Test Your Knowledge About Pathogenic Bacteria! Trivia Quiz

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Test Your Knowledge About Pathogenic Bacteria! Trivia Quiz - Quiz

Test Your Knowledge about Pathogenic Bacteria by taking this trivia quiz. Bacteria exist in two forms and these are the beneficial kind and the pathogenic one which causes diseases to mammals. In this quiz, we focus on the second part. See if you can pass the test and identify dome pathogenic bacteria and the dangers they pose when introduced to the system.


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    Which of the following describes mycobacterium infection

    • A.

      Can be asymptomatic carrier

    • B.

      Only affects lungs

    • C.

      Increases with AIDS

    • D.

      A & C

    • E.

      All of the above

    Correct Answer
    D. A & C
    Explanation
    Mycobacterium infection can be asymptomatic carrier, meaning that a person can be infected with the bacteria but not show any symptoms. The infection can also increase with AIDS, as the weakened immune system in individuals with AIDS makes them more susceptible to mycobacterium infections. Therefore, the correct answer is A & C, as both options are true statements about mycobacterium infection.

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  • 2. 

    M. tuberculosis has a waxy envelope that is mainly composed of which of the following compounds?

    • A.

      Murein

    • B.

      Mycolic acid

    • C.

      Tetanospasmin

    • D.

      Fibrin

    Correct Answer
    B. Mycolic acid
    Explanation
    M. tuberculosis, the bacterium that causes tuberculosis, has a waxy envelope that is mainly composed of mycolic acid. This waxy layer helps to protect the bacterium from the host's immune system and also makes it resistant to certain drugs. Mycolic acid is a unique component of the cell wall of M. tuberculosis and is essential for its survival and pathogenicity.

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  • 3. 

    Mycobacterium are resistant to killing by phagocytosis

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Mycobacterium are resistant to killing by phagocytosis because they have evolved mechanisms to evade or survive within immune cells. They are able to prevent fusion of the phagosome with lysosomes, where the bacteria would typically be destroyed. Additionally, Mycobacterium can inhibit the production of reactive oxygen species and other antimicrobial molecules within phagocytes, further enhancing their survival. These adaptations contribute to the ability of Mycobacterium to establish persistent infections and evade the immune system.

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  • 4. 

    The damage phase of M. tuberculosis infection is mainly a result of which of the following?

    • A.

      Mycolic acid

    • B.

      Droplet nuclei

    • C.

      Host response

    • D.

      Neurotoxins A, B, E

    Correct Answer
    C. Host response
    Explanation
    host response causes open lesions and chronic tissue inflammation

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  • 5. 

    Which of the following is true about mycobacterium infection?

    • A.

      Mycolic acid cause lysis of epithelial cell membranes

    • B.

      Infection is limited to the lungs and alveoli

    • C.

      Contact time is a nonfactor in chances of infection

    • D.

      Mycobacerium multiply inside and outside of the cell

    Correct Answer
    D. Mycobacerium multiply inside and outside of the cell
    Explanation
    Mycobacterium infection is characterized by the ability of the bacteria to multiply both inside and outside of the cell. This means that the bacteria can replicate and spread within host cells, as well as in the extracellular environment. This ability to multiply in different locations contributes to the persistence and chronic nature of mycobacterial infections.

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  • 6. 

    The Ghon complex develops during which stage of tuberculosis?

    • A.

      Catarrhal

    • B.

      Primary

    • C.

      Paroxysmal

    • D.

      Endogenous reactivation

    Correct Answer
    B. Primary
    Explanation
    The Ghon complex develops during the primary stage of tuberculosis. This stage occurs when the bacteria first enter the body and infect the lungs. The Ghon complex is a characteristic lesion that forms in the lungs as a result of the body's immune response to the infection. It consists of a small area of inflammation and scarring, often accompanied by lymph node involvement. This complex is a hallmark of primary tuberculosis and can be seen on chest X-rays.

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  • 7. 

    Mycobacterium leave the site of initial infection through which of the following methods?

    • A.

      Transform into motile form after macrophage nutrients are depleted

    • B.

      Carried to lymph nodes by lymphocytes

    • C.

      Travel via retrograde axonal transport

    • D.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    B. Carried to lymph nodes by lymphocytes
    Explanation
    Mycobacterium leave the site of initial infection by being carried to the lymph nodes by lymphocytes. Lymphocytes are a type of white blood cell that plays a crucial role in the immune response. They can recognize and target pathogens, such as Mycobacterium, and transport them to the lymph nodes where they can be further processed and eliminated by the immune system. This method allows the bacteria to spread throughout the body and potentially cause systemic infection.

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  • 8. 

    Delayed hypersensitivity is related to which of the following intracellular pathogens?

    • A.

      Legionella

    • B.

      Mycobacerium

    • C.

      Treponema

    • D.

