CDC Volume 1 Review Exercise! Trivia Quiz
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- 1.Where was the military police (MP) (aviation) training camp established in 1942?
- A.
Kelly Field, TX
- B.
Tinker Field, OK
- C.
Camp Ripley, MN
- D.
Camp Lajeune, NC
- 2.Air Police Security (APS) battalions were designed to protect against all of the following except
- A.
Air raids
- B.
Riots
- C.
Parachute attacks
- D.
Light tanks
- 3.On 1 September 1950, what was established at Tyndall AFB, Florida?
- A.
Air Police School
- B.
Air Leaders School
- C.
Corp Training Office
- D.
Base Defense Academy
- 4.In what year did the Air Force approve the first trial issue of the security police (SP) shield?
- A.
1950
- B.
1945
- C.
1957
- D.
1943
- 5.The Security Forces (SF) beret with the Defensor Fortis flash
- A.
Identifies SF to foreign forces as security personnel
- B.
Identifies SF as an elite group charged with protecting the Air Force worldwide
- C.
Is distinguishing uniform item designed to deter aggression
- D.
Is directly related to the special forces beret and patches used during the Vietnam War
- 6.In what year was the name of the career field changed from "Air Police" to "Security Police?"
- A.
1985
- B.
1971
- C.
1966
- D.
1950
- 7.The success of what special unit in Vietnam led to the development of ground combat skills training for security police (SP)?
- A.
The 1041st SPS (Test)
- B.
The 4110th SPS (Test)
- C.
The 1401st SPS
- D.
The 1140th SPS
- 8.The Vietnam Conflict pointed out the need for a revised doctrine, specifically one based on
- A.
Whole-base protective system
- B.
Air base defense protective system
- C.
Aircraft protection system concept
- D.
Weapons systems protective concept
- 9.In 1971, Security Police was split into two separate functions: what were these functions?
- A.
Police dog units and law enforcement specialties
- B.
Law enforcement and security specialties
- C.
Security and force protection elements
- D.
Security teams and security elements
- 10.Which operation provided the US military its first significant experience in urban operations since Vietnam?
- A.
Operation NORIEGA
- B.
Operations FREE PANAMA
- C.
Operation JUST CAUSE
- D.
Operation URGENT FURY
- 11.What was the "first in" Security Forces (SF) concept adopted by Air Mobility Command (AMC) in 1997?
- A.
Phoenix Raven Program
- B.
Rising Sun Program
- C.
Noble Eagle Program
- D.
Flying Falcon Program
- 12.The military operation launched against the Taliban in Dec 2001 was called
- A.
Operation INSPIRING FREEDOM
- B.
Operation ENDURING FREEDOM
- C.
Operation IRAQI FREEDOM
- D.
Operation NOBLE EAGLE
- 13.During the Global War on terrorism, assisting sister services brought about a new nontraditional Security Forces (SF) task of convoy
- A.
Commander duty
- B.
Response duty
- C.
Escort duty
- D.
Driver duty
- 14.What Security Forces (SF) unit conducted the career field's first combat parachute assault?
- A.
343rd SFS
- B.
1140th SPS
- C.
786th SFS
- D.
1041st SPS
- 15.The mission of all Security Forces (SF) is to
- A.
Be good followers, great leaders and the most rigorously trained defenders
- B.
Be knowledgeable in basic police and ground combat skills
- C.
Be mission ready, resilient, and air minded
- D.
Protect, defend, and fight to enable AF, Joint, and Coalition mission success
- 16.Which description correctly describes our Security Force symbol?
- A.
Falcon over crossed runways
- B.
Eagle over crossed swords
- C.
Falcon over crossed swords
- D.
Eagle over crossed runways
- 17.In the Security Forces' (SF) unit S-Function structure, which "S" branch is typically the largest?
- A.
S-2/Intelligence
- B.
S-1/Administration
- C.
S-4/Logistics
- D.
S-3/Operations
- 18.In the Security Forces' (SF) unit S-function structure, which "S" branch maintains the Security Forces Management Information System (SFMIS)?
- A.
S-2/Intelligence
- B.
S-4/Logistics
- C.
S-5/Plans and Programs
- D.
S-1/Administration
- 19.What course must a trainee attend for awarding of the 7-skill level, Air Force specialty code (AFSC) 3PO71?
- A.
SF craftsman resident course
- B.
Security superintendent non-resident course
- C.
