1w051 A Set Volume 1 Edit Code 05

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Temperature Quizzes & Trivia

CDC 1W051A VOLUME 1: General Meteorology and Surface Weather Observations 1W051A 01 1107, Edit Code 05 AFSC 1W051


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    • A. 

      3.5

    • B. 

      4.5

    • C. 

      5.5

    • D. 

      6.5

  • 2. 
    The stratosphere is characterized by
    • A. 

      Noctilucent clouds, a “D” layer, and excellent flying conditions.

    • B. 

      A constantly warming temperature, mother-of-pearl clouds, and generally poor flying weather.

    • C. 

      A maximum temperature of 7°C, the strongest concentration of ozone, dense cirrus clouds, and occasionally poor flying conditions.

    • D. 

      A temperature that remains isothermal to about 100,000 feet, the strongest concentration of ozone, and excellent flying conditions.

  • 3. 
    Above 13 miles, the radiation from the sun breaks down the oxygen in the atmosphere into
    • A. 

      Ozone gas.

    • B. 

      Argon gas.

    • C. 

      Carbon dioxide.

    • D. 

      Gaseous nitrogen.

  • 4. 
    • A. 

      It absorbs ultraviolet radiation.

    • B. 

      The most the air can hold is 6 percent.

    • C. 

      The more water vapor, the lighter the air will be.

    • D. 

      It keeps the earth from becoming too hot by absorbing solar radiation.

  • 5. 
    The two atmospheric gases most responsible for the absorption of incoming solar radiation are
    • A. 

      Oxygen and ozone.

    • B. 

      Ozone and water vapor.

    • C. 

      Oxygen and water vapor.

    • D. 

      Ozone and carbon dioxide.

  • 6. 
    The driving mechanism that is mainly responsible for the earth’s large-scale atmospheric circulations is the
    • A. 

      Unequal heating of the earth.

    • B. 

      Rotation of the earth.

    • C. 

      Hadley cell.

    • D. 

      Polar cell.

  • 7. 
    • A. 

      Inertia.

    • B. 

      Coriolis.

    • C. 

      Centrifugal.

    • D. 

      Centripetal.

  • 8. 
    • A. 

      Inertia.

    • B. 

      Coriolis.

    • C. 

      Centrifugal.

    • D. 

      Centripetal.

  • 9. 
    Centrifugal force (CeF) will increase when there is a decrease in
    • A. 

      Mass.

    • B. 

      Centripetal force.

    • C. 

      The speed of rotation.

    • D. 

      The radius of rotation.

  • 10. 
    Coriolis force (CoF) is created by
    • A. 

      The cyclonic rotation of the earth.

    • B. 

      The anticyclonic rotation of the earth.

    • C. 

      An opposing force to pressure gradient.

    • D. 

      An apparent force, and therefore, it does not exist.

  • 11. 
    If you throw a ball towards a stationary target from the window of a speeding vehicle, coriolis force (CoF) will cause the ball to miss the target
    • A. 

      To the right.

    • B. 

      To the left.

    • C. 

      Downward.

    • D. 

      Upward.

  • 12. 
    The force that is responsible for starting the horizontal movement of air over earth’s surface is
    • A. 

      Gravity.

    • B. 

      Coriolis.

    • C. 

      Centrifugal.

    • D. 

      Pressure gradient.

  • 13. 
    The balance of forces needed for gradient cyclonic circulation is pressure gradient
    • A. 

      Balanced against friction and coriolis forces (CoF).

    • B. 

      And friction balanced against centrifugal force (CeF).

    • C. 

      Balanced against coriolis and centrifugal forces.

    • D. 

      And centrifugal balanced against CoF.

  • 14. 
    The areas of low pressure that correspond to the belt of low pressure at 60°N created by the 3-cell circulation are the
    • A. 

      Icelandic and Asiatic lows.

    • B. 

      Icelandic and Aleutian lows.

    • C. 

      Aleutian and Asiatic lows.

    • D. 

      The Aleutian lows.

  • 15. 
    In relation to the jet core, the greatest vertical wind shear is usually located
    • A. 

      Above the strongest horizontal shear.

    • B. 

      Below the strongest horizontal shear.

    • C. 

      Above the jet core.

    • D. 

      Below the jet core.

  • 16. 
    In relation to the jet core, the greatest horizontal wind shear is usually located
    • A. 

      Above the jet core.

    • B. 

      North of the jet core.

    • C. 

      South of the jet core.

    • D. 

      At the jet core’s narrowest horizontal point.