      Rickettsia

    Correct Answer
    B. Mycobacerium
    Explanation
    Delayed hypersensitivity is a type of immune response that occurs several hours or even days after exposure to an antigen. Mycobacterium is known to cause delayed hypersensitivity reactions, particularly in the form of tuberculin skin tests. This bacterium is the causative agent of diseases such as tuberculosis and leprosy, which are characterized by a delayed immune response. Therefore, Mycobacterium is the most appropriate choice among the given options for being related to delayed hypersensitivity.

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  • 9. 

    A patient presents with a Mycobacterium infection. After reviewing her chart you see that this is her second time with this infection. Which of the following is the most likely source?

    • A.

      Brief contact with someone who is infected

    • B.

      From exogenous origin

    • C.

      Extended contact with someone who is infected

    • D.

      From endogenous origin

    Correct Answer
    D. From endogenous origin
    Explanation
    From reactivation of latent mycobacteria in the apex of the lung

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  • 10. 

    Caseous necrosis and reactivation of latent mycobacteria in the apex of the lung occur in which of the following stages of infection?

    • A.

      Latent stage

    • B.

      Catarrhal stage

    • C.

      Paroxysmal stage

    • D.

      Secondary TB

    Correct Answer
    D. Secondary TB
    Explanation
    Secondary TB refers to the reactivation of latent tuberculosis infection, which occurs when the immune system is compromised or weakened. During this stage, caseous necrosis, which is the formation of a cheese-like material in the lung tissue, can occur. Additionally, the reactivation of latent mycobacteria in the apex of the lung is also characteristic of secondary TB. Therefore, the correct answer is Secondary TB.

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  • 11. 

    A patient presents with chronic back pain (Pott's disease), meningitis, weight loss, and swollen lymph nodes, the appropriate action to take would be?

    • A.

      PPD and Chest X-ray for TB Dx

    • B.

      Infection is self limiting, so drug therapy unecessary

    • C.

      Screen for AIDS / HIV

    • D.

      A & C

    • E.

      All of the above

    Correct Answer
    D. A & C
    Explanation
    M. Kanasi and MAC also show similar symptoms

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  • 12. 

    After reviewing a patient's HPI, you see they are taking INH, rifampin, PZA, and ethambutol. Which of the following infections do they most likely have?

    • A.

      Treponema pallidum

    • B.

      Rickettsia

    • C.

      Bordatella

    • D.

      Mycobacterium

    Correct Answer
    D. Mycobacterium
    Explanation
    Based on the medications the patient is taking (INH, rifampin, PZA, and ethambutol), it can be inferred that they most likely have an infection caused by Mycobacterium. These medications are commonly used in the treatment of tuberculosis, which is caused by Mycobacterium tuberculosis.

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  • 13. 

    Which of the following make treponema pallidum difficult to diagnose

    • A.

      Can only be seen with standard microscope

    • B.

      Needs special media for growth

    • C.

      Organism inoculum doesn't increase until late stages of infection

    • D.

      All of the above

    Correct Answer
    B. Needs special media for growth
    Explanation
    Treponema pallidum is difficult to diagnose because it requires special media for growth. This means that it cannot be easily cultured in standard laboratory conditions, making it challenging to isolate and identify the bacteria. The other options mentioned, such as being visible only with a standard microscope and the organism inoculum not increasing until late stages of infection, may contribute to the difficulty in diagnosing the infection, but the primary reason is the need for special media.

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  • 14. 

    After dark field microscopy, a lab tech reports an organism with periplasmic flagella and corkscrew-like movement. Which of the following is the most likely specimen?

    • A.

      Legionella

    • B.

      Clostridium

    • C.

      Mycobacterium

    • D.

      Treponema

    Correct Answer
    D. Treponema
    Explanation
    Treponema is the most likely specimen because it is known to have periplasmic flagella and exhibits corkscrew-like movement. Legionella is a bacteria that causes Legionnaires' disease and does not have periplasmic flagella. Clostridium is a genus of bacteria that includes species like Clostridium botulinum and Clostridium difficile, which do not have periplasmic flagella. Mycobacterium is a genus of bacteria that includes species like Mycobacterium tuberculosis, which also do not have periplasmic flagella. Therefore, Treponema is the most likely choice based on the given characteristics.

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  • 15. 

    Treponema pallidum infections are notable for their production of chancres which are the result of which of the following events?

    • A.

      Replication in the vascular endothelium

    • B.

      Lymphohematogenous dissemination

    • C.

      Disease advancing to tertiary syphilis

    • D.

      Replication in subepithelial tissue

    Correct Answer
    D. Replication in subepithelial tissue
    Explanation
    Treponema pallidum infections are known for their ability to produce chancres, which are characteristic skin lesions. These chancres are the result of the bacteria's replication in the subepithelial tissue, which is the layer of tissue located just beneath the surface epithelium. This replication leads to the formation of the chancres, which are typically painless and can occur at the site of initial infection.

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  • 16. 

