Trivia Quiz On Employee Testing And Selection! HRM Questions

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Quizzes Created: 13 | Total Attempts: 15,509

Questions: 70 | Attempts: 776 | Updated: Mar 21, 2023

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Trivia Quiz On Employee Testing And Selection! HRM Questions - Quiz

Welcome to the HRM Trivia Quiz on Employee Testing and Selection! There are different techniques that those in human resources can test out someone’s ability to help he organization meet its goals, and in this quiz, we will test out just how much you know about the different techniques and how to use the effectively in your organization setting. Give it a try!

Questions and Answers

1.

Which of the following terms refers to hiring workers who have criminal backgrounds without proper safeguards?
- A.
  
  Employment malpractice
- B.
  
  Negligent hiring
- C.
  
  Improper hiring
- D.
  
  Invalid screening
Correct Answer
B. Negligent hiring

Explanation
Negligent hiring refers to the act of hiring individuals with criminal backgrounds without implementing proper safeguards. This can include not conducting thorough background checks or ignoring red flags during the hiring process. Negligent hiring can potentially lead to various risks for the employer, such as workplace violence or theft, and can also pose a threat to the safety and well-being of other employees. It is essential for employers to exercise due diligence in the hiring process to ensure the safety and security of their workplace.

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2.

A reliable employment test will most likely yield ________.
- A.
  
  Consistent scores when a person takes two alternate forms of the test
- B.
  
  Improved scores when a person takes the same test more than once in a single day
- C.
  
  High scores when a person takes two alternate forms of the test on different occasions
- D.
  
  Similar scores when two different people are administered the test at different times
Correct Answer
A. Consistent scores when a person takes two alternate forms of the test

Explanation
A reliable employment test is designed to measure the same attributes or skills consistently, regardless of the specific form of the test. Therefore, when a person takes two alternate forms of the test, the scores should be consistent, indicating that the test is reliable and accurately measuring the intended factors. This consistency suggests that the test is not influenced by the specific format or content of the test, and the scores can be trusted as a reliable indicator of the person's abilities or qualifications.

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3.

If a person scores a 70 on an intelligence test on one day and scores 110 when retested on another day, you would most likely conclude that this test is ________.
- A.
  
  Valid
- B.
  
  Invalid
- C.
  
  Reliable
- D.
  
  Unreliable
Correct Answer
D. Unreliable

Explanation
If a person scores significantly different scores on the same intelligence test on different days, it would suggest that the test is unreliable. A reliable test should yield consistent results for the same individual if they are tested multiple times. In this case, the person's scores of 70 and 110 indicate a large discrepancy, which indicates that the test is not consistently measuring the person's intelligence.

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4.

If a person scores a 78 on a test on one day and scores a 79 when retested on another day, you would most likely conclude that this test is ________.
- A.
  
  Valid
- B.
  
  Invalid
- C.
  
  Reliable
- D.
  
  Unreliable
Correct Answer
C. Reliable

Explanation
Based on the given information, if a person scores a 78 on a test on one day and scores a 79 when retested on another day, it can be concluded that the test is reliable. This is because the scores are consistent and close to each other, indicating that the test is producing consistent results over time.

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5.

Which of the following terms refers to the consistency of scores obtained by the same person when retested with alternate forms of the same test?
- A.
  
  Equivalency
- B.
  
  Reliability
- C.
  
  Expectancy
- D.
  
  Validity
Correct Answer
B. Reliability

Explanation
Reliability refers to the consistency of scores obtained by the same person when retested with alternate forms of the same test. It measures the extent to which a test produces consistent and stable results over time and across different forms or versions of the test. A reliable test will yield similar scores for the same individual on different occasions, indicating that the test is consistent and dependable in measuring the construct it intends to assess.

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6.

Which of the following best describes how to use a test-retest reliability estimate to assess reliability?
- A.
  
  Administer a test with content based on what a person actually needs to know to effectively perform the job in question
- B.
  
  Administer the same test to different people at two different points in time and compare their test scores at time 2 with the scores at time 1
- C.
  
  Administer different tests to a group of people and compare the range of collected test scores
- D.
  
  Administer the same test to the same people at two different points in time and compare their test scores at time 2 with their scores at time 1
Correct Answer
D. Administer the same test to the same people at two different points in time and compare their test scores at time 2 with their scores at time 1

Explanation
To assess reliability using a test-retest reliability estimate, the same test is administered to the same group of people at two different points in time. The test scores at time 2 are then compared with the scores at time 1. This method allows for evaluating the consistency and stability of the test results over time. By comparing the scores, one can determine the extent to which the test produces consistent results when administered to the same individuals on different occasions.

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7.

Which of the following measures reliability by administering two different yet comparable tests and then comparing the two test scores?
- A.
  
  Retest estimate
- B.
  
  Equivalent form estimate
- C.
  
  Internal comparison estimate
- D.
  
  Criterion validity measurement
Correct Answer
B. Equivalent form estimate

Explanation
The equivalent form estimate measures reliability by administering two different yet comparable tests and then comparing the two test scores. This method ensures that the tests are equivalent in terms of difficulty and content, allowing for a reliable comparison of scores. By using different forms of the test, any inconsistencies or errors in the test itself can be minimized, providing a more accurate measure of reliability.

