154 Periodontalogy- Prof. Sok Chea

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Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    We need to consider which of the following in the treatment of refractory periodontal disease :?

    • A.

      Surgery

    • B.

      Antibiotic

    • C.

      Systemic health

    • D.

      Mechanical debridement

    • E.

      All of the above

    Correct Answer
    E. All of the above
    Explanation
    All of the above options need to be considered in the treatment of refractory periodontal disease. Surgery may be necessary to address severe cases, antibiotics can be prescribed to control infection, systemic health should be evaluated as it can affect the progression of the disease, and mechanical debridement is essential for removing plaque and tartar buildup. Considering all these factors together can help in effectively managing refractory periodontal disease.

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  • 2. 

    In an adult patient with chronic adult periodontitis the most successful approach to treatment is:?

    • A.

      Surgery

    • B.

      Extreme initial treatment followed by reviews every year

    • C.

      Initial periodontal therapy followed by maintenance therapy alone

    Correct Answer
    C. Initial periodontal therapy followed by maintenance therapy alone
    Explanation
    The most successful approach to treatment for an adult patient with chronic adult periodontitis is initial periodontal therapy followed by maintenance therapy alone. This approach involves an initial deep cleaning and scaling of the teeth and gums to remove plaque and tartar buildup. After this initial treatment, regular maintenance therapy, including professional cleanings and proper oral hygiene practices, is crucial to prevent further progression of the disease and maintain the health of the gums and teeth. Surgery may be necessary in some cases, but it is not the most successful approach for all patients.

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  • 3. 

    What are common indications for Apically Positioned Flap?

    • A.

      Crown lengthening

    • B.

      Pocket reduction

    • C.

      Root coverage

    • D.

      All of the above

    • E.

      Crown lengthening and Pocket reduction

    Correct Answer
    E. Crown lengthening and Pocket reduction
    Explanation
    The common indications for an Apically Positioned Flap are crown lengthening and pocket reduction. Crown lengthening is a procedure performed to expose more of the tooth structure for restorative purposes. Pocket reduction, on the other hand, is done to reduce the depth of periodontal pockets and improve oral hygiene. Both procedures involve the use of an apically positioned flap, making them the correct answers in this case. Root coverage is not mentioned as an indication for an apically positioned flap.

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  • 4. 

    What bacteria are associated with ANUG?

    • A.

      P. gingivalis

    • B.

      Actinobacillus actinomycetemcomitans,

    • C.

      Fusobacterium nucleatum and Prevetella intermedia,

    • D.

      Fusospirochetal complex (fusiform bacteria and spirochetes).

    Correct Answer
    D. Fusospirochetal complex (fusiform bacteria and spirochetes).
    Explanation
    ANUG stands for Acute Necrotizing Ulcerative Gingivitis, which is a severe form of gum disease. The bacteria associated with ANUG include P. gingivalis, Actinobacillus actinomycetemcomitans, Fusobacterium nucleatum, Prevetella intermedia, and the fusospirochetal complex (fusiform bacteria and spirochetes). These bacteria contribute to the development and progression of ANUG, causing tissue destruction and ulceration in the gums. The presence of the fusospirochetal complex, specifically the fusiform bacteria and spirochetes, is particularly associated with ANUG.

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  • 5. 

    When should a soft tissue graft be considered as an appropriate treatment of gingival recession?

    • A.

      Probing extents beyond the mucogingival junction

    • B.

      Abnormal frenum attachment

    • C.

      Root sensitivity, root caries

    • D.

      All above

    Correct Answer
    D. All above
    Explanation
    A soft tissue graft should be considered as an appropriate treatment for gingival recession when there are probing extents beyond the mucogingival junction, abnormal frenum attachment, and symptoms such as root sensitivity and root caries. These factors indicate that the gingival recession has progressed to a point where intervention is necessary to prevent further damage and improve oral health.

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  • 6. 

    In an adult patient with chronic adult periodontitis the most successful approach to treatment is?

    • A.

      Surgery

    • B.

      Extreme initial treatment followed by reviews every year

    • C.

      Initial periodontal therapy followed by maintenance therapy alone

    Correct Answer
    C. Initial periodontal therapy followed by maintenance therapy alone
    Explanation
    The most successful approach to treatment for an adult patient with chronic adult periodontitis is initial periodontal therapy followed by maintenance therapy alone. This approach involves a thorough initial treatment to remove plaque and calculus, followed by regular maintenance visits to prevent the recurrence of periodontal disease. This approach has been shown to effectively control the progression of periodontitis and maintain periodontal health in the long term. Surgery and extreme initial treatment followed by yearly reviews may be considered in more severe cases, but the initial periodontal therapy followed by maintenance therapy alone is the most successful approach in general.

