Unit 4 Test!!!!:):):):)

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  • 1/70 Questions

    Which of the following diseases and conditions does not appear until later in a person's life?

    • Cystic Fibrosis
    • Sickle Cell Disease
    • Colorblindness
    • Huntington's Disease
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Take this quiz to get that A+/100% on that upcoming Biology unit test of yours! Happy Sweeties! Study up and enjoy!:):):):)

Unit 4 Test!!!!:):):):) - Quiz

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  • 2. 

    Because two copies of a defective CF allele are needed to produce cystic fibrosis,

    • The CF allele is dominant!

    • The CF allele is recessive!

    • The CF allele cannot produce CFTR!

    • The CF allele overproduces CFTR!

    Correct Answer
    A. The CF allele is recessive!
    Explanation
    The CF allele is recessive because two copies of the defective CF allele are needed to produce cystic fibrosis. This means that individuals who have only one copy of the CF allele are carriers and do not show symptoms of the disease. Only individuals who inherit two copies of the CF allele from both parents will have cystic fibrosis.

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  • 3. 

    What is the role of restriction enzymes in studying the human genome?

    • Copying pieces of DNA!

    • Labeling different nucleotides with chemical dyes!

    • Separating different pieces of DNA based on their size!

    • Cutting large DNA molecules into smaller pieces!

    Correct Answer
    A. Cutting large DNA molecules into smaller pieces!
    Explanation
    Restriction enzymes play a crucial role in studying the human genome by cutting large DNA molecules into smaller pieces. This process, known as DNA fragmentation, allows scientists to analyze specific regions of the genome more easily. By cutting the DNA into smaller fragments, researchers can study individual genes or specific sequences of interest. This fragmentation also enables other techniques such as DNA sequencing and polymerase chain reaction (PCR) to be performed more effectively. Therefore, cutting large DNA molecules into smaller pieces is an essential step in studying the human genome.

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  • 4. 

    Crossing dissimilar individuals to bring together their best characteristics is called

    • Domestication

    • Inbreeding

    • Hybridization

    • Polyploidy

    Correct Answer
    A. Hybridization
    Explanation
    Hybridization refers to the process of crossing dissimilar individuals in order to bring together their best characteristics. This involves the breeding of two different species or varieties to create offspring with a combination of desirable traits from both parents. Through hybridization, breeders aim to improve the genetic diversity and overall quality of a population, resulting in hybrids that exhibit enhanced traits such as increased yield, disease resistance, or specific desirable traits.

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  • 5. 

    The right to profit from a new genetic technology is protected by

    • Getting a copyright for the method!

    • Discovering a new gene!

    • Obtaining a patent!

    • Publishing its description in a journal!

    Correct Answer
    A. Obtaining a patent!
    Explanation
    Obtaining a patent is the correct answer because it provides legal protection for a new genetic technology, allowing the inventor to have exclusive rights to profit from it. A patent grants the inventor the right to exclude others from making, using, or selling the patented invention for a certain period of time. This ensures that the inventor can recoup their investment in research and development and have a competitive advantage in the market. Copyright protects original works of authorship, such as written materials, but it does not provide the same level of protection for genetic technologies.

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  • 6. 

    A scientist is treating rice plants with a chemical that causes mutations. What is the possible benefit of this treatment?

    • Clones

    • Transgenic Plants

    • Increased Genetic Variation

    • Increased Hybridization

    Correct Answer
    A. Increased Genetic Variation
    Explanation
    Treating rice plants with a chemical that causes mutations can lead to increased genetic variation. This is beneficial because it can result in the development of new traits and characteristics in the rice plants. Increased genetic variation can also enhance the plants' ability to adapt to changing environmental conditions, resist diseases, and improve overall crop productivity. This treatment can help in the breeding and selection of improved rice varieties with desirable traits, ultimately benefiting agriculture and food production.

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  • 7. 

    Different forms of a gene are called

    • Hybrids

    • Dominant Factors

    • Alleles

    • Recessive Factors

    Correct Answer
    A. Alleles
    Explanation
    Alleles are different forms of a gene that occupy the same position on a chromosome. They can vary in their DNA sequence and can result in different traits or characteristics. In genetics, an individual inherits two alleles for each gene, one from each parent. These alleles can be dominant or recessive, determining the expression of a particular trait. Therefore, the given answer "Alleles" accurately describes the different forms of a gene.

