Med-surg Tb Neuro 22-24
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The nurse is caring for the patient who has had an injury to the hypothalamus. Which intervention will the nurse be most concerned with implementing?
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Maintaining environmental temperature control
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Monitoring for signs of hemorrhage
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Protecting the eyes from bright lights
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Providing care designed to preserve skin integrity
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This quiz focuses on neurological nursing within medical-surgical contexts, assessing knowledge on hypothalamic function, nervous system differences, aging impacts on reflexes, and specific neurological assessments.
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- 2.
The nurse differentiates the sympathetic from the parasympathetic nervous systems in that the sympathetic system:
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Provides energy for “fight or flight” in stressful situations.
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Slows the heart rate after a stressful situation.
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Supports deep sleep after large expenditures of energy.
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Relaxes blood vessels to counteract hypertension.
Correct Answer
A. Provides energy for “fight or flight” in stressful situations.Explanation
The sympathetic nervous system “gears up” the body for “fight or flight” situations with epinephrine that will raise the blood pressure, reduce bowel motility, and energize the whole body to defend itself in a stressful situation.Rate this question:
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- 3.
Bladder training begins with toileting the patient every:
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Hour
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2 hours
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3 hours
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4 hours
Correct Answer
A. 2 hoursExplanation
Bladder training begins with toileting the patient every 2 hours.Rate this question:
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- 4.
The vital sign assessment of a person with a head injury was temperature (T), 97° F; pulse (P), 86; respiration (R), 18; and blood pressure (BP), 140/86 at 1:00. Which vital sign assessment made 30 minutes later is indicative of increasing intracranial pressure (ICP)?
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T, 98° F; P, 78; R, 14; BP, 150/82
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T, 97° F; P, 90; R, 20; BP, 148/94
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T, 98° F; P, 82; R, 18; BP, 140/74
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T, 99° F; P, 92; R, 16; BP, 136/82
Correct Answer
A. T, 98° F; P, 78; R, 14; BP, 150/82Explanation
An increasing temperature, decreasing pulse and respirations, and a widening pulse pressure are indicative of increasing ICP.Rate this question:
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- 5.
A patient is admitted to the hospital to rule out the possibility of bacterial meningitis. Which test will be most helpful in diagnosing this condition?
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Magnetoencephalography (MEG)
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Myelography
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Cerebral angiography
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Lumbar puncture for cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) analysis and culture
Correct Answer
A. Lumbar puncture for cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) analysis and cultureExplanation
A lumbar puncture is performed to remove a sample of CSF to detect abnormalities that are indicative of specific neurologic problems and determine which organism is responsible for an infection such as bacterial meningitis.Rate this question:
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- 6.
Following a craniotomy to relieve increased intracranial pressure (ICP), the nurse will implement which intervention?
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Elevate the head of the bed 30 to 45 degrees.
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Place drip pad or cotton to absorb cerebrospinal fluid drainage from the nose or ears.
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Keep the patient stimulated to better assess changing level of consciousness.
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Allow the patient to change positions frequently for comfort.
Correct Answer
A. Elevate the head of the bed 30 to 45 degrees.Explanation
The head of bed is elevated to aid in reduction of ICP. Drip pads, patient stimulation, and changing positions frequently may increase ICP.Rate this question:
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- 7.
The anxious 20-year-old college student who just suffered his first seizure in his dorm room asks the nurse if he is now an epileptic. What is the nurse’s best response?
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“No. All other causes of seizure activity must be ruled out before the diagnosis of epilepsy is made.”
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“Yes, but you may never have another seizure since it has just now manifested itself.”
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“No, but you should see a physician to get a prescription for a preventative antispasmodic.”
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“Yes. All seizures are considered to be epilepsy.”
Correct Answer
A. “No. All other causes of seizure activity must be ruled out before the diagnosis of epilepsy is made.”Explanation
Epilepsy diagnosis is made after all other causes of seizure activity have proven negative. All seizures are not considered to be epilepsy.Rate this question:
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- 8.
