to the alveolar bone crest to separate the tissue collar from the root surface. A third incision is made perpendicular to the root surface and as close as possible to the bone crest, thereby separating the tissue collar from the alveolar bone. This technic called:?

    • A.

      Apical position flap

    • B.

      Original Widman flap

    • C.

      Papilla preservation flap

    • D.

      Kirdland flap

    • E.

      Modified Widman flap

    Correct Answer
    E. Modified Widman flap
  • 17. 

    All the following are phases of periodontal treatment plan except: ?

    • A.

      Surgical phase

    • B.

      Maintenance phase

    • C.

      Non-surgical phase

    • D.

      Refractory phase

    Correct Answer
    D. Refractory pHase
    Explanation
    The refractory phase is not a phase of periodontal treatment. The surgical phase involves surgical procedures to treat periodontal disease, while the non-surgical phase includes non-invasive treatments such as scaling and root planing. The maintenance phase focuses on regular check-ups and cleanings to prevent further progression of the disease. However, the refractory phase does not refer to any specific stage or treatment in periodontal therapy.

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  • 18. 

    Necrotizing ulcerative periodontitis ?

    • A.

      Is associated with deep periodontal pocket

    • B.

      Is not responsive to any therapy

    • C.

      Leads to gingival recession due to faulty tooth brushing

    • D.

      Is associated with crater like depression at the tip of interdental papilla and vesicle formation

    Correct Answer
    D. Is associated with crater like depression at the tip of interdental papilla and vesicle formation
    Explanation
    Necrotizing ulcerative periodontitis is associated with a crater-like depression at the tip of the interdental papilla and vesicle formation. This condition is characterized by the destruction of the periodontal tissues, leading to the formation of ulcers and necrosis. The presence of a crater-like depression and vesicle formation is a key clinical feature of necrotizing ulcerative periodontitis, helping to differentiate it from other periodontal diseases.

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  • 19. 

    Which is the best method of brushing technique preferred for the patient with orthodontic appliance: ?

    • A.

      Bass method

    • B.

      Still man method

    • C.

      Both a and b correct

    • D.

      Charter’s method

    Correct Answer
    D. Charter’s method
    Explanation
    Charter's method is the best brushing technique for patients with orthodontic appliances. This method involves using a circular motion to clean both the teeth and the brackets or wires of the appliance. It is effective in removing plaque and food debris from hard-to-reach areas and helps maintain good oral hygiene during orthodontic treatment.

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  • 20. 

    Which of the following statements accurately interrelates the tooth and periodontium interface?

    • A.

      Junctional epithelium cells are oriented parallel to the root surface

    • B.

      The juntional epeithelial cells are non secreting cells

    • C.

      The lamina densa primarily contains hemidesmosomal plaques.

    • D.

      Periodontal ligament fibers insert in cementum and bone biochemically through fibronectin

    Correct Answer
    D. Periodontal ligament fibers insert in cementum and bone biochemically through fibronectin
    Explanation
    The periodontal ligament fibers insert in cementum and bone through a biochemical process involving fibronectin. This means that fibronectin plays a crucial role in the attachment of the periodontal ligament fibers to the cementum and bone. It is not the junctional epithelium cells that are oriented parallel to the root surface, nor are they non-secreting cells. The lamina densa does contain hemidesmosomal plaques, but this is not directly related to the interrelation between the tooth and periodontium interface.

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  • 21. 

    During an acute gingival inflammation response, which of the following cell types can destroy virulent bacteria by phagocytosis and T-cell mediation?

    • A.

      Plasma cells

    • B.

      Mast cells and Polymorphonuclear

    • C.

      Limphocytes

    • D.

      Macraphage

    Correct Answer
    D. MacrapHage
    Explanation
    Macrophages are a type of immune cell that can destroy virulent bacteria through phagocytosis, which is the process of engulfing and digesting foreign particles. They also play a role in T-cell mediation, which involves activating and coordinating other immune cells to mount an immune response against the bacteria. Plasma cells are responsible for producing antibodies, mast cells are involved in allergic reactions, polymorphonuclear cells are a type of white blood cell, and lymphocytes are a general term for various types of immune cells including T-cells and B-cells. Therefore, the correct answer is macrophage.

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  • 22. 

    A 27 years-old present to your office all of the following: loss of interdental marginal stippling, blue-red tissue color, and bleeding upon gently probing, Your diagnosis is: ?