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8.

________ is used as an estimate of reliability and involves administering a test with x number of items designed to assess a topic and then statistically analyzing the degree to which responses to the items vary together.
- A.
  
  Retest estimate
- B.
  
  Equivalent form estimate
- C.
  
  Content validity estimate
- D.
  
  Internal comparison estimate
Correct Answer
D. Internal comparison estimate

Explanation
Internal comparison estimate is used as an estimate of reliability. It involves administering a test with x number of items designed to assess a topic and then statistically analyzing the degree to which responses to the items vary together. This estimate assesses the consistency and stability of the test scores by comparing the responses within the test itself. It helps to determine the reliability of the test and the extent to which the items are measuring the same construct.

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9.

All of the following are used for estimating the reliability of a test EXCEPT ________.
- A.
  
  Test-retest estimate
- B.
  
  Internal comparison estimate
- C.
  
  Equivalent form estimate
- D.
  
  Content validity measurement
Correct Answer
D. Content validity measurement

Explanation
The question asks for an exception among the options provided that are used for estimating the reliability of a test. Test-retest estimate, internal comparison estimate, and equivalent form estimate are all methods commonly used to estimate the reliability of a test. However, content validity measurement is not a method used for estimating reliability. Content validity refers to the extent to which a test measures the intended construct or content domain, whereas reliability refers to the consistency or stability of test scores. Therefore, content validity measurement is not used for estimating test reliability.

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1
0
10.

When repetitive questions appear on a questionnaire, which of the following is most likely being measured?
- A.
  
  Test validity
- B.
  
  Retest estimate
- C.
  
  Internal consistency
- D.
  
  Criterion validity
Correct Answer
C. Internal consistency

Explanation
Internal consistency is most likely being measured when repetitive questions appear on a questionnaire. This refers to the extent to which the items in a questionnaire or test measure the same construct or concept consistently. It assesses the reliability and homogeneity of the items within the questionnaire. By using repetitive questions, researchers can determine if the responses to similar items are consistent, which indicates a high level of internal consistency.

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11.

The unreliability of a test is best explained by all of the following EXCEPT ________.
- A.
  
  Lack of equivalence between tests
- B.
  
  Poor sampling of question material
- C.
  
  Inconsistent testing conditions
- D.
  
  Failure to predict job performance
Correct Answer
D. Failure to predict job performance

Explanation
The unreliability of a test can be attributed to various factors, such as lack of equivalence between tests, poor sampling of question material, and inconsistent testing conditions. However, failure to predict job performance is not a suitable explanation for test unreliability. This is because even if a test accurately predicts job performance, it can still be unreliable if it lacks consistency or fairness in its administration or if the questions do not adequately represent the skills or knowledge required for the job.

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12.

Which of the following terms refers to the accuracy with which a test fulfills the function for which it was designed?
- A.
  
  Reliability
- B.
  
  Validity
- C.
  
  Expectancy
- D.
  
  Consistency
Correct Answer
B. Validity

Explanation
Validity refers to the extent to which a test measures what it is intended to measure. It assesses whether a test accurately captures the construct or concept it is designed to assess. In other words, validity determines if a test is actually measuring what it claims to measure. Reliability, on the other hand, refers to the consistency and stability of a test's results. While reliability is important, validity is crucial in ensuring that a test is accurate and meaningful in assessing the intended construct. Expectancy and consistency are not directly related to the accuracy of a test's design.

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13.

Demonstrating the content validity of a test can be best accomplished by showing that ________.
- A.
  
  Tasks performed on the test are general enough to apply to any type of job
- B.
  
  Higher test scores are statistically equivalent to proven, long-term job success
- C.
  
  The test is representative of important aspects of performance on the job
- D.
  
  Scores on the test are both internally and externally reliable
Correct Answer
C. The test is representative of important aspects of performance on the job

Explanation
To demonstrate the content validity of a test, it is best to show that the test is representative of important aspects of performance on the job. This means that the tasks and questions in the test accurately reflect the knowledge, skills, and abilities required for successful job performance. By ensuring that the test covers relevant job-related content, it increases the likelihood that the test results will accurately predict an individual's performance in the actual job.

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14.

The first step in the test validation process is ________.
- A.
  
  Creating a test battery
- B.
  
  Administering tests
- C.
  
  Analyzing the job
- D.
  
  Cross-validating
Correct Answer
C. Analyzing the job

Explanation
The first step in the test validation process is analyzing the job. This involves understanding the requirements and responsibilities of the job for which the test is being developed. By analyzing the job, test developers can identify the knowledge, skills, and abilities that are necessary for successful job performance. This information is crucial in order to create a valid and reliable test that accurately assesses the relevant job-related competencies.

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15.

Which of the following is a graph that shows the relationship between test scores and job performance for a group of people?
- A.
  
  Performance standard
- B.
  
  Digital dashboard
- C.
  
  Competency model
- D.
  
  Expectancy chart
Correct Answer
D. Expectancy chart

Explanation
An expectancy chart is a graph that illustrates the correlation between test scores and job performance for a specific group of individuals. It helps to visualize how well individuals with different test scores perform in their jobs, allowing employers to assess the relationship between test performance and job success. This chart is useful in identifying patterns and trends and can be utilized for making informed decisions regarding hiring, training, and performance management.