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  • 7. 

    Pre-operative preparation of exposed roots following gingival recession can be accomplished using substances such as EDTA or Tetracycline paste, for what period of time must this be applied to the root surface?

    • A.

      1mm

    • B.

      2mm

    • C.

      4mm

    • D.

      5mm

    • E.

      3mm

    Correct Answer
    E. 3mm
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 3mm because the question asks for the period of time that substances like EDTA or Tetracycline paste should be applied to the root surface. The answer options provided are measurements of millimeters, which suggests that the question is asking for the depth or extent of application. Therefore, the correct answer is 3mm, indicating that the substances should be applied to the root surface for a depth of 3 millimeters.

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  • 8. 

    The following substance(s) can be used to condition the root surface prior to grafting?

    • A.

      EDTA

    • B.

      Tetracycline

    • C.

      Acidic acid

    • D.

      Nitric acid

    • E.

      EDTA, Tetracycline and Citric acid

    Correct Answer
    E. EDTA, Tetracycline and Citric acid
    Explanation
    EDTA, Tetracycline, and Citric acid can be used to condition the root surface prior to grafting. EDTA is a chelating agent that helps remove the smear layer and expose dentinal tubules. Tetracycline is an antibiotic that can help control bacterial contamination. Citric acid is an acid that can remove the smear layer and promote adhesion. Using these substances together can effectively prepare the root surface for grafting by cleaning and disinfecting it.

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  • 9. 

    The use autogenous grafts utilizing the palatal connective tissue the initial incision for graft harvesting should be made at what measurement above the gingival margin of the maxillary teeth?

    • A.

      1mm

    • B.

      3mm

    • C.

      4mm

    • D.

      The measurement is relatively unimportant

    • E.

      2mm

    Correct Answer
    E. 2mm
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 2mm. When using autogenous grafts utilizing the palatal connective tissue, the initial incision for graft harvesting should be made at a measurement of 2mm above the gingival margin of the maxillary teeth. This measurement is important as it ensures that enough palatal tissue is harvested for the graft while still maintaining the health and stability of the surrounding teeth and gingiva.

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  • 10. 

    Incision in the esthetic zone with regards to semi-lunar graft treatment of gingival recession: ?

    • A.

      Should whenever possible be vertical

    • B.

      Should where ever possible be made through thin connective tissue

    • C.

      Should initially be made of full thickness

    • D.

      Initially should be made at the mucogingival junction

    Correct Answer
    D. Initially should be made at the mucogingival junction
    Explanation
    The incision in the esthetic zone should initially be made at the mucogingival junction. This is because the mucogingival junction provides a stable and predictable reference point for the incision. It helps to ensure that the incision is placed at the correct level and allows for precise control of the depth and direction of the incision. By starting the incision at the mucogingival junction, the surgeon can create a clean and well-defined flap that can be easily elevated for the semi-lunar graft treatment of gingival recession.

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  • 11. 

    Modified Widman Flap was first introduce by ?

    • A.

      Neuman in 1920

    • B.

      Widman in 1918

    • C.

      Ramfiord and Widman in 1974

    • D.

      Ramfiord and Neuman in 1945

    • E.

      Ramfiord and Nissele in 1974

    Correct Answer
    E. Ramfiord and Nissele in 1974
  • 12. 

    Apical position flap was first introduced by ?

    • A.

      Neuman in 1918

    • B.

      Kirkland, O. in 1920

    • C.

      Nebers, Neuman in 1954

    • D.

      Nebers, C.L in 1954

    Correct Answer
    D. Nebers, C.L in 1954
  • 13. 

    Papilla preservation flap was first introduced by ?

    • A.

      Kirkland, O. in 1985

    • B.

      Friedman and Neuman in 1985

    • C.

      Neuman and Arjaudo, a.a & Tyrell in 1985

    • D.

      Takei, H,H in 1985

    Correct Answer
    D. Takei, H,H in 1985
    Explanation
    Takei, H,H introduced the papilla preservation flap in 1985.

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  • 14. 

    Two releasing incisions demarcate the area schedule for surgical therapy. A scalloped reverse bevel incision is made in the gingival margin to connected the two releasing incision. This technic called:?