    • A.

      Gingival recession

    • B.

      Systemic diseases

    • C.

      Advanced periodontal diseases

    • D.

      Chronic gingivitis

    Correct Answer
    D. Chronic gingivitis
    Explanation
    The patient's presentation of loss of interdental marginal stippling, blue-red tissue color, and bleeding upon gentle probing is consistent with chronic gingivitis. Gingivitis is an inflammation of the gums caused by plaque buildup and poor oral hygiene. The symptoms described are characteristic of chronic gingivitis, which is a long-term and persistent form of the condition. Gingival recession, systemic diseases, and advanced periodontal diseases may also cause similar symptoms, but the given symptoms specifically point towards chronic gingivitis as the most likely diagnosis.

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  • 23. 

    Periodontium include all of the following: ?

    • A.

      Enamel, root periodontal ligaments and alveolar bone

    • B.

      Gum, alveolar bone, dentine and cementum

    • C.

      All of the above

    • D.

      Cementum, gum, alveolar bone and periodontal ligaments

    Correct Answer
    D. Cementum, gum, alveolar bone and periodontal ligaments
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Cementum, gum, alveolar bone, and periodontal ligaments." The periodontium is the supporting structure of the teeth and includes the cementum (outer layer of the tooth root), gum (gingiva), alveolar bone (bone that surrounds and supports the teeth), and periodontal ligaments (connective tissue that attaches the tooth to the bone).

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  • 24. 

    40 years diabetic patient, present clinically with periodontal attachment loss and diagnosed as having periodontitis. According to AAP 1999 classification of periodontal diseases, the type of periodontitis in this case is:?

    • A.

      Aggressive periodontitis

    • B.

      Chronic periodontitis modified by systemic condition

    • C.

      Generalized aggressive periodontitis

    • D.

      Periodontitis as a manifestation of systemic disease

    Correct Answer
    D. Periodontitis as a manifestation of systemic disease
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Periodontitis as a manifestation of systemic disease." This is because the patient is a 40-year-old diabetic, and diabetes is a systemic disease that can contribute to periodontal attachment loss and periodontitis. The AAP 1999 classification recognizes periodontitis as a manifestation of systemic disease when there is a clear relationship between the periodontal condition and a systemic disease like diabetes.

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  • 25. 

    In the present of abundant plaque formation hyperplastic gingivitis can be associated with which of the following?

    • A.

      Cyclosporine

    • B.

      Procardia

    • C.

      Pregnancy

    • D.

      Phenytoin

    • E.

      All of them

    Correct Answer
    E. All of them
    Explanation
    In the presence of abundant plaque formation, hyperplastic gingivitis can be associated with all of the options given. Cyclosporine, Procardia, pregnancy, and phenytoin have all been linked to gingival overgrowth. Cyclosporine is an immunosuppressive drug used in organ transplant patients, Procardia is a calcium channel blocker used to treat high blood pressure, pregnancy can cause hormonal changes that can lead to gingival overgrowth, and phenytoin is an anticonvulsant medication that can also cause gingival overgrowth.

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  • 26. 

    Root planning is ?

    • A.

      Removal of material alba and stain from tooth surface

    • B.

      Removal of soft tissue wall and periodontal pocket

    • C.

      Removal of food debris from tooth surface

    • D.

      Removal of diseased cementum along with other root deposits.

    Correct Answer
    D. Removal of diseased cementum along with other root deposits.
    Explanation
    Root planning is the process of removing diseased cementum along with other root deposits. This procedure is often performed to treat periodontal disease, as the removal of these deposits helps to eliminate bacteria and promote healing of the gums. By removing the diseased cementum, the root surface can be smoothed, allowing for better attachment of the gums to the tooth and preventing further progression of the disease.

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  • 27. 

    Gracey curretes used to scale distal surface of posterior teeth are ?

    • A.

      Gracey curretes 1/2, 3/4 and 11/12

    • B.

      Gracey curretes 11/12, 13/14 and 5/6

    • C.

      Gracey curretes 7/8 and 9/10

    • D.

      Gracey curretes 13/14

    Correct Answer
    D. Gracey curretes 13/14
  • 28. 

    In Periodontal disease, loss of which of the following fiber bundles are primarily associated in preventing the progressive downward proliferation of the junctional epithelium into the periodontal ligament and alveolar bone ?

    • A.