  • 17. 
    The simplest method for locating the 500 millibar frontal zone is to
    • A. 

      Locate the 500 millibar maximum wind band.

    • B. 

      Locate the position of the –11° Centigrade isotherm.

    • C. 

      Locate the position of the –17° Centigrade isotherm.

    • D. 

      Find where the thermal concentration is more than 5° Centigrade in 200 miles.

  • 18. 
    The width of the jet stream core is approximately equal to the
    • A. 

      Width of the 500 millibar isotherm ribbon.

    • B. 

      Width of the 500 millibar maximum wind band.

    • C. 

      Distance between the –17° Centigrade and the –20° Centigrade isotherms at 500 millibar.

    • D. 

      Distance between the –20° Centigrade and the –26° Centigrade isotherms at 500 millibar.

  • 19. 
    • A. 

      In the region of difluence of the STJ and polar front jet (PFJ).

    • B. 

      In the region of confluence of the STJ and PFJ.

    • C. 

      The STJ’s eastern most extension.

    • D. 

      The STJ’S western most extension.

  • 20. 
    “Jet fingers”
    • A. 

      Often develop more than 400 miles apart.

    • B. 

      Suggest that the jet stream is beginning to dissipate.

    • C. 

      Are somewhat rare and usually occur either singly or in pairs.

    • D. 

      Are formed during periods when the jet stream is well organized and the core exceeds 100kts.

  • 21. 
    Converging contours downstream of the jet stream will cause the jet to
    • A. 

      Decrease in amplitude.

    • B. 

      Increase in amplitude.

    • C. 

      Deflect toward lower heights.

    • D. 

      Deflect toward greater heights.

  • 22. 
    Using average surface frontal slopes, how far ahead of the surface warm front is the jet stream located?
    • A. 

      300 miles.

    • B. 

      400 miles.

    • C. 

      500 miles.

    • D. 

      600 miles.

  • 23. 
    • A. 

      Radiation.

    • B. 

      Advection.

    • C. 

      Convection.

    • D. 

      Conduction.

  • 24. 
    Advection transfers temperature
    • A. 

      By electromagnetic waves.

    • B. 

      Horizontally by the wind.

    • C. 

      Vertically by the wind.

    • D. 

      By molecular motion.

  • 25. 
    • A. 

      Uniform surface, stagnant air, and large-scale difluent flow.

    • B. 

      Must be over water, stagnant air, and large-scale difluent flow.

    • C. 

      Any nonuniform surface, stagnant air, and large-scale difluent flow.

    • D. 

      Must be over smooth land, stagnant air, and large-scale difluent flow.

  • 26. 
    • A. 

      Loss of heat by radiation.

    • B. 

      Loss of heat by conduction.

    • C. 

      Transport of heat by turbulence.

    • D. 

      Transport of heat by evaporation and condensation.

  • 27. 
    Air mass stability characteristics often depend on the temperature difference between the
    • A. 

      Air mass and the source region surface.

    • B. 

      Upper- and lower-level air, and source region.

    • C. 

      Air mass and the surface over which it is traveling.

    • D. 

      Air-mass source region surface and the surface over which the air mass is traveling.

  • 28. 
    • A. 

      MAws.

    • B. 

      MAks.

    • C. 

      CAwu.

    • D. 

      CAks.

  • 29. 
    • A. 

      MTwu.

    • B. 

      MTws.

    • C. 

      MTku.

    • D. 

      MTks.

  • 30. 
    • A. 

      CPks.

    • B. 

      CPws.

    • C. 

      CTws.

    • D. 

      CTku.

  • 31. 
    • A. 

      MTk.

    • B. 

      MPw.

    • C. 

      CPk.

    • D. 

      CT.

  • 32. 
    As an air mass is heated from below, there will be increased
    • A. 

      Option 1

    • B. 

      Stability and an increased lapse rate.

    • C. 

      Instability and a decreased lapse rate.

    • D. 

      Instability and an increased lapse rate.

  • 33. 
    It is winter. A cPk air mass is moving over the Great Lakes. In this situation, the southern shores of the Great Lakes will experience
    • A. 

      Hail.

    • B. 

      Heavy snow.

    • C. 

      Thunderstorms.

    • D. 

      Freezing precipitation.

  • 34. 
    • A. 

      MP.

    • B. 

      CP.

    • C. 

      MT.

    • D. 

      CT.

  • 35. 
    Continental tropical air masses are usually associated with
    • A. 

      Thermal lows.

    • B. 