The nurse is providing medication teaching to a patient with epilepsy who is taking an anticonvulsant medication. What should the nurse tell the patient to be sure to avoid?
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Taking alternative herbal remedies
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Drinking alcohol
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Using over-the-counter cold remedies
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Taking diet pills with ephedra
Correct Answer
A. Drinking alcoholExplanation
Alcohol interferes with the metabolism of anticonvulsants, increases lethargy, and may trigger seizures.Rate this question:
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- 9.
What intervention by the nurse would most encourage self-feeding in a patient who recently had a CVA with right-sided paralysis?
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Place “finger foods” on the left side of the plate.
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Support the right hand in holding an adaptive cup.
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Seat the patient in the dining room with other residents.
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Place large helpings of food in the center of the plate.
Correct Answer
A. Place “finger foods” on the left side of the plate.Explanation
Finger foods on the nonparalyzed side encourage self-feeding. Privacy is more supportive to early efforts than being in a common dining room. Smaller helpings on the same side of the nonparalyzed limb are conducive to self-feeding.Rate this question:
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- 10.
The older adult who is admitted to the hospital following a closed head injury that resulted in a 5-minute period of unconsciousness will be observed for which change?
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Increasing respiratory rate
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Decreasing heart rate
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Decreasing pulse pressure
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Decreasing level of consciousness (LOC)
Correct Answer
A. Decreasing level of consciousness (LOC)Explanation
Assessment of level of consciousness provides the greatest amount of information about neurologic condition. A reduction in level of consciousness may signal the onset of complications in the patient who has had a head injury.Rate this question:
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- 11.
The nurse is caring for a patient who recently suffered a cerebrovascular accident (CVA). The family asks the nurse why their father had a seizure. What is the best response by the nurse?
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“The seizure was most likely caused by brain cells being deprived of oxygen due to a blood a clot in the brain.”
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“The stroke generated a toxin that excites the brain cells.”
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“The stroke causes an alteration in the cells adjacent to the blood clot.”
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“The stroke causes an increase in the depolarization of the brain cells due to the clot formation.”
Correct Answer
A. “The seizure was most likely caused by brain cells being deprived of oxygen due to a blood a clot in the brain.”Explanation
Thrombi from a CVA can occlude vessels, cutting off oxygen supply to cells of the brain and causing a seizure.Rate this question:
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- 12.
A patient diagnosed with a primary brain tumor asks the nurse if this is a common disease. Which response by the nurse is accurate?
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“Brain tumors are very rare.”
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“About 40,000 people a year are diagnosed with a primary brain tumor.”
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“It doesn’t really matter. We are just concerned with helping you.”
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“Almost all primary brain tumors are malignant.”
Correct Answer
A. “About 40,000 people a year are diagnosed with a primary brain tumor.”Explanation
About 200,000 new brain tumors are discovered each year in the United States with approximately 40,000 of those being primary tumors and the rest are metastatic tumors from a different site of origin. Many primary brain tumors are benign. Telling the patient his question doesn’t really matter is non-therapeutic communication.Rate this question:
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- 13.
When turning the patient who is in Crutchfield tongs traction, the nurse will:
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Turn the patient as a unit by log rolling.
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Release the weights to prevent injury while turning.
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Turn quickly to avoid muscle spasms.
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Advise the patient to hold his breath and bear down during turning.
Correct Answer
A. Turn the patient as a unit by log rolling.Explanation
Turning the patient as a unit by log rolling with the weights in place immobilizes the affected vertebrae and maintains alignment. Releasing the weights or turning quickly will affect vertebrae and alignment. Deep breathing will decrease muscle tension.Rate this question:
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- 14.
The nurse requesting the patient to stick out the tongue and move it rapidly from side to side is assessing the __________ nerve.