      Circular fiber

    • B.

      Interradicular fiber

    • C.

      Alveolar gingival fiber

    • D.

      Transseptal fiber

    Correct Answer
    D. Transseptal fiber
    Explanation
    Transseptal fibers are primarily associated with preventing the progressive downward proliferation of the junctional epithelium into the periodontal ligament and alveolar bone in Periodontal disease. These fibers run horizontally between adjacent teeth and help to maintain the position of the junctional epithelium, preventing its migration into the deeper tissues. Loss of transseptal fibers can lead to the progression of Periodontal disease and the breakdown of the supporting structures of the teeth.

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  • 29. 

    Gracey curretes used to scale mesial surface of posterior teeth are : ?

    • A.

      Gracey curretes 1/2, 3/4 and 11/12

    • B.

      Gracey curretes 11/12, 13/14 and 5/6

    • C.

      Gracey curretes 7/8 and 9/10

    • D.

      Gracey curretes 11/12

    Correct Answer
    D. Gracey curretes 11/12
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Gracey curretes 11/12. This is because Gracey curretes are dental instruments specifically designed for scaling and root planing. Each Gracey curette has a specific blade design and angulation that allows for effective removal of calculus and plaque from different tooth surfaces. The 11/12 Gracey curette is specifically used for scaling the mesial surface of posterior teeth, making it the most appropriate choice for this task.

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  • 30. 

    Regional lymphnode enlargement is present in: ?

    • A.

      Linchen planus

    • B.

      Pemphigus vulgaris

    • C.

      Pemphigoid

    • D.

      Chronic ulcerative stomatitis

    • E.

      Acute pericoronitis

    Correct Answer
    E. Acute pericoronitis
    Explanation
    Acute pericoronitis is an infection that occurs around the crown of a partially erupted tooth. This infection can cause inflammation and swelling of the regional lymph nodes in the area. The other conditions listed, such as lichen planus, pemphigus vulgaris, pemphigoid, and chronic ulcerative stomatitis, do not typically cause regional lymph node enlargement. Therefore, the correct answer is acute pericoronitis.

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  • 31. 

    Horizontal bone loss is present in : ?

    • A.

      Localized aggressive periodontitis

    • B.

      Generalized aggressive periodontitis

    • C.

      Intrabony pockets

    • D.

      Acute necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis

    • E.

      Chronic periodontitis

    Correct Answer
    E. Chronic periodontitis
    Explanation
    Horizontal bone loss is a common characteristic of chronic periodontitis. This condition is characterized by the progressive loss of the bone that supports the teeth, resulting in a horizontal or even pattern of bone loss around the affected teeth. Unlike localized or generalized aggressive periodontitis, which typically involve vertical bone loss, chronic periodontitis is a slow and chronic inflammatory disease that affects the supporting structures of the teeth. Intrabony pockets and acute necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis may also be associated with bone loss, but they are not specific to horizontal bone loss as seen in chronic periodontitis.

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  • 32. 

    Average human biologic width is?

    • A.

      3mm

    • B.

      4mm

    • C.

      1mm

    • D.

      0.5mm

    • E.

      2mm

    Correct Answer
    E. 2mm
    Explanation
    The average human biologic width is 2mm. This refers to the distance between the base of the gum pocket and the bone level. It is important to consider this measurement in dental procedures to ensure that there is enough space for proper placement of restorations and to avoid damage to the surrounding tissues.

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  • 33. 

    Papilla preservation flap:?

    • A.

      Is a conventional flap precedures

    • B.

      Is used when narrow interdental spaces are present

    • C.

      Is a partial thickness flap

    • D.

      Is a apically displace flap

    • E.

      Is used for teeth with wide interdental spaces

    Correct Answer
    E. Is used for teeth with wide interdental spaces
    Explanation
    The papilla preservation flap is a surgical technique used for teeth with wide interdental spaces. This flap procedure aims to maintain the height and contour of the interdental papilla, which is the triangular gum tissue between the teeth. By preserving the papilla, the dentist can achieve better aesthetic outcomes and prevent the formation of black triangles between the teeth. This technique involves creating a partial thickness flap, which means that only the outer layer of gum tissue is lifted, leaving the underlying tissue intact.

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  • 34. 

    Greater occlusal pressure on the periodontium produces:

    • A.

      Increase resorption of alveolar bone and formation of cementum

    • B.

