Z2g051 Volume 1 Unit Review Exercise

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  • 1/93 Questions

    (001) What is the core component of combat logistics support?

    • A. Logistics planning function.
    • B. Light, lean, lethal forces.
    • C. Time definite resupply.
    • D. Agile logistics.
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About This Quiz

The Z2G051 Volume 1 Unit Review Exercise assesses key components of combat logistics support, focusing on logistics planning functions, deployment control centers, and support agreements. It evaluates readiness, transportation feasibility, and is crucial for professionals in logistics planning.

Z2g051 Volume 1 Unit Review Exercise - Quiz

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  • 2. 

    (002) Which logistics plans core competency includes the integrating and performing training and logistics modeling area of expertise?

    • A. Readying the force.

    • B. Positioning the force.

    • C. Recovering the force.

    • D. Employing and sustaining the force.

    Correct Answer
    A. A. Readying the force.
    Explanation
    The logistics plans core competency that includes the integrating and performing training and logistics modeling area of expertise is "Ready the force." This involves ensuring that the force is prepared and trained for deployment, as well as using logistics modeling to optimize the planning and execution of logistics operations. This competency focuses on the readiness and effectiveness of the force in carrying out their missions.

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  • 3. 

    (004) What position can a 9-level be expected to fill?

    • A. Noncommissioned officer in charge war readiness materiel.

    • B. Installation deployment officer (IDO).

    • C. Support agreement.

    • D. Superintendent.

    Correct Answer
    A. D. Superintendent.
    Explanation
    A 9-level can be expected to fill the position of a superintendent. This position is typically responsible for managing and overseeing a specific area or department within an organization. They are often in charge of supervising and leading a team, ensuring that operations run smoothly, and making decisions to achieve organizational goals. A 9-level is considered to have a high level of expertise and experience in their field, making them suitable for a leadership role such as a superintendent.

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  • 4. 

    (007) What factor is considered before transporting classified material?

    • A. Chances of confiscation by unauthorized personnel.

    • B. Time of day to ship the material.

    • C. Cost to ship the material.

    • D. Weight of the material.

    Correct Answer
    A. A. Chances of confiscation by unauthorized personnel.
    Explanation
    Before transporting classified material, the factor that is considered is the chances of confiscation by unauthorized personnel. This is important because classified material needs to be protected and kept secure, and there is a risk that unauthorized individuals may try to gain access to or steal the material during transportation. Therefore, the likelihood of confiscation by unauthorized personnel is a key factor that needs to be assessed and minimized to ensure the safe and secure transport of classified material.

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  • 5. 

    (008) Who is the statutory military advisor to the National Security Council (NSC)?

    • A. Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff.

    • B. Director of Central Intelligence.

    • C. Air Force Chief of Staff.

    • D. Secretary of Defense.

    Correct Answer
    A. A. Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is a. Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff. The Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff is the highest-ranking military officer in the United States Armed Forces and serves as the principal military advisor to the President, the National Security Council, and the Secretary of Defense. They provide military advice and expertise on matters related to national security and defense policy, making them the appropriate statutory military advisor to the National Security Council.

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  • 6. 

    (001) For which areas do log planners (or "loggies") evaluate assigned functions and direct operation of logistics plans processes and special activities?

    • A. Unit control centers.

    • B. Disaster response teams.

    • C. Contingency action teams.

    • D. Deployment control centers.

    Correct Answer
    A. D. Deployment control centers.
    Explanation
    Log planners, also known as "loggies," evaluate assigned functions and direct the operation of logistics plans processes and special activities in deployment control centers. These centers are responsible for managing and coordinating the logistics of deploying personnel, equipment, and supplies to support military operations or disaster response efforts. They ensure that all necessary resources are available and properly allocated to meet operational requirements. Log planners in deployment control centers play a crucial role in ensuring the smooth and efficient execution of logistics plans during deployments.

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  • 7. 

    (002) How many core competencies are there for log plans?

    • A. Ten.

    • B. Six.

    • C. Five.

    • D. One.

    Correct Answer
    A. C. Five.
    Explanation
    There are five core competencies for log plans. These competencies refer to the essential skills and abilities required for effective logistical planning. These competencies include demand planning, inventory management, transportation management, warehouse management, and supply chain visibility. Each of these competencies plays a crucial role in ensuring the smooth flow of goods and materials throughout the supply chain.

