Test Your Knowledge About Pathogenic Bacteria! Trivia Quiz

32 Questions | Total Attempts: 30

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Test Your Knowledge About Pathogenic Bacteria! Trivia Quiz

Test Your Knowledge about Pathogenic Bacteria by taking this trivia quiz. Bacteria exist in two forms and these are the beneficial kind and the pathogenic one which causes diseases to mammals. In this quiz, we focus on the second part. See if you can pass the test and identify dome pathogenic bacteria and the dangers they pose when introduced to the system.


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    Which of the following describes mycobacterium infection
    • A. 

      Can be asymptomatic carrier

    • B. 

      Only affects lungs

    • C. 

      Increases with AIDS

    • D. 

      A & C

    • E. 

      All of the above

  • 2. 
    M. tuberculosis has a waxy envelope that is mainly composed of which of the following compounds?
    • A. 

      Murein

    • B. 

      Mycolic acid

    • C. 

      Tetanospasmin

    • D. 

      Fibrin

  • 3. 
    Mycobacterium are resistant to killing by phagocytosis
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 4. 
    The damage phase of M. tuberculosis infection is mainly a result of which of the following?
    • A. 

      Mycolic acid

    • B. 

      Droplet nuclei

    • C. 

      Host response

    • D. 

      Neurotoxins A, B, E

  • 5. 
    Which of the following is true about mycobacterium infection?
    • A. 

      Mycolic acid cause lysis of epithelial cell membranes

    • B. 

      Infection is limited to the lungs and alveoli

    • C. 

      Contact time is a nonfactor in chances of infection

    • D. 

      Mycobacerium multiply inside and outside of the cell

  • 6. 
    The Ghon complex develops during which stage of tuberculosis?
    • A. 

      Catarrhal

    • B. 

      Primary

    • C. 

      Paroxysmal

    • D. 

      Endogenous reactivation

  • 7. 
    Mycobacterium leave the site of initial infection through which of the following methods?
    • A. 

      Transform into motile form after macrophage nutrients are depleted

    • B. 

      Carried to lymph nodes by lymphocytes

    • C. 

      Travel via retrograde axonal transport

    • D. 

      None of the above

  • 8. 
    Delayed hypersensitivity is related to which of the following intracellular pathogens?
    • A. 

      Legionella

    • B. 

      Mycobacerium

    • C. 

      Treponema

    • D. 

      Rickettsia

  • 9. 
    A patient presents with a Mycobacterium infection. After reviewing her chart you see that this is her second time with this infection. Which of the following is the most likely source?
    • A. 

      Brief contact with someone who is infected

    • B. 

      From exogenous origin

    • C. 

      Extended contact with someone who is infected

    • D. 

      From endogenous origin

  • 10. 
    Caseous necrosis and reactivation of latent mycobacteria in the apex of the lung occur in which of the following stages of infection?
    • A. 

      Latent stage

    • B. 

      Catarrhal stage

    • C. 

      Paroxysmal stage

    • D. 

      Secondary TB

  • 11. 
    A patient presents with chronic back pain (Pott's disease), meningitis, weight loss, and swollen lymph nodes, the appropriate action to take would be?
    • A. 

      PPD and Chest X-ray for TB Dx

    • B. 

      Infection is self limiting, so drug therapy unecessary

    • C. 

      Screen for AIDS / HIV

    • D. 

      A & C

    • E. 

      All of the above

  • 12. 
    After reviewing a patient's HPI, you see they are taking INH, rifampin, PZA, and ethambutol. Which of the following infections do they most likely have?
    • A. 

      Treponema pallidum

    • B. 

      Rickettsia

    • C. 

      Bordatella

    • D. 

      Mycobacterium

  • 13. 
    Which of the following make treponema pallidum difficult to diagnose
    • A. 

      Can only be seen with standard microscope

    • B. 

      Needs special media for growth

    • C. 

      Organism inoculum doesn't increase until late stages of infection

    • D. 

      All of the above

  • 14. 
    After dark field microscopy, a lab tech reports an organism with periplasmic flagella and corkscrew-like movement. Which of the following is the most likely specimen?
    • A. 

      Legionella

    • B. 

      Clostridium

    • C. 

      Mycobacterium

    • D. 

      Treponema

  • 15. 
    Treponema pallidum infections are notable for their production of chancres which are the result of which of the following events?
    • A. 

      Replication in the vascular endothelium

    • B. 

      Lymphohematogenous dissemination

    • C. 

      Disease advancing to tertiary syphilis

    • D. 