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Hypoglossal
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Glossopharyngeal
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Vagal
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Abducens
Correct Answer
A. HypoglossalExplanation
The test described is the test for the effectiveness of the hypoglossal nerve (CN XII), which is a cranial motor nerve responsible for tongue movement and articulation of speech.Rate this question:
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- 15.
The nurse explains that a reflex is a simple automatic response requiring only:
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One efferent and one afferent impulse and a synapse.
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Two efferent impulse and one synapse.
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Two synapses with efferent and afferent impulses.
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Two afferent impulses and one synapse.
Correct Answer
A. One efferent and one afferent impulse and a synapse.Explanation
The reflex only requires an efferent and an afferent impulse and one synapse, a very simple response.Rate this question:
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- 16.
The reflex that indicates an abnormality in the motor control pathways from the cerebral cortex is the __________ reflex.
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Babinski
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Biceps
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Brachioradialis
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Knee jerk
Correct Answer
A. BabinskiExplanation
A positive Babinski reflex indicates an abnormality in the motor pathways from the cerebral cortex.Rate this question:
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- 17.
The nurse caring for a patient with an epidural hematoma suspects diabetes insipidus when the patient exhibits increased:
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Lethargy
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Pulse pressure.
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Urinary output.
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Blood glucose levels.
Correct Answer
A. Urinary output.Explanation
A large increase in urinary output of pale urine with a low specific gravity is the clue to the development of diabetes insipidus related to edema of the posterior pituitary. Lethargy and increased pulse pressure are not typical signs of diabetes insipidus. Increased serum glucose levels is a sign of diabetes mellitus.Rate this question:
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- 18.
In assessing the patient with a significant right-sided closed head injury, the nurse would anticipate the patient to demonstrate which sign?
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Left-sided motor deficit with sluggish right pupil response
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Right-sided motor deficit with brisk right pupil response
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Bilateral motor deficit with bilaterally sluggish pupil response
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Left-sided motor deficit and bilateral PERRLA
Correct Answer
A. Left-sided motor deficit with sluggish right pupil responseExplanation
A right-sided injury will cause contralateral (opposite side) motor deficit and ipsilateral (same side) pupillary response.Rate this question:
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- 19.
The nurse is aware that a key sign of a brain tumor is:
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Morning nausea.
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Difficulty reading.
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Headache that awakens patient.
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Increasing blood pressure.
Correct Answer
A. Headache that awakens patient.Explanation
A headache that awakens the patient is an early sign of a brain tumor. The other options are too nonspecific to be diagnostic.Rate this question:
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- 20.
Following a craniotomy for the removal of a brain tumor, the patient exhibits nuchal rigidity, rash on the chest, headache, and a positive Brudzinski sign. What do these assessment findings indicate to the nurse?
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Intracranial bleeding
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Encephalitis
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Increasing intracranial pressure
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Meningitis
Correct Answer
A. MeningitisExplanation
Nuchal rigidity, skin rash, headache, and a positive Brudzinski sign are indicative of meningitis.Rate this question:
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- 21.
The nurse on a rehabilitation unit is caring for a stroke patient who is experiencing homonymous hemianopsia. The patient asks if he is going to have any limitations when discharged from the hospital. The nurse anticipates the patient will be restricted from what activity?
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Ambulating independently
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Cooking on a stove
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Reading a book
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Driving a vehicle
Correct Answer
A. Driving a vehicleExplanation
Homonymous hemianopsia is blindness in part of the visual field of both eyes. Driving a vehicle may be very dangerous for this patient. With proper occupational therapy, the patient should be able to ambulate independently, cook, and read.Rate this question:
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- 22.
The nurse notes that the Glasgow Coma Scale rating made on the patient 4 hours ago indicated a fully alert patient with a score of _____ points.
