# Npte Board Style Questions

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• 1.

### The National Health Survey reports that women's heights are normally distributed with a mean of 65 in and a standard deviation of 2.5 in. What percentage of women are between 62.5 and 67.5 in tall?

• A.

Approximately 34%

• B.

Approximately 68%

• C.

Approximately 95%

• D.

Approximately 99%

B. Approximately 68%
Explanation
Approximately 68% of women are between 62.5 and 67.5 inches tall because in a normal distribution, about 68% of the data falls within one standard deviation of the mean. In this case, the mean is 65 inches and the standard deviation is 2.5 inches. So, the range from 62.5 to 67.5 inches is within one standard deviation of the mean, and therefore approximately 68% of women's heights fall within this range.

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• 2.

### A physical therapist completing documentation in the workstation observes a patient in the gym and begins to use the weight machines. When approached by the therapist, the patient indicates he is 10 minutes early for a scheduled appointment; however, he states that he often begins exercising before working with his therapist. The most appropriate action is:

• A.

Monitor the patient while he initiates exercise program

• B.

• C.

Review the patient's medical record

• D.

Allow the patient to exercise independently

Explanation
The most appropriate action is to ask the patient to return to the waiting area. This is because the patient is not supposed to begin exercising before working with the therapist. By asking the patient to return to the waiting area, the therapist can ensure that the patient follows the proper protocol and does not engage in any potentially harmful activities without supervision. Furthermore, reviewing the patient's medical record may not provide any relevant information in this situation.

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• 3.

### A physical therapist serves as an accessibility consultant for a local business designing a new office complex. What is the minimum recommended corridor width necessary for a power wheelchair?

• A.

28 in

• B.

32 in

• C.

36 in

• D.

40 in

C. 36 in
Explanation
A physical therapist serving as an accessibility consultant for a new office complex would recommend a minimum corridor width of 36 inches for a power wheelchair. This width allows enough space for the wheelchair to maneuver comfortably and safely through the corridor, without any risk of getting stuck or causing any obstruction.

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• 4.

### A physical therapist reviews the available research in an attempt to determine the reliability and validity of the Berg balance test. One of the articles the therapist reviews indicates that the test has high internal consistency. The most appropriate interpretation of this conclusion:

• A.

The test has high external validity

• B.

The past items were assembled from existing reliable and valid survey instruments

• C.

The test items appear to measure the same underlying construct

• D.

The test has been reliable under test-retest situations

C. The test items appear to measure the same underlying construct
Explanation
The conclusion that the test has high internal consistency suggests that the test items are measuring the same underlying construct. Internal consistency refers to the degree to which the items in a test are measuring the same thing. If the test has high internal consistency, it means that the items are all measuring the same concept or construct. Therefore, the most appropriate interpretation of this conclusion is that the test items appear to measure the same underlying construct.

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• 5.

### A physical therapist suspects that a geriatric patient with unilateral hearing loss often has difficulty hearing verbal instructions. The most appropriate accommodation when communicating with a patient is

• A.

Speak loudly and slowly

• B.

Speak to the patient's uninvolved side

• C.

Speak with daring vocal pitch

• D.

Speak directly to the patient

B. Speak to the patient's uninvolved side
Explanation
When a geriatric patient has unilateral hearing loss, it means they can only hear from one ear. Speaking to the patient's uninvolved side allows the sound to reach their functioning ear directly, maximizing their ability to hear and understand verbal instructions. This accommodation helps to ensure effective communication between the physical therapist and the patient, improving the patient's overall experience and outcomes.

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• 6.

### A physical therapist prepares to use iontophoresis with a dosage of 40 mA-min to treat a patient with lateral epicondylitis. What is the expected duration of treatment if the therapist elects to use a current amplitude of 2.5 mA?

• A.

12 mins

• B.

16 mins

• C.

20 mins

• D.

24 mins

B. 16 mins
Explanation
The expected duration of treatment can be calculated by dividing the dosage (40 mA-min) by the current amplitude (2.5 mA). This will give us the total time required to deliver the desired dosage. In this case, 40 mA-min divided by 2.5 mA equals 16 minutes. Therefore, the expected duration of treatment is 16 minutes.

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• 7.

### A physical therapist has ultrasound orders for a patient with medial epicondylitis. The woman injured herself three weeks ago playing golf. The MOST appropriate parameters are:

• A.

1 W/cm2, 1 MHz, 12 minutes

• B.

1 W/cm2, 1 MHz, 5 minutes

• C.

1 W/cm2, 3 MHz, 5 minutes

• D.

1 W/cm2, 3 MHz, 12 minutes

C. 1 W/cm2, 3 MHz, 5 minutes
• 8.

### Results of an x-ray reveal areas of calcium deposits in a patient’s shoulder with diffuse pain. Based on the diagnostic finding, the physician refers the patient to physical therapy for iontophoresis treatment. Which medication would be the MOST useful to incorporate during iontophoresis treatment?