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  • 8. 

    (002) Right-sized unit type codes (UTC) are scalable and

    • A. sustainable.

    • B. deployable.

    • C. modular.

    • D. tailored.

    Correct Answer
    A. C. modular.
    Explanation
    Right-sized unit type codes (UTC) being scalable means that they can be adjusted or expanded according to the needs or demands of a particular situation or context. However, this does not necessarily imply that they are sustainable or deployable. On the other hand, being modular means that the UTC can be easily broken down into smaller components or modules, which can be rearranged or combined in different ways. This flexibility and adaptability make modular UTCs the most suitable choice in this scenario. The term "tailored" does not accurately describe the concept of UTCs being scalable and adaptable. Therefore, the correct answer is c. modular.

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  • 9. 

    (003) If postured to deploy, what requirements must noncommissioned officers (NCO) be prepared to meet?

    • A. Line remark.

    • B. Pre-deployment.

    • C. Combatant commander.

    • D. Supporting commander.

    Correct Answer
    A. B. Pre-deployment.
    Explanation
    Noncommissioned officers (NCOs) must be prepared to meet the requirements of pre-deployment if they are postured to deploy. This means that they need to be ready to fulfill the necessary tasks and responsibilities before being deployed to a combat or operational zone. This may include tasks such as preparing equipment, conducting training, ensuring proper documentation and paperwork, and coordinating logistics. Being prepared for pre-deployment is crucial for NCOs to ensure a smooth and successful deployment process.

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  • 10. 

    (004) What school will individuals attend when promoted to Technical Sergeant (TSgt)?

    • A. War readiness materiel (WRM) training.

    • B. Noncommissioned officers Academy (NCOA).

    • C. Contingency Wartime Planning Course (CWPC).

    • D. Joint Operations Planning and Execution System (JOPES).

    Correct Answer
    A. B. Noncommissioned officers Academy (NCOA).
    Explanation
    When individuals are promoted to Technical Sergeant (TSgt), they will attend the Noncommissioned Officers Academy (NCOA). This academy is designed to provide advanced leadership and management training for noncommissioned officers in the military. It focuses on developing their skills in areas such as communication, decision-making, and problem-solving. Attending NCOA helps individuals in their career progression and prepares them for the increased responsibilities that come with the rank of TSgt.

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  • 11. 

    (005) Which area is not a base-level log plans function?

    • A. Support agreement.

    • B. War readiness materiel.

    • C. Functional management.

    • D. Deployment management.

    Correct Answer
    A. C. Functional management.
    Explanation
    Functional management is not a base-level log plans function because it refers to the management of specific departments or areas within an organization, such as finance, human resources, or operations. Base-level log plans functions typically involve activities related to logistics planning, coordination, and execution, such as support agreements, war readiness materiel, and deployment management. Functional management is not directly related to these logistics functions and is therefore not considered a base-level log plans function.

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  • 12. 

    (007) What is the highest classification level of material on a national level?

    • A. SECRET.

    • B. TOP SECRET.

    • C. NATO ATOMAL.

    • D. Sensitive compartmented information.

    Correct Answer
    A. B. TOP SECRET.
    Explanation
    The highest classification level of material on a national level is TOP SECRET. This level of classification is used for information that, if disclosed, could cause exceptionally grave damage to national security. It is the highest level of classification and is reserved for the most sensitive and classified information.

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  • 13. 

    (009) What type of plan is an abbreviated form of an operation plan (OPLAN)?

    • A. Programming.

    • B. Joint support.

    • C. Exercise.

    • D. Concept.

    Correct Answer
    A. D. Concept.
    Explanation
    An abbreviated form of an operation plan (OPLAN) is known as a concept. A concept plan provides a general outline and framework for an operation, highlighting the key objectives and strategies. It is a condensed version of the OPLAN, focusing on the overall concept and approach rather than the specific details and logistics. This allows for easier communication and understanding among personnel involved in the operation.

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  • 14. 

    (006) Which agency is the senior war-fighting echelon of the US Air Force?

    • A. A4 Contingency Action Team (CAT).

