Micro-pathogenic Bacteria I

54 Questions

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Bacteria Quizzes & Trivia

Quiz based on Micobiology Lecture - Pathogenic Bacteria I


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    Which is not one of the 3 parts of Taxonomy
    • A. 

      Classification

    • B. 

      Nomenclature

    • C. 

      Identification

    • D. 

      Disausation

  • 2. 
    Which of these classification terms is the most specific
    • A. 

      Kingdoms/domains

    • B. 

      Phyla

    • C. 

      Classes

    • D. 

      Orders

    • E. 

      Families

    • F. 

      Genera

    • G. 

      Strains

  • 3. 
    Regarding growth properites on agar, beta hemolysis gets a clear area around colonies and alpha hemolysis gets a greenish coloring of agar around the colonies
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 4. 
    Which is not true about Streptococci
    • A. 

      Carry out respirations and most pathogenic species grow in air

    • B. 

      Oxygen tolerant anaerobes

    • C. 

      Main pathogens are the beta hemolytic streptococci

    • D. 

      Have proteins that aid in virulence

    • E. 

      Grow in pairs or chains

  • 5. 
    Which is not true about staphylococci
    • A. 

      Can be hemolytic but most are non hemolytic

    • B. 

      Stapylococci are aerobes

    • C. 

      S. aureus produces coagulase that clots plasma

    • D. 

      Grows is grape like clusters

    • E. 

      None of the above

  • 6. 
    What best describes Neisseria spp.
    • A. 

      Gram negative cocci

    • B. 

      Found in mouth and throat of healthy peopl

    • C. 

      Pathogenic species include gonococcus and meningococcus

    • D. 

      All the above

  • 7. 
    Which statement about gram positive rods is true
    • A. 

      Listeria sp. causes anthrax

    • B. 

      Clostridium spp. produce endotoxins causing gas gangrene, tetany, diarrhea

    • C. 

      Includes clostridum, listeria, bacillus anthracis and pseudomonas

    • D. 

      Bacillus anthracis affects infants and pregnant women

  • 8. 
    Enterobacteriaceae are divided into lactose fermenters (pink colonies on agar) and non lactose fermenters (clear colonies)
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 9. 
    This gram negative rod causes gastritis, gastric ulcers and gastric cancer
    • A. 

      Vibrio spp. (v.cholera)

    • B. 

      Pseudomonas

    • C. 

      Campylobacter jejuni

    • D. 

      Helicobacter pylori

  • 10. 
    This gram negative rod causes infectious diarrhea
    • A. 

      Vibrio spp.

    • B. 

      Pseudomonas

    • C. 

      Campylobacter jejuni

    • D. 

      Helicobacter pylori

  • 11. 
    This gram negative rod can be normally found in the throat of healthy individuals and can cause pneumonia and meningitis
    • A. 

      Helicobacter pylori

    • B. 

      Legionella

    • C. 

      Haemophilus spp.

    • D. 

      Vibrio spp.

  • 12. 
    This gram negative rod causes whooping cough
    • A. 

      Haemophilus spp

    • B. 

      Bordatella spp.

    • C. 

      Brucella

    • D. 

      Legionellla

  • 13. 
    This gram negative rod causes cat scratch fever
    • A. 

      Brucella

    • B. 

      Haemophilus spp

    • C. 

      Bordatella spp:

    • D. 

      Bartonella

  • 14. 
    Regarding acid fast bacteria, which is not true?
    • A. 

      Includes mycobacterium, actinomycetes

    • B. 

      Includes treponema pallidum, borrelia spp. and leptospira

    • C. 

      Cause granulomas in lungs and tissue infections

    • D. 

      Can cause pneumonia

  • 15. 
    Regarding spirochetes, which statement is false
    • A. 

      Are spherical shaped bacteria

    • B. 

      Treponema pallidum causes syphilis

    • C. 

      Borrelia spp. cause lyme disease and B. recurrentis causes relapsing fever

    • D. 

      Leptospira causes hemorragic fever

  • 16. 
    Small intracellular bacteria, no growth on artificial media, causes STD or Pneumonia in young adults
    • A. 

      C. trachomatis, C. pneumonia

    • B. 