Supply manager's course
- D.
Security Forces (SF) leader's course
- 20.As a Security Forces (SF) member, adhering to what system(s) of guidance ensures mission accomplishment?
- A.
Code of Conduct only
- B.
SF General Orders only
- C.
Performance Fitness Examination
- D.
Code of Conduct and General Orders
- 21.Dealing with offenders in a dignified manner adheres to which conduct guideline?
- A.
Fulfilling the mission
- B.
Personal appearance
- C.
Off-duty conduct
- D.
Attention to duty
- 22.You have failed to follow what general conduct guideline if you issued a traffic ticket based on the violator's race?
- A.
Exercising authority
- B.
Assistance to others
- C.
Seeking favors
- D.
Personal attitudes
- 23.Your conduct when apprehending suspects should be according to
- A.
AFI 31-206, Security Forces Investigation Program
- B.
AFI 31-117, Arming and Use of Force by Air Force Personal
- C.
AFI 31-301, Air Base Defense
- D.
AFI 31-205, The Air Force Corrections Program
- 24.At least how many days are required for significant heat acclimatization to prevent heat injuries in the area of operations (AO)?
- A.
9 to 10
- B.
3 to 5
- C.
1 to 2
- D.
6 to 8
- 25.Which base agency is responsible for routinely testing firing range for amount of lead?
- A.
Bioenvironmental Engineering Section
- B.
Base Hazardous Waste Section
- C.
Bioenvironmental Waste Sections
- D.
Bioenvironmental Health Section
- 26.What is the single most important source of viruses in the workplace?
- A.
Foreign fluids
- B.
Syringes
- C.
Sweat
- D.
Blood
- 27.Specific procedures you must follow on the job to reduce your risk of exposure to bloodborne pathogens is
- A.
Personal protective equipment usage
- B.
Engineering controls
- C.
Employee work practices
- D.
Housekeeping guidelines
- 28.When conducting individual searches, what essential step should you take to protect yourself from exposure to blood or other body fluids?
- A.
Always, begin your search at the front pocket
- B.
Search for weapons first
- C.
Always, conduct a precautionary check prior to searching
- D.
Start searching for needles with an electromagnetic spectrometer
- 29.Defender's Edge training was developed by
- A.
Defenders for defenders
- B.
Medical professionals for defenders
- C.
Base services for all AF personnel
- D.
Base operations for all AF personnel
- 30.The stress response system (SRS) is composed of the
- A.
Immune and psychological systems
- B.
Digestive and intestinal systems
- C.
Sympathetic and parasympathetic systems
- D.
Psychological and emotional systems
- 31.As Security Forces (SF) members dealing with stress, who are our closest allies to strengthen our resilience?
- A.
Medical personnel
- B.
Family members
- C.
Chaplains
- D.
Team members
- 32.Which legal document contains military laws that apply to all branches of the US Armed Forces?
- A.
Federal statutes
- B.
US Constitution
- C.
Uniform Code of Military Justice (UCMJ)
- D.
International law
- 33.What example of international law was reached at The Hague and Geneva conventions?
- A.
Laws of Armed Conflict (LOAC)
- B.
Manual of Courts-Martial (MCM) Title 10 statutes
- C.
Rules of war
- D.
Rules of Engagement (ROE)
- 34.Which Uniform Code of Military Justice's (UCMJ) article states who is subject to military jurisdiction or military law?
- A.
Article 77
- B.
Article 5
- C.
Article 2
- D.
Article 1
- 35.If a person subject to military law commits an offense overseas that person
- A.
Must be tried overseas
- B.
Is not subject to the UCMJ
- C.
Can be tried overseas or stateside
- D.
May choose to be court-martialed by a civilian authority
- 36.The types of jurisdiction found on US government installations are
- A.
Concurrent, current, proprietary
- B.
Exclusive, bilateral, concurrent
- C.
Exclusive, concurrent, proprietary and multilateral
- D.
Exclusive, concurrent, proprietary, and reciprocal
- 37.The federal government has sole authority to enforce laws on installations
- A.
When the government has exclusive jurisdiction
- B.
When partial jurisdiction exists
- C.
Located in overseas areas
- D.
Under proprietary jurisdiction
- 38.Under concurrent jurisdiction
- A.
The federal government has no authority
- B.
Both state and federal government have authority
- C.
State laws are not enforced
- D.
The state has property rights only
- 39.When an occupying power exercise all authority over an occupied territory, it is known as a
- A.