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16.

What is the primary disadvantage of using concurrent validation?
- A.
  
  Current employees may not be representative of new applicants
- B.
  
  New applicants are recent college graduates with limited experience
- C.
  
  Limited correlation exists between high test scores and job performance.
- D.
  
  Test batteries have not been administered by professional industrial psychologists.
Correct Answer
A. Current employees may not be representative of new applicants

Explanation
The primary disadvantage of using concurrent validation is that current employees may not be representative of new applicants. This means that the performance of current employees may not accurately reflect the potential performance of new applicants. It is possible that the current employees have different skills, qualifications, or experience levels compared to the new applicants, making it difficult to draw valid conclusions about the job performance of the latter based on the former.

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17.

________ validation is considered the most dependable method of validating an employment test.
- A.
  
  Applicable
- B.
  
  Predictive
- C.
  
  Concurrent
- D.
  
  Statistical
Correct Answer
B. Predictive

Explanation
Predictive validation is considered the most dependable method of validating an employment test because it involves collecting data on job applicants and then comparing their test scores with their subsequent job performance. This method allows organizations to accurately predict how well a candidate's test performance will translate into job performance. By using this method, employers can make informed decisions about which candidates are likely to succeed in the job based on their test scores. This makes predictive validation a reliable and effective method for validating employment tests.

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18.

The process of cross-validating a test involves all of the following EXCEPT ________.
- A.
  
  Using a new sample of employees
- B.
  
  Administering additional tests
- C.
  
  Evaluating the relationship between scores and performance
- D.
  
  Developing and analyzing a scatter plot of scores versus performance
Correct Answer
D. Developing and analyzing a scatter plot of scores versus performance

Explanation
Cross-validation is a process used to assess the performance of a test or model. It involves using a new sample of employees to validate the test's results. Administering additional tests is also part of the process to gather more data and ensure the test's reliability. Evaluating the relationship between scores and performance is crucial in determining the test's validity. However, developing and analyzing a scatter plot of scores versus performance is not a step in cross-validation. This is because cross-validation focuses on comparing the test's results with an independent sample, rather than analyzing the relationship between scores and performance.

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19.

According to the American Psychological Association, all of the following are rights of test takers EXCEPT the right to expect ________.
- A.
  
  Informed consent regarding the use of test results
- B.
  
  Scores to be interpreted by qualified individuals
- C.
  
  Tests to be the only selection tools for a job
- D.
  
  Fairness of the test for all who take it
Correct Answer
C. Tests to be the only selection tools for a job

Explanation
The American Psychological Association states that test takers have the right to expect informed consent regarding the use of test results, scores to be interpreted by qualified individuals, and fairness of the test for all who take it. However, they do not have the right to expect tests to be the only selection tools for a job. This means that employers may use other methods in addition to tests when making hiring decisions.

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20.

According to a survey, most employers who administer tests to applicants are measuring ________.
- A.
  
  Job skills
- B.
  
  Psychological behaviors
- C.
  
  Interpersonal behaviors
- D.
  
  Ethical opinions
Correct Answer
A. Job skills

Explanation
The correct answer is job skills. When employers administer tests to applicants, they are primarily measuring the skills and abilities that are relevant to the job position. These tests are designed to assess the candidate's proficiency in specific areas such as technical skills, problem-solving abilities, communication skills, and other job-related competencies. By evaluating job skills, employers can determine if the applicant has the necessary qualifications to perform well in the role they are applying for.

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21.

For over 40 years, Golden Creamery has been mixing up fresh, gourmet ice cream for customers. The company originated in Dallas and now boasts stores in 35 states. The business has primarily expanded by selling franchises to qualified candidates. Golden Creamery executives realize that the firm's success depends upon the success of each franchise. In the past, each individual franchise owner determined the best method for screening applicants. However, as the firm grows, Golden Creamery executives want to standardize the hiring process by requiring all franchisees to use the same preemployment tests. Which of the following best supports the argument that Golden Creamery should use a certified psychologist to develop preemployment tests?
- A.
  
  Golden Creamery needs to comply with all federal and state laws.
- B.
  
  Golden Creamery competitors use psychologists for test development.
- C.
  
  Golden Creamery strives to create a conscientious organizational culture.
- D.
  
  Golden Creamery needs to ensure that tests are legally and ethically appropriate
Correct Answer
D. Golden Creamery needs to ensure that tests are legally and ethically appropriate

Explanation
The answer "Golden Creamery needs to ensure that tests are legally and ethically appropriate" best supports the argument that Golden Creamery should use a certified psychologist to develop preemployment tests. By using a certified psychologist, the company can ensure that the tests are designed in a manner that is legally and ethically appropriate, meeting the standards set by federal and state laws. This would help the company comply with regulations and avoid any potential legal or ethical issues in the hiring process.

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22.

For over 40 years, Golden Creamery has been mixing up fresh, gourmet ice cream for customers. The company originated in Dallas and now boasts stores in 35 states. The business has primarily expanded by selling franchises to qualified candidates. Golden Creamery executives realize that the firm's success depends upon the success of each franchise. In the past, each individual franchise owner determined the best method for screening applicants. However, as the firm grows, Golden Creamery executives want to standardize the hiring process by requiring all franchisees to use the same preemployment tests. Which of the following, if true, supports the argument that Golden Creamery should require franchise owners to use the firm's preemployment tests?
- A.
  