      Treponema paliddum

    • C. 

      Mycoplasma and leptospira

    • D. 

      Mycobacterium and borrelia

  • 17. 
    Small intracellular, rod shaped bacteria also obligate parasites, causes Rocky mountain Spotted Fever
    • A. 

      Mycoplasma

    • B. 

      Rickettsiae

    • C. 

      C. trachomatis

    • D. 

      Treponema pallidum

  • 18. 
    Mycoplasma requires sterols for growth and lacks rigid cell wall ( no murein)
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 19. 
    Which is not true about staphylococci
    • A. 

      Survives in inanimate objects and can cause disease almost anywhere on the body

    • B. 

      Strains that cause toxic shock syndrome are pyogenic

    • C. 

      Found in pimples, boils, good poisoning, endocarditis, osteomyelitis bacteremia

    • D. 

      Virulence factors include enterotoxins, teichoic acids, coagulase, leukocidins and protein a

    • E. 

      Can grow in high salt and lipid concentrations because it makes enzymes that break down skin lipids

  • 20. 
    MSCRAMMS allow bacteria to colonize skin and mucosal surfaces
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 21. 
    The damage caused by staphylococci is due to host immune response and pathogen actions which best describes staphylococci's ability to cause damage
    • A. 

      Forms abscesses due to collection of pus in skin or cellulitis in submucosal tissue

    • B. 

      Bacteria kill neutrophils and the neutrophils release lysosymal enzymes that damage tissue

    • C. 

      Pore forming toxins, hyaluronidase, beta lactamase and PBP2a

    • D. 

      All of the above

  • 22. 
    Virulence factor responsible for the break down of the matrix of connective tissue and allows staphylococcus to cause bone and joint infections
    • A. 

      Capsule

    • B. 

      PBP2a

    • C. 

      Hyaluronidase

    • D. 

      B-Lactamases

    • E. 

      Pore forming toxins

  • 23. 
    Virulence factor that causes damage to cells and interferes with homeostasis
    • A. 

      Catalase

    • B. 

      PBP2a

    • C. 

      Hyaluronidase

    • D. 

      Pore forming toxins

  • 24. 
    This virulence factor is present in staph but not in strep and converts hydrogen peroxide to water
    • A. 

      Coagulase

    • B. 

      Hyaluronidase

    • C. 

      PBP2a

    • D. 

      Catalase

  • 25. 
    Virulence factor that converts fibrinogen to fibrin and blocks phagocytosis
    • A. 

      Capsule

    • B. 

      Catalase

    • C. 

      Coagulase

    • D. 

      Hyaluronidase

  • 26. 
    Which of the following is coagulase positive
    • A. 

      S. saprophyticus

    • B. 

      S. aureus

    • C. 

      S. lugdenensis

    • D. 

      S. epidermidis

  • 27. 
    This coagulase negative staphylococci causes urinary tract infections and cystitis
    • A. 

      S. aureus

    • B. 

      S. saprophyticus

    • C. 

      S. lugdenensis

    • D. 

      S. epidermidis

  • 28. 
    A patient is admitted to the hospital  to receive an IV catheter, which of the following coagulase negative staph bacteria may complicate the procedure?
    • A. 

      S. saprophyticus

    • B. 

      S epidermidis

    • C. 

      S. lugdenensis

    • D. 

      S. aureus

  • 29. 
    Staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome (SSSS) causes sloughing of the skin in neonates is characterized by exfoliative exotoxins that cause separation of the layers of the skin
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 30. 
    Toxic shock syndrome can occur in an anaerobic environmentnd features 3 toxins that prevent formation of inflammation
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 31. 
    Food poisoning is linked to
    • A. 

      Serotypes A-E

    • B. 

      GAS

    • C. 

      S. aureus

    • D. 

      MRSA

  • 32. 
    Staph infected patients that are also colonized by VRE should be treated with clindamycin or bactrim
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 33. 
    Gram + Cocci in pairs or chains that are normally found on the skin and nasopharynx would most likely be
    • A. 

      Streptococci

    • B. 

      Enterococci

    • C. 

      Legionella

    • D. 

      Salmonella

  • 34. 
    Hemolytic pattern refers to the pattern strep cultures form on blood agar plates. Which hemolytic pattern results in a complete clearing?
    • A. 