Proprietary government
- B.
Military government
- C.
Nationalist regime
- D.
Military state
- 40.Which US service has the primary responsibility of operations and administration during military government?
- A.
Air Force
- B.
Navy
- C.
Army
- D.
Coast Guard
- 41.What are the two types of martial law?
- A.
Qualified and absolute
- B.
Absolute and unqualified
- C.
Qualified and concurrent
- D.
Exclusive and absolute
- 42.Which type of martial law exists when military authority totally replaces civil authority?
- A.
Military law
- B.
Absolute
- C.
Exclusive
- D.
Qualified
- 43.What law sets the standard of behavior for members of the Armed Forces through the Uniform Code of Military Justice (UCMJ)?
- A.
Military
- B.
Martial
- C.
Exclusive
- D.
Concurrent
- 44.Which Uniform Code of Military Justice (UCMJ) article gives you the authority to issue lawful orders while executing your duties as a Security Forces (SF) member?
- A.
Article 2 (2)
- B.
Article 5
- C.
Article 92 (2)
- D.
Article 134
- 45.Who may request a civil proceeding under the federal tort law?
- A.
Federal government
- B.
State government
- C.
Civilian companies
- D.
Private citizens
- 46.In determining whether an individual is a suspect, you should not base this decision on
- A.
Witnesses and statements
- B.
Opinion and belief
- C.
Hearsay and rumors
- D.
Circumstances and facts
- 47.Whenever you have doubts concerning rights advisement, who or what office should you consult?
- A.
The legal office
- B.
The Air Force Office of Special Investigations (AFOSI) office
- C.
The base commander
- D.
A Security Forces investigator
- 48.The Fifth Amendment of the Constitution protects against
- A.
Self-determination
- B.
Self-infliction
- C.
Self-incrimination
- D.
Self-inspection
- 49.Military working dog teams used in law enforcement activities provide an effective
- A.
Mobile flight-line force multiplier
- B.
Psychological deterrent
- C.
Base defense detection capability
- D.
Replacement for base sensor systems
- 50.When is a military working dog's (MWD) detection ability effective?
- A.
First thing in the morning
- B.
Thirty minutes after every meal
- C.
During the day in very busy areas
- D.
During darkness or limited visibility
- 51.When conducting building checks, the military working dog is normally
- A.
On leash
- B.
Off leash
- C.
On long leash
- D.
Left in the vehicle
- 52.The military working dog team should always approach buildings from the
- A.
Crosswind direction
- B.
Front side or street side
- C.
Downwind side
- D.
Upwind side
- 53.Under ideal conditions, at what distance can the average military working dog detect and respond to intruders?
- A.
250 yards or more
- B.
100 yards
- C.
150 years
- D.
200 years or less
- 54.The military working dog's primary mission is to
- A.
Act as back up on all calls
- B.
Provide a psychological deterrent
- C.
Deter, Detect, and detain intruders
- D.
Search vehicles and buildings
- 55.Military working dogs should be kept on leach except when they must
- A.
Bite and hold multiple witnesses
- B.
Search occupied buildings
- C.
Search unoccupied buildings and disperse crowds
- D.
Bite and hold a suspect or search an unoccupied building
- 56.Before releasing a military working dog to search a suspected unoccupied building, as the handler you must
- A.
Give a verbal warning stating you are about to release the dog
- B.
Loudly announce your intentions to order the dog to bite
- C.
Place the military working dog on a long leash
- D.
Have the dog bark three times
- 57.If a personality conflict occurs during an interview, the investigator should
- A.
Allow another investigator to do the interview
- B.
Find out why the interviewee does not like him or her
- C.
Continue with the interview
- D.
Threaten the interviewee
- 58.If a same sex Security Forces (SF) member cannot be present during an interview, what should you do?
- A.
Stop the interview and release the witness as unreliable
- B.
Continue the interview alone
- C.
Reschedule when a same sex SF is available
- D.
Have a second investigator present
- 59.Which type of interviewee is normally interviewed to develop facts in an investigation?
- A.
Suspects
- B.
Victims
- C.
Witnesses
- D.
Prosecutors
- 60.The goal of any interview is to
- A.
Obtain statements by all means possible
- B.
To obtain legally admissible statements
- C.
Interrogating suspects into confessions
- D.
To gain written statements
- 61.What are the types of interview approaches?
- A.
Reverse, direct, indirect
- B.