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  • 8. 

    Organisms that have two identical alleles for a particular trait are said to be

    • Hybrid

    • Heterozygous

    • Homozygous

    • Dominant

    Correct Answer
    A. Homozygous
    Explanation
    Organisms that have two identical alleles for a particular trait are said to be homozygous. This means that both alleles for the trait are the same, either both dominant or both recessive. Homozygous individuals will always express the trait associated with those alleles.

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  • 9. 

    A Punnett square is used to determine the

    • Probable outcome of a cross!

    • Actual outcome of a cross!

    • Result of incomplete dominance!

    • Result of meiosis!

    Correct Answer
    A. Probable outcome of a cross!
    Explanation
    A Punnett square is a tool used in genetics to predict the probable outcome of a cross between two individuals. By combining the genetic information of the parents, the Punnett square allows us to determine the possible combinations of alleles that their offspring may inherit. It provides a visual representation of the different genotypes and phenotypes that can result from the cross, helping us understand the likelihood of certain traits being passed on to the next generation.

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  • 10. 

    What is the probability of flipping a coin twice and getting two heads?

    • 1

    • 1/2

    • 1/4

    • 3/4

    Correct Answer
    A. 1/4
    Explanation
    The probability of flipping a coin and getting heads is 1/2. Since the coin is flipped twice, the probability of getting heads on both flips is calculated by multiplying the probability of getting heads on the first flip (1/2) with the probability of getting heads on the second flip (also 1/2). Therefore, the probability of flipping a coin twice and getting two heads is 1/4.

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  • 11. 

    A pink-flowered Mirabilis plant (Rr) is crossed with a white-flowered Mirabilis (rr). What is the chance that a seed from this cross will produce a red-flowered plant (RR)?

    • 0

    • 1/4

    • 1/2

    • 1

    Correct Answer
    A. 0
    Explanation
    When a pink-flowered Mirabilis plant (Rr) is crossed with a white-flowered Mirabilis (rr), the resulting offspring will have a genotype of Rr. In order for a seed to produce a red-flowered plant (RR), it would require both alleles to be dominant. However, since the pink-flowered plant only carries one dominant allele (R), there is no chance for the seed to produce a red-flowered plant. Therefore, the chance is 0.

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  • 12. 

    A gene map shows

    • The number of possible alleles for a gene!

    • The relative locations of genes on a chromosome!

    • Where chromosomes are in a cell!

    • How crossing-over occurs. Suppose that an organism has the diploid number 2N = 8!

    Correct Answer
    A. The relative locations of genes on a chromosome!
    Explanation
    A gene map shows the relative locations of genes on a chromosome. This means that it provides information about the order and distance between genes on a chromosome. By studying gene maps, scientists can understand how genes are arranged and organized on chromosomes, which can help in determining inheritance patterns and identifying the location of specific genes associated with certain traits or diseases.

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  • 13. 

    Gregor Mendel crossed true-breeding plants with green pea pods with true-breeding plants with yellow pea pods. The resulting F1 generation all had green pea pods. What did he observe in the F2 generation?

    • Mendel observed green and yellow pea pods in a 3:1 ratio because the F1 generation was heterozygous!

    • Mendel observed green and yellow pea pods in a 4:1 ratio because the allele for green pea pods is dominant!

    • Mendel observed green and yellow pea pods in a 1:1 ratio because the F2 generation had the same characteristics as the parent generation!

    • Mendel observed only green pea pods because both parents had green pea pods!

    Correct Answer
    A. Mendel observed green and yellow pea pods in a 3:1 ratio because the F1 generation was heterozygous!
    Explanation
    Mendel observed green and yellow pea pods in a 3:1 ratio because the F1 generation was heterozygous. This means that the F1 generation inherited one allele for green pea pods from one parent and one allele for yellow pea pods from the other parent. Since the allele for green pea pods is dominant, the plants in the F1 generation displayed the phenotype of green pea pods. However, in the F2 generation, the alleles for green and yellow pea pods segregated and recombined randomly during gamete formation, resulting in a 3:1 ratio of green to yellow pea pods.