    • B. Major command (MAJCOM).

    • C. Numbered Air Force (NAF).

    • D. Joint Task Force (JTF).

    Correct Answer
    A. C. Numbered Air Force (NAF).
    Explanation
    The correct answer is c. Numbered Air Force (NAF). A Numbered Air Force (NAF) is the senior war-fighting echelon of the US Air Force. It is responsible for organizing, training, and equipping subordinate units to execute assigned missions. NAFs are commanded by a General Officer and are responsible for the operational readiness and effectiveness of their assigned forces. They provide combat-ready forces to combatant commanders and support the overall mission of the US Air Force.

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  • 15. 

    (007) Which of the following is a classified document that a logistics planner may use on a day-to-day basis?

    • A. Logistics planning subsystem (LOGPLAN) materiel list.

    • B. Time-phased force and deployment data (TPFDD).

    • C. Acquisition and cross servicing agreement.

    • D. Support agreement.

    Correct Answer
    A. B. Time-phased force and deployment data (TPFDD).
    Explanation
    A logistics planner may use the Time-phased force and deployment data (TPFDD) on a day-to-day basis because it provides information about the movement and deployment of military forces and equipment. This document helps in coordinating and planning logistics operations, ensuring that the right resources are available at the right time and place. It includes details such as transportation requirements, unit locations, and deployment schedules, which are crucial for effective logistics planning and execution.

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  • 16. 

    (008) Which system is the Department of Defense (DOD) directed single, integrated joint command and control system for conventional operation planning and execution?

    • A. Deliberate and Crisis Action Planning Segments (DCAPES).

    • B. Joint Operation Planning and Execution System (JOPES).

    • C. Global Command and Control System (GCCS).

    • D. Joint Strategic Planning System (JSPS).

    Correct Answer
    A. B. Joint Operation Planning and Execution System (JOPES).
    Explanation
    The correct answer is b. Joint Operation Planning and Execution System (JOPES). JOPES is the Department of Defense's directed single, integrated joint command and control system for conventional operation planning and execution. It provides a standardized approach for planning and executing military operations, allowing for coordination and synchronization among different military branches and organizations. JOPES helps in the development of operational plans, deployment of forces, and tracking of resources and logistics during military operations. It is an essential tool for effective planning and execution of joint military operations.

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  • 17. 

    (011) What type of planning is the cornerstone of the peacetime planning process?

    • A. Contingency.

    • B. Crisis action.

    • C. Joint execution.

    • D. Joint engineering

    Correct Answer
    A. A. Contingency.
    Explanation
    Contingency planning is the cornerstone of the peacetime planning process because it involves preparing for potential future events or situations that may arise. This type of planning allows organizations to anticipate and develop strategies to address various contingencies, ensuring they are prepared to respond effectively and efficiently if and when these events occur. It helps to minimize risks, maintain continuity of operations, and ensure the safety and well-being of personnel and resources.

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  • 18. 

    (016) Vehicles that support a unit’s peacetime mission and do not deploy are identified by use code

    • A

    • C

    • J

    • K

    Correct Answer
    A. K
    Explanation
    Vehicles that support a unit's peacetime mission and do not deploy are identified by use code K. This suggests that use code K is specifically assigned to vehicles that are used for non-deployment purposes during peacetime. The other use codes (A, C, and J) are not mentioned in the question, so it can be inferred that they are not applicable in this context.

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  • 19. 

    (019) What are the two parts of the war consumable distribution objective (WCDO)?

    • A. Gun barrels and consumables.

    • B. Munitions and nonmunitions.

    • C. Vehicles and equipment.

    • D. Consumables and fuel.

    Correct Answer
    A. B. Munitions and nonmunitions.
    Explanation
    The two parts of the war consumable distribution objective (WCDO) are munitions and nonmunitions. This means that the objective focuses on the distribution of both types of supplies during war. Munitions refer to weapons, ammunition, and explosives, while nonmunitions include other essential supplies such as food, medical equipment, and clothing. By considering both munitions and nonmunitions, the WCDO aims to ensure that all necessary resources are distributed efficiently and effectively during times of conflict.

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  • 20. 

    (045) When performing site surveys, which functional specialty is the designated team chief?

    • A. Security Forces.