    • A.

      Apical position flap

    • B.

      Modified Widman flap

    • C.

      Papilla preservation flap

    • D.

      Kirdland flap

    • E.

      Original Widman flap

    Correct Answer
    E. Original Widman flap
    Explanation
    The original Widman flap technique involves making two releasing incisions to demarcate the area scheduled for surgical therapy. A scalloped reverse bevel incision is then made in the gingival margin to connect these two releasing incisions. This technique is used to access and treat periodontal pockets and is named after Dr. E. J. Widman, who first described it. The other options listed are different periodontal flap techniques, but they do not involve the specific steps mentioned in the question.

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  • 15. 

    Intracrevicular incision then the gingiva is retracted to expose the diseased root surfaces and the exposed root surfaces are subjected to mechanical debridement then the flap are replaced to their original position and sutured. This technic called. ?

    • A.

      Apical position flap

    • B.

      Original Widman flap

    • C.

      Modified Widman flap

    • D.

      Papilla preservation flap

    • E.

      Kirdland flap

    Correct Answer
    E. Kirdland flap
  • 16. 

    The initial incision is placed 0.5-1mm from the gingival margin and parallel to the long axis of the tooth. Following careful elevation of flaps, second intracrevicular incision is made to the alveolar bone crest to separate the tissue collar from the root surface. A third incision is made perpendicular to the root surface and as close as possible to the bone crest, thereby separating the tissue collar from the alveolar bone. This technic called:?

    • A.

      Apical position flap

    • B.

      Original Widman flap

    • C.

      Papilla preservation flap

    • D.

      Kirdland flap

    • E.

      Modified Widman flap

    Correct Answer
    E. Modified Widman flap
    Explanation
    The technique described in the passage involves making multiple incisions to separate the tissue collar from the root surface and the alveolar bone. This technique is known as the Modified Widman flap. The other options mentioned in the question, such as Apical position flap, Original Widman flap, Papilla preservation flap, and Kirdland flap, do not match the description of the technique described in the passage.

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  • 17. 

    All the following are phases of periodontal treatment plan except: ?

    • A.

      Surgical phase

    • B.

      Maintenance phase

    • C.

      Non-surgical phase

    • D.

      Refractory phase

    Correct Answer
    D. Refractory phase
    Explanation
    The refractory phase is not a phase of periodontal treatment plan. The surgical phase involves surgical procedures to treat periodontal disease, while the non-surgical phase includes non-invasive treatments such as scaling and root planing. The maintenance phase focuses on regular check-ups and cleanings to prevent further progression of the disease. However, the refractory phase is not a recognized phase in periodontal treatment and is therefore not included in the options.

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  • 18. 

    Necrotizing ulcerative periodontitis ?

    • A.

      Is associated with deep periodontal pocket

    • B.

      Is not responsive to any therapy

    • C.

      Leads to gingival recession due to faulty tooth brushing

    • D.

      Is associated with crater like depression at the tip of interdental papilla and vesicle formation

    Correct Answer
    D. Is associated with crater like depression at the tip of interdental papilla and vesicle formation
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Is associated with crater like depression at the tip of interdental papilla and vesicle formation." Necrotizing ulcerative periodontitis is a severe form of periodontal disease characterized by tissue necrosis and ulceration. It is commonly associated with a depression or "crater" at the tip of the interdental papilla, as well as the formation of vesicles. This condition is often painful and can lead to the destruction of periodontal tissues if left untreated.

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  • 19. 

    Which is the best method of brushing technique preferred for the patient with orthodontic appliance: ?

    • A.

      Bass method

    • B.

      Still man method

    • C.

      Both a and b correct

    • D.

      Charter’s method

    Correct Answer
    D. Charter’s method
    Explanation
    Charter's method is the best method of brushing technique preferred for patients with orthodontic appliances. This method involves using a small circular motion to clean the teeth and gums, focusing on the area around the brackets and wires. It is effective in removing plaque and food debris from hard-to-reach areas and helps maintain good oral hygiene during orthodontic treatment. The Bass method and Stillman method are also commonly used brushing techniques, but Charter's method is specifically designed for patients with orthodontic appliances.

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  • 20. 

    Which of the following statements accurately interrelates the tooth and periodontium interface?

    • A.

      Junctional epithelium cells are oriented parallel to the root surface

    • B.

      The juntional epeithelial cells are non secreting cells

    • C.