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  • 14. 

    Mitosis and meiosis are two different types of cell division. The model below illustrates anaphase of mitosis and anaphase I of meiosis! Which of the following is a difference between mitosis and meiosis that is supported by the model?

    • In anaphase of mitosis, sister chromatids separate. In anaphase I of meiosis, homologous chromosomes separate!

    • Anaphase of mitosis leads to four haploid cells. Anaphase I of meiosis leads to two diploid cells!

    • Crossing-over occurs after anaphase of mitosis, while crossing-over occurs before anaphase I of meiosis!

    • Chromosomes are not replicated before a cell enters anaphase of mitosis. Chromosomes have replicated before a cell enters anaphase I of meiosis!

    Correct Answer
    A. In anaphase of mitosis, sister chromatids separate. In anaphase I of meiosis, homologous chromosomes separate!
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "In anaphase of mitosis, sister chromatids separate. In anaphase I of meiosis, homologous chromosomes separate!" This is supported by the model because it clearly shows that in mitosis, the sister chromatids (identical copies of each chromosome) separate and move to opposite poles of the cell, while in meiosis, the homologous chromosomes (pairs of chromosomes with similar genetic information) separate and move to opposite poles. This is a key difference between mitosis and meiosis and is clearly depicted in the model.

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  • 15. 

    A nucleotide does NOT contain

    • A 5-carbon sugar

    • An amino acid

    • A nitrogen base

    • A phosphate group

    Correct Answer
    A. An amino acid
    Explanation
    A nucleotide is composed of a 5-carbon sugar, a nitrogen base, and a phosphate group. However, it does not contain an amino acid. Amino acids are the building blocks of proteins and are not typically found in nucleotides. Nucleotides, on the other hand, are the building blocks of nucleic acids such as DNA and RNA.

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  • 16. 

    According to Chargaff's rule of base pairing, which of the following is true about DNA?

    • [A] = [T], and [C] = [G]

    • [A] = [C], and [T] = [G]

    • [A] = [G], and [T] = [C]

    • [A] = [T] = [C] = [G]

    Correct Answer
    A. [A] = [T], and [C] = [G]
    Explanation
    Chargaff's rule of base pairing states that in DNA, the amount of adenine (A) is equal to the amount of thymine (T), and the amount of cytosine (C) is equal to the amount of guanine (G). This means that the ratio of A to T and the ratio of C to G are always 1:1. Therefore, the correct answer is [A] = [T], and [C] = [G].

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  • 17. 

    The alleles for blood groups lA and lB are codominant. When paired they produce the blood type

    • A

    • B

    • O

    • AB

    Correct Answer
    A. AB
    Explanation
    The alleles for blood groups lA and lB are codominant, which means that both alleles are expressed equally in the phenotype. When paired together, they produce the blood type AB. This means that individuals with this blood type have both the A and B antigens on their red blood cells.

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  • 18. 

    In 2008, the U.S. Congress passed the Genetic Information Nondiscrimination Act. This act makes it illegal for insurance companies and employers to discriminate based on information from genetic tests. Which of the following was most likely a concern that led to passage of the Genetic Information Nondiscrimination Act?

    • Insurance companies might identify where a person lives!

    • Insurance companies might charge unreasonable rates for genetic tests!

    • Insurance companies might try to alter a person’s DNA!

    • Insurance companies might deny a person insurance based on his or her chances of developing a disease!

    Correct Answer
    A. Insurance companies might deny a person insurance based on his or her chances of developing a disease!
    Explanation
    The most likely concern that led to the passage of the Genetic Information Nondiscrimination Act is that insurance companies might deny a person insurance based on his or her chances of developing a disease. This act was passed to protect individuals from being discriminated against by insurance companies and employers based on the information obtained from genetic tests. By prohibiting such discrimination, the act ensures that individuals are not unfairly denied insurance coverage or charged higher rates due to their genetic predispositions.

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  • 19. 

    Which of the following techniques would scientists most likely use to understand the activity levels of hundreds of genes at once?