  Hourly employees at Golden Creamery stores typically remain with the company long enough to be promoted to management positions
- B.
  
  Golden Creamery franchise owners pay an initial franchise fee and receive a percentage of sales royalties in return.
- C.
  
  Annual turnover rates for hourly employees of Golden Creamery stores are three times the rate of comparable businesses.
- D.
  
  Individuals interested in working at a Golden Creamery store can complete online applications on the firm's Web site.
Correct Answer
C. Annual turnover rates for hourly employees of Golden Creamery stores are three times the rate of comparable businesses.

Explanation
The high turnover rates for hourly employees at Golden Creamery stores being three times the rate of comparable businesses suggests that there may be an issue with the hiring process or the quality of employees being hired. Requiring franchise owners to use the firm's preemployment tests would help standardize the hiring process and ensure that qualified candidates are being selected. This would ultimately lead to a decrease in turnover rates and a more successful franchise operation.

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23.

For over 40 years, Golden Creamery has been mixing up fresh, gourmet ice cream for customers. The company originated in Dallas and now boasts stores in 35 states. The business has primarily expanded by selling franchises to qualified candidates. Golden Creamery executives realize that the firm's success depends upon the success of each franchise. In the past, each individual franchise owner determined the best method for screening applicants. However, as the firm grows, Golden Creamery executives want to standardize the hiring process by requiring all franchisees to use the same preemployment tests. Which of the following questions is most relevant to Golden Creamery's decision to implement preemployment testing for all franchises?
- A.
  
  Should Golden Creamery use internal or external sources for job candidates?
- B.
  
  How will Golden Creamery ensure the confidentiality of an applicant's test results?
- C.
  
  How does testing correlate with Golden Creamery's mission and vision statements?
- D.
  
  What is the role of testing in Golden Creamery's strategic performance management system?
Correct Answer
B. How will Golden Creamery ensure the confidentiality of an applicant's test results?

Explanation
The question about how Golden Creamery will ensure the confidentiality of an applicant's test results is the most relevant to their decision to implement preemployment testing for all franchises. This question addresses an important concern that the company needs to address in order to successfully implement the standardized hiring process. Ensuring the confidentiality of test results is crucial to protect the privacy of applicants and maintain trust in the hiring process. It also shows that Golden Creamery is considering the potential impact of implementing preemployment testing on their applicants and is committed to upholding ethical standards in their hiring practices.

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24.

________ tests include assessments of general reasoning ability and of specific mental abilities like memory and inductive reasoning
- A.
  
  Motor ability
- B.
  
  Personality
- C.
  
  Achievement
- D.
  
  Cognitive
Correct Answer
D. Cognitive

Explanation
The correct answer is cognitive because cognitive tests assess general reasoning ability and specific mental abilities like memory and inductive reasoning. These tests measure a person's cognitive skills such as problem-solving, critical thinking, and decision-making abilities. Motor ability tests assess physical coordination and dexterity, personality tests evaluate individual traits and characteristics, and achievement tests measure knowledge and skills acquired in specific areas. Therefore, cognitive tests are the most suitable option for assessing general reasoning ability and specific mental abilities.

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25.

Grafton Industries administers selection tests to job candidates. The tests measure a range of abilities including memory, vocabulary, verbal fluency, and numerical ability, so they are most likely ________ tests.
- A.
  
  Standardized
- B.
  
  Intelligence
- C.
  
  Achievement
- D.
  
  Personality
Correct Answer
B. Intelligence

Explanation
The given question states that Grafton Industries administers selection tests to job candidates that measure a range of abilities including memory, vocabulary, verbal fluency, and numerical ability. These abilities are typically associated with intelligence rather than other factors such as achievement or personality. Therefore, the most likely tests being administered by Grafton Industries are intelligence tests.

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26.

All of the following are measured by aptitude tests EXCEPT ________.
- A.
  
  Deductive reasoning
- B.
  
  Numerical ability
- C.
  
  Temperament
- D.
  
  Memory
Correct Answer
C. Temperament

Explanation
Aptitude tests are designed to measure an individual's natural abilities and potential for learning certain skills. Deductive reasoning, numerical ability, and memory are all cognitive abilities that can be assessed through aptitude tests. However, temperament refers to a person's emotional and behavioral tendencies, which are not typically measured by aptitude tests. Therefore, temperament is the correct answer as it is not one of the factors that aptitude tests aim to evaluate.

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27.

As part of the selection process for a position at UPS, Jack has been asked to lift weights and jump rope. Which of the following is most likely being measured by UPS?
- A.
  
  Interpersonal skills
- B.
  
  Cognitive skills
- C.
  
  Physical abilities
- D.
  
  Achievements
Correct Answer
C. Physical abilities

Explanation
UPS is most likely measuring physical abilities by asking Jack to lift weights and jump rope. These activities require physical strength, endurance, and coordination. By assessing Jack's performance in these tasks, UPS can determine if he has the physical capabilities necessary for the position.

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28.

Carl recently participated in a selection test for a position at Northern Aeronautics. The test measured Carl's finger dexterity and reaction time, so it was most likely a(n) ________ test.
- A.
  