      The lamina densa primarily contains hemidesmosomal plaques.

    • D.

      Periodontal ligament fibers insert in cementum and bone biochemically through fibronectin

    Correct Answer
    D. Periodontal ligament fibers insert in cementum and bone biochemically through fibronectin
  • 21. 

    During an acute gingival inflammation response, which of the following cell types can destroy virulent bacteria by phagocytosis and T-cell mediation?

    • A.

      Plasma cells

    • B.

      Mast cells and Polymorphonuclear

    • C.

      Limphocytes

    • D.

      Macraphage

    Correct Answer
    D. Macraphage
    Explanation
    Macrophages are a type of white blood cell that play a crucial role in the immune response. During acute gingival inflammation, macrophages can destroy virulent bacteria through phagocytosis, which is the process of engulfing and digesting pathogens. Additionally, macrophages can also mediate the immune response through T-cell activation, further aiding in the destruction of bacteria. Therefore, macrophages are an important cell type involved in the defense against virulent bacteria during acute gingival inflammation.

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  • 22. 

    A 27 years-old present to your office all of the following: loss of interdental marginal stippling, blue-red tissue color, and bleeding upon gently probing, Your diagnosis is: ?

    • A.

      Gingival recession

    • B.

      Systemic diseases

    • C.

      Advanced periodontal diseases

    • D.

      Chronic gingivitis

    Correct Answer
    D. Chronic gingivitis
    Explanation
    The given symptoms of loss of interdental marginal stippling, blue-red tissue color, and bleeding upon gentle probing are indicative of chronic gingivitis. Chronic gingivitis is characterized by inflammation of the gum tissue, which can cause the gum tissue to appear bluish-red and lose its stippling or textured appearance. Bleeding upon probing is also a common sign of chronic gingivitis. Systemic diseases and advanced periodontal diseases may also present with similar symptoms, but the given symptoms specifically point towards chronic gingivitis as the most likely diagnosis.

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  • 23. 

    Periodontium include all of the following: ?

    • A.

      Enamel, root periodontal ligaments and alveolar bone

    • B.

      Gum, alveolar bone, dentine and cementum

    • C.

      All of the above

    • D.

      Cementum, gum, alveolar bone and periodontal ligaments

    Correct Answer
    D. Cementum, gum, alveolar bone and periodontal ligaments
    Explanation
    The periodontium refers to the supporting structures of the teeth, which include the cementum (a layer covering the tooth root), the gum (also known as gingiva), the alveolar bone (the bone surrounding the tooth sockets), and the periodontal ligaments (fibrous tissue that connects the tooth root to the bone). Therefore, the correct answer is "Cementum, gum, alveolar bone, and periodontal ligaments."

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  • 24. 

    40 years diabetic patient, present clinically with periodontal attachment loss and diagnosed as having periodontitis. According to AAP 1999 classification of periodontal diseases, the type of periodontitis in this case is:?

    • A.

      Aggressive periodontitis

    • B.

      Chronic periodontitis modified by systemic condition

    • C.

      Generalized aggressive periodontitis

    • D.

      Periodontitis as a manifestation of systemic disease

    Correct Answer
    D. Periodontitis as a manifestation of systemic disease
    Explanation
    Based on the given information, the patient is a 40-year-old diabetic with periodontal attachment loss. This indicates that the periodontitis is a manifestation of their systemic disease, which is diabetes. Diabetes is known to have an impact on oral health and can contribute to the development of periodontitis. Therefore, the correct classification for this case is "Periodontitis as a manifestation of systemic disease."

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  • 25. 

    In the present of abundant plaque formation hyperplastic gingivitis can be associated with which of the following?

    • A.

      Cyclosporine

    • B.

      Procardia

    • C.

      Pregnancy

    • D.

      Phenytoin

    • E.

      All of them

    Correct Answer
    E. All of them
    Explanation
    Hyperplastic gingivitis can be associated with all of the given options. Cyclosporine, Procardia, pregnancy, and phenytoin are all known to contribute to the development of hyperplastic gingivitis. Cyclosporine is an immunosuppressant drug that can cause gingival overgrowth. Procardia, a calcium channel blocker, has also been associated with gingival enlargement. Pregnancy hormones can lead to increased blood flow and inflammation in the gums, resulting in gingivitis. Phenytoin, an anticonvulsant medication, can cause gingival overgrowth as a side effect. Therefore, all of the given options can be associated with hyperplastic gingivitis.