    • A DNA microarray

    • PCR

    • Restriction Enzyme Analysis

    • DNA Sequencing

    Correct Answer
    A. A DNA microarray
    Explanation
    Scientists would most likely use a DNA microarray to understand the activity levels of hundreds of genes at once. A DNA microarray is a powerful tool that allows scientists to simultaneously analyze the expression levels of multiple genes. It works by immobilizing small DNA fragments representing different genes onto a solid surface, and then hybridizing them with labeled DNA or RNA samples. By measuring the intensity of the hybridization signals, scientists can determine the relative activity levels of the genes of interest. This technique enables high-throughput analysis and provides valuable insights into gene expression patterns.

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  • 20. 

    One of the challenges facing the world today is supplying enough food for the human population. Farming with genetically modified plants is a possible solution to this challenge. What is a concern with using GM plants?

    • Farming with GM plants that are resistant to chemical herbicides may lead to overuse of weed-killing compounds!

    • Farming with GM plants requires less land and energy, which may lead to lower food costs and an economic crisis for farmers!

    • GM plants require more insecticide use, which may increase the chance of chemical residues in the food supply!

    • Scientific studies on GM plants are not available so the effects of GM plants are unknown!

    Correct Answer
    A. Farming with GM plants requires less land and energy, which may lead to lower food costs and an economic crisis for farmers!
  • 21. 

    The physical characteristics of an organism are called its

    • Genetics

    • Heredity

    • Phenotype

    • Genotype

    Correct Answer
    A. Phenotype
    Explanation
    The physical characteristics of an organism, such as its appearance, behavior, and other observable traits, are referred to as its phenotype. This includes features like eye color, height, and hair type. Phenotype is influenced by both genetic factors and environmental factors, as it is the result of the interaction between an organism's genotype (its genetic makeup) and its environment.

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  • 22. 

    Unlike mitosis, meiosis in male mammals results in the formation of

    • One haploid gamete!

    • Three diploid gametes!

    • Four diploid gametes!

    • Four haploid gametes!

    Correct Answer
    A. Four haploid gametes!
    Explanation
    During meiosis in male mammals, the process starts with one diploid cell and ends with the formation of four haploid gametes. This is achieved through two rounds of cell division, resulting in the separation of homologous chromosomes and sister chromatids. Each of the resulting gametes contains half the number of chromosomes as the original cell, allowing for genetic diversity during sexual reproduction. Therefore, the correct answer is four haploid gametes.

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  • 23. 

    Which of the following disorders does NOT result from nondisjunction in meiosis?

    • Down syndrome

    • Turner's syndrome

    • Klinefelter's syndrome

    • Sickle cell disease

    Correct Answer
    A. Sickle cell disease
    Explanation
    Sickle cell disease is not caused by nondisjunction in meiosis. It is a genetic disorder that results from a mutation in the hemoglobin gene, causing red blood cells to become sickle-shaped. Nondisjunction in meiosis can lead to an abnormal number of chromosomes in the resulting cells, which is the cause of Down syndrome, Turner's syndrome, and Klinefelter's syndrome.

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  • 24. 

    Huntington’s disease is caused by a dominant allele for a protein found in brain cells. The symptoms of Huntington’s disease include mental deterioration and uncontrollable movements. Symptoms do not usually appear until middle age. How could a doctor determine the chances that a patient would have Huntington’s disease?

    • By identifying if the patient’s parents carry the dominant allele for Huntington’s disease!

    • By identifying if the patient is married to a person that exhibits symptoms of Huntington’s disease!

    • By identifying if the patient had been in close contact with someone that exhibits symptoms of Huntington’s disease!

    • By identifying if the patient had been in close contact with someone that carries the dominant allele for Huntington’s disease!

    Correct Answer
    A. By identifying if the patient’s parents carry the dominant allele for Huntington’s disease!
    Explanation
    A doctor can determine the chances that a patient would have Huntington's disease by identifying if the patient's parents carry the dominant allele for the disease. Since Huntington's disease is caused by a dominant allele, if one of the patient's parents carries the allele, there is a 50% chance that the patient has inherited it as well. This information can help the doctor assess the likelihood of the patient developing the disease.

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  • 25. 

    How do alleles that display codominance differ from alleles that display simple dominance?

    • If two alleles are codominant then both alleles will be observed in heterozygotes!

    • If two alleles are codominant then the heterozygous phenotype will be somewhere between the homozygous phenotypes!