      Thermal highs.

    • C. 

      Migratory lows.

    • D. 

      Migratory highs.

  • 36. 
    The rate that an air mass modifies depends on the
    • A. 

      Temperature differences between the new surface and the air mass, the speed with which the air mass travels, and the initial characteristics of the air mass.

    • B. 

      Initial characteristics of the air mass, the speed with which the air mass travels, and amount of moisture in the air mass.

    • C. 

      Initial characteristics of the air mass, the speed with which the air mass travels, and the temperature differences between the new surface and the air mass.

    • D. 

      Temperature differences between the new surface and the air mass, the nature of the surface over which it moves, and the speed with which the air mass travels.

  • 37. 
    The weather characteristics of a particular month in a given locality are governed by
    • A. 

      Wind speed and moisture content.

    • B. 

      Effects of local topography and moisture content.

    • C. 

      Wind speed and proximity to a zone of divergence.

    • D. 

      Effects of local topography and proximity to a zone of convergence.

  • 38. 
    Surface pressure changes are largely controlled by
    • A. 

      Mass changes in the upper troposphere.

    • B. 

      The jetstream pattern in the upper troposphere.

    • C. 

      Temperature advection in the middle troposphere.

    • D. 

      Positive vorticity advection in the lower troposphere.

  • 39. 
    Horizontal divergence within an air mass will
    • A. 

      Cause the surface pressure to rise.

    • B. 

      Increase the mass in the vertical column above the surface.

    • C. 

      Increase the vertical extent of the column above the surface.

    • D. 

      Vertically contract the original column of air and then expand it horizontally.

  • 40. 
    As air converges at the surface and toward the center of a layer, there will be horizontal
    • A. 

      And vertical expansion.

    • B. 

      Contraction and vertical expansion.

    • C. 

      Expansion and vertical contraction.

    • D. 

      Contraction and vertical contraction.

  • 41. 
    An increase of mass in a column of air will cause the surface pressure to
    • A. 

      Increase.

    • B. 

      Decrease.

    • C. 

      Remain steady.

    • D. 

      Do nothing, pressure is not affected by mass.

  • 42. 
    In the chimney effect, the maximum upward vertical wind motion will be located
    • A. 

      At the tropopause.

    • B. 

      At the surface of the earth.

    • C. 

      Throughout the column of air.

    • D. 

      At the level of nondivergence (LND).

  • 43. 
    The primary cause of surface pressure changes for a dynamic low is net
    • A. 

      Divergence aloft.

    • B. 

      Adiabatic cooling aloft.

    • C. 

      Adiabatic warming aloft.

    • D. 

      Divergence at the surface.

  • 44. 
    A low-pressure system undergoing cyclogenesis is said to be
    • A. 

      Divergence and surface low pressure.

    • B. 

      Forming or deepening.

    • C. 

      Dissipating or filling.

    • D. 

      Forming or filling.

  • 45. 
    The damper effect is comprised of upper-level
    • A. 

      Divergence and surface low pressure.

    • B. 

      Divergence and surface high pressure.

    • C. 

      Convergence and surface low pressure.

    • D. 

      Convergence and surface high pressure.

  • 46. 
    When the central pressure of an anticyclone is rising, you can infer the anticyclone is
    • A. 

      Filling.

    • B. 

      Building.

    • C. 

      Deepening.

    • D. 

      Weakening.

  • 47. 
    A high-pressure system undergoes anticyclolysis when the clockwise circulation area
    • A. 

      Decreases or disappears.

    • B. 

      Increases or disappears.

    • C. 

      Decreases or forms.

    • D. 

      Increases or forms.

  • 48. 
    An unstable wave cyclone is one where the amplitude
    • A. 

      Decreases with time and the wave fills.

    • B. 

      Increases with time and the wave fills.

    • C. 

      Decreases with time and the wave deepens.

    • D. 

      Increases with time and the wave deepens.

  • 49. 
    After warm air with an unstable wave is pushed aloft and cuts off from a cyclone, the cyclone will become
    • A. 

      Baroclinic and begin to deepen.

    • B. 

      Barotropic and begin to deepen.

    • C. 

      Baroclinic and begin to fill.

    • D. 

      Barotropic and begin to fill.

  • 50. 
    Unstable waves are classified as
    • A. 

      Barotropic highs.

    • B. 

      Barotropic lows.

    • C. 

      Baroclinic high.

    • D. 

      Baroclinic lows.

  • 51. 
    In the baroclinic instability process,
    • A. 