    • B. Weapons Safety.

    • C. Logistics Plans.

    • D. Munitions Maintenance.

    Correct Answer
    A. C. Logistics Plans.
    Explanation
    During site surveys, the designated team chief is responsible for coordinating and overseeing the logistics plans. This includes ensuring that all necessary resources and supplies are available, organizing transportation and storage of equipment, and developing a comprehensive plan for the efficient and effective execution of the mission. The team chief plays a crucial role in ensuring that the logistics aspect of the site survey is well-planned and executed, ultimately contributing to the success of the overall operation.

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  • 21. 

    (001) Which log plans program is one of the biggest reimbursement generators for a base?

    • A. Deployments.

    • B. Support planning.

    • C. Support agreements.

    • D. War readiness materiel (WRM).

    Correct Answer
    A. C. Support agreements.
    Explanation
    Support agreements are one of the biggest reimbursement generators for a base. These agreements involve the base providing support services to other organizations or countries in exchange for financial compensation. This can include services such as maintenance, logistics, or training. By entering into support agreements, the base can generate significant revenue, making it a key program for reimbursement.

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  • 22. 

    (003) Which function do noncommissioned officers (NCO) provide during base support and expeditionary site planning processes?

    • A. Validate and monitor war readiness materiel (WRM) deficiencies.

    • B. Conduct training for subordinate and tenant units.

    • C. Reporting limiting factors (LIMFACS).

    • D. Coordinate international logistics.

    Correct Answer
    A. B. Conduct training for subordinate and tenant units.
    Explanation
    Noncommissioned officers (NCO) play a crucial role in conducting training for subordinate and tenant units during base support and expeditionary site planning processes. This involves providing guidance, instruction, and supervision to ensure that these units are properly trained and prepared for their missions. NCOs have the experience and expertise to train and mentor soldiers, helping them develop the necessary skills and knowledge to successfully carry out their duties. By conducting training, NCOs contribute to the overall readiness and effectiveness of the military organization.

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  • 23. 

    (005) What kind of activities will 20 percent of your time be spent?

    • A. Reading.

    • B. Training.

    • C. Supervision.

    • D. Deployment.

    Correct Answer
    A. D. Deployment.
    Explanation
    20 percent of your time will be spent on deployment activities. This means that a significant portion of your time will be dedicated to implementing and launching projects or initiatives. This could involve tasks such as setting up systems, installing software, configuring hardware, and ensuring that everything is in place for the successful execution of the project. Deployment activities are crucial in ensuring that plans are executed effectively and that the desired outcomes are achieved.

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  • 24. 

    (005) To which organizational level do the managing Base Support Plans (BSP) logistic planners forward limiting factors (LIMFAC)?

    • A. Air Combat Command (ACC).

    • B. Pacific Air Force (PACAF).

    • C. Number Air Force (NAF).

    • D. Unit.

    Correct Answer
    A. C. Number Air Force (NAF).
    Explanation
    The managing Base Support Plans (BSP) logistic planners forward limiting factors (LIMFAC) to the Number Air Force (NAF). This suggests that the NAF is the organizational level responsible for addressing and managing these limiting factors.

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  • 25. 

    (007) From what document might an enemy gain a great strategic advantage by knowing where we plan to mass our forces in the event of a conflict?

    • A. Support agreement.

    • B. War readiness materiel (WRM) documents.

    • C. Logistics module (LOGMOD) unit type code (UTC) report.

    • D. Air and Space Expeditionary Force Unit Type Code Reporting Tool (ART) data.

    Correct Answer
    A. B. War readiness materiel (WRM) documents.
    Explanation
    Knowing where a military force plans to mass their forces in the event of a conflict can provide an enemy with a great strategic advantage. War readiness materiel (WRM) documents would contain information about the location and availability of military equipment and supplies, which would be crucial for an enemy to effectively plan their own strategies and counteract the massing of forces. This information would allow the enemy to target specific areas or devise tactics to exploit any weaknesses in the planned massing of forces.

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  • 26. 

    (035) Acquisition and cross-servicing agreement (ACSA) authorities can reduce the US "logistics tail" by allowing procurement of items from

    • A. other military services.

    • B. the United States (US).

    • C. a host nation (HN).