    • If two alleles display simple dominance then only the recessive allele will be observed in heterozygotes!

    • If two alleles display simple dominance then neither allele will be observed in heterozygotes!

    Correct Answer
    A. If two alleles are codominant then both alleles will be observed in heterozygotes!
    Explanation
    If two alleles are codominant, it means that both alleles are expressed and observed in heterozygotes. This means that neither allele is dominant over the other, and both contribute to the phenotype. In contrast, if two alleles display simple dominance, only the dominant allele will be observed in heterozygotes, while the recessive allele will be masked. Therefore, the correct answer is that if two alleles are codominant, both alleles will be observed in heterozygotes.

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  • 26. 

    Crossing individuals with similar characteristics so that those characteristics will appear in their offspring is called

    • Inbreeding

    • Hybridization

    • Recombination

    • Polyploidy

    Correct Answer
    A. Inbreeding
    Explanation
    Inbreeding is the correct answer because it refers to the process of crossing individuals with similar characteristics in order to increase the likelihood of those characteristics appearing in their offspring. This practice is often used in selective breeding to create purebred animals or plants with desired traits. Inbreeding can lead to a loss of genetic diversity and increased risk of genetic disorders, but it can also help to fix desired traits in a population.

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  • 27. 

    Taking advantage of naturally occurring variations in organisms to pass wanted traits on to future generations is called

    • Selective Breeding

    • Inbreeding

    • Hybridization

    • Mutation

    Correct Answer
    A. Selective Breeding
    Explanation
    Selective breeding is the process of intentionally choosing certain organisms with desired traits to reproduce, in order to pass those traits on to future generations. This method takes advantage of the natural variations that already exist within a species, and through careful selection and breeding, it can lead to the development of new varieties or breeds with specific characteristics. In contrast, inbreeding refers to the mating of closely related individuals, hybridization involves the crossing of two different species or varieties, and mutation refers to a sudden change in an organism's genetic material.

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  • 28. 

    Organisms that contain genes from other organisms are called

    • Transgenic

    • Mutagenic

    • Donors

    • Clones

    Correct Answer
    A. Transgenic
    Explanation
    Transgenic organisms are those that have genes from other organisms inserted into their own genetic material. This can be done through genetic engineering techniques, where specific genes are transferred from one organism to another. This process allows scientists to create organisms with desired traits or characteristics that may not naturally occur. Therefore, the correct answer is "Transgenic" because it accurately describes organisms that contain genes from other organisms.

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  • 29. 

    When cell transformation is successful, the recombinant DNA

    • Undergoes mutation

    • Is treated with antibiotics

    • Becomes part of the transformed cell's genome

    • Becomes a nucleus

    Correct Answer
    A. Becomes part of the transformed cell's genome
    Explanation
    When cell transformation is successful, the recombinant DNA becomes part of the transformed cell's genome. This means that the introduced DNA is integrated into the genetic material of the cell and is replicated along with the rest of the cell's DNA during cell division. This allows the cell to express the genes carried by the recombinant DNA and produce the desired protein or trait.

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  • 30. 

    Bacteria often contain small circular molecules of DNA known as

    • Clones

    • Chromosomes

    • Plasmids

    • Hybrids

    Correct Answer
    A. Plasmids
    Explanation
    Bacteria often contain small circular molecules of DNA known as plasmids. Plasmids are separate from the bacterial chromosome and can replicate independently. They can carry additional genetic information such as antibiotic resistance genes and can be transferred between bacteria through a process called conjugation. Plasmids play a significant role in genetic engineering and are commonly used as vectors to introduce foreign DNA into bacteria for various research and biotechnological applications.

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  • 31. 

    A member of a population of genetically identical cells produced from a single cell is a

    • Clone

    • Plasmid

    • Mutant

    • Sequence

    Correct Answer
    A. Clone
    Explanation
    A member of a population of genetically identical cells produced from a single cell is referred to as a clone. This means that all the cells in the population have the exact same genetic information as the original cell they were produced from. Cloning can occur naturally through asexual reproduction or can be artificially induced in a laboratory setting. This process is commonly used in scientific research and biotechnology to create identical copies of cells or organisms for various purposes.

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  • 32. 