  Motor ability
- B.
  
  Personality
- C.
  
  Cognitive
- D.
  
  Interest
Correct Answer
A. Motor ability

Explanation
Based on the information provided, Carl participated in a test that measured his finger dexterity and reaction time. These are physical skills that require coordination and control of muscles, indicating that the test was most likely assessing Carl's motor ability.

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29.

All of the following are most likely assessed on personality tests EXCEPT ________.
- A.
  
  Extraversion
- B.
  
  Reasoning
- C.
  
  Sensitivity
- D.
  
  Emotional stability
Correct Answer
B. Reasoning

Explanation
Personality tests are typically used to assess an individual's traits, behaviors, and characteristics. Extraversion, sensitivity, and emotional stability are all aspects of personality that can be evaluated through these tests. However, reasoning is not typically assessed on personality tests as it falls more under the domain of cognitive abilities and problem-solving skills. Therefore, reasoning is the most likely option that would not be assessed on a personality test.

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30.

According to experts, most people are hired for their qualifications and fired because of attitude, motivation, and ________.
- A.
  
  Physical limitations
- B.
  
  Lack of aptitude
- C.
  
  Temperament
- D.
  
  Psychological issues
Correct Answer
C. Temperament

Explanation
According to experts, while qualifications may get people hired, their attitude, motivation, and temperament play a crucial role in their long-term success in a job. A person's temperament refers to their natural disposition, emotional tendencies, and behavioral patterns, which can greatly impact their ability to work well with others, handle stress, and adapt to different situations. Therefore, a poor temperament can lead to conflicts, poor work performance, and ultimately result in getting fired from a job.

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31.

Make a Picture Story and the Forer Structured Sentence Completion Test are examples of ________ tests.
- A.
  
  Intelligence
- B.
  
  Apperception
- C.
  
  Self-reported
- D.
  
  Projective
Correct Answer
D. Projective

Explanation
Make a Picture Story and the Forer Structured Sentence Completion Test are examples of projective tests. Projective tests are psychological assessment tools that involve presenting ambiguous stimuli to individuals, such as pictures or incomplete sentences, and asking them to project their thoughts, feelings, or perceptions onto these stimuli. These tests are used to gain insight into a person's unconscious or hidden emotions, motivations, and personality traits.

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32.

Which if the following is a projective personality test?
- A.
  
  MMPI
- B.
  
  California Psychological Inventory
- C.
  
  Make a Picture Story
- D.
  
  Myers Briggs Test
Correct Answer
C. Make a Picture Story

Explanation
Make a Picture Story is a projective personality test because it involves asking individuals to create a story based on a series of pictures. This test aims to uncover unconscious thoughts, feelings, and motivations by analyzing the content and themes of the story created. It allows the individual to project their own experiences, desires, and emotions onto the pictures, providing insights into their personality traits and underlying psychological processes.

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33.

The Big Five personality dimensions include all of the following EXCEPT ________.
- A.
  
  Neuroticism
- B.
  
  Optimism
- C.
  
  Extroversion
- D.
  
  Conscientiousness
Correct Answer
B. Optimism

Explanation
The Big Five personality dimensions include neuroticism, extroversion, and conscientiousness. Optimism, however, is not considered one of the Big Five personality dimensions. While optimism is a positive trait, it is not typically included as one of the core dimensions used to assess personality.

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34.

Which of the following personality dimensions represents a tendency to exhibit poor emotional adjustment and experience negative effects such as anxiety, insecurity, and hostility?
- A.
  
  Neuroticism
- B.
  
  Extroversion
- C.
  
  Conscientiousness
- D.
  
  Openness to experience
Correct Answer
A. Neuroticism

Explanation
Neuroticism represents a tendency to exhibit poor emotional adjustment and experience negative effects such as anxiety, insecurity, and hostility. People high in neuroticism tend to be more emotionally unstable and prone to experiencing negative emotions. They may have difficulty managing stress and may be more likely to experience mood swings and feelings of anxiety and depression. In contrast, extroversion refers to being outgoing and sociable, conscientiousness refers to being organized and responsible, and openness to experience refers to being curious and open-minded.

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35.

________ represents a tendency to be sociable, assertive, and active.
- A.
  
  Extroversion
- B.
  
  Conscientiousness
- C.
  
  Agreeableness
- D.
  
  Openness to experience
Correct Answer
A. Extroversion

Explanation
Extroversion represents a tendency to be sociable, assertive, and active. This trait is associated with individuals who are outgoing, enjoy being around others, and are energized by social interactions. They tend to be talkative, confident, and seek stimulation from their external environment. Extroverts often thrive in social settings and may be more likely to take on leadership roles or engage in activities that involve interacting with others.

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36.

Mike Simmons recently applied for a position with Pfizer Pharmaceuticals. Which personality trait most likely has the strongest correlation to Mike's success as a pharmaceutical sales representative?
- A.
  
  Extroversion
- B.
  
  Agreeableness
- C.
  
  Conscientiousness
- D.
  