• A.

Acetic acid

• B.

Salicylates

• C.

Lidocaine

• D.

Zinc oxide

A. Acetic acid
Explanation
Based on the diagnostic finding of calcium deposits in the patient's shoulder with diffuse pain, the physician refers the patient to physical therapy for iontophoresis treatment. Iontophoresis is a technique that uses an electric current to deliver medication through the skin. Acetic acid is commonly used in iontophoresis treatment for conditions such as calcific tendonitis, which involves the deposition of calcium in the tendons. Acetic acid helps to dissolve and break down the calcium deposits, reducing pain and inflammation. Therefore, acetic acid would be the most useful medication to incorporate during iontophoresis treatment in this case.

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• 9.

• A.

55 lbs

• B.

110

• C.

165 lbs

• D.

200 lbs

B. 110
• 10.

### A child with cerebral palsy is assessed in an orthotic clinic. The patient is prescribed a floor reaction AFO to assist with gait. The PRIMARY indication for this type of orthosis is:

• A.

Inability to passively extend the knee in standing

• B.

Inability to maintain knee extension during stance

• C.

Inability to perform knee flexion during toe off

• D.

Inability to plantar flex the ankle during the stance

C. Inability to perform knee flexion during toe off
Explanation
The primary indication for prescribing a floor reaction AFO in a child with cerebral palsy is the inability to perform knee flexion during toe off. This means that the child is unable to bend their knee properly when pushing off the ground during walking. The floor reaction AFO helps to provide the necessary support and stability to the ankle and foot, allowing the child to achieve a more efficient and functional gait pattern.

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• 11.

### A physical therapist instructs a 27 year old patient rehabbing from ACL reconstruction surgery on how to perform a swing through gait pattern. Which of the following instructions would NOT be included in a patient education regarding an unrecoverable backward loss of balance?

• A.

• B.

• C.

• D.

C. Reach backward with your arms
• 12.

### A six month old patient diagnosed with congenital torticollis has been under the care of a physical therapist for 4 months. During a reexamination, the therapist notes full passive cervical range of motion is present, however, the patient is unable to independently maintain a neutral head position. Based on these findings, the physical therapist appropriate action is to:

• A.

Continue to empHasize stretching and massage to maintain ROM

• B.

Suggest home activity options that regularly facilitate active ROM

• C.

Incorporate specific progressive resistance exercises into the POC

• D.

Refer the patient to a pediatric orthopedic surgeon for consultation

B. Suggest home activity options that regularly facilitate active ROM
Explanation
Based on the findings that the patient has full passive cervical range of motion but is unable to independently maintain a neutral head position, suggesting home activity options that regularly facilitate active range of motion (ROM) would be the appropriate action. This would help the patient develop the strength and control necessary to maintain a neutral head position on their own. Continuing to emphasize stretching and massage may not address the specific issue of maintaining a neutral head position. Incorporating specific progressive resistance exercises into the plan of care may be too advanced for a six-month-old patient. Referring the patient to a pediatric orthopedic surgeon may not be necessary at this stage.

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• 13.

### A five month old child is referred to physical therapy for a developmental assessment. During the examination the physical therapist observes the infant roll from prone to supine. Integration of which primitive reflexes often associated with completion of this milestone is:

• A.

Asymmetrical tonic neck reflex

• B.

Symmetrical tonic neck reflex

• C.

Galant reflex

• D.

Moro reflex

A. Asymmetrical tonic neck reflex
Explanation
The asymmetrical tonic neck reflex is often associated with the completion of the milestone of rolling from prone to supine. This reflex is present in infants from birth to about six months old and is triggered when the infant turns their head to one side. This reflex causes the arm and leg on the side the head is turned to extend, while the opposite arm and leg flex. As the infant develops and gains more control over their movements, this reflex integrates and allows them to roll from prone to supine.

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• 14.

### A patient informs a physical therapist that her shoulder is quite sore after her last treatment session. The patient is a 44 year-old woman diagnosed with adhesive capsulitis. During the previous treatment session, the therapist performed grade 3 and grade 4 mobilizations followed by progressive resistive exercises. The most appropriate action for the current treatment is:

• A.

Active stretching activities and resistance exercise using elastic to

• B.

Passive range of motion and superficial heat

• C.

Grade 1 and 2 mobilizations and palliative modalities

• D.

Proprioceptive neuromuscular facilitation upper extremity diagonals and cryotherapy

B. Passive range of motion and superficial heat
Explanation
The most appropriate action for the current treatment is passive range of motion and superficial heat. Adhesive capsulitis, also known as frozen shoulder, is a condition characterized by stiffness and pain in the shoulder joint. Passive range of motion exercises help to improve joint mobility and reduce stiffness. Superficial heat, such as heat packs or warm towels, can help to alleviate pain and relax the muscles. This combination of treatment modalities can help to relieve the patient's soreness and improve their shoulder function.