    DNA fingerprinting is a technology that is used for many different purposes. The diagram below is an illustration of what DNA fingerprinting data may look like! Police departments and other agencies are often tasked with investigating crimes. Which of the following describes a solution to a problem investigators face that DNA fingerprinting can help solve?

    • DNA fingerprinting can be used to treat ­criminals that have a genetic disease or disorder!

    • DNA fingerprinting can be used to identify ­persons that were wrongly convicted of a crime!

    • DNA fingerprinting can be used to identify which genes are active in persons that commit crimes!

    • DNA fingerprinting can allow persons that commit crimes to be used as animal models in medical research studies!

    Correct Answer
    A. DNA fingerprinting can be used to identify ­persons that were wrongly convicted of a crime!
    Explanation
    DNA fingerprinting can help solve the problem of wrongly convicted individuals by accurately identifying and matching DNA samples found at a crime scene to the actual perpetrator. This can provide crucial evidence to exonerate innocent individuals who may have been falsely accused or convicted of a crime. By comparing the DNA profiles of the suspect and the crime scene evidence, DNA fingerprinting can help ensure that the correct person is held accountable for the crime, leading to a more just and fair criminal justice system.

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  • 33. 

    What do the dark bands in each sample represent?

    • Chromosomes

    • Active DNA Fragments

    • Clones

    • DNA fragments of different lengths

    Correct Answer
    A. DNA fragments of different lengths
    Explanation
    The dark bands in each sample represent DNA fragments of different lengths. Dark bands are observed when DNA fragments are separated based on their size using a technique called gel electrophoresis. In this technique, DNA samples are loaded onto a gel and an electric current is applied. Smaller DNA fragments move faster through the gel, while larger fragments move slower. As a result, different-sized DNA fragments appear as distinct bands, with the darkest bands representing the fragments of the greatest length.

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  • 34. 

    A situation in which a gene has more than two alleles is known as

    • Complete Dominance

    • Codominance

    • Polygenic Dominance

    • Multiple Alleles

    Correct Answer
    A. Multiple Alleles
    Explanation
    Multiple alleles refer to a situation where a gene has more than two alternative forms or variations. This means that there are more than two options for the expression of a particular trait. Each individual can have only two alleles, but within a population, there can be multiple variations of the gene. This can lead to a wide range of phenotypic expressions and genetic diversity within a population.

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  • 35. 

    The process by which one type of bacteria is changed into another type is called

    • Transcription

    • Transformation

    • Duplication

    • Replication

    Correct Answer
    A. Transformation
    Explanation
    Transformation is the correct answer because it refers to the process by which one type of bacteria takes up and incorporates genetic material from another bacterium, resulting in a change in its genetic makeup and characteristics. This process can occur naturally or be induced in the laboratory, and it is an important mechanism for bacterial evolution and the spread of antibiotic resistance genes. Transcription, duplication, and replication are not accurate terms to describe this specific process of bacterial genetic change.

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  • 36. 

    From which molecules are mRNA molecules transcribed?

    • TRNA

    • RRNA

    • DNA

    • Protein

    Correct Answer
    A. DNA
    Explanation
    mRNA molecules are transcribed from DNA. Transcription is the process by which the DNA sequence is used as a template to synthesize a complementary mRNA molecule. This mRNA molecule then carries the genetic information from the DNA to the ribosomes, where it is translated into a protein. tRNA and rRNA are involved in the process of protein synthesis, but they are not directly responsible for the transcription of mRNA molecules. Therefore, the correct answer is DNA.

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  • 37. 

    Which of the following researchers used radioactive markers in experiments to show that DNA was the genetic material in cells?

    • Frederick Griffith

    • Oswald Avery

    • Alfred Hershey and Martha Chase

    • James Watson and Francis Crick

    Correct Answer
    A. Alfred Hershey and Martha Chase
    Explanation
    Alfred Hershey and Martha Chase used radioactive markers in their experiments to demonstrate that DNA was the genetic material in cells. They conducted an experiment with bacteriophages, viruses that infect bacteria. They labeled the DNA of the bacteriophage with radioactive phosphorus and the protein coat with radioactive sulfur. Their results showed that only the DNA was transferred into the bacterial cells, confirming that DNA was indeed the genetic material responsible for heredity. This experiment provided crucial evidence supporting the understanding of DNA as the carrier of genetic information.