    • D. the government.

    Correct Answer
    A. C. a host nation (HN).
    Explanation
    Acquisition and cross-servicing agreement (ACSA) authorities allow the US to procure items from a host nation (HN). This means that instead of relying solely on US sources for logistics support, the US military can obtain necessary items and services from the host nation where they are stationed. This reduces the US "logistics tail" by decreasing the need for transportation and supply chains from the US to the deployed location.

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  • 27. 

    (036) All acquisition and cross-servicing agreement (ACSA) transactions are

    • A. reimbursable.

    • B. collected.

    • C. billed.

    • D. payed.

    Correct Answer
    A. A. reimbursable.
    Explanation
    An acquisition and cross-servicing agreement (ACSA) is a type of agreement between the United States and foreign countries that allows for the exchange of goods and services, such as military support. In these transactions, the receiving country is typically responsible for reimbursing the United States for the costs incurred. Therefore, the correct answer is "a. reimbursable."

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  • 28. 

    (040) Expeditionary site plans (ESP) are chiefly developed for those locations that are

    • A. without a permanent air force presence.

    • B. forward operating bases.

    • C. active air force bases.

    • D. main operating bases.

    Correct Answer
    A. A. without a permanent air force presence.
    Explanation
    Expeditionary site plans (ESP) are primarily designed for locations that do not have a permanent air force presence. These plans are developed to support temporary or short-term operations in areas where there is no established air force base. The purpose of the ESP is to provide the necessary infrastructure, facilities, and support services to enable air force operations in these remote or temporary locations. This includes things like runway construction, fuel storage, maintenance facilities, and living quarters for personnel. The ESP allows the air force to quickly establish a presence and carry out their missions in areas where they would not typically have a permanent presence.

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  • 29. 

    (034) Manpower and finance personnel should provide training on

    • A. how to obtain extra money and manpower regardless of support provided.

    • B. deployment commitments and their relation to support agreements.

    • C. reimbursable and nonreimbursable support.

    • D. impasse negotiation tactics.

    Correct Answer
    A. C. reimbursable and nonreimbursable support.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is c. reimbursable and nonreimbursable support. This answer is appropriate because it directly relates to the topic of "Manpower and finance personnel providing training." Understanding the difference between reimbursable and nonreimbursable support is crucial for managing finances and resources effectively. It ensures that personnel are aware of which expenses can be reimbursed and which cannot, allowing them to make informed decisions and allocate resources appropriately.

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  • 30. 

    (005) Who will provide training with the assistance of the finance and manpower offices to the Functional Area Agreement Coordinators (FAAC)?

    • A. War readiness materiel (WRM) manager.

    • B. Support agreement manager.

    • C. Wing commander.

    • D. Unit.

    Correct Answer
    A. B. Support agreement manager.
    Explanation
    The support agreement manager will provide training to the Functional Area Agreement Coordinators (FAAC) with the assistance of the finance and manpower offices. This is because the support agreement manager is responsible for overseeing and managing support agreements, which includes coordinating training and resources for the FAAC. The finance and manpower offices will assist in providing the necessary financial and personnel resources for the training.

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  • 31. 

    (006) In which area do major command (MAJCOM) personnel work with other logistics functional areas to ensure needed logistics resources are identified and programmed in the program objective memorandum (POM)?

    • A. Programs.

    • B. Agreements.

    • C. Deployments.

    • D. War readiness materiel (WRM).

    Correct Answer
    A. A. Programs.
    Explanation
    Major command (MAJCOM) personnel work with other logistics functional areas in the Programs area to ensure needed logistics resources are identified and programmed in the program objective memorandum (POM). This involves collaborating with different functional areas to determine the logistics requirements and allocate resources accordingly. The Programs area is responsible for planning and organizing the logistics support needed for various operations and initiatives.

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  • 32. 

    (015) Which category of war reserve materiel (WRM) is durable and can be used over and over?

    • A. Rations.

    • B. Equipment.

    • C. Consumables.

    • D. Fuels mobility support equipment.