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• 15.

### A physical therapist reviews the medical record of a 6 year old male diagnosed with Duchenne Muscular Dystrophy. Which of the following is required in order for a male child to present with DMD?

• A.

The dominant trait is received from the fall

• B.

The recessive trait is received from both parents

• C.

The dominant trait is received from the mother

• D.

The recessive trait is received from the mother

D. The recessive trait is received from the mother
• 16.

### A physical therapist is providing coverage for a colleague on vacation and views the examination of a patient diagnosed with post-polio syndrome. Which of the following entries in the medical record would be LEAST likely given the patient's diagnosis?

• A.

Decreased endurance for activities of daily

• B.

Muscle atropHy and fasciculations are evident in the lower extremities

• C.

Impaired sensation on the buttocks, posterior leg, and calf

• D.

Diminished an asymmetrical deep tendon reflexes

C. Impaired sensation on the buttocks, posterior leg, and calf
Explanation
Based on the patient's diagnosis of post-polio syndrome, it is least likely that they would have impaired sensation on the buttocks, posterior leg, and calf. Post-polio syndrome is a condition that affects the muscles and nerves, causing weakness and muscle atrophy. Impaired sensation is not typically associated with post-polio syndrome, as it primarily affects the motor function rather than sensory function. The other options, such as decreased endurance, muscle atrophy, and diminished deep tendon reflexes, are all commonly seen in patients with post-polio syndrome.

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• 17.

### A patient with a long-standing history of recurrent back pain is examined in physical therapy. The patient reports having difficulty with lifting activities and as a result has been unable to return to his job as a machinist. The medical history indicates that the patient has tried a variety of treatment alternatives including chiropractic, polarity therapy, and massage, however, has not had any success. The most appropriate goal of physical therapy intervention is:

• A.

Promote function

• B.

Control pain

• C.

Diminished nerve root compression

• D.

Control inflammation

A. Promote function
Explanation
The most appropriate goal of physical therapy intervention for this patient is to promote function. This is because the patient's main concern is difficulty with lifting activities and inability to return to work. By focusing on promoting function, physical therapy can help the patient regain strength, improve mobility, and develop strategies to safely perform lifting activities, ultimately enabling them to return to their job as a machinist.

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• 18.

### A physical therapist performs an examination on a patient status post stroke. Which of the following is a perceptual deficit that is MOST characteristic of a patient with a lesion in the right hemisphere?

• A.

Motor apraxia

• B.

Sequencing deficits

• C.

Impaired body image

• D.

C. Impaired body image
Explanation
A patient with a lesion in the right hemisphere is most likely to experience impaired body image. The right hemisphere of the brain is responsible for visual-spatial perception, which includes the ability to recognize and interpret one's own body image. When this area is damaged, the patient may have difficulty perceiving their own body accurately, leading to impaired body image. Motor apraxia, sequencing deficits, and difficulty initiating tasks are not directly related to perception and are less likely to be characteristic of a right hemisphere lesion.

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• 19.

### A water polo player reports diffuse pain in her right shoulder that begins 10 to 15 minutes after the onset of activity. Examination reveals subjective reports of pain at 90° of passive and active abduction. Medial and lateral rotation range of motion are within normal limits. resistive isometrics are strong and painful for flexion and abduction. The most likely diagnosis is:

• A.

• B.

Rotator cuff tear

• C.

Impingement syndrome

• D.

Upper trapezius strain

C. Impingement syndrome
Explanation
Based on the given information, the water polo player is experiencing diffuse pain in her right shoulder that occurs after the onset of activity. She reports pain specifically at 90Â° of passive and active abduction, which suggests impingement syndrome. The range of motion for medial and lateral rotation is normal, and resistive isometrics are strong but painful for flexion and abduction. These findings are consistent with impingement syndrome, which occurs when the tendons of the rotator cuff become compressed and irritated as they pass through the subacromial space. This compression leads to pain and limited range of motion in certain positions, such as 90Â° of abduction. Therefore, the most likely diagnosis is impingement syndrome.

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• 20.

### A physical therapist treats a two-year-old child with behavioral and social problems secondary to an intellectual disability. Which condition would most likely be associated with this described scenario?

• A.

Mitochondrial disorder

• B.

pHenylketonuria

• C.

Osteogenesis imperfecta

• D.

Wilson’s disease

B. pHenylketonuria
Explanation
Phenylketonuria (PKU) is a genetic disorder that affects the body's ability to break down an amino acid called phenylalanine. If left untreated, high levels of phenylalanine can build up in the body and cause intellectual disability, behavioral and social problems, and other neurological issues. Therefore, PKU is the most likely condition associated with the described scenario of a two-year-old child with behavioral and social problems secondary to an intellectual disability.

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• 21.