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  • 38. 

    Before DNA could definitively be shown to be the genetic material in cells, scientists had to show that it could

    • Tolerate high temperatures

    • Carry and make copies of information

    • Be modified in response to environmental conditions

    • Be broken down into small subunits

    Correct Answer
    A. Carry and make copies of information
    Explanation
    To definitively establish DNA as the genetic material in cells, scientists needed to demonstrate that it could carry and replicate genetic information. This means that DNA should be able to store the instructions necessary for the development and functioning of an organism, as well as be capable of accurately duplicating itself during cell division. This ability of DNA to carry and make copies of information is crucial for the transmission of genetic traits from one generation to the next, and it was this characteristic that ultimately confirmed DNA as the genetic material.

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  • 39. 

    In eukaryotes, nearly all the DNA is found in the

    • Nucleus

    • Ribosomes

    • Cytoplasm

    • Histones

    Correct Answer
    A. Nucleus
    Explanation
    In eukaryotes, nearly all the DNA is found in the nucleus. This is because the nucleus is the central organelle that houses the genetic material of the cell, which is organized into structures called chromosomes. These chromosomes contain the DNA molecules that carry the instructions for the cell's functions and characteristics. While some DNA can be found in other parts of the cell, such as mitochondria, the majority of the DNA is located within the nucleus.

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  • 40. 

    The main enzyme involved in linking individual nucleotides into DNA molecules is

    • DNA protease

    • Ribose

    • Carbohydrase

    • DNA polymerase

    Correct Answer
    A. DNA polymerase
    Explanation
    DNA polymerase is the correct answer because it is the enzyme responsible for catalyzing the formation of DNA molecules. It links individual nucleotides together through a process called polymerization, creating a DNA strand by adding nucleotides in a specific order according to the template strand. DNA polymerase plays a crucial role in DNA replication, repair, and synthesis during cell division. It is essential for maintaining the integrity and stability of the genetic material in all living organisms.

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  • 41. 

    RNA differs from DNA in that RNA has

    • A double strand and contains uracil!

    • A single strand and contains adenine!

    • A double strand and contains thymine!

    • A single strand and contains uracil!

    Correct Answer
    A. A single strand and contains uracil!
    Explanation
    RNA differs from DNA in that it is a single strand and contains uracil instead of thymine. Unlike DNA, which is double-stranded, RNA is a single-stranded molecule. Additionally, while DNA contains the nitrogenous base thymine, RNA contains uracil in its place. This structural difference between RNA and DNA allows RNA to perform various functions in the cell, such as protein synthesis and gene regulation.

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  • 42. 

    Which of the following are found in both DNA and RNA?

    • Ribose, phosphate groups, and adenine!

    • Deoxyribose, phosphate groups, and guanine!

    • Phosphate groups, guanine, and cytosine!

    • Phosphate groups, guanine, and thymine!

    Correct Answer
    A. Phosphate groups, guanine, and cytosine!
    Explanation
    Phosphate groups are found in both DNA and RNA as they are essential for the backbone structure of the nucleic acids. Guanine is a nitrogenous base that is present in both DNA and RNA, participating in base pairing. Cytosine is another nitrogenous base that is also found in both DNA and RNA, forming base pairs with guanine. Therefore, the correct answer is phosphate groups, guanine, and cytosine.

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  • 43. 

    What happens during translation?

    • Messenger RNA is made from a DNA code!

    • The cell uses a messenger RNA code to make proteins!

    • Transfer RNA is made from a messenger RNA code!

    • Copies of DNA molecules are made!

    Correct Answer
    A. The cell uses a messenger RNA code to make proteins!
    Explanation
    During translation, the cell uses a messenger RNA code to make proteins. Messenger RNA (mRNA) is synthesized from a DNA template in a process called transcription. The mRNA molecule carries the genetic information from the DNA to the ribosomes, where it serves as a template for protein synthesis. Transfer RNA (tRNA) molecules then bring the amino acids to the ribosomes, matching them to the codons on the mRNA through complementary base pairing. This process results in the assembly of amino acids in the correct order to form a protein.

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  • 44. 

    The genetic code is always read

    • 3 bases at a time in the same direction!