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  • 26. 

    Root planning is ?

    • A.

      Removal of material alba and stain from tooth surface

    • B.

      Removal of soft tissue wall and periodontal pocket

    • C.

      Removal of food debris from tooth surface

    • D.

      Removal of diseased cementum along with other root deposits.

    Correct Answer
    D. Removal of diseased cementum along with other root deposits.
    Explanation
    Root planning is the process of removing diseased cementum along with other root deposits. Diseased cementum is the outer layer of the root surface that becomes infected and needs to be removed to promote healing and prevent further damage to the tooth and surrounding tissues. This procedure is typically performed by a dental professional to treat periodontal disease and improve the health of the gums and supporting structures of the teeth.

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  • 27. 

    Gracey curretes used to scale distal surface of posterior teeth are ?

    • A.

      Gracey curretes 1/2, 3/4 and 11/12

    • B.

      Gracey curretes 11/12, 13/14 and 5/6

    • C.

      Gracey curretes 7/8 and 9/10

    • D.

      Gracey curretes 13/14

    Correct Answer
    D. Gracey curretes 13/14
    Explanation
    Gracey curretes 13/14 are used to scale the distal surface of posterior teeth.

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  • 28. 

    In Periodontal disease, loss of which of the following fiber bundles are primarily associated in preventing the progressive downward proliferation of the junctional epithelium into the periodontal ligament and alveolar bone ?

    • A.

      Circular fiber

    • B.

      Interradicular fiber

    • C.

      Alveolar gingival fiber

    • D.

      Transseptal fiber

    Correct Answer
    D. Transseptal fiber
    Explanation
    Transseptal fibers are primarily associated with preventing the progressive downward proliferation of the junctional epithelium into the periodontal ligament and alveolar bone in Periodontal disease. These fibers run horizontally across the interdental septum and connect the cementum of one tooth to the cementum of the adjacent tooth. They help to maintain the integrity and stability of the periodontal tissues, preventing the spread of infection and the progression of the disease.

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  • 29. 

    Gracey curretes used to scale mesial surface of posterior teeth are : ?

    • A.

      Gracey curretes 1/2, 3/4 and 11/12

    • B.

      Gracey curretes 11/12, 13/14 and 5/6

    • C.

      Gracey curretes 7/8 and 9/10

    • D.

      Gracey curretes 11/12

    Correct Answer
    D. Gracey curretes 11/12
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Gracey curretes 11/12. Gracey curretes are dental instruments used for scaling and root planing. Each Gracey curette has a specific design and is used for different surfaces of teeth. In this case, the mesial surface of posterior teeth is being scaled, and the only curette listed that is designed for this purpose is the Gracey curette 11/12.

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  • 30. 

    Regional lymphnode enlargement is present in: ?

    • A.

      Linchen planus

    • B.

      Pemphigus vulgaris

    • C.

      Pemphigoid

    • D.

      Chronic ulcerative stomatitis

    • E.

      Acute pericoronitis

    Correct Answer
    E. Acute pericoronitis
    Explanation
    Regional lymphnode enlargement is present in acute pericoronitis. Acute pericoronitis is an inflammation of the soft tissues surrounding a partially erupted tooth, usually the third molars (wisdom teeth). This inflammation can cause swelling and tenderness in the nearby lymph nodes, which are part of the body's immune system response. The other conditions listed, such as lichen planus, pemphigus vulgaris, pemphigoid, and chronic ulcerative stomatitis, do not typically cause regional lymph node enlargement.

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  • 31. 

    Horizontal bone loss is present in : ?

    • A.

      Localized aggressive periodontitis

    • B.

      Generalized aggressive periodontitis

    • C.

      Intrabony pockets

    • D.

      Acute necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis

    • E.

      Chronic periodontitis

    Correct Answer
    E. Chronic periodontitis
    Explanation
    Horizontal bone loss is a characteristic feature of chronic periodontitis. This condition is characterized by the gradual and progressive loss of the alveolar bone around the teeth, resulting in the formation of horizontal defects. Unlike vertical bone loss, which is seen in aggressive forms of periodontitis, horizontal bone loss occurs when the bone resorption is relatively uniform around the tooth, leading to a more even and consistent reduction in the bone level. Therefore, chronic periodontitis is the most likely condition associated with horizontal bone loss.

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  • 32. 

    Average human biologic width is?

    • A.

      3mm

    • B.

      4mm

    • C.