### A patient with burns over her anterior right upper extremity genital region, and the anterior portions of the right and the left lower extremities is examined in physical therapy. What percentage of the patient's body is burned using the Rule of Nines?

• A.

19%

• B.

23.5%

• C.

28%

• D.

38.5%

B. 23.5%
Explanation
The Rule of Nines is a method used to estimate the percentage of body surface area that is burned. According to this rule, the anterior right upper extremity genital region accounts for 1% of the body surface area, while each anterior lower extremity accounts for 9%. Therefore, the total percentage of the body that is burned is 1% + 9% + 9% = 19%. However, the question also mentions the anterior portions of both the right and left lower extremities, which would add an additional 5.5% (2.75% for each leg) to the total. Therefore, the correct answer is 19% + 5.5% = 23.5%.

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• 22.

### A physical therapist completes the sensory assessment of the hand. The therapist notes that the patient is unable to test to detect the stimulus shown in the image. this type of finding would most likely be associated with the involvement of the:

• A.

Median Nerve

• B.

Musculoskeletal nerve

• C.

Ulnar Nerve

• D.

Explanation
If the patient is unable to detect the stimulus shown in the image during a sensory assessment of the hand, it is most likely associated with the involvement of the Radial Nerve. The Radial Nerve provides sensory innervation to the back of the hand and fingers, so if there is an issue with this nerve, the patient may have difficulty detecting stimuli in that area.

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• 23.

### A physical therapist performs a special test on a 45 year old male diagnosed with carpal tunnel syndrome by asking the patient to flex his wrist and hold the position by pushing the wrists together for 60 seconds. which of the following would be most indicative of a positive test?

• A.

Pain in an area innervated by the ulnar nerve

• B.

Pain in the area and invaded by the median nerve

• C.

Tingling into the thumb, index finger, middle finger, and latter half of the ring finger

• D.

Tingling into the Palmar aspect of the hand

C. Tingling into the thumb, index finger, middle finger, and latter half of the ring finger
Explanation
The most indicative sign of a positive test for carpal tunnel syndrome is tingling into the thumb, index finger, middle finger, and latter half of the ring finger. This symptom is known as paresthesia and is caused by compression of the median nerve, which passes through the carpal tunnel in the wrist. The other options, such as pain in an area innervated by the ulnar nerve or tingling in the palmar aspect of the hand, are not specific to carpal tunnel syndrome and may indicate other conditions.

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• 24.

### A physical therapist measures the angle of torsion of the female on a 46 year-old male with leg pain of unknown etiology. Which of the following measurements would be the most indicative of a normal measurement?

• A.

4° anteversion

• B.

11° anteversion

• C.

6° retroversion

• D.

12° retroversion

B. 11° anteversion
• 25.

### A physical therapist completes a portion of the cranial nerve assessment by examining the facial nerve. Which of the following tasks would be the most useful when assessing this particular nerve?

• A.

Close the eyes tightly

• B.

Listen to a watch ticking

• C.

Say "Ahhhh"

• D.

Assess sensation of the face

A. Close the eyes tightly
Explanation
Closing the eyes tightly would be the most useful task when assessing the facial nerve. The facial nerve controls the muscles of facial expression, including the muscles that close the eyes. By asking the patient to close their eyes tightly, the physical therapist can assess the strength and symmetry of the facial muscles, which can provide important information about the function of the facial nerve. The other tasks listed, such as listening to a watch ticking, saying "Ahhhh," and assessing sensation of the face, are not specific to the assessment of the facial nerve.

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• 26.

### A physical therapist decides to administer the Spurling's test to a patient with suspected cervical spine pathology. As part of the testing procedure, the therapist applies compression with the head in an extended and rotated position. Which finding would be most indicative of a positive test in the described position?

• A.

Pain throughout the neck region

• B.

Radiating pain into the limb on the same side as the head rotation

• C.

Radiating pain to the limb on the opposite side as the head rotation

• D.

B. Radiating pain into the limb on the same side as the head rotation
Explanation
The Spurling's test is used to assess for cervical spine pathology. In this test, compression is applied to the cervical spine while the head is extended and rotated. The finding that would be most indicative of a positive test in this position is radiating pain into the limb on the same side as the head rotation. This suggests that there may be nerve root compression or irritation on that side of the spine, leading to pain radiating down the limb.

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• 27.

### A physical therapist records the blood pressure of a patient with their arm positioned above the level of the heart. What impact would this have on the obtained measurement in comparison to a more traditional measurement of blood pressure?

• A.

The obtained systolic and diastolic values would be higher

• B.

The obtained systolic and diastolic values will be lower

• C.

The obtain systolic value would be higher and the diastolic value would be lower

• D.