Direct, indirect, and reverse
- C.
Indirect, alternating, and straight
- D.
Direct, indirect, and alternating
- 62.Which interview approach is primarily used to interrogate?
- A.
Direct approach
- B.
Indirect approach
- C.
Alternating approach
- D.
Good cop- Bad cop approach
- 63.If a victim becomes emotionally upset during an interview, you should
- A.
Call the staff judge advocate
- B.
Get some tissues and continue
- C.
Wait an hour and continue
- D.
Terminate and reschedule
- 64.Air Force personnel who are subjects of an investigation must be released
- A.
To their spouse
- B.
To their supervisor, first sergeant, or commander
- C.
On their own recognizance
- D.
To their commander, first sergeant or staff judge advocate
- 65.As a Security Forces member, what is the primary rule in court testimony?
- A.
Ensure your opinion is heard and justice is served
- B.
Make sure the accused goes to jail
- C.
Make sure your testimony sounds real
- D.
Tell the truth
- 66.As a Security Forces (SF) member, prior to testifying in court, you should
- A.
Review the entire case file
- B.
Contact your lawyer for information
- C.
Wait for the trial to begin before preparing
- D.
Take some leave to clear your mind and get prepared
- 67.Which of the following is not a purpose behind Security Management and Automaton Resource Tracking Network (SMARTNet)?
- A.
Consolidate programs
- B.
Reduce resource allocation
- C.
Increase computer usage
- D.
Maximize efficiency
- 68.What office is responsible for the management, program development, and publication of Electronic Tactics, Techniques and Procedures Guides (e-TTPG)?
- A.
AFSFC
- B.
SFCFM
- C.
SFCEM
- D.
AFSFS
- 69.What "S" function uses Electronic Tactics, Techniques and Procedures Guides (e-TTPG_ to train you and your fellow squadron members?
- A.
S-2
- B.
S-4
- C.
S-3
- D.
S-1
- 70.Defense Biometric Identification System (DBIDS) is capable of reading all of the following forms of identifications except
- A.
State identification cards
- B.
Retiree identifications cards
- C.
Dependent Identification cards
- D.
Department of Defense-issued identification
- 71.Who is responsible to ensure personnel are Security Forces Management Information System (SFMIS) trained?
- A.
Noncommissioned officer in charge (NCOIC), Training
- B.
Unit training manager (UTM)
- C.
Installation defense force commander (DFC)
- D.
Staff judge advocate (SJA)
- 72.Security Forces Management Information System's (SFMIS) users report information only to those with
- A.
A security clearance
- B.
A valid need to know
- C.
Appropriate credentials
- D.
A vested interest in the case
- 73.National Crime Information Center (NCIC) training must meet
- A.
State and Federal Bureau of Investigations (FBI) requirements
- B.
Installation and major command (MAJCOM) requirements
- C.
Security Forces Center and Air Force Office of Investigative (AFOSI) requirements
- D.
Air Force Office of Investigative Services (AFOSI) requirements
- 74.Restrict access to National Crime Information Center (NCIC) data as
- A.
For Official Use Only (FOUO) Department of Defense classified
- B.
FOUO Department of Defense sensitive
- C.
FOUO Law Enforcement classified
- D.
FOUO Law Enforcement sensitive
- 75.You must complete Phase II training within how many calendar days of completing Phase I training?
- A.
30
- B.
60
- C.
120
- D.
90
- 76.Which type of training is considered universal training regardless of your Air Force Specialty code?
- A.
Ancillary
- B.
On-the-job
- C.
Special skills
- D.
Collective skills
- 77.Skills obtained through a tiered training approach and target knowledge, skills, and abilities (KSA) not routinely acquired during occupational and/or other ancillary training venues are called
- A.
Individual skills training
- B.
Battlefield skills training
- C.
Collective skills training
- D.
Expeditionary skills training
- 78.You must complete live-fire sustainment training within how many months after completion of qualification training on your primary weapon(s)?
- A.
One to three
- B.
Three to six
- C.
Five to seven
- D.
Six to twelve
- 79.Who is responsible for the overall management of the Stan/Eval program?
- A.
Operations commander
- B.
Defense force commander
- C.
Security forces manager
- D.
Flight commander
- 80.A Stan/Eval inspection of each functional area is conducted every
- A.
12 months
- B.
48 months
- C.
6 months
- D.