      A gradation of changes in periodontal ligament starting with tension of fibers which produce area of fibrosis

    • C.

      Disintegration of blood vessels within 30 minutes

    • D.

      Disintegration of blood vessels within 5 minutes

    • E.

      Injury of fibroblasts and other connective tissue cells lead to necrosis of area of the ligament

    Correct Answer
    E. Injury of fibroblasts and other connective tissue cells lead to necrosis of area of the ligament
    Explanation
    Greater occlusal pressure on the periodontium can cause injury to fibroblasts and other connective tissue cells, leading to necrosis of the area of the ligament. This occurs due to the excessive force exerted on the periodontal ligament, which can result in cellular damage and tissue death. This can further contribute to the development of periodontal disease and the breakdown of the periodontal ligament.

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  • 35. 

    The mobility of the teeth is graded 3 if : ?

    • A.

      The mobility is 1mm

    • B.

      The mobility is in apico-occlusal direction and 1mm in labio-lingual direction

    • C.

      The mobility is in apico-occlusal direction and mobility is less than 1mm in labio-lingual direction

    • D.

      The mobility is less than 1mm

    • E.

      The mobility is in apico-occlusal direction and mobility in labio-lingual direction is more than 2mm

    Correct Answer
    E. The mobility is in apico-occlusal direction and mobility in labio-lingual direction is more than 2mm
    Explanation
    According to the given options, the correct answer is "The mobility is in apico-occlusal direction and mobility in labio-lingual direction is more than 2mm". This means that for the mobility to be graded as 3, the teeth must have movement in the apico-occlusal direction and the movement in the labio-lingual direction must be more than 2mm. The other options either do not meet the criteria for grading 3 mobility or have incorrect measurements.

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  • 36. 

    Furcation involvement is measure by: ?

    • A.

      WHO probe

    • B.

      CPITN probe

    • C.

      Michigan “O” probe

    • D.

      Periodontal explorer

    • E.

      Naber’s probe

    Correct Answer
    E. Naber’s probe
    Explanation
    Furcation involvement refers to the extent to which the roots of multi-rooted teeth are affected by periodontal disease. Naber's probe is specifically designed to measure the depth and severity of furcation involvement. It has a curved, fine tip that can easily access and navigate the furcation areas. The other probes listed, such as the WHO probe, CPITN probe, Michigan "O" probe, and periodontal explorer, are not specifically designed for measuring furcation involvement and may not be as effective in accurately assessing this condition.

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  • 37. 

    Periodontal attachment loss detect clinically: ?

    • A.

      When there is recession only.

    • B.

      When there is radiographic alveolar bone loss.

    • C.

      When there is true pocket only.

    • D.

      When there is recession and/or true pocket.

    Correct Answer
    D. When there is recession and/or true pocket.
    Explanation
    Periodontal attachment loss can be detected clinically when there is recession and/or true pocket. Recession refers to the exposure of the root surface due to the loss of gum tissue, while a true pocket is a deepening of the gum pocket around the tooth caused by the destruction of the supporting structures. Both recession and true pocket indicate the loss of attachment between the tooth and the surrounding tissues, making them important indicators of periodontal attachment loss. Therefore, when either of these conditions is present, it suggests the presence of periodontal attachment loss.

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  • 38. 

    16 years boy, present clinically with attachment loss related to 1st Molars and Incisors only. Diagnosis of this case according to AAP 1999 periodontal diseases Classification is: ?

    • A.

      Generalizedaggressiveperiodontitis.

    • B.

      Generalized juvenile periodontitis.

    • C.

      Localized juvenile periodontitis.

    • D.

      Localized aggressive periodontitis.

    Correct Answer
    D. Localized aggressive periodontitis.
    Explanation
    Based on the given information, the 16-year-old boy is presenting with attachment loss related to the first molars and incisors only. This pattern of attachment loss is characteristic of localized aggressive periodontitis.

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  • 39. 

    60 years diabetic patient, present clinically with periodontal attachment loss and diagnosed as having periodontitis. According to AAP 1999 classification of periodontal diseases, the type of periodontitis in this case is: ?

    • A.

      Aggressive periodontitis.

    • B.

      Chronic periodontitis modified by systemic condition.

    • C.