The obtained systolic value would be lower and the diastolic would be higher

B. The obtained systolic and diastolic values will be lower
Explanation
When the patient's arm is positioned above the level of the heart, gravity causes blood to flow more easily towards the arm, resulting in a decrease in blood pressure. This decrease in pressure would be reflected in both the systolic and diastolic values obtained during the measurement. Therefore, the obtained systolic and diastolic values will be lower compared to a more traditional measurement where the arm is positioned at the level of the heart.

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• 28.

### A female patient recently diagnosed with an endocrine system disorder informs her physical therapist that her condition is 7 times more common in females than it is in males. This type of incident is most consistent with:

• A.

Paget's disease

• B.

• C.

AmyotropHic Lateral Sclerosis

• D.

Graves Disease

D. Graves Disease
Explanation
Graves Disease is an autoimmune disorder that affects the thyroid gland, leading to the overproduction of thyroid hormones. It is more common in females than in males, which aligns with the patient's statement that her condition is 7 times more common in females. This information suggests that the patient's symptoms and diagnosis are consistent with Graves Disease.

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• 29.

### A physical therapist treats a patient with Parkinson's disease. Based on the diagnosis, which intervention would be the most appropriate to include in the plan of care?

• A.

Small amplitude movements to increase motor control

• B.

Reaching activities utilizing a standing frame

• C.

External cues and feedback to improve arm swing during gait

• D.

Facilitation techniques to increase tone in the extremities

C. External cues and feedback to improve arm swing during gait
Explanation
Parkinson's disease is a neurodegenerative disorder that affects movement and coordination. One of the common symptoms of Parkinson's disease is a reduced arm swing during walking or gait. External cues and feedback, such as visual or auditory cues, can help improve arm swing and overall gait pattern in patients with Parkinson's disease. Therefore, including external cues and feedback in the plan of care would be the most appropriate intervention for a physical therapist treating a patient with Parkinson's disease.

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• 30.

### A physical therapist observes a five month old infant in supine with their legs elevated and the hips positioned in flexion, abduction, and lateral rotation. Which observation would represent the most advanced volitional movement in this position?

• A.

Reaching in the hand to the ipsilateral knee

• B.

Reaching out the hand to the ipsilateral foot

• C.

Reaching of the hand to the contralateral knee

• D.

Reaching of the hand to the contralateral foot

D. Reaching of the hand to the contralateral foot
Explanation
In this position, the most advanced volitional movement would be reaching the hand to the contralateral foot. This requires the most range of motion and coordination, as the infant has to reach across their body to touch the foot on the opposite side. Reaching to the ipsilateral knee or foot would be less advanced, as it requires less range of motion and coordination.

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• 31.

### A physical therapist utilizes a handheld neuromuscular electrical stimulation unit to treat a patient with disuse muscle atrophy of the quadriceps. After observing a series of muscle contractions the therapist decides to alter the pulse rate and width. The most appropriate initial action is to:

• A.

Reposition the electrodes on the quadriceps

• B.

Obtained informed consent from the patient

• C.

Check the strength of the battery

• D.

Decrease the intensity of the current

A. Reposition the electrodes on the quadriceps
Explanation
The most appropriate initial action is to reposition the electrodes on the quadriceps. This is because the therapist has observed a series of muscle contractions, indicating that the electrical stimulation is reaching the muscles. By repositioning the electrodes, the therapist can ensure that the electrical stimulation is being delivered to the targeted area of the quadriceps, maximizing the effectiveness of the treatment.

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• 32.

### A physical therapist works on Mobility training with a patient diagnosed with T2 paraplegia. Which of the following devices would serve as a patient's primary mode of mobility?

• A.

Manual wheelchair

• B.

Power wheelchair

• C.

Manual and power wheelchairs

• D.

Wheelchair and KAFO

A. Manual wheelchair
Explanation
A physical therapist works on mobility training with a patient diagnosed with T2 paraplegia. T2 paraplegia indicates paralysis of the lower limbs, which means the patient has limited or no movement below the chest. In this case, a manual wheelchair would serve as the patient's primary mode of mobility. A manual wheelchair allows the patient to move independently by using their upper body strength to propel themselves forward. Power wheelchairs require the use of lower body movements, which may not be possible for someone with T2 paraplegia. KAFO (Knee-Ankle-Foot Orthosis) is a type of leg brace and would not provide the primary mode of mobility for a patient with T2 paraplegia.

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• 33.

### A female physical therapist prepares to examine a 54 year old male diagnosed with spinal stenosis. During the examination the therapist decides that it may be prudent to have another individual in the treatment room prior to beginning a positional assessment of the patient sacrum. The most appropriate individual to witness the assessment activity is:

• A.

• B.

A member of the patient's family

• C.

A pHysical therapy aide

• D.

A pHysical therapist

D. A pHysical therapist
Explanation
The most appropriate individual to witness the assessment activity is a physical therapist because they have the necessary knowledge and expertise to understand and interpret the assessment findings. They can provide valuable insights and collaborate with the examining therapist to ensure the safety and effectiveness of the assessment. An administrative assistant may not have the required medical knowledge, a member of the patient's family may not understand the significance of the assessment, and a physical therapy aide may not have the same level of expertise as a physical therapist.