24 months
- 81.Which position requires individuals to achieve at least 79 percent to pass the verbal/written portion of the duty position evaluation (DPE)?
- A.
Necessary
- B.
Critical
- C.
Mandatory
- D.
Urgent
- 82.The purpose of Flight level exercise for Security Forces (SF) members is to
- A.
Have them practice their hand-to-hand combat training
- B.
Help them stay sharp and put their training into practice
- C.
Help them pass the time during duty hours
- D.
Have them demonstrate their ability to keep the installation secure
- 83.What information should leadership brief all personnel on before conducting any exercise?
- A.
Type of scenarios being evaluated
- B.
Location of the exercise
- C.
How long the exercise will take
- D.
Weapon, vehicle, and ground safety
- 84.What document is used for issuing firearms to personnel on a frequent basis?
- A.
AF Form 628, Smalls Arms Hand Receipt
- B.
AF Form 626, Smalls Arms Hand Receipt
- C.
AF Form 627, Smalls Arms Hand Receipt
- D.
AF Form 629, Small Arms Hand Receipt
- 85.What form is used for personnel who use firearms on a temporary basis?
- A.
AF Form 522
- B.
AF Form 629
- C.
AF Form 1297
- D.
AF Form 797
- 86.What should Security Forces (SF) members be familiar with prior to being assigned as controllers?
- A.
Geography of the base
- B.
Squadron leadership
- C.
Local law enforcement
- D.
Installation operating hours
- 87.What type of land mobile radio do walking patrols, security patrols, and fixed patrols use?
- A.
Hand and arm signals and base station remote
- B.
Portable hand held radio
- C.
Mobile two-way radio
- D.
Base station
- 88.What is the purpose of call signs?
- A.
To return entire transmission back to sender
- B.
For use as an order, a request, or as information
- C.
To separate the text from other portions of the message
- D.
To simplify, clarify, and make communications more protected
- 89.Localized training alarm monitors receive must be approved by the
- A.
Operations officer
- B.
Chief, Security Forces
- C.
Major command
- D.
Installation commander
- 90.Who determines the frequency of testing and documentation of duress alarms?
- A.
MAJCOM/DET
- B.
AFSFC/DET
- C.
AFDFC/A7R
- D.
USAFA/A7S
- 91.Conducting building checks is an excellent form of
- A.
Exercise
- B.
In processing
- C.
Intelligence gathering
- D.
Proactive crime prevention
- 92.When conducting a building check, what is the first step you take if you find a building with signs of forced entry?
- A.
Enter the building and conduct a room-to-room search for suspects
- B.
Take cover in a position that allows you to observe the building
- C.
Contact BDOC and inform the controller of the incident
- D.
Make contact with the on-duty K9 patrol and initiate an off-leash search
- 93.What is your first responsibility when assuming your post as an installation access controller (IAC)?
- A.
Conduct a post changeover
- B.
Test your radio and duress system
- C.
Call BDOC and tell them you have arrived
- D.
Change the radio station, store your gear, and relax
- 94.Which is not a required piece of equipment for Security Forces personnel?
- A.
Cold/foul weather gear
- B.
Flashlight
- C.
Commercial radio
- D.
Handcuffs with key
- 95.Which confinement facility (CF) or joint regional correctional facility (JRCF) is used to house all male confinees with sentences over 10 years?
- A.
Level 1 CF
- B.
Level 1 CF
- C.
Level 2 CF
- D.
Level 3 CF
- 96.Which US military service is the executive agency for Level III corrections?
- A.
Air Force
- B.
Army
- C.
Marine Corps
- D.
Naval Brigade
- 97.The humane treatment/incarceration procedures of confinees is the operational responsibility of the
- A.
Wing commander
- B.
Security Forces manager
- C.
Chief, Security Forces
- D.
Installation commander and defense force commander
- 98.Individuals awaiting the filing of charges, disposition of charges, trial by courts-martial, or trial by foreign court are designated as
- A.
Pretrial detainees
- B.
Pretrial convicts
- C.
Post-trial confinees
- D.
Stand-by Detainees
- 99.Which custody classification is assigned to confinees who may be assigned to work details outside the facility under continuous escort and supervision?
- A.
Trustee
- B.
Minimum
- C.
Maximum
- D.
Medium
- 100.What are the two types of searches used in confinement facilities?
- A.
Initial and simple
- B.
Simple and complete
- C.
Complete and frisk
- D.
Complete and modes frisks
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