      1mm

    • D.

      0.5mm

    • E.

      2mm

    Correct Answer
    E. 2mm
    Explanation
    The average human biologic width is 2mm. This refers to the space between the bottom of the gum pocket and the bone level. It is important to maintain this width in order to ensure the health and stability of the surrounding tissues and structures. Deviations from this average can indicate periodontal disease or other oral health issues.

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  • 33. 

    Papilla preservation flap:?

    • A.

      Is a conventional flap precedures

    • B.

      Is used when narrow interdental spaces are present

    • C.

      Is a partial thickness flap

    • D.

      Is a apically displace flap

    • E.

      Is used for teeth with wide interdental spaces

    Correct Answer
    E. Is used for teeth with wide interdental spaces
    Explanation
    The papilla preservation flap is a surgical technique used for teeth with wide interdental spaces. This flap procedure aims to preserve the papilla, the triangular gum tissue between the teeth, while accessing the underlying structures. By utilizing this technique, the dentist can maintain the aesthetic appearance of the smile and prevent the formation of black triangles between the teeth.

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  • 34. 

    Greater occlusal pressure on the periodontium produces:

    • A.

      Increase resorption of alveolar bone and formation of cementum

    • B.

      A gradation of changes in periodontal ligament starting with tension of fibers which produce area of fibrosis

    • C.

      Disintegration of blood vessels within 30 minutes

    • D.

      Disintegration of blood vessels within 5 minutes

    • E.

      Injury of fibroblasts and other connective tissue cells lead to necrosis of area of the ligament

    Correct Answer
    E. Injury of fibroblasts and other connective tissue cells lead to necrosis of area of the ligament
  • 35. 

    The mobility of the teeth is graded 3 if : ?

    • A.

      The mobility is 1mm

    • B.

      The mobility is in apico-occlusal direction and 1mm in labio-lingual direction

    • C.

      The mobility is in apico-occlusal direction and mobility is less than 1mm in labio-lingual direction

    • D.

      The mobility is less than 1mm

    • E.

      The mobility is in apico-occlusal direction and mobility in labio-lingual direction is more than 2mm

    Correct Answer
    E. The mobility is in apico-occlusal direction and mobility in labio-lingual direction is more than 2mm
  • 36. 

    Furcation involvement is measure by: ?

    • A.

      WHO probe

    • B.

      CPITN probe

    • C.

      Michigan “O” probe

    • D.

      Periodontal explorer

    • E.

      Naber’s probe

    Correct Answer
    E. Naber’s probe
    Explanation
    Furcation involvement refers to the extent to which the roots of multi-rooted teeth are affected by periodontal disease. Naber's probe is specifically designed to assess furcation involvement by measuring the depth and width of furcation defects. The other probes mentioned, such as the WHO probe, CPITN probe, Michigan "O" probe, and periodontal explorer, are not specifically designed for this purpose and may not provide accurate measurements of furcation involvement. Therefore, Naber's probe is the most appropriate tool for measuring furcation involvement.

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  • 37. 

    Periodontal attachment loss detect clinically: ?

    • A.

      When there is recession only.

    • B.

      When there is radiographic alveolar bone loss.

    • C.

      When there is true pocket only.

    • D.

      When there is recession and/or true pocket.

    Correct Answer
    D. When there is recession and/or true pocket.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "When there is recession and/or true pocket." Periodontal attachment loss can be detected clinically when there is either recession or a true pocket present. Recession refers to the exposure of the root surface due to the loss of gum tissue, while a true pocket is a deepening of the gum pocket around the tooth. Both of these conditions indicate a loss of attachment between the tooth and the surrounding tissues, which can be assessed during a clinical examination.

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  • 38. 

    16 years boy, present clinically with attachment loss related to 1st Molars and Incisors only. Diagnosis of this case according to AAP 1999 periodontal diseases Classification is: ?

    • A.

      Generalizedaggressiveperiodontitis.

    • B.

      Generalized juvenile periodontitis.

    • C.

      Localized juvenile periodontitis.

    • D.

      Localized aggressive periodontitis.

    Correct Answer
    D. Localized aggressive periodontitis.
    Explanation
    Based on the given information, the correct diagnosis for this case according to the AAP 1999 periodontal diseases Classification is localized aggressive periodontitis. This is because the attachment loss is only related to the 1st molars and incisors, and it is localized to specific areas rather than being generalized throughout the mouth.

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  • 39. 