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• 34.

### A physical therapist assistant works with a patient rehabilitating from a medical meniscectomy. While observing the patient complete a leg press exercise, the physical therapist assistant feels the patient is struggling more than usual and is concerned that the patient may alter his technique in an attempt to successfully complete the activity. The most appropriate action for the physical therapist assistant is to:

• A.

Attempt to contact the supervising pHysical therapist to discuss the situation

• B.

Decrease the way used on the leg press exercise

• C.

Decrease the number of sets for the leg press exercise

• D.

Discontinue the exercise session

C. Decrease the number of sets for the leg press exercise
Explanation
The physical therapist assistant feels that the patient is struggling more than usual and is concerned about potential alterations in technique. By decreasing the number of sets for the leg press exercise, the physical therapist assistant can reduce the overall workload and fatigue on the patient, allowing them to maintain proper form and technique throughout the exercise session. This action prioritizes the patient's safety and prevents the risk of further injury or complications.

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• 35.

### A 24 year old male rehabilitating from a T2 spinal cord injury complains of a pounding headache and blurred vision while completing an exercise program in supine on a mat table. The patient is sweating profusely and has a pulse rate of 50 beats per minute. The most immediate physical therapist response is:

• A.

Maintain the patient in the Supine position in monitor blood pressure

• B.

Place the patient in an upright position and check the catheter

• C.

Document the subjective and objective information in the medical record

• D.

Contact the nursing staff to discuss the patient's condition

B. Place the patient in an upright position and check the catheter
Explanation
The patient is experiencing symptoms of orthostatic hypotension, which is characterized by a drop in blood pressure upon assuming an upright position. This is indicated by the pounding headache, blurred vision, profuse sweating, and a low pulse rate. Placing the patient in an upright position can help improve blood flow to the brain and alleviate the symptoms. Checking the catheter is important to ensure that it is not causing any obstruction or contributing to the symptoms.

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• 36.

### A patient diagnosed with rheumatoid arthritis over 10 years ago has visible deformities in her wrists and hands. The patient reports difficulty performing activities such as putting on the gas cap of a vehicle and turning the dial to start her washing machine. Assuming the patient is right-handed, the most likely cause of the patient's difficulty is range of motion limitation in:

• A.

Wrist ulnar deviation

• B.

• C.

Wrist flexion

• D.

Wrist extension

A. Wrist ulnar deviation
Explanation
The patient's difficulty in performing activities that involve twisting or turning motions suggests a limitation in wrist ulnar deviation. This movement involves moving the wrist towards the little finger side of the hand. Rheumatoid arthritis often leads to joint deformities and stiffness, which can affect the range of motion in the wrists and hands. In this case, the patient's visible deformities in the wrists and hands further support the likelihood of limited ulnar deviation.

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• 37.

### A physical therapist instructs a patient diagnosed with emphysema in pursed-lip breathing. This teaching is typically utilized in order to:

• A.

Increase respiratory rate

• B.

Maintain open airways

• C.

Normalized alveolar gas exchange

• D.

Increase accessory muscle use

B. Maintain open airways
Explanation
The correct answer is Maintain open airways. Pursed-lip breathing is a technique that helps slow your breathing and inhale and exhale more air. It is particularly beneficial for patients with lung conditions such as emphysema. This technique helps in several ways, including:
Relieving shortness of breath by slowing the breath rate.
Keeping the airways open longer, which decreases the work that goes into breathing.
Improving ventilation by moving old air (carbon dioxide) trapped in the lungs out and making room for new, fresh oxygen.
Causing general relaxation.

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• 38.

### A physical therapist examines a patient with suspected TMJ dysfunction. The therapist believes that the patient's clinical presentation is consistent with an anterior disk dislocation that does not reduce during joint translation. The MOST characteristic finding this type of condition is:

• A.

Excessive crepitation during mouth opening and closing

• B.

Restricted mouth opening

• C.

Loud click or pop during mouth opening

• D.

Constant pain

B. Restricted mouth opening
Explanation
In TMJ dysfunction with an anterior disk dislocation that does not reduce during joint translation, a common characteristic finding is restricted mouth opening. This means that the patient is unable to fully open their mouth, which can be due to the displacement of the disk in the temporomandibular joint. This restriction in movement can cause difficulties in eating, speaking, and performing other daily activities that require mouth opening. The other options, such as excessive crepitation, loud click or pop, and constant pain, may also be present in TMJ dysfunction but are not the most characteristic finding for this specific condition.

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• 39.

### A physical therapist is involved in a clinical trial studying the relationship between HR and RPE during exercise. The type of graph the therapist should use to depict the magnitude and direction of the association between HR and PRE is:

• A.

Stem and leaf plot

• B.