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25
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20
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15
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10
Correct Answer
A. 15Explanation
The Glasgow Coma Scale is used to evaluate a patient’s neurologic functioning and level of consciousness. Scores range from 3 to 15 points. The higher the score, the higher the level of consciousness. A score of 15 points on the Glasgow Coma Scale indicates a fully alert patient.Rate this question:
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- 23.
The anxious mother of an adolescent who sustained a spinal injury yesterday and has paralysis of the lower limbs asks if the paralysis is permanent. Which response by the nurse is most helpful?
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“Motor function sometimes returns after the edema of the spinal cord has subsided.”
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“Motor function may improve, but there will always be a deficit.”
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“In all likelihood the paralysis will be permanent.”
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“The physician is the best source for that information.”
Correct Answer
A. “Motor function sometimes returns after the edema of the spinal cord has subsided.”Explanation
Until spinal cord edema has subsided, the extent or the permanency of the paralysis cannot be evaluated. It would be incorrect to indicate that there will definitely be a deficit or paralysis. Not addressing the question and suggesting only to talk to the physician will likely frighten the parent.Rate this question:
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- 24.
The patient with brain tumor–related hydrocephalus is to have a ventriculoperitoneal (V-P) shunt. The nurse explains that this surgical intervention will:
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Redirect the cerebrospinal fluid from the ventricles to the peritoneum.
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Stimulate ventricles to reabsorb excess cerebrospinal fluid.
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Channel excess cerebrospinal fluid to the left atrium.
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Provide a port from which excess cerebrospinal fluid can be aspirated.
Correct Answer
A. Redirect the cerebrospinal fluid from the ventricles to the peritoneum.Explanation
The V-P shunt redirects the excess cerebrospinal fluid from the ventricles of the brain to the peritoneal space, where it is reabsorbed.Rate this question:
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- 25.
The nurse may record a positive Romberg’s test if during the test, the patient:
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Cannot keep his eyes closed.
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Cannot touch his nose with eyes closed.
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Complains of dizziness.
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Sways from side to side.
Correct Answer
A. Sways from side to side.Explanation
The patient is asked to stand with his feet together and to close his eyes. Swaying from side to side during the Romberg’s test is a positive sign for impaired balance.Rate this question:
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- 26.
The crossed arms of the examiner when assessing muscle strength in a neurologic assessment is done in order to:
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Align the examiner’s hands with the patient’s hands.
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Create greater distance between the examiner and the patient.
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Allow a comfortable stance for the examiner.
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Equalize sensitivity of the examiner’s hands.
Correct Answer
A. Align the examiner’s hands with the patient’s hands.Explanation
By crossing the arms, the examiner’s hands and the patient’s hands are aligned. Whatever the examiner feels in her right hand would be happening in the patient’s right hand as well.Rate this question:
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- 27.
The nurse assesses the level of consciousness (LOC) of a patient with a neurologic injury as mildly disoriented to surroundings and time, but awake and needs additional verbal cues to stimulate response to commands. Which documentation is the most accurate in regard to LOC?
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Alert
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Confused
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Lethargic
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Obtunded
Correct Answer
A. ConfusedExplanation
The confused patient is awake, but slightly confused and needs coaching to respond to commands. Alert indicates appropriate response to questions and commands with little stimulation. Lethargic is described as the patient being drowsy, but easily aroused. Obtunded patients are more difficult to arouse and respond slowly to stimulation.Rate this question:
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- 28.
The nurse is providing teaching to a patient newly diagnosed with simple partial seizure disorder. Which statement by the nurse is most accurate?
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“Your seizures will typically only affect one side of your body.”
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“Simple partial seizures may result in an alteration of consciousness.”
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“The simple partial seizure may cause motor impairment to begin in all of your extremities.”
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“Simple partial seizures are not treatable.”
Correct Answer
A. “Your seizures will typically only affect one side of your body.”Explanation
Simple partial seizures only involve one side of the brain and one side of the body. Complex partial seizures may or may not result in an alteration in level of consciousness. Generalized seizures affect both sides of the body. Simple partial seizures may respond to treatment.Rate this question:
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- 29.