      Replication in subepithelial tissue

  • 16. 
    Which of the following is true about chancres?
    • A. 

      Size of inoculum plays minimal role in chancre appearance

    • B. 

      Healed chancres signify dissemination of bacteria

    • C. 

      Are painful lesions cause by replication of spirochete and host response

    • D. 

      Humoral immunity plays vital role in control of chancres

  • 17. 
    Which of the following may be expected in 50% of syphilis patients about a month after their chancres heal?
    • A. 

      Fever, headache, rash, cutaneous and oral lesions

    • B. 

      Scaly papular eruptions

    • C. 

      Treponemes in liver, lymph, joints and distant sites

    • D. 

      A & C

    • E. 

      All of the above

  • 18. 
    2/3 of people with syphilis may be asymptomatic.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 19. 
    Tertiary syphilis features which of the following?
    • A. 

      Tissue destruction

    • B. 

      Lesions with few to no treponemes

    • C. 

      Tabes dorsalis - ataxic gate

    • D. 

      A & C

    • E. 

      All of the above

  • 20. 
    A patient with paralysis, loss of cognitive ability and personality changes would most likely fit which of the following descriptions?
    • A. 

      Experiencing secondary syphillis

    • B. 

      Positive for Argyll robertson pupil

    • C. 

      Normal gait

    • D. 

      Gummas with many treponemes and few inflammatory cells

  • 21. 
    The final stage of syphilis features the destruction of bone and soft tissue. This stage is referred to as which of the following?
    • A. 

      Congenital

    • B. 

      Latent

    • C. 

      Tertiary

    • D. 

      Benign

  • 22. 
    A child with congenital syphilis would most likely be born with which of the following conditions
    • A. 

      Hutchinson's teeth

    • B. 

      Delayed delivery

    • C. 

      Organ failure

    • D. 

      Normal hearing and joint movement

  • 23. 
    VDRL, RPR, and FTA are tested for which of the following bacterial infections?
    • A. 

      Mycobacterium

    • B. 

      Rickettsia

    • C. 

      Chlamydia

    • D. 

      Treponema

  • 24. 
    A patient presents with paralysis, loss of cognitive ability and personality changes. Lab tests reveal a treponema pallidum infection. Which of the following would be the best treatment?
    • A. 

      Repeated penicillin injections

    • B. 

      IV penicillin for 10 days

    • C. 

      Penicillin injection

    • D. 

      Antibiotic synergy combo

  • 25. 
    Which of the following is not a spirochete?
    • A. 

      Treponema

    • B. 

      Mycobacterium

    • C. 

      Borrelia

  • 26. 
    Which of the following bacteria may have a similar clinical manifestation to infection with treponema pallidum?
    • A. 

      AIDs

    • B. 

      Mycobacterium

    • C. 

      Borrelia

    • D. 

      Chlamydia

  • 27. 
    To start off summer vacation you take a trip to the great lakes. A week later you discover a deer tick which is a vector for  borellia. Which of the following is true?
    • A. 

      If the tick has OspA it cannot infect you

    • B. 

      By removing the tick you have prevented infection

    • C. 

      You may have lyme disease

    • D. 

      Infectious deer ticks are only found in the northeast and mid-Atlantic

  • 28. 
    Bull's eye rash is found in which stage of Borrelia burgdorferi infection.
    • A. 

      1 st stage

    • B. 

      Latent stage

    • C. 

      Endogenous reactivation

    • D. 

      Paroxysmal stage

  • 29. 
    Pt's labs show the spread of spirochetes to the CNs, musculoskeletal system and heart via the bloodstream. which stage of borrelia infection are they experiencing?
    • A. 

      1st stage

    • B. 

      Chronic stage

    • C. 

      2nd stage

    • D. 

      Paroxysmal stage

  • 30. 
    Which of the following occurs during Stage 2 (early disseminated infection) of borrelia?
    • A. 

      Chronic lyme arthritis

    • B. 

      Lyme borreliosis

    • C. 

      Lyme encephalopathy

    • D. 

      Vasculitis with vascular damage

  • 31. 
    Pt presents with Lyme encephalopathy and borreliosis, which of the following would be the best treatment?
    • A. 

      IV cephalosporins

    • B. 

      Amoxicillin

    • C. 

      IV penicillin for ten days

    • D. 

      Doxycycline

  • 32. 
    Dx of borrelia can be made with which of the following methods?
    • A. 

      Culture on routine media

    • B. 

      Clinical presentation

    • C. 

      DNA based tests

    • D. 

      B & C

    • E. 

      All of the above