Histogram

• C.

Bar grapH

• D.

Scatter Plot

D. Scatter Plot
Explanation
A scatter plot is the most appropriate type of graph for depicting the magnitude and direction of the association between HR and RPE during exercise. This is because a scatter plot displays individual data points as dots on a graph, with one variable represented on the x-axis and the other variable represented on the y-axis. By plotting the HR and RPE values for each participant in the clinical trial, the therapist can visually analyze the relationship between the two variables. The scatter plot allows for the identification of any patterns or trends, such as a positive or negative correlation between HR and RPE.

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• 40.

### A physical therapist examines a patient with a venous stasis ulcer. Which statement would be MOST consistent with the clinical presentation of ulcer?

• A.

Subject reports of pain are diminished by dependency

• B.

Pulses are absent in the immediate area of the ulcer

• C.

Located on the lower leg, proximal to the medial malleolus

• D.

Ulcers on the dorsal aspect of the foot

C. Located on the lower leg, proximal to the medial malleolus
Explanation
The statement "Located on the lower leg, proximal to the medial malleolus" is most consistent with the clinical presentation of a venous stasis ulcer. Venous stasis ulcers commonly occur on the lower leg, specifically in the area proximal to the medial malleolus, which is the bony prominence on the inner side of the ankle. This location is prone to venous insufficiency and pooling of blood, leading to the development of ulcers. The other statements are not consistent with the clinical presentation of a venous stasis ulcer.

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• 41.

### A physical therapist designs an exercise program for a patient with peripheral vascular disease. The patient has decreased peripheral pulses and cool skin, however, does not exhibit any signs of resting claudication. Which of the following exercise parameters would be the MOST beneficial for the patient?

• A.

Short intervals of low level exercise

• B.

Short intervals of high level exercise

• C.

Long intervals of low level exercise

• D.

Long intervals of high level exercise

C. Long intervals of low level exercise
Explanation
Long intervals of low level exercise would be the most beneficial for the patient with peripheral vascular disease. This is because the patient has decreased peripheral pulses and cool skin, indicating poor blood flow to the extremities. Low level exercise would help improve blood flow without causing excessive strain or discomfort. Long intervals would allow for sustained exercise, promoting cardiovascular endurance and further improving blood circulation. High level exercise may be too intense for the patient and could potentially worsen their condition.

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• 42.

### A physical therapist examines a patient’s subtalar ROM. when geometrically assessing subtalar ROM, the moving arm of the goniometer should be position over the:

• A.

Posterior midline of the calcaneus

• B.

Anterior aspect of the ankle midway between the malleoli

• C.

Over the posterior aspect of the ankle between the malleoli

• D.

Anterior midline of the second metatarsal

A. Posterior midline of the calcaneus
Explanation
The correct answer is the "Posterior midline of the calcaneus" because the subtalar joint is located between the talus and calcaneus bones of the foot. By positioning the moving arm of the goniometer over the posterior midline of the calcaneus, the physical therapist can accurately assess the range of motion of the subtalar joint. This position allows for proper alignment and measurement of the joint movement.

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• 43.

### A physical therapist evals a 38 year old female diagnosed with RA. the patient presents with mm weakness, jt stiffness, and limited motion. The involved joints are extremely warm to touch and exhibit moderate effusion. Which of the following would NOT be a component of the patient’s current care plan?

• A.

Modalities

• B.

Immobilization in a splint

• C.

Active stretching techniques at end ROM

• D.

Muscle setting exercises

C. Active stretching techniques at end ROM
Explanation
Active stretching techniques at end ROM would not be a component of the patient's current care plan because the patient presents with joint stiffness and limited motion, indicating that they are already unable to achieve full range of motion. Active stretching at end ROM would likely be too challenging and potentially painful for the patient. Instead, the focus of the care plan would be on modalities to reduce inflammation and pain, immobilization in a splint to support and protect the affected joints, and muscle setting exercises to improve muscle strength and stability.

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• 44.

### A patient that required a mechanical ventilator for 2 weeks following a near drowning incident is cleared to gradually decrease the device. Which measured cardiovascular value would indicate a sign of distress during the wearing process?

• A.

Respiratory rate of 38 breaths per minute

• B.

Tidal volume of 350 milliliters

• C.

Pulse oximetry measured at 91 percent

• D.

Heart rate change of 10 beats per minute over baseline

A. Respiratory rate of 38 breaths per minute
Explanation
A respiratory rate of 38 breaths per minute would indicate a sign of distress during the weaning process. This is because a higher respiratory rate suggests that the patient is working harder to breathe and may not be able to sustain adequate ventilation on their own. This could be a sign of respiratory muscle fatigue or inadequate gas exchange, indicating that the patient is not ready to be weaned off the mechanical ventilator.

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• 45.

### A physical therapist attempts to obtain information on a patient’s response to exercise by assessing pulse rate immediately after an exercise session. Which of the following techniques would provide the therapist with the desired information?