      Kinetic energy is transferred to the major short wave by thermal advection.

    • B. 

      Potential energy is transferred to the major short wave by thermal advection.

    • C. 

      Kinetic energy is transferred to the major short wave by low-level circulations.

    • D. 

      Potential energy is transferred to the major short wave by low-level circulations.

  • 52. 
    When using Petterssen’s rule, the factors needed for cyclogenesis are upper-level
    • A. 

      Convergence and a frontal zone where thermal advection is weak.

    • B. 

      Convergence and a frontal zone where thermal advection is strong.

    • C. 

      Divergence and a frontal zone where thermal advection is weak.

    • D. 

      Divergence and a frontal zone where thermal advection is strong.

  • 53. 
    • A. 

      Divergence aloft.

    • B. 

      Convergence aloft.

    • C. 

      Cold-air advection.

    • D. 

      Warm-air advection.

  • 54. 
    A low dissipates after proceeding through its entire life cycle which ranges from the
    • A. 

      Top down as boundary layer convergence removes mass from the column of air.

    • B. 

      Top down as boundary layer divergence removes mass from the column of air.

    • C. 

      Bottom up as boundary layer convergence adds mass to the column of air.

    • D. 

      Bottom up as boundary layer divergence adds mass to the column of air.

  • 55. 
    • A. 

      Two.

    • B. 

      Three.

    • C. 

      Four.

    • D. 

      Five.

  • 56. 
    In the life cycle of a low, the system will evolve into a cold barotropic low in the
    • A. 

      Mature stage.

    • B. 

      Dissipation stage.

    • C. 

      Wave initiation stage.

    • D. 

      Wave intensification stage.

  • 57. 
    Anticyclogenesis typically occurs at, and just downstream from, long-wave
    • A. 

      Ridges under difluent flow aloft.

    • B. 

      Troughs under difluent flow aloft.

    • C. 

      Ridges under confluent flow aloft.

    • D. 

      Troughs under confluent flow aloft.

  • 58. 
    • A. 

      Negative vorticity advection.

    • B. 

      Positive vorticity advection.

    • C. 

      Convergence aloft.

    • D. 

      Divergence aloft.

  • 59. 
    • A. 

      Friction.

    • B. 

      Coriolis force.

    • C. 

      Centrifugal force.

    • D. 

      Pressure gradient force.

  • 60. 
    A warm barotropic high is a type of pressure system that
    • A. 

      Has great vertical extent and its axis tilts with height.

    • B. 

      Has great vertical extent and is usually found over water areas.

    • C. 

      Rarely exceeds 8,000 feet vertically and its axis tilts with height.

    • D. 

      Rarely exceeds 8,000 feet vertically and is found over water areas.

  • 61. 
    In regards to types of pressure systems, a heat low is a
    • A. 

      Cold barotropic low that forms during the winter.

    • B. 

      Cold barotropic low that forms during the summer.

    • C. 

      Warm barotropic low that forms during the winter.

    • D. 

      Warm barotropic low that forms during the summer.

  • 62. 
    With the passage of a cold front in the Northern Hemisphere, the horizontal wind direction will
    • A. 

      Become more variable.

    • B. 

      Become more northeasterly.

    • C. 

      Shift in a clockwise direction.

    • D. 

      Shift in a counterclockwise direction.

  • 63. 
    The cold conveyor belt originates in the low levels that are located
    • A. 

      West of a low center and flow westward.

    • B. 

      East of a low center and flow westward.

    • C. 

      West of a low center and flow eastward.

    • D. 

      East of a low center and flow eastward.

  • 64. 
    The average slope of a cold front is
    • A. 

      1/30 to 1/100.

    • B. 

      1/65 and 1/250.

    • C. 

      1/100 and 1/65.

    • D. 

      1/250 and 1/50.

  • 65. 
    A warm frontal occlusion occurs when the cool air
    • A. 

      Ahead of the cold front lifts the cooler air ahead of the warm front.

    • B. 

      Behind the cold front lifts the cooler air ahead of the warm front.

    • C. 

      Behind the cold front overrides the colder air ahead of the warm front.

    • D. 

      Ahead of the warm front overrides the colder air behind the cold front.

  • 66. 
    In comparison to an active cold front, an inactive cold front is characterized by a relatively
    • A. 

      Steeper slope, a wide weather pattern, and is called anafront.

    • B. 

      Shallower slope, a wide weather pattern, and is called anafront.

    • C. 

      Steeper slope, a narrow weather pattern, and is called katafront.