    Correct Answer
    A. B. Equipment.
    Explanation
    Equipment is the correct answer because it is durable and can be used repeatedly. Unlike rations, which are consumed and need to be replenished, or consumables, which are used up and discarded, equipment can be reused multiple times. Fuels mobility support equipment, although necessary for operations, is not necessarily durable and may need to be replaced or replenished regularly. Therefore, the most appropriate category of war reserve materiel that fits the description is equipment.

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  • 33. 

    (027) If an item of war reserve materiel (WRM) is frequently used for indirect mission support, the unit that is frequently using it should

    • A. pay each time the item is used to continue funding WRM.

    • B. source the item from multiple WRM storing units.

    • C. add or increase the item’s peacetime stock levels.

    • D. contract for the item locally.

    Correct Answer
    A. C. add or increase the item’s peacetime stock levels.
    Explanation
    If an item of war reserve materiel (WRM) is frequently used for indirect mission support, the unit that is frequently using it should add or increase the item's peacetime stock levels. This means that the unit should increase the amount of the item that they have in stock during peacetime. By doing so, they ensure that they have an adequate supply of the item available for use during missions, even if it is frequently used for indirect support. This helps to ensure that the unit is prepared and has the necessary resources to support their missions effectively.

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  • 34. 

    (029) What is the best forum for a war reserve materiel (WRM) noncommissioned officer (WRMNCO) to communicate war reserve WRM needs to senior leaders?

    • A. WRM Review Board.

    • B. Joint Use Review Board.

    • C. Memorandum for record.

    • D. Financial Management Working Group.

    Correct Answer
    A. A. WRM Review Board.
    Explanation
    The best forum for a WRMNCO to communicate war reserve WRM needs to senior leaders is the WRM Review Board. This board is specifically designed to review and discuss war reserve materiel needs and make decisions regarding allocation and distribution. It is a platform where senior leaders can gather and discuss the requirements and priorities of war reserve WRM. By communicating through the WRM Review Board, the WRMNCO can ensure that their needs are properly addressed and considered by senior leaders.

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  • 35. 

    (033) If an impasse relating to an entire agreement cannot be resolved at base level, then the

    • A. support agreement manager (SAM) and receiver send the impasse to their major commands (MAJCOMs) for resolution.

    • B. agreement is sent to the base commander to resolve the impasse and approve the agreement.

    • C. SAM sends the impasse information to the base legal office for adjudication.

    • D. receiver should pursue another source of support.

    Correct Answer
    A. A. support agreement manager (SAM) and receiver send the impasse to their major commands (MAJCOMs) for resolution.
    Explanation
    If an impasse relating to an entire agreement cannot be resolved at base level, the support agreement manager (SAM) and receiver will escalate the issue to their major commands (MAJCOMs) for resolution. This means that the decision-making authority is passed on to higher-level commands in order to find a solution to the impasse. This ensures that the issue is not left unresolved and allows for a higher level of authority to make a final decision.

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  • 36. 

    (002) What program is used to visualize and analyze the gross transportation feasibility of an Operation Plan (OPLAN) time-phased force and deployment data (TPFDD)?

    • A. Joint Operations Planning and Execution System (JOPES).

    • B. Logistician’s Contingency Assessment Tools (LOGCAT).

    • C. Joint Flow Analysis System for Transportation (JFAST).

    • D. Logistics Module (LOGMOD).

    Correct Answer
    A. C. Joint Flow Analysis System for Transportation (JFAST).
    Explanation
    The correct answer is c. Joint Flow Analysis System for Transportation (JFAST). JFAST is a program used to visualize and analyze the gross transportation feasibility of an Operation Plan (OPLAN) time-phased force and deployment data (TPFDD). It helps in assessing the transportation requirements and capabilities for a given operation plan.

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  • 37. 

    (003) During which process do Airmen assist in monitoring and reporting limiting factors?

    • A. Deployments.

    • B. Support agreement.

    • C. Adaptive planning process.

    • D. War readiness materiel (WRM) process.

    Correct Answer
    A. C. Adaptive planning process.
    Explanation
    Airmen assist in monitoring and reporting limiting factors during the adaptive planning process. This process involves continuously assessing and adjusting plans based on changing circumstances and potential constraints. By monitoring and reporting limiting factors, Airmen can identify any obstacles or challenges that may impact the effectiveness or feasibility of the plan, allowing for necessary adjustments to be made. This helps ensure that the plan remains adaptable and responsive to the evolving needs and conditions of the mission.