    60 years diabetic patient, present clinically with periodontal attachment loss and diagnosed as having periodontitis. According to AAP 1999 classification of periodontal diseases, the type of periodontitis in this case is: ?

    • A.

      Aggressive periodontitis.

    • B.

      Chronic periodontitis modified by systemic condition.

    • C.

      Periodontitis as a manifestation of systemic disease

    Correct Answer
    C. Periodontitis as a manifestation of systemic disease
    Explanation
    Based on the given information, the patient is a 60-year-old diabetic with periodontal attachment loss. This suggests that the periodontitis is a manifestation of their systemic disease (diabetes). This is because diabetes is known to increase the risk and severity of periodontal disease. Therefore, the correct answer is "Periodontitis as a manifestation of systemic disease."

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  • 40. 

    Planning of periodontal surgery best accomplished at: ?

    • A.

      Phase I therapy.

    • B.

      AfterphaseItherapyandbeforere-evaluation.

    • C.

      Can be planned at any phase of periodontal therapy.

    • D.

      After phase I therapy and during re-evaluation visit.

    Correct Answer
    D. After phase I therapy and during re-evaluation visit.
    Explanation
    The best time to plan periodontal surgery is after phase I therapy and during the re-evaluation visit. This is because phase I therapy involves initial treatment to control the infection and inflammation in the gums, which sets the foundation for further treatment. During the re-evaluation visit, the dentist or periodontist can assess the effectiveness of phase I therapy and determine if surgery is necessary. Planning the surgery at this stage ensures that the patient's oral health has improved and that the surgery will be more successful.

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  • 41. 

    Most commonly used periodontal pack is/are: ?

    • A.

      Zinc oxide Eugenol pack.

    • B.

      Non Eugenol pack.

    • C.

      Coe-Pack.

    • D.

      Non Eugenol pack and Coe-Pack.

    Correct Answer
    D. Non Eugenol pack and Coe-Pack.
    Explanation
    The most commonly used periodontal pack includes both the Non Eugenol pack and Coe-Pack. These packs are used in periodontal procedures to promote healing and protect the surgical site. Non Eugenol packs are preferred for patients who are allergic to eugenol, while Coe-Pack is a versatile pack that can be used for various dental procedures. By using both packs, dental professionals have the flexibility to cater to different patient needs and ensure successful healing after periodontal surgeries.

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  • 42. 

    On human jaws there are anatomical areas which can be used as a source for bone graft harvest for periodontal regenerative surgical procedure, of those areas is/are: ?

    • A.

      Premaxilla.

    • B.

      MaxillaryTubersity.

    • C.

      External oblique ridge of the mandible.

    • D.

      Maxillary Tubersity and External oblique ridge of the mandible.

    Correct Answer
    D. Maxillary Tubersity and External oblique ridge of the mandible.
    Explanation
    The maxillary tuberosity and external oblique ridge of the mandible are both anatomical areas that can be used as a source for bone graft harvest for periodontal regenerative surgical procedures. These areas provide sufficient bone volume and density to support the regeneration of periodontal tissues.

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  • 43. 

    Periodontal surgery can be classified into many types, of those types is/are: ?

    • A.

      Transalveolar surgery, implant surgery, resective osseous surgery.

    • B.

      Gingival curettage, Periodontal flap, Surgical extraction.

    • C.

      Gingevectomy, Regenerative periodontal surgery, surgical closure of oro-antral fistula.

    • D.

      Periodontal flap surgery, periodontal plastic surgery, resective osseous surgery.

    Correct Answer
    D. Periodontal flap surgery, periodontal plastic surgery, resective osseous surgery.
    Explanation
    The correct answer includes three types of periodontal surgery: periodontal flap surgery, periodontal plastic surgery, and resective osseous surgery. These are all commonly performed procedures in periodontal surgery.

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  • 44. 

    Adult patient present clinically with irregular thickness of buccal gingiva, a round diamond bur used to correct and establish a physiological gingival contour. The type of this procedure is/are:?

    • A.

      Gingivectomy.

    • B.

      Combined gingivoplasty & gingivectomy.

    • C.

      None of the above.

    • D.

      Gingivoplasty.

    Correct Answer
    D. Gingivoplasty.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Gingivoplasty. Gingivoplasty is a surgical procedure performed to reshape and contour the gingiva. In this case, the irregular thickness of the buccal gingiva is being corrected using a round diamond bur, which is a common tool used in gingivoplasty procedures. Gingivectomy, on the other hand, involves the removal of gum tissue, and combined gingivoplasty and gingivectomy refers to a combination of both procedures. None of these options accurately describe the procedure being performed in this scenario.