  Openness to experience
Correct Answer
A. Extroversion

Explanation
Extroversion is the most likely personality trait to have the strongest correlation with Mike's success as a pharmaceutical sales representative. This is because extroverted individuals tend to be outgoing, sociable, and assertive, which are all important qualities for building relationships with clients and effectively promoting and selling pharmaceutical products. Extroverts are typically energized by social interactions and are more likely to actively seek out opportunities to engage with others, making them well-suited for a sales role that requires frequent networking and communication.

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37.

Which personality characteristic refers to the disposition to be imaginative, nonconforming, and unconventional?
- A.
  
  Extroversion
- B.
  
  Conscientiousness
- C.
  
  Neuroticism
- D.
  
  Openness to experience
Correct Answer
D. Openness to experience

Explanation
Openness to experience refers to the personality characteristic that involves being imaginative, nonconforming, and unconventional. People who are high in openness to experience tend to be creative, curious, and open-minded. They enjoy exploring new ideas, concepts, and experiences, and are often more willing to challenge traditional norms and beliefs. This trait is associated with a willingness to try new things, embrace different perspectives, and think outside of the box. Extroversion, conscientiousness, and neuroticism do not specifically relate to being imaginative, nonconforming, and unconventional.

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38.

The tendency for one to be trusting, compliant, caring, and gentle is the personality dimension known as ________.
- A.
  
  Extroversion
- B.
  
  Conscientiousness
- C.
  
  Agreeableness
- D.
  
  Openness to experience
Correct Answer
C. Agreeableness

Explanation
Agreeableness is the personality dimension characterized by being trusting, compliant, caring, and gentle. People who score high in agreeableness tend to be kind, sympathetic, and cooperative, prioritizing harmony and avoiding conflicts. They are more likely to be considerate of others' needs and feelings, and they value maintaining positive relationships. In contrast, individuals who score low in agreeableness may be more competitive, skeptical, and assertive in their interactions with others.

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39.

Which personality characteristic is comprised of both achievement and dependability?
- A.
  
  Neuroticism
- B.
  
  Extroversion
- C.
  
  Conscientiousness
- D.
  
  Agreeableness
Correct Answer
C. Conscientiousness

Explanation
Conscientiousness is the correct answer because it encompasses both achievement and dependability. Individuals who are conscientious tend to be organized, responsible, and reliable in their actions. They have a strong work ethic and are motivated to achieve their goals. This personality trait is often associated with being dependable and trustworthy, as conscientious individuals are diligent in fulfilling their commitments and responsibilities.

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40.

While some personality characteristics are associated with success in different types of jobs, which personality trait is most frequently associated with job performance in all jobs?
- A.
  
  Openness to experience
- B.
  
  Conscientiousness
- C.
  
  Extroversion
- D.
  
  Agreeableness
Correct Answer
B. Conscientiousness

Explanation
Conscientiousness is the personality trait that is most frequently associated with job performance in all jobs. Conscientious individuals are typically organized, responsible, and reliable. They have a strong work ethic and are diligent in completing tasks and meeting deadlines. This trait is valued by employers as it indicates a high level of dependability and the ability to work effectively and efficiently. Conscientious individuals are likely to be more productive and committed to their work, leading to better job performance overall.

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41.

Red Robin Gourmet Burgers is a national restaurant chain with nearly 36,000 employees that began as a small restaurant in Seattle. Over the years, Red Robin has attempted to develop a reputation as a fun, family restaurant that offers both excellent food and service. Red Robin's core values—honor, integrity, having fun, and continually seeking knowledge—serve as the basis for all of the firm's decisions and are even embroidered on the sleeves of every employee's uniform. As Red Robin continues to expand, executives are considering adding tests to the screening process. Which of the following, if true, would best support the argument that Red Robin should use personality tests in the employee selection process?
- A.
  
  Red Robin encourages employees to participate in the firm's environmental stewardship program to show community support.
- B.
  
  Red Robin seeks outgoing, motivated, and compassionate employees to enhance the experience of its customers
- C.
  
  Red Robin offers monetary incentives to managers who meet quarterly sales targets and exceed performance expectations.
- D.
  
  Red Robin desires employees with extensive knowledge of the restaurant industry and at least two years of experience serving customers.
Correct Answer
B. Red Robin seeks outgoing, motivated, and compassionate employees to enhance the experience of its customers

Explanation
The answer supports the argument that Red Robin should use personality tests in the employee selection process because it indicates that the company values specific personality traits in their employees. By seeking outgoing, motivated, and compassionate individuals, Red Robin aims to enhance the customer experience, suggesting that they believe these traits are important for their employees to possess. Using personality tests can help ensure that potential hires align with these desired qualities, making them more likely to contribute to the company's goal of providing excellent service.

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42.

Red Robin Gourmet Burgers is a national restaurant chain with nearly 36,000 employee that began as a small restaurant in Seattle. Over the years, Red Robin has attempted to develop a reputation as a fun, family restaurant that offers both excellent food and service. Red Robin's core values—honor, integrity, having fun, and continually seeking knowledge—serve as the basis for all of the firm's decisions and are even embroidered on the sleeves of every employee's uniform. As Red Robin continues to expand, executives are considering adding tests to the screening process. Which of the following, if true, would most likely undermine the argument that Red Robin should use achievement tests in the employee selection process?
- A.
  
  Red Robin receives so many applications that it only considers individuals with previous job experience in the restaurant industry
- B.
  