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  • 38. 

    (004) What must craftsman complete to be awarded a 7-skill level?

    • A. Ancillary and Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP) training.

    • B. Ancillary and Advanced Distributed Learning Service (ADLS) training.

    • C. 7-skill level career development course (CDC) and CFETP training.

    • D. 7-skill level CDC and 7-skill level core tasks.

    Correct Answer
    A. D. 7-skill level CDC and 7-skill level core tasks.
    Explanation
    To be awarded a 7-skill level, a craftsman must complete the 7-skill level CDC (career development course) and also complete the 7-skill level core tasks. This means that they must not only go through the necessary training and education, but also demonstrate proficiency in the specific skills required for the 7-skill level.

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  • 39. 

    (005) Which section is a base-level log plans function?

    • A. War readiness materiel management.

    • B. Unit control center management.

    • C. Functional management.

    • D. Programs.

    Correct Answer
    A. A. War readiness materiel management.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is a. War readiness materiel management. This section is considered a base-level log plans function because it is responsible for managing and maintaining the readiness of war materials. This includes coordinating and overseeing the procurement, storage, distribution, and disposal of materiel to ensure that it is readily available for use in combat or other military operations. This function plays a crucial role in supporting the overall readiness and operational effectiveness of military units.

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  • 40. 

    (008) The primary means by which the Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff (CJCS) performs joint strategic planning is the

    • A. Joint Operations Planning and Execution System (JOPES).

    • B. Global Command and Control System (GCCS).

    • C. Joint Strategic Planning System (JSPS).

    • D. Adaptive Planning System (APS).

    Correct Answer
    A. C. Joint Strategic Planning System (JSPS).
    Explanation
    The correct answer is c. Joint Strategic Planning System (JSPS). The JSPS is the primary means by which the Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff (CJCS) performs joint strategic planning. It is a system that allows for the development and coordination of joint strategic plans, providing a framework for the CJCS to evaluate and prioritize military capabilities and resources. The JSPS helps in aligning military objectives with national security goals and facilitates collaboration and coordination among the different branches of the military.

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  • 41. 

    (008) Which is the principal process to review military policy?

    • A. Joint Strategy Review (JSR).

    • B. Joint Planning Document (JPD).

    • C. National Military Strategy (NMS).

    • D. Strategic Planning Guidance (SPG).

    Correct Answer
    A. A. Joint Strategy Review (JSR).
    Explanation
    The principal process to review military policy is the Joint Strategy Review (JSR). This process involves a comprehensive assessment of the military's strategy and objectives, considering factors such as threats, capabilities, and resources. The JSR helps to ensure that military policy aligns with national security goals and provides a framework for decision-making and resource allocation. It involves the participation of multiple stakeholders, including military leaders, policymakers, and experts, to ensure a comprehensive and informed review of military policy.

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  • 42. 

    (008) The basic volume of the Joint Strategic Capabilities Plan (JSCP) details planning guidance, force apportionment guidance,

    • A. assumptions, tasks, and requirements.

    • B. assumptions, constraints, and tasks.

    • C. constraints and assumptions.

    • D. tasks and duties.

    Correct Answer
    A. B. assumptions, constraints, and tasks.
    Explanation
    The basic volume of the Joint Strategic Capabilities Plan (JSCP) provides planning guidance, force apportionment guidance, assumptions, constraints, and tasks. This means that it includes assumptions, which are the underlying beliefs or premises that guide the planning process. It also includes constraints, which are the limitations or restrictions that need to be considered during planning. Additionally, it includes tasks, which are the specific actions or activities that need to be performed in order to achieve the objectives outlined in the plan. Therefore, the correct answer is b. assumptions, constraints, and tasks.

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  • 43. 

    (009) What type of plan is a written description of the combatant commander’s concept of operations to counter a perceived threat?

    • A. Concept.

    • B. Functional.

    • C. Supporting.

    • D. Operational.

    Correct Answer
    A. D. Operational.
    Explanation
    An operational plan is a written description of the combatant commander's concept of operations to counter a perceived threat. It outlines the specific actions and tasks that need to be undertaken to achieve the desired objectives. This plan provides detailed guidance on how the military forces will be employed and the resources that will be required. It is focused on the execution of military operations and is essential for coordinating and synchronizing the efforts of different units and components.

