3rd National Online Quiz Competition @ Law Corner

40 Questions | Total Attempts: 114

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3rd National Online Quiz Competition @ Law Corner

Format of Quiz The quiz shall take place online & Multiple Choice Questions. The quiz shall consist of 40 questions (MCQ) and the time is 10 minutes. Syllabus The quiz will cover a different aspect of the Indian Constitution, Constitutional History, Constitutional Amendments, Evolution of Constitution & important articles. Competition: April 25 , 2020 (from 7:00pm to 8:00 pm) Results: April 27, 2020


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    Which of the following is not included in the definition of law under Article 13 of the Constitution of India?  
    • A. 

      Legislation 

    • B. 

      Customs 

    • C. 

      Usage having no force of law 

    • D. 

      Ordinance

  • 2. 
    Which of the following Article of the Constitution uses the term ‘martial law’? 
    • A. 

      Article 33 

    • B. 

      Article 34 

    • C. 

      Article 352 

    • D. 

      Article 353

  • 3. 
    Which of the following case is not related to ‘Theory of basic structure’ under Article 368 of the Constitution? 
    • A. 

      Minerva Mills Vs. Union of India 

    • B. 

      Waman Rao Vs. Union of India 

    • C. 

      L. Chandra Kumar Vs. Union of India 

    • D. 

      T.K. Rangarajan Vs. Government of Tamil Nadu

  • 4. 
    The provisions of 73rd Amendment are contained in 
    • A. 

      Tenth Schedule.

    • B. 

      Eleventh Schedule. 

    • C. 

      Twelfth Schedule. 

    • D. 

      Thirteenth Schedule.

  • 5. 
    ‘Right to life’ under Article 21 does not include 
    • A. 

      Right to food. 

    • B. 

      Right to legal aid. 

    • C. 

      Right to vote

    • D. 

      Right to livelihood.

  • 6. 
    Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched with regard to the provisions of the Constitution of India? 
    • A. 

      Art 352.... Effect of proclamation of Emergency 

    • B. 

      Art 353....Application of provisions relating to distribution of revenues while a proclamation is in operation 

    • C. 

      Art 354.... Determination of executive powers of the Union, during emergency 

    • D. 

      Art 355.... Duty of the Union to protect States against external aggression and internal disturbance

  • 7. 
    Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched with regard to constitutional amendment? 
    • A. 

      The Constitution (Seventh Amendment) Act ......1956. 

    • B. 

      The Constitution (Fourteenth Amendment) Act....1962. 

    • C. 

      The Constitution (Thirty First Amendment) Act....1973. 

    • D. 

      The Constitution (Forty Second Amendment) Act....1975.

  • 8. 
    The member of the Constituent Assembly were 
    • A. 

      Directly elected by the people.

    • B. 

      Nominated by the Indian National Congress.

    • C. 

      Nominated by the rulers of the Indian States.

    • D. 

      Elected by the Provincial Assemblies.

  • 9. 
    At the time of Emergency, the Indian State becomes ……… from ………..
    • A. 

      Federal, Unitary.

    • B. 

      Unitary, Federal.

    • C. 

      Unitary, Unitary.

    • D. 

      Unitary, Quasi-federal.

  • 10. 
    “A system of Government which is almost quasi-federal…a unitary State with subsidiary federal features rather than a federal state with subsidiary unitary features”. Who said this?
    • A. 

      Sir Jennings.

    • B. 

      Dr. B.R. Ambedkar.

    • C. 

      Prof. K.C. Wheare.

    • D. 

      Dr. Rajendra Prasad.

  • 11. 
    In which year, Sikkim was associated in the Indian Union?
    • A. 

      1947

    • B. 

      1965

    • C. 

      1975

    • D. 

      1985

  • 12. 
    Panchayati Raj System was introduced in the two States, which are-
    • A. 

      Rajasthan and Andhra Pradesh.

    • B. 

      Rajasthan and Gujarat.

    • C. 

      Andhra Pradesh and Maharashtra.

    • D. 

      Andhra Pradesh and Tamil Nadu.

  • 13. 
    ‘Union with strong Centre’ is taken from:
    • A. 

      Canada.

    • B. 

      Australia.

    • C. 

      Italy.

    • D. 

      USA

  • 14. 
    Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched?
    • A. 

      Republic: Head of the State is hereditary monarch.

    • B. 

      Sovereign: Constitution rests on the people’s will.

    • C. 

      Democratic: Constitution does not recognize legal supremacy of another country.

    • D. 

      Secular: State is without any religion of its own.

  • 15. 
    How many times has the Preamble of the Constitution of India been amended so far?
    • A. 

      Once.

    • B. 

      Twice.

    • C. 

      Thrice.

    • D. 

      Never.

  • 16. 
    Reservation of seats in educational institutions in favour of Scheduled Caste and Scheduled Tribes is governed by:
    • A. 

      Article 15(1) of the Constitution.

    • B. 

      Article 15(4) of the Constitution.

    • C. 

      Article 16(4) of the Constitution.

    • D. 

      Article 29(2) of the Constitution.

  • 17. 
    “Rule of carry forward is ultra vires” held in:
    • A. 

      M.R. Balaji v. State of Mysore.

    • B. 

      State of Kerala v. N.M. Thomas.

    • C. 

      Akhil Bharitiya Socialist Karmchari v. UOI.

    • D. 

      Devadasan v. UOI.

  • 18. 
    Which Amendment of the Constitution envisages the provision for relaxation in qualifying marks for SCs and STs for reservation in promotions?
    • A. 

      79th Amendment.

    • B. 

      80th Amendment.

    • C. 

      81st Amendment.

    • D. 

      82nd Amendment.

  • 19. 
    Fundamental Rights are:
    • A. 

      Negative rights.

    • B. 

      Restrictive rights.

    • C. 

      Limited rights.

    • D. 

      All of the above. 

  • 20. 
    “Hicklin test” under Article 19 related to
    • A. 

      Decency and morality.

    • B. 

      Defamation.

    • C. 

      Integrity of India.

    • D. 

      None of the above.

  • 21. 
    Law giving effect to Article 39(b) and (c) can override Article 14 and Article 19 vide Article 31(c) is brought through:
    • A. 

      24th Amendment.

    • B. 

      39th Amendment.

    • C. 

      42nd Amendment.

    • D. 

      44th Amendment.

  • 22. 
    “No person shall be deprived of his property save by authority of Law”. This is stated in:
    • A. 

      Article 265.

    • B. 

      Article 309.

    • C. 

      Article 300-A.

    • D. 

      Article 301.

  • 23. 
    The word ‘armed rebellion’ has been substituted in place of ‘internal disturbance’ under Article 352 by which Amendment?
    • A. 

      39th Amendment.

    • B. 

      42nd Amendment.

    • C. 

      44th Amendment.

    • D. 

      52nd Amendment.

  • 24. 
    The doctrine of ‘Prospective overruling’ was first evolved by Chief Justice Subba Rao in:
    • A. 

      Golaknath v. State of Punjab.

    • B. 

      Sajjan Singh v. State of Rajasthan.

    • C. 

      Keshavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala.

    • D. 

      Shankari Prasad v. Union of India.

  • 25. 
    Which Amendment of the Constitution empowers the State Governments regarding unfilled reserved vacancies to be filled up in any succeeding year: 
    • A. 

      78th Amendment.

    • B. 

      80th Amendment.

    • C. 

      81st Amendment.

    • D. 

      82nd Amendment.

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