      Periodontitis as a manifestation of systemic disease

    Correct Answer
    C. Periodontitis as a manifestation of systemic disease
    Explanation
    Based on the given information, the patient is a 60-year-old diabetic with periodontal attachment loss. This suggests that the periodontitis is not aggressive, as aggressive periodontitis typically affects younger individuals. Additionally, the patient's periodontitis is not simply chronic periodontitis modified by a systemic condition, as the systemic condition (diabetes) is likely contributing to the manifestation of periodontitis. Therefore, the most appropriate classification for the type of periodontitis in this case is periodontitis as a manifestation of systemic disease.

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  • 40. 

    Planning of periodontal surgery best accomplished at: ?

    • A.

      Phase I therapy.

    • B.

      AfterphaseItherapyandbeforere-evaluation.

    • C.

      Can be planned at any phase of periodontal therapy.

    • D.

      After phase I therapy and during re-evaluation visit.

    Correct Answer
    D. After pHase I therapy and during re-evaluation visit.
    Explanation
    Planning of periodontal surgery is best accomplished after phase I therapy and during the re-evaluation visit because phase I therapy involves initial non-surgical treatment such as scaling and root planing, which helps to control the infection and inflammation in the gums. After this initial therapy, it is important to re-evaluate the patient's response to treatment and assess the effectiveness of phase I therapy. This evaluation will help determine if further surgical intervention is necessary and if so, what specific procedures are needed. Therefore, the correct answer is after phase I therapy and during the re-evaluation visit.

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  • 41. 

    Most commonly used periodontal pack is/are: ?

    • A.

      Zinc oxide Eugenol pack.

    • B.

      Non Eugenol pack.

    • C.

      Coe-Pack.

    • D.

      Non Eugenol pack and Coe-Pack.

    Correct Answer
    D. Non Eugenol pack and Coe-Pack.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Non Eugenol pack and Coe-Pack. These are the most commonly used periodontal packs. Non Eugenol pack is preferred when the patient is allergic to eugenol, while Coe-Pack is a versatile pack that can be used for various dental procedures. Both these packs are widely used in periodontal treatment to promote healing and protect the surgical site.

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  • 42. 

    On human jaws there are anatomical areas which can be used as a source for bone graft harvest for periodontal regenerative surgical procedure, of those areas is/are: ?

    • A.

      Premaxilla.

    • B.

      MaxillaryTubersity.

    • C.

      External oblique ridge of the mandible.

    • D.

      Maxillary Tubersity and External oblique ridge of the mandible.

    Correct Answer
    D. Maxillary Tubersity and External oblique ridge of the mandible.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Maxillary Tubersity and External oblique ridge of the mandible. These anatomical areas on the human jaws can be used as a source for bone graft harvest for periodontal regenerative surgical procedures.

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  • 43. 

    Periodontal surgery can be classified into many types, of those types is/are: ?

    • A.

      Transalveolar surgery, implant surgery, resective osseous surgery.

    • B.

      Gingival curettage, Periodontal flap, Surgical extraction.

    • C.

      Gingevectomy, Regenerative periodontal surgery, surgical closure of oro-antral fistula.

    • D.

      Periodontal flap surgery, periodontal plastic surgery, resective osseous surgery.

    Correct Answer
    D. Periodontal flap surgery, periodontal plastic surgery, resective osseous surgery.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Periodontal flap surgery, periodontal plastic surgery, resective osseous surgery. These are all types of periodontal surgery that involve different techniques and procedures. Periodontal flap surgery involves lifting the gum tissue to access and clean the roots of the teeth. Periodontal plastic surgery is a cosmetic procedure that aims to improve the appearance of the gum tissue. Resective osseous surgery involves removing or reshaping the bone around the teeth to treat periodontal disease. These types of surgery are commonly performed by periodontists to treat various gum and bone-related issues.

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  • 44. 

    Adult patient present clinically with irregular thickness of buccal gingiva, a round diamond bur used to correct and establish a physiological gingival contour. The type of this procedure is/are:?

    • A.

      Gingivectomy.

    • B.

      Combined gingivoplasty & gingivectomy.

    • C.

      None of the above.

    • D.

      Gingivoplasty.

    Correct Answer
    D. Gingivoplasty.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Gingivoplasty. Gingivoplasty is a surgical procedure used to reshape and contour the gingiva, or gum tissue, to establish a more natural and aesthetic appearance. In this case, the irregular thickness of the buccal gingiva is being corrected using a round diamond bur, which is a common tool used in gingivoplasty procedures. Gingivectomy involves the removal of gum tissue, but in this case, there is no mention of tissue removal, so gingivectomy is not the correct answer. Combined gingivoplasty and gingivectomy is also not the correct answer as only gingivoplasty is being performed.