    • 4 bases at a time in the same direction!

    • 3 bases at a time and the direction varies!

    • 4 bases at a time and the direction varies!

    Correct Answer
    A. 3 bases at a time in the same direction!
    Explanation
    The genetic code is always read three bases at a time in the same direction. This is known as a codon, and each codon codes for a specific amino acid or a stop signal. The reading frame starts at the beginning of the gene and continues until a stop codon is reached. This process ensures that the genetic information is properly translated into proteins during protein synthesis.

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  • 45. 

    Ribosomes are tiny "factories" within cells that do all of the following EXCEPT

    • Decode an mRNA message into a protein!

    • Assemble amino acids into polypeptide chains!

    • Attach to mRNA molecules in the cytoplasm!

    • Translate DNA into RNA!

    Correct Answer
    A. Translate DNA into RNA!
    Explanation
    Ribosomes are responsible for decoding an mRNA message into a protein by assembling amino acids into polypeptide chains. They also attach to mRNA molecules in the cytoplasm. However, translating DNA into RNA is not a function of ribosomes. This process is carried out by RNA polymerase enzymes.

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  • 46. 

    Gene regulation in eukaryotic cells

    • Usually involves operons!

    • Is simpler than in prokaryotes!

    • Allows for cell specialization!

    • Includes the action of an operator region!

    Correct Answer
    A. Allows for cell specialization!
    Explanation
    Gene regulation in eukaryotic cells allows for cell specialization. This means that different cells in an organism can have different functions and characteristics due to the specific genes that are turned on or off. Gene regulation in eukaryotes is more complex than in prokaryotes and involves the action of an operator region, but the main purpose is to allow cells to specialize and perform specific tasks within the organism.

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  • 47. 

    What is the name for a mutation that involves one nucleotide only?

    • Mutagen

    • Inversion

    • Point Mutation

    • Translocation

    Correct Answer
    A. Point Mutation
    Explanation
    A point mutation is the correct answer because it refers to a mutation that involves a change in a single nucleotide within a DNA sequence. This can occur through substitution, insertion, or deletion of a nucleotide. Point mutations can have various effects on the resulting protein, ranging from no change to a completely different amino acid sequence, which can potentially lead to genetic disorders or diseases.

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  • 48. 

    When a chromosome undergoes a deletion mutation, information is

    • Repeated

    • Lost

    • Reversed

    • Tranferred

    Correct Answer
    A. Lost
    Explanation
    When a chromosome undergoes a deletion mutation, information is lost. This means that a segment of the chromosome is deleted or removed, resulting in the loss of genetic material. This can have significant effects on the organism, as the deleted genes may play important roles in various biological processes. Deletion mutations can lead to genetic disorders or abnormalities, depending on the specific genes that are lost.

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  • 49. 

    In 1928 Frederick Griffith did a series of experiments to investigate how certain types of bacteria cause pneumonia. Griffith injected mice with different types of bacteria. The table below summarizes the results of his experiments. What could be inferred from Griffith's experiments?

    • All bacteria cause pneumonia, because all mice that were injected with living bacteria died!

    • Heat-killed, disease-causing bacteria cause pneumonia, because the mouse injected with these bacteria plus harmless bacteria died!

    • Harmless bacteria cause pneumonia, because the mouse injected with these bacteria plus heat-killed, disease-causing bacteria died!

    • The heat-killed, disease-causing bacteria passed something to the harmless bacteria, because the harmless bacteria alone did not cause pneumonia!

    Correct Answer
    A. The heat-killed, disease-causing bacteria passed something to the harmless bacteria, because the harmless bacteria alone did not cause pneumonia!
    Explanation
    From Griffith's experiments, it can be inferred that the heat-killed, disease-causing bacteria passed something to the harmless bacteria, because the harmless bacteria alone did not cause pneumonia. This can be concluded because the mouse injected with the heat-killed, disease-causing bacteria plus the harmless bacteria died, while the mouse injected with only the harmless bacteria did not develop pneumonia. This suggests that there was some kind of transformation or transfer of genetic material from the heat-killed bacteria to the harmless bacteria, which resulted in the ability to cause pneumonia.

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Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Mar 21, 2023 +

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  • Mar 21, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
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  • Apr 28, 2019
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