The nurse is caring for a patient with bacterial meningitis. What will the nurse include in the plan of care?
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A quiet environment with minimal stimulation
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Care using medical asepsis
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Limitation of oral fluids
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Distraction to reduce daytime naps
Correct Answer
A. A quiet environment with minimal stimulationExplanation
The environment is kept quiet with minimal stimulation to reduce the possibility of seizure. The care is done with general precautions. Fluid intake in encouraged, as are daytime naps to preserve energy.Rate this question:
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- 30.
The emergency room nurse assessing clear drainage from the nose of a newly admitted patient with a head injury should perform which intervention?
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Document the presence of rhinorrhea.
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Inform the physician of the assessment.
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Test fluid with a glucose Accu-Chek or Dextrostix.
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Tape a drip pad under the nose.
Correct Answer
A. Test fluid with a glucose Accu-Chek or Dextrostix.Explanation
The presence of glucose in the fluid from the nose confirms that the fluid is cerebrospinal fluid. Documentation and informing the physician should occur after confirmation of the character of the fluid.Rate this question:
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- 31.
The dysarthric patient seated in the dining room of the long-term care facility yells, “Poon! Poon! Poon!” with increasing frustration. What is the nurse’s best response?
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“Slow down, I can’t understand what you are saying.”
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“Are you asking for a spoon?”
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“Not being able to speak is frustrating.”
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“If you tell me what you want, I will get it.”
Correct Answer
A. “Are you asking for a spoon?”Explanation
Attempting to interpret the dysarthric communication through questions that can be answered simply will reduce frustration.Rate this question:
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- 32.
The patient who suffered a CVA has developed agnosia. Which intervention by the nurse is most helpful?
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Telling the patient “This is a spoon. You are to eat with it.”
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Moving the patient’s hand with a toothbrush in repetitive motion to brush teeth
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Telling the patient “The table edge is right in front of you.”
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Providing an adaptive fork to enhance self-feeding
Correct Answer
A. Telling the patient “This is a spoon. You are to eat with it.”Explanation
Identifying objects and their intended use is helpful to people with agnosia who can no longer recognize items. The other options are helpful to people with apraxia, hemianopsia, and altered coordination, respectively.Rate this question:
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- 33.
The nurse assessing an 80-year-old attributes the slowed knee jerk reflex with which age-related change?
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Diminished brain cells
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Degeneration of myelin sheath
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Weakened muscles
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Irritation of nerve roots
Correct Answer
A. Degeneration of myelin sheathExplanation
Loss of nerve fibers in the autonomic nervous system will cause diminished reflexes in the older adult.Rate this question:
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- 34.
In the event of autonomic dysreflexia (AD) in the patient with a spinal cord injury, the initial intervention should be to:
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Elevate the head of the bed to lower blood pressure.
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Notify the charge nurse to get assistance.
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Increase IV fluid rate to ensure adequate circulating volume.
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Administer anti-hypertensive medication.
Correct Answer
A. Elevate the head of the bed to lower blood pressure.Explanation
Autonomic dysreflexia (hyperreflexia) response is potentially dangerous to the patient, because it can produce vasoconstriction of the arterioles with an immediate elevation of blood pressure. Elevating the head of bed is the initial intervention to decrease the rising blood pressure. Notifying the charge nurse can be done after initial interventions. Increasing the IV fluid rate may further increase the blood pressure. The cause of AD should be addressed before administering any hypertensive medication.Rate this question:
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- 35.
The most beneficial and safe positioning of an unconscious patient who has a rightsided closed head injury is:
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High Fowler’s.
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Right side-lying.
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Flat with small pillow under head.
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Head of bed 20 to 30 degrees.