      Alpha hemolysis

    • B. 

      Beta hemolysis

    • C. 

      Gamma hemolysis

  • 35. 
    Viridans streptococci include
    • A. 

      Alpha and gamma hemolytic strep

    • B. 

      Beta and gamma hemolytic streo

    • C. 

      Alpha and beta hemolytic strep

    • D. 

      None of the above

  • 36. 
    Group A Strep  is linked to all of the following except
    • A. 

      Stays localized to site of infection

    • B. 

      Immune related disease

    • C. 

      High morbidity and mortality in developing countries

    • D. 

      Extracellular proteins that cause extensive tissue damage

  • 37. 
    Strep can have asymptomatic carriers and transmission is facilitated when it colonizes the nose
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 38. 
    Acute pharyngitis, acute glomerulonephritis, and acute rheumatic fever are closely linked to
    • A. 

      S. aureus

    • B. 

      Group A Strep

    • C. 

      None of the above

  • 39. 
    Group A Strep cannot penetrate intact skin
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 40. 
    If strep is able to penetrate the deeper layers of skin it is most likely to cause
    • A. 

      Erypiselas and cellulitis

    • B. 

      Impetigo

    • C. 

      Peritonsillar abscess

    • D. 

      None of the above

  • 41. 
    Which of the following helps strep to spread
    • A. 

      Proteases

    • B. 

      Hyaluronidases

    • C. 

      Streptokinases

    • D. 

      All of the above

  • 42. 
    Which of the following determines strep's hemolytic pattern on blood agar
    • A. 

      Streptolysin o

    • B. 

      Streptolysin s

    • C. 

      Serotype a-e

    • D. 

      A and B

  • 43. 
    Strep's enzymes help it to spread by breaking down large protein molecules that may hinder its spread
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 44. 
    M protein and an Hyaluronic acid capsule help strep to be resistant to phagocytosis
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 45. 
    Strep bacteria must secrete hyaluronidase to digest their capsule prior to binding to epithelium
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 46. 
    M protein is responsible for all of the following except
    • A. 

      Mucoid appearance of strep on blood agar

    • B. 

      Immune related disease resulting from mimicking human proteins

    • C. 

      Adhere to keratinocytes

    • D. 

      Prevents opsonization by complement

  • 47. 
    Scarlet fever related to strep is because of
    • A. 

      Pyrogenic exotoxins A,B,C

    • B. 

      Hyaluronidase

    • C. 

      M- protein

  • 48. 
    Streptococcal pyrogenic exotoxins SPE-A, SPE-C stimulate the release of cytokines that can lead to sepsis, shock and multi organ failure  and SPE-A is responsible for Toxic shock syndrome
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 49. 
    Acute rheumatic fever and acute post streptococcal glomerulonephritis both
    • A. 

      Appear as sequelae to strep infection 1-4 weeks after infection

    • B. 

      Can be treated with antibiotics

    • C. 

      Cause carditis, poly arthritis, chorea, nodules and erythema marginatum

    • D. 

      None of the above

  • 50. 
    Which best describes group b streptococci
    • A. 

      Also called s. mutans and s. milleri

    • B. 

      Normally found in gi tract and female genital tracts

    • C. 

      Result in immune related disease

    • D. 

      High morbidity and mortality in developing countries

  • 51. 
    Group B strep causes neonatal sepsis and meningitis, because of this pregnant mothers must be screened at 35-37 weeks into their pregnancy
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 52. 
    A patient presents with endocarditis, which of the following bacteria can be ruled out as a possible cause
    • A. 

      S. mutans and s. sanguis

    • B. 

      Nutritionally variant streptococci

    • C. 

      Group b strep

    • D. 

      Enterococci

    • E. 

      All of the above

  • 53. 
    Enterococci are unique from other streptococci because of their ability to resist bile and high salt concentrations in the intestines and are normal flora of the GI and GU tracts
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 54. 
    Enterococci are problematic because they
    • A. 

      Can be resistant to all classes of antibiotics

    • B. 

      Can cause bacteremia, UTI and endocarditis

    • C. 

      All of the above

    • D. 

      None of the above