  Red Robin provides a two-week training session to all new hires, which are frequently college students with little experience in the restaurant industry
- C.
  
  Red Robin expects applicants for management positions to understand current EEO laws and be aware of ADA requirements
- D.
  
  Red Robin requires applicants for cashier positions to take typing tests to assess their speed at the cash register.
Correct Answer
B. Red Robin provides a two-week training session to all new hires, which are frequently college students with little experience in the restaurant industry

Explanation
The argument for using achievement tests in the employee selection process is based on the assumption that Red Robin needs to ensure that they hire individuals with the necessary skills and knowledge. However, if Red Robin provides a two-week training session to all new hires, especially college students with little experience in the restaurant industry, it suggests that the company is willing to invest in training and developing their employees. This undermines the need for achievement tests as it implies that Red Robin believes in providing the necessary training to equip their employees with the required skills, rather than solely relying on their previous experience or test scores.

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43.

An interest inventory compares an applicant's current interests with the interests of ________.
- A.
  
  Retired workers
- B.
  
  Other people in the same industry
- C.
  
  Other people in various occupations
- D.
  
  Managers and executives in the firm
Correct Answer
C. Other people in various occupations

Explanation
An interest inventory compares an applicant's current interests with the interests of other people in various occupations. This comparison helps to assess the alignment between the applicant's interests and the interests of individuals working in different fields. By comparing with a diverse range of occupations, the inventory provides a broader perspective and allows for a comprehensive evaluation of the applicant's interests and potential career paths.

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1
0
44.

Which of the following is used to measure job knowledge?
- A.
  
  Aptitude tests
- B.
  
  Interest inventories
- C.
  
  Achievement tests
- D.
  
  Projective tests
Correct Answer
C. Achievement tests

Explanation
Achievement tests are used to measure job knowledge. These tests assess an individual's knowledge and skills in a specific area, such as a particular job or subject matter. They typically consist of questions or tasks that evaluate the individual's understanding and application of the required knowledge for the job. By measuring job knowledge, achievement tests help employers determine if a candidate or employee possesses the necessary expertise to perform the job effectively.

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45.

Applicant tracking systems are mostly used by employers to ________.
- A.
  
  Develop work samples
- B.
  
  Develop specific job descriptions
- C.
  
  Verify a candidate's U.S. citizenship D) screen and rank candidates based on
- D.
  
  Screen and rank candidates based on skills
Correct Answer
D. Screen and rank candidates based on skills

Explanation
Applicant tracking systems are software tools used by employers to efficiently manage the recruitment process. These systems help employers screen and rank candidates based on their skills. By analyzing resumes and applications, these systems can identify candidates who possess the required skills and qualifications for a particular job. This saves time and effort for employers, allowing them to focus on the most qualified candidates for further consideration.

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46.

With the work sampling technique, applicants are ________.
- A.
  
  Asked to submit examples of projects they have completed for other employers
- B.
  
  Tested on their ability to perform several tasks crucial to performing the job of interest
- C.
  
  Tested on their ability to perform a range of tasks related to several positions in a firm
- D.
  
  Given video-based situational interviews to assess their critical thinking skills
Correct Answer
B. Tested on their ability to perform several tasks crucial to performing the job of interest

Explanation
The work sampling technique is a method used to assess an applicant's ability to perform various tasks that are important for the job they are applying for. This technique involves giving the applicants opportunities to demonstrate their skills and capabilities in performing tasks that are crucial to the job they are interested in. By testing their ability to perform these tasks, employers can evaluate whether the applicants have the necessary skills and qualifications for the job. This method is effective in assessing the practical abilities of applicants and determining their suitability for the job.

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47.

Which of the following is the primary advantage of the work sampling technique?
- A.
  
  Applicants find it difficult to fake answers.
- B.
  
  Employers learn about an applicant's personality.
- C.
  
  Applicants can evaluate their own performance.
- D.
  
  Fine motor skills can be accurately assessed over time.
Correct Answer
A. Applicants find it difficult to fake answers.

Explanation
The primary advantage of the work sampling technique is that it makes it difficult for applicants to fake answers. This means that employers can obtain more accurate information about an applicant's skills and abilities. Work sampling involves observing applicants performing tasks or activities that are similar to those they would encounter in the job, allowing employers to assess their actual performance rather than relying solely on self-reported information. This reduces the potential for applicants to exaggerate or misrepresent their capabilities, providing employers with more reliable and valid data for making hiring decisions.

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48.

A(n) ________ is a multi-day simulation in which candidates perform realistic tasks in hypothetical situations and are scored on their performance.
- A.
  
  Work sampling event
- B.
  
  Situational judgment test
- C.
  
  Management assessment center
- D.
  
  Applicant personality test
Correct Answer
C. Management assessment center

Explanation
A management assessment center is a multi-day simulation in which candidates perform realistic tasks in hypothetical situations and are scored on their performance. This type of assessment allows employers to evaluate candidates' skills, abilities, and potential for success in a managerial role. It typically involves a combination of individual and group exercises, such as role plays, case studies, and presentations, to assess candidates' problem-solving, decision-making, leadership, and communication skills. The assessment center provides a comprehensive and objective evaluation of candidates' performance, allowing employers to make informed decisions about their suitability for managerial positions.

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49.