Correct Answer
A. Head of bed 20 to 30 degrees.Explanation
Keeping the head of the bed 20 to 30 degrees with the body in good alignment will help reduce intracranial pressure and keep the airway patent.Rate this question:
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- 36.
The patient with a suspected subdural hematoma is on an IV drip of mannitol infusing at 50 mL/hr. The nurse explains that the slow infusion rate is essential for what purpose?
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Ensure effectiveness of the drug.
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Avoid fluid overload.
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Maintain electrolyte balance.
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Maintain adequate blood pressure.
Correct Answer
A. Avoid fluid overload.Explanation
The slow infusion rate will not cause fluid overload, which would add to the possibility of increased intracranial pressure.Rate this question:
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- 37.
The nurse is assessing a patient on IV phenytoin (Dilantin). Which assessment finding is the nurse concerned with?
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BP 138/86
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Frequent hiccups
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Irregular apical pulse
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Nausea and vomiting
Correct Answer
A. Irregular apical pulseExplanation
IV phenytoin can cause cardiac arrhythmias and hypotension, especially if given faster than 50 mg/min.Rate this question:
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- 38.
A patient was recently diagnosed as having Bell’s palsy. Which nursing intervention will the nurse include in the care plan for this patient?
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Medication for pain relief
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Protection of the eye on paralyzed side
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Precautions against aspiration
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Provision of a fan to cool the face
Correct Answer
A. Protection of the eye on paralyzed sideExplanation
Protection of the eye with a shield or goggles is essential during period of paralysis. There is no pain or threat of aspiration. Cool air is a trigger for Bell’s palsy.Rate this question:
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- 39.
The nurse is writing the care plan for a cerebrovascular accident (CVA) patient who has partial left-sided paralysis and is experiencing ataxia. Which intervention will be beneficial for this patient?
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Encourage the patient to ambulate as much as possible when she feels the energy to do so.
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Ensure the patient receives pureed foods and thickened liquids.
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Place the patient’s call light on the right side of the patient and remind her to call for assistance before getting up.
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Encourage the patient to use a communication board.
Correct Answer
A. Place the patient’s call light on the right side of the patient and remind her to call for assistance before getting up.Explanation
The patient with ataxia has experienced a loss of balance or poor coordination; therefore, placing the call light on this patient’s right side and reminding her to call for help will best address her high risk for falling. Pureed foods and thickened liquids are necessary for the patient with dysphagia, and a communication board would assist a patient with dysarthria or aphasia.Rate this question:
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- 40.
The patient had a carotid ultrasound that showed a 40% obstruction following a transient ischemic attack (TIA). The nurse anticipates that the treatment will consist of: (Select all that apply.)
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Diet modification.
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Lifestyle alteration.
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Aspirin for antiplatelet aggregation.
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Daily doses of nitrates.
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Endarterectomy
Correct Answer(s)
A. Diet modification.
A. Lifestyle alteration.
A. Aspirin for antiplatelet aggregation.Explanation
Nitrates and endarterectomy are not initial treatment options for carotid obstruction below 60%.Rate this question:
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- 41.
The student nurse is planning care for a patient with a recent spinal cord injury. Which intervention indicates the need for further instruction regarding care of the patient with a spinal cord injury?
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Keep the halo jacket fastened unless the patient is in a supine position.
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Monitor the bladder every 4 hours for signs of bladder distention.
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Instruct unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) to turn and reposition the patient every 2 hours.
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Assess compression stockings for proper fit.
Correct Answer
A. Instruct unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) to turn and reposition the patient every 2 hours.Explanation
Moving or positioning the patient with neurologic injury or surgery should not be delegated to unlicensed personnel. Following proper instruction, the UAP can assist the nurse with moving or repositioning the patient. Halo jackets must be kept fastened unless the patient is in a supine position in order to prevent sudden head movement. Bladder distention should be avoided to prevent infection or autonomic dysreflexia. Compression stockings are used to prevent deep vein thrombosis.Rate this question:
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- 42.