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  • 44. 

    (012) Which phase of crisis action planning (CAP) begins when command authorities decide to use a military response to a situation?

    • A. Course of action development.

    • B. Situation development.

    • C. Crisis assessment.

    • D. Execution.

    Correct Answer
    A. A. Course of action development.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is a. Course of action development. This phase of crisis action planning begins when command authorities decide to use a military response to a situation. During this phase, different courses of action are developed and evaluated to determine the most effective approach to address the crisis. It involves analyzing the situation, considering available resources and capabilities, and developing a plan that outlines specific actions to be taken.

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  • 45. 

    (014) Air Force war reserve materiel (WRM) is essential materiel, the purpose of which is to

    • A. eliminate airlift requirements.

    • B. meet planned defense objectives.

    • C. reduce financial requirements on combatant commanders.

    • D. provide equipment for use during exercises and inspections.

    Correct Answer
    A. B. meet planned defense objectives.
    Explanation
    Air Force war reserve materiel (WRM) is essential materiel that is specifically intended to meet planned defense objectives. This means that the purpose of WRM is to ensure that the Air Force has the necessary equipment and resources in reserve to support its planned defense operations and objectives. This can include items such as spare parts, ammunition, and other critical supplies that may be needed during times of conflict or other military operations. By having these reserves in place, the Air Force can ensure that it is prepared to meet its strategic goals and objectives.

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  • 46. 

    (016) Equipment authorized to support the peacetime operations and deploy with the unit is identified by use code

    • A

    • B

    • C

    • D

    Correct Answer
    A. A
    Explanation
    The correct answer is A. The use code A identifies equipment that is authorized to support peacetime operations and can be deployed with the unit. This means that the equipment is suitable and approved for use in non-combat situations and can be taken along with the unit when it is deployed for missions or exercises. Use code A ensures that the equipment is properly designated and available for use in these situations.

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  • 47. 

    (023) Who is ultimately responsible for making every effort to ensure approved levels of support are requisitioned, stored, and maintained ready for use?

    • A. Major command (MAJCOM).

    • B. Installation commander.

    • C. Group commander.

    • D. Unit commander.

    Correct Answer
    A. B. Installation commander.
    Explanation
    The installation commander is ultimately responsible for making every effort to ensure approved levels of support are requisitioned, stored, and maintained ready for use. This includes overseeing the process of acquiring and storing necessary supplies and equipment, as well as ensuring that they are readily available when needed. The installation commander has the authority and responsibility to ensure that all necessary resources are properly managed and maintained to support the mission and operations of the installation.

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  • 48. 

    (029) When a new war consumable distribution objective (WCDO) or Wartime Aircraft Activity Report (WAAR) is distributed, a war reserve materiel (WRM) review board must be accomplished within

    • 7 days.

    • 14 days

    • 30 days

    • 60 days

    Correct Answer
    A. 60 days
    Explanation
    When a new war consumable distribution objective (WCDO) or Wartime Aircraft Activity Report (WAAR) is distributed, a war reserve materiel (WRM) review board must be accomplished within 60 days. This means that the review board, which is responsible for evaluating and assessing the availability and adequacy of war reserve materiel, must be completed within a period of 60 days. This allows for sufficient time to thoroughly examine the distribution objective or activity report and determine the necessary war reserve materiel requirements.

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  • 49. 

    (032) What is a working capital fund designed to generate?

    • A. Revenues that will greatly exceed costs.

    • B. Sufficient revenues to generate a small profit.

    • C. Revenues in-line with those of civilian businesses.

    • D. Sufficient revenues to recover operating expenses.

    Correct Answer
    A. D. Sufficient revenues to recover operating expenses.
    Explanation
    A working capital fund is designed to generate sufficient revenues to recover operating expenses. This means that the fund should generate enough income to cover the costs associated with running the business or organization. It is not intended to generate significant profits or revenues that exceed costs, but rather to ensure that the operation can sustain itself financially.

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Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Mar 22, 2023 +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 22, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Jan 04, 2018
    Quiz Created by
    Marshall
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