• A.

Determine the pulse rate using the brachial artery for 10 seconds and multiply by 6

• B.

Determine the pulse rating using the femoral artery for 15 seconds and multiply by 4

• C.

Determine the pulse rate by the radial artery for 30 seconds and multiply by 2

• D.

Determine the pulse rate by the carotid artery for 60 seconds

C. Determine the pulse rate by the radial artery for 30 seconds and multiply by 2
Explanation
The correct answer is to determine the pulse rate by the radial artery for 30 seconds and multiply by 2. This technique is appropriate because the radial artery is easily accessible and provides an accurate measurement of the pulse rate. By measuring for 30 seconds and then multiplying by 2, the therapist can obtain the patient's pulse rate per minute, which is a standard measurement for assessing cardiovascular fitness and response to exercise.

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• 46.

### A physical therapist monitors a patient performing a wall stretch as shown. Which muscle would be emphasized by  instructing the patient to perform the stretch with the right knee in slight flexion?

• A.

• B.

• C.

Soleus

• D.

Plantaris

C. Soleus
Explanation
By instructing the patient to perform the stretch with the right knee in slight flexion, the emphasis would be on the soleus muscle. The soleus muscle is located in the calf and is responsible for plantar flexion of the foot. When the knee is flexed, the gastrocnemius muscle is partially relaxed, allowing the soleus to be the primary muscle targeted during the stretch.

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• 47.

### A physical therapist working with a patient diagnosed with peripheral vascular disease prepares to measure the patient's ABI. when conducting the LE component of the ABI, the MOST appropriate LE artery to place the Doppler over is the:

• A.

Popliteal  artery

• B.

Dorsalis pedis artery

• C.

Femoral artery

• D.

Anterior tibial artery

B. Dorsalis pedis artery
Explanation
The correct answer is the Dorsalis pedis artery. The Dorsalis pedis artery is the most appropriate artery to place the Doppler over when conducting the LE (lower extremity) component of the ABI (ankle-brachial index) in a patient with peripheral vascular disease. The Dorsalis artery is located on the top of the foot and is easily accessible for Doppler measurement.

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• 48.

### A physical therapist assesses a patient's present pain level and concludes that the current patient-controlled analgesia protocol is not adequate. The MOST appropriate action is to:

• A.

Modify the allowable medication dosage

• B.

Eliminate the lockout interval

• C.

Contact the patient’s nurse

• D.

Page the the patient’s referring pHysician

D. Page the the patient’s referring pHysician
Explanation
The physical therapist assesses the patient's pain level and determines that the current patient-controlled analgesia protocol is not sufficient. Since the physical therapist does not have the authority to modify the medication dosage or eliminate the lockout interval, the most appropriate action would be to contact the patient's nurse. However, since the nurse may not have the authority to make changes to the protocol, the next step would be to page the patient's referring physician who has the authority to adjust the analgesia protocol based on the therapist's assessment.

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• 49.

### A physical therapist treats a patient diagnosed with epilepsy that is taking an anticonvulsant medication. The physician hypothesizes that the medications may be responsible for the pt’s recent cardiac arrhythmias. What anticonvulsant medication would be most likely to produce this type of side effect?

• A.

Dilanatin (pHenytoin)

• B.

Tegretol (carbamazepine)

• C.

Klonopin (Clonazepam)

• D.

Neurontin (gabapentin)

B. Tegretol (carbamazepine)
Explanation
Carbamazepine (Tegretol) is known to have potential side effects on the cardiovascular system, including cardiac arrhythmias. This medication can cause changes in the electrical activity of the heart, leading to irregular heart rhythms. Therefore, it is the most likely anticonvulsant medication to produce this type of side effect in the patient with epilepsy.

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• 50.

### A physical reviews the medical record of a patient diagnosed with GBS. A recent lumbar puncture helped confirm the diagnosis. Which of the following findings in the cerebrospinal fluid sample would MOST likely have present to confirm the medical diagnosis?

• A.

Elevated level of leukocytes

• B.

Elevated protein levels

• C.

Elevated levels of gamma globulin

• D.

Low glucose levels

B. Elevated protein levels
Explanation
An elevated protein level in the cerebrospinal fluid sample would most likely confirm the diagnosis of GBS. This is because GBS is an autoimmune disorder that affects the peripheral nervous system, causing inflammation and damage to the nerves. This inflammation can lead to an increase in protein levels in the cerebrospinal fluid. Elevated levels of leukocytes may also be present due to the inflammatory response, but elevated protein levels are more specific to GBS. Low glucose levels may be seen in other conditions such as bacterial meningitis, but are not specific to GBS. Elevated levels of gamma globulin are not typically associated with GBS.

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• Current Version
• Feb 05, 2024
Quiz Edited by
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• Jul 11, 2020
Quiz Created by
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