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  • 45. 

    Which of the following does not come under phase 1 therapy?

    • A.

      Plaque control

    • B.

      Root planning

    • C.

      Restoration

    • D.

      Removable prosthodontic appliances

    Correct Answer
    D. Removable prosthodontic appliances
    Explanation
    Phase 1 therapy typically focuses on the initial treatment of periodontal disease and includes procedures such as plaque control, root planning, and restoration. Removable prosthodontic appliances, on the other hand, are not typically considered part of phase 1 therapy as they are more related to the replacement of missing teeth or the restoration of oral function.

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  • 46. 

    Curettage comes under?

    • A.

      Phase-II

    • B.

      Phase-Ill

    • C.

      Phase-IV

    • D.

      Phase-1

    Correct Answer
    D. pHase-1
    Explanation
    Curettage is a medical procedure that involves scraping or removing tissue from the lining of a body cavity or surface. It is commonly used in Phase-1 of clinical trials, which focuses on assessing the safety and tolerability of a new drug or treatment in a small group of healthy volunteers or patients. During this phase, researchers gather preliminary data on the drug's pharmacokinetics, dosage range, and potential side effects. Therefore, curettage is most likely to be performed during Phase-1 of clinical trials.

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  • 47. 

    The concept of one stage Full mouth disinfection has been put forth to prevent?

    • A.

      Adhesion of microorganisms

    • B.

      Proliferation of microorganisms

    • C.

      Bacterial invasion

    • D.

      Translocation of microorganisms

    Correct Answer
    D. Translocation of microorganisms
    Explanation
    The concept of one stage Full mouth disinfection aims to prevent the translocation of microorganisms. This means that it focuses on stopping the movement or spread of microorganisms from one area of the mouth to another. By disinfecting the entire mouth in one stage, the risk of microorganisms being transferred to different parts of the mouth is reduced, thereby preventing potential infections or complications.

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  • 48. 

    Main aim of restoration of carious lesion in phase-I therapy?

    • A.

      To restore function of tooth

    • B.

      To restore form of tooth

    • C.

      All of the above

    • D.

      To reduce microbial source

    Correct Answer
    D. To reduce microbial source
    Explanation
    The main aim of restoration of carious lesion in phase-I therapy is to reduce the microbial source. This is because carious lesions are caused by bacteria that break down the tooth structure, and restoring the tooth helps to eliminate or minimize the source of these bacteria. Restoring the function and form of the tooth are also important, but the primary goal is to reduce the microbial source to prevent further decay and damage.

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  • 49. 

    Primary purpose of scaling and root?

    • A.

      To remove calculus & softened necrotic cementum

    • B.

      To remove epithelial attachment

    • C.

      All of the above

    • D.

      To remove sulcular epithelium

    Correct Answer
    D. To remove sulcular epithelium
    Explanation
    The primary purpose of scaling and root planing is to remove sulcular epithelium. This procedure is commonly performed in periodontal therapy to eliminate bacteria, calculus, and toxins from the periodontal pockets and root surfaces. By removing the sulcular epithelium, the dentist or dental hygienist can access and clean the deeper areas of the pockets, promoting healing and reducing inflammation. Removing calculus and softened necrotic cementum is also a part of the scaling and root planing process, but the main objective is to eliminate the sulcular epithelium.

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  • 50. 

    Clinical changes that may be apparent after scaling and root planning?

    • A.

      Gain in attachment and reduction of pocket depth

    • B.

      Gain in epithelial and new connective tissue attachment

    • C.

      Increase in width of attached gingiva

    • D.

      Reduction in inflammation and pocket depth

    Correct Answer
    D. Reduction in inflammation and pocket depth
    Explanation
    After scaling and root planning, the removal of plaque and tartar helps to reduce inflammation in the gums and allows the gum tissue to heal. This leads to a reduction in pocket depth, which is the space between the gum and the tooth. As the inflammation decreases and the gums heal, the pockets become shallower, making it easier to clean the area and maintain oral hygiene. Therefore, the correct answer is reduction in inflammation and pocket depth.

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Quiz Review Timeline +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • May 23, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Mar 10, 2020
    Quiz Created by
    Vuth
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