Typical simulated exercises used in management assessment centers include all of the following EXCEPT ________.
- A.
  
  The in-basket
- B.
  
  Leaderless group discussions
- C.
  
  Motor skills assessments
- D.
  
  Management games
Correct Answer
C. Motor skills assessments

Explanation
Simulated exercises used in management assessment centers are designed to evaluate various skills and abilities required for effective management. The in-basket exercise assesses the candidate's ability to prioritize tasks and make decisions. Leaderless group discussions evaluate their teamwork and communication skills. Management games test their strategic thinking and problem-solving abilities. However, motor skills assessments do not typically form a part of management assessment centers as they are not directly relevant to managerial roles.

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50.

Which of the following is the primary advantage of using management assessment centers in the selection process?
- A.
  
  Development costs are very low.
- B.
  
  Minimal time is required for test administration.
- C.
  
  Industrial psychologists are involved in the testing process
- D.
  
  Experts observe and appraise each candidate's leadership potential.
Correct Answer
D. Experts observe and appraise each candidate's leadership potential.

Explanation
The primary advantage of using management assessment centers in the selection process is that experts are able to observe and appraise each candidate's leadership potential. This allows for a more comprehensive and accurate evaluation of the candidates' abilities and suitability for leadership roles. Development costs and test administration time are not mentioned as advantages in the question. Industrial psychologists being involved in the testing process may be beneficial, but it is not specified as the primary advantage.

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Feb 01, 2019

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Trivia Quiz On Employee Testing And Selection! HRM Questions

Which of the following terms refers to hiring workers who have criminal backgrounds without proper safeguards?

A reliable employment test will most likely yield ________.

If a person scores a 70 on an intelligence test on one day and scores 110 when retested on another day, you would most likely conclude that this test is ________.

If a person scores a 78 on a test on one day and scores a 79 when retested on another day, you would most likely conclude that this test is ________.

Which of the following terms refers to the consistency of scores obtained by the same person when retested with alternate forms of the same test?

Which of the following best describes how to use a test-retest reliability estimate to assess reliability?

Which of the following measures reliability by administering two different yet comparable tests and then comparing the two test scores?

________ is used as an estimate of reliability and involves administering a test with x number of items designed to assess a topic and then statistically analyzing the degree to which responses to the items vary together.

All of the following are used for estimating the reliability of a test EXCEPT ________.

When repetitive questions appear on a questionnaire, which of the following is most likely being measured?

The unreliability of a test is best explained by all of the following EXCEPT ________.

Which of the following terms refers to the accuracy with which a test fulfills the function for which it was designed?

Demonstrating the content validity of a test can be best accomplished by showing that ________.

The first step in the test validation process is ________.

Which of the following is a graph that shows the relationship between test scores and job performance for a group of people?

What is the primary disadvantage of using concurrent validation?

________ validation is considered the most dependable method of validating an employment test.

The process of cross-validating a test involves all of the following EXCEPT ________.

According to the American Psychological Association, all of the following are rights of test takers EXCEPT the right to expect ________.

According to a survey, most employers who administer tests to applicants are measuring ________.

________ tests include assessments of general reasoning ability and of specific mental abilities like memory and inductive reasoning

Grafton Industries administers selection tests to job candidates. The tests measure a range of abilities including memory, vocabulary, verbal fluency, and numerical ability, so they are most likely ________ tests.

All of the following are measured by aptitude tests EXCEPT ________.

As part of the selection process for a position at UPS, Jack has been asked to lift weights and jump rope. Which of the following is most likely being measured by UPS?

Carl recently participated in a selection test for a position at Northern Aeronautics. The test measured Carl's finger dexterity and reaction time, so it was most likely a(n) ________ test.

All of the following are most likely assessed on personality tests EXCEPT ________.

According to experts, most people are hired for their qualifications and fired because of attitude, motivation, and ________.

Make a Picture Story and the Forer Structured Sentence Completion Test are examples of ________ tests.

Which if the following is a projective personality test?

The Big Five personality dimensions include all of the following EXCEPT ________.

Which of the following personality dimensions represents a tendency to exhibit poor emotional adjustment and experience negative effects such as anxiety, insecurity, and hostility?

________ represents a tendency to be sociable, assertive, and active.

Mike Simmons recently applied for a position with Pfizer Pharmaceuticals. Which personality trait most likely has the strongest correlation to Mike's success as a pharmaceutical sales representative?

Which personality characteristic refers to the disposition to be imaginative, nonconforming, and unconventional?

The tendency for one to be trusting, compliant, caring, and gentle is the personality dimension known as ________.

Which personality characteristic is comprised of both achievement and dependability?

While some personality characteristics are associated with success in different types of jobs, which personality trait is most frequently associated with job performance in all jobs?

An interest inventory compares an applicant's current interests with the interests of ________.

Which of the following is used to measure job knowledge?

Applicant tracking systems are mostly used by employers to ________.

With the work sampling technique, applicants are ________.

Which of the following is the primary advantage of the work sampling technique?

A(n) ________ is a multi-day simulation in which candidates perform realistic tasks in hypothetical situations and are scored on their performance.

Typical simulated exercises used in management assessment centers include all of the following EXCEPT ________.

Which of the following is the primary advantage of using management assessment centers in the selection process?