    • D. 

      Shallower slope, a narrow weather pattern, and is called katafront.

  • 67. 
    When an inactive front passes your station, the dew points will
    • A. 

      Decrease slowly with the passage.

    • B. 

      Decrease sharply with the passage.

    • C. 

      Increase slowly with the passage.

    • D. 

      Increase sharply with the passage.

  • 68. 
    When only high and middle clouds are associated with a warm front, the
    • A. 

      Underlying cold air is dry.

    • B. 

      Underlying cold air is moist.

    • C. 

      Overrunning warm air is dry.

    • D. 

      Overrunning warm air is moist.

  • 69. 
    In a cold occlusion, the coldest air is found
    • A. 

      Behind the cold front.

    • B. 

      Behind the warm front.

    • C. 

      Ahead of the cold front.

    • D. 

      Ahead of the warm front.

  • 70. 
    In a cold occlusion, which type of front, if any, is found aloft?
    • A. 

      The occlusion.

    • B. 

      The warm front.

    • C. 

      The cold front.

    • D. 

      All fronts are at the surface.

  • 71. 
    Frontogenesis requires two adjacent air masses with
    • A. 

      The same density and a wind flow separating the two air masses.

    • B. 

      Different densities and a wind flow separating the two air masses.

    • C. 

      The same density and a wind flow to bring the air masses together.

    • D. 

      Different densities and a wind flow to bring the air masses together.

  • 72. 
    The frontolytic processes are most effective
    • A. 

      On the east coast of continents.

    • B. 

      On the west coast of continents.

    • C. 

      In the lower layers of the atmosphere.

    • D. 

      In the upper layers of the atmosphere.

  • 73. 
    The difference in cloud classification between L1 and L7 is
    • A. 

      Precipitation.

    • B. 

      Vertical development.

    • C. 

      The size of the rain drops.

    • D. 

      Size of the cloud elements.

  • 74. 
    • A. 

      Cumulus-L1.

    • B. 

      Cumulonimbus-L9.

    • C. 

      Cumulonimbus-L3.

    • D. 

      Towering cumulus-L2.

  • 75. 
    The best way to distinguish stratocumulus from altocumulus clouds is to use
    • A. 

      Movement.

    • B. 

      Appearance.

    • C. 

      The color of the elements.

    • D. 

      The size of the elements.

  • 76. 
    A corona is often present at night with
    • A. 

      Stratus clouds.

    • B. 

      Altostratus clouds.

    • C. 

      Altocumulus clouds.

    • D. 

      Stratocumulus clouds.

  • 77. 
    Cirrus clouds in the form of an anvil are classified as
    • A. 

      H4.

    • B. 

      H3.

    • C. 

      H2.

    • D. 

      H1.

  • 78. 
    • A. 

      H1.

    • B. 

      H4.

    • C. 

      H7.

    • D. 

      H8.

  • 79. 
    • A. 

      Cirrus-H4.

    • B. 

      Cirrostratus-H6.

    • C. 

      Cirrostratus-H7.

    • D. 

      Cirrocumulus-H9.

  • 80. 
    Which orographic cloud resembles an almond or a fish?
    • A. 

      Rotor.

    • B. 

      Lenticular.

    • C. 

      Foehn wall.

    • D. 

      Castellanus.

  • 81. 
    "Clouds or obscuring phenomena that have bases at the same approximate level” is the definition of
    • A. 

      Sky condition.

    • B. 

      Sky cover.

    • C. 

      A ceiling.

    • D. 

      A layer.

  • 82. 
    • A. 

      Red.

    • B. 

      Blue.

    • C. 

      Black.

    • D. 

      Yellow.

  • 83. 
    You are preparing to use a convective cloud height table to determine the heights of clouds. To do this properly, you must first determine the
    • A. 

      Wet-bulb temperature and free-air temperature.

    • B. 

      Dew-point temperature and free-air temperature.

    • C. 

      Wet-bulb temperature and dew-point temperature.

    • D. 

      Dew-point temperature and dry-bulb temperature.

  • 84. 
    How do you report prevailing visibility at US stations and overseas stations?
    • A. 

      Meters for both.

    • B. 

      Statute miles for both.

    • C. 

      Statute miles for US stations and meters for overseas stations.

    • D. 

      Meters for US stations and statute miles for overseas stations.

  • 85. 
    To properly report the visibility for more than one sector, you would list the sectors in a
    • A. 

      Clockwise direction starting with the northernmost sector.

    • B. 