The nurse interprets the physician’s finding of a grade of 2/5 on the Achilles tendon to mean what has occurred?
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Hyperreflexive response for the fifth and sixth cervical nerves
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Exaggerated response for the seventh and eighth cervical nerves
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Normal response for the first and second sacral nerves
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Weak response for the second through the fourth lumbar nerves
Correct Answer
A. Normal response for the first and second sacral nervesExplanation
A score of 2/5 is a normal grade. The Achilles tendon reflex evaluates the first and second sacral nerves.Rate this question:
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- 43.
The assessment of a patient’s ability to think can be evaluated by asking the patient:
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To add three numbers together in his head.
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To identify the name of the present month.
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What he would do in the event of a fire.
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What the last major holiday was.
Correct Answer
A. To add three numbers together in his head.Explanation
Thinking can be evaluated by asking the patient to perform simple arithmetic functions in his head.Rate this question:
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- 44.
The nurse is performing a neurologic assessment on a newly admitted head injury patient. Which sign does the nurse recognize as that most indicative of a brainstem injury?
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Nystagmus
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Decerebrate posturing
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Seizure activity
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Glasgow Coma Scale score of 3
Correct Answer
A. Decerebrate posturingExplanation
The appearance of decerebrate as well as decorticate posturing is an indicator of brainstem injury. Nystagmus, seizures, and a Glasgow score of 3 are not necessarily signs of brainstem injury.Rate this question:
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- 45.
The patient who suffered a spinal cord injury (SCI) 3 days ago resulting in flaccid paralysis begins to flex his arm. The concerned family is instructed that this muscle activity may be related to:
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Increased intracranial pressure.
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Increased edema of the cord.
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Return of voluntary motor activity.
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Muscle spasms.
Correct Answer
A. Muscle spasms.Explanation
Muscle spasms occur several days after the spinal cord injury and are spinal recovery indicators. Concerned family should be reminded that spasms are not necessarily an indication of the return of motor function.Rate this question:
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- 46.
To avoid stimulation of painful muscle spasms, the nurse will:
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Grasp the muscle firmly when moving the patient.
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Use palms of hands to support joints when moving the patient.
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Log roll the patient as a unit.
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Perform passive range of motion (ROM).
Correct Answer
A. Use palms of hands to support joints when moving the patient.Explanation
Using the palms of the hands and not grasping the muscle will reduce the incidence of spasm. Log rolling and ROM may initiate spasms.Rate this question:
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- 47.
A student nurse questions the nurse about the difference between a quadriplegic and a tetraplegic patient. The nurse correctly reports that a tetraplegic patient:
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Has fewer fine motor movements.
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Can experience pain in paralyzed parts.
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Is more easily rehabilitated.
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Means the same as a quadriplegic.
Correct Answer
A. Means the same as a quadriplegic.Explanation
Tetraplegia is the newer term for the old term quadriplegia.Rate this question:
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- 48.
The nurse instructs a person taking phenytoin (Dilantin) that periodic blood tests will be necessary. What is the physician monitoring for?
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Potassium depletion
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Liver damage
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Increased creatinine levels
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Increased sedimentation rates
Correct Answer
A. Liver damageExplanation
Periodic blood tests are recommended for people taking phenytoin to monitor for liver damage.Rate this question:
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- 49.
The nurse is aware that the older adult is more at risk for a cranial bleed following a head injury because the older adult has:
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A smaller brain, which allows for more movement inside the cranium.
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Fragile vessels more likely to rupture.
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Less cerebrospinal fluid to cushion the brain.
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Less flexibility of the meninges to absorb impact.
Correct Answer
A. A smaller brain, which allows for more movement inside the cranium.Explanation
Atrophy of the brain leaves increased intracranial space, allowing increased movement of the brain in the event of head trauma.Rate this question:
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Feb 03, 2023Quiz Edited by
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Dec 10, 2018Quiz Created by
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