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  • 45. 

    Which of the following does not come under phase 1 therapy?

    • A.

      Plaque control

    • B.

      Root planning

    • C.

      Restoration

    • D.

      Removable prosthodontic appliances

    Correct Answer
    D. Removable prosthodontic appliances
    Explanation
    Removable prosthodontic appliances do not come under phase 1 therapy because phase 1 therapy primarily focuses on the initial treatment of periodontal disease. Plaque control, root planning, and restoration are all part of phase 1 therapy as they involve the removal of plaque and calculus, restoration of damaged teeth, and establishment of proper oral hygiene practices. Removable prosthodontic appliances, on the other hand, are prosthetic devices used to replace missing teeth and are typically considered part of phase 2 or 3 therapy.

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  • 46. 

    Curettage comes under?

    • A.

      Phase-II

    • B.

      Phase-Ill

    • C.

      Phase-IV

    • D.

      Phase-1

    Correct Answer
    D. Phase-1
    Explanation
    Curettage is a surgical procedure that involves scraping or scooping out tissue from the lining of a body cavity or a wound. It is commonly used in gynecology, dermatology, and dentistry. In the context of the question, the term "Phase-1" refers to the initial phase or stage of a medical treatment or clinical trial. Therefore, the correct answer is Phase-1, as curettage is typically performed as a part of the initial treatment or evaluation process.

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  • 47. 

    The concept of one stage Full mouth disinfection has been put forth to prevent?

    • A.

      Adhesion of microorganisms

    • B.

      Proliferation of microorganisms

    • C.

      Bacterial invasion

    • D.

      Translocation of microorganisms

    Correct Answer
    D. Translocation of microorganisms
    Explanation
    The concept of one stage Full mouth disinfection aims to prevent the translocation of microorganisms. This means that by disinfecting the entire mouth in one stage, the spread of microorganisms from one area to another can be minimized or eliminated. This is important because the translocation of microorganisms can lead to the colonization of new areas and the development of infections or diseases. By preventing translocation, the risk of further complications can be reduced, promoting better oral health.

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  • 48. 

    Main aim of restoration of carious lesion in phase-I therapy?

    • A.

      To restore function of tooth

    • B.

      To restore form of tooth

    • C.

      All of the above

    • D.

      To reduce microbial source

    Correct Answer
    D. To reduce microbial source
    Explanation
    The main aim of restoration of carious lesions in phase-I therapy is to reduce the microbial source. Carious lesions are caused by bacteria that break down the tooth structure, leading to decay. By restoring the tooth and removing the carious lesion, the microbial source is reduced, preventing further decay and promoting oral health. Restoring the function and form of the tooth are secondary objectives in this context.

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  • 49. 

    Primary purpose of scaling and root?

    • A.

      To remove calculus & softened necrotic cementum

    • B.

      To remove epithelial attachment

    • C.

      All of the above

    • D.

      To remove sulcular epithelium

    Correct Answer
    D. To remove sulcular epithelium
    Explanation
    The primary purpose of scaling and root planing is to remove the sulcular epithelium. This procedure involves removing the diseased tissue and bacteria from the periodontal pockets, which are the spaces between the teeth and gums. By removing the sulcular epithelium, the dentist or dental hygienist can access and clean the root surfaces of the teeth, removing calculus and softened necrotic cementum. This helps to promote healing and prevent further progression of gum disease.

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  • 50. 

    Clinical changes that may be apparent after scaling and root planning?

    • A.

      Gain in attachment and reduction of pocket depth

    • B.

      Gain in epithelial and new connective tissue attachment

    • C.

      Increase in width of attached gingiva

    • D.

      Reduction in inflammation and pocket depth

    Correct Answer
    D. Reduction in inflammation and pocket depth
    Explanation
    After scaling and root planning, there is a reduction in inflammation and pocket depth. Scaling and root planning is a deep cleaning procedure that removes plaque and tartar from the teeth and roots. This helps to eliminate bacteria and toxins that cause inflammation and infection in the gums. As a result, the gums become healthier, and the pockets around the teeth become shallower. Therefore, the correct answer is reduction in inflammation and pocket depth.

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Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 15, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Mar 06, 2020
    Quiz Created by
    Vuth
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