      Clockwise direction starting with the southernmost sector.

    • C. 

      Counterclockwise direction starting with the northernmost sector.

    • D. 

      Counterclockwise direction starting with the southernmost sector.

  • 86. 
    For a runway visual range (RVR) report of R22/1000V1600FT, what is the visual range that a pilot can expect to see down the runway?
    • A. 

      1,000 feet.

    • B. 

      1,600 feet.

    • C. 

      1,300 feet.

    • D. 

      1,000 to 1,600 feet varying.

  • 87. 
    • A. 

      Snow.

    • B. 

      Ice crystals.

    • C. 

      Ice pellets.

    • D. 

      Snow grains.

  • 88. 
    You would classify precipitation as intermittent if it
    • A. 

      Stopped and started at least once within the preceding hour.

    • B. 

      Stopped and started at least twice within the preceding hour.

    • C. 

      Stopped and started at least once within the preceding 15 minutes.

    • D. 

      Occurred any time in the preceding hour but not at the time of observation.

  • 89. 
    When frozen precipitation is expected, you would
    • A. 

      Collect it in the in the overflow unit of the rain gauge.

    • B. 

      Collect it in the measuring tube of the rain gauge.

    • C. 

      Use a 24-inch measuring stick to measure the frozen precipitation.

    • D. 

      Use a 36-inch measuring stick to measure the frozen precipitation.

  • 90. 
    The distinguishing feature of any tornadic activity is
    • A. 

      Intense thunderstorm activity.

    • B. 

      Wind gusts over 35 knots in speed.

    • C. 

      Cumulonimbus mammatus clouds.

    • D. 

      The funnel-shaped appendage that hangs from the base of the cloud.

  • 91. 
    A thunderstorm is present and occurring at your station. In addition, the local noise level is preventing you from hearing the thunderstorm. For observation purposes you would say
    • A. 

      Hail is falling.

    • B. 

      Heavy rain is falling.

    • C. 

      There is lightning within 10 nautical miles.

    • D. 

      A cumulonimbus cloud is present overhead.

  • 92. 
    A thunderstorm officially ends
    • A. 

      Ten minutes after the last occurrence of thunder, hail, or lightning.

    • B. 

      Immediately after the last occurrence of thunder, hail, or lightning.

    • C. 

      Fifteen minutes after the last occurrence of thunder, hail, or lightning.

    • D. 

      Twenty minutes after the last occurrence of thunder, hail, or lightning.

  • 93. 
    For observing purposes, five hydrometers are considered to be obstructions to vision. They include mist, fog, blowing snow,
    • A. 

      Blowing spray, and blowing sand.

    • B. 

      Freezing fog, and blowing sand.

    • C. 

      Freezing fog, and blowing dust.

    • D. 

      Freezing fog, and blowing spray.

  • 94. 
    Blowing spray is reported only at sea stations near large bodies of water and when visibility at eye level is restricted to
    • A. 

      9,000 meters or less.

    • B. 

      7,000 meters or less.

    • C. 

      6,000 meters or less.

    • D. 

      3,200 meters or less.

  • 95. 
    What pressure value is the basis for determining all other pressure values?
    • A. 

      Station pressure.

    • B. 

      Altimeter setting.

    • C. 

      Sea-level pressure.

    • D. 

      Corrected aneroid reading.

  • 96. 
    What is the reference level for all pressure values?
    • A. 

      Station pressure.

    • B. 

      Altimeter setting.

    • C. 

      Sea-level pressure.

    • D. 

      Corrected aneroid reading.

  • 97. 
    The temperature to which a given parcel of air must be cooled, with constant water vapor content and pressure, to reach saturation is called
    • A. 

      Dew point.

    • B. 

      Relative humidity.

    • C. 

      The dry-bulb temperature.

    • D. 

      The wet-bulb temperature.

  • 98. 
    The temperature an air parcel would have if it were cooled adiabatically to saturation at constant pressure by evaporation of water into it is called
    • A. 

      Dew point.

    • B. 

      Relative humidity.

    • C. 

      Dry bulb temperature.

    • D. 

      Wet bulb temperature.

  • 99. 
    Wind observing equipment is oriented to
    • A. 

      True north.

    • B. 

      True south.

    • C. 

      Magnetic north.

    • D. 

      Magnetic south.

  • 100. 
    A change in wind direction of 45° (or more) that takes place in less than 15 minutes is called a
    • A. 

      Gust.

    • B. 

      Squall.

    • C. 

      Wind shift.

    • D. 

      Variable wind.