    Which of the following is true about chancres?

    • A.

      Size of inoculum plays minimal role in chancre appearance

    • B.

      Healed chancres signify dissemination of bacteria

    • C.

      Are painful lesions cause by replication of spirochete and host response

    • D.

      Humoral immunity plays vital role in control of chancres

    Correct Answer
    B. Healed chancres signify dissemination of bacteria
    Explanation
    they are painless

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  • 17. 

    Which of the following may be expected in 50% of syphilis patients about a month after their chancres heal?

    • A.

      Fever, headache, rash, cutaneous and oral lesions

    • B.

      Scaly papular eruptions

    • C.

      Treponemes in liver, lymph, joints and distant sites

    • D.

      A & C

    • E.

      All of the above

    Correct Answer
    E. All of the above
    Explanation
    All of the above may be expected in 50% of syphilis patients about a month after their chancres heal. This is because syphilis is a systemic infection caused by the bacterium Treponema pallidum, which can spread throughout the body. Symptoms such as fever, headache, rash, cutaneous and oral lesions, as well as scaly papular eruptions, can occur during the secondary stage of syphilis. Additionally, treponemes can be found in various tissues and organs, including the liver, lymph nodes, joints, and distant sites. Therefore, all of these symptoms and findings can be expected in syphilis patients after the healing of chancres.

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  • 18. 

    2/3 of people with syphilis may be asymptomatic.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Approximately 2/3 of people with syphilis may not show any symptoms, which means they are asymptomatic. This is a significant proportion of individuals who are infected with syphilis but do not display any noticeable signs or symptoms of the disease. It is important to note that even though a person may not have any symptoms, they can still transmit the infection to others. Therefore, it is crucial to undergo regular testing for syphilis and practice safe sexual behaviors to prevent the spread of the disease.

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  • 19. 

    Tertiary syphilis features which of the following?

    • A.

      Tissue destruction

    • B.

      Lesions with few to no treponemes

    • C.

      Tabes dorsalis - ataxic gate

    • D.

      A & C

    • E.

      All of the above

    Correct Answer
    E. All of the above
    Explanation
    Tertiary syphilis is characterized by tissue destruction, lesions with few to no treponemes, and tabes dorsalis, which causes an ataxic gait. All of these features are present in tertiary syphilis.

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  • 20. 

    A patient with paralysis, loss of cognitive ability and personality changes would most likely fit which of the following descriptions?

    • A.

      Experiencing secondary syphillis

    • B.

      Positive for Argyll robertson pupil

    • C.

      Normal gait

    • D.

      Gummas with many treponemes and few inflammatory cells

    Correct Answer
    B. Positive for Argyll robertson pupil
    Explanation
    A patient who is positive for Argyll Robertson pupil would most likely fit the description of experiencing secondary syphilis. This is because Argyll Robertson pupil is a characteristic finding in neurosyphilis, which is a late stage of syphilis that can cause paralysis, loss of cognitive ability, and personality changes. The presence of gummas with many treponemes and few inflammatory cells is not specific to any particular condition and does not provide information about the patient's pupil findings. The normal gait mentioned in the question is also not relevant to the description of the patient.

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  • 21. 

    The final stage of syphilis features the destruction of bone and soft tissue. This stage is referred to as which of the following?

    • A.

      Congenital

    • B.

      Latent

    • C.

      Tertiary

    • D.

      Benign

    Correct Answer
    D. Benign
  • 22. 

    A child with congenital syphilis would most likely be born with which of the following conditions

    • A.

      Hutchinson's teeth

    • B.

      Delayed delivery

    • C.

      Organ failure

    • D.

      Normal hearing and joint movement

    Correct Answer
    C. Organ failure
    Explanation
    A child with congenital syphilis is most likely to be born with organ failure. Congenital syphilis is a condition where a pregnant woman with syphilis passes the infection to her baby. This can result in severe complications, including damage to multiple organs such as the liver, heart, brain, and lungs. These organs may fail to function properly, leading to various health issues in the child. Therefore, organ failure is a common manifestation of congenital syphilis.

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  • 23. 

    VDRL, RPR, and FTA are tested for which of the following bacterial infections?

    • A.

      Mycobacterium

    • B.

      Rickettsia

    • C.

      Chlamydia

    • D.

      Treponema

    Correct Answer
    D. Treponema
    Explanation
    VDRL, RPR, and FTA are serological tests used to diagnose and screen for syphilis, which is caused by the bacterium Treponema pallidum. These tests detect antibodies produced by the body in response to the infection. Therefore, the correct answer is Treponema.

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  • 24. 

    A patient presents with paralysis, loss of cognitive ability and personality changes. Lab tests reveal a treponema pallidum infection. Which of the following would be the best treatment?

    • A.

      Repeated penicillin injections

    • B.

      IV penicillin for 10 days

    • C.

      Penicillin injection

    • D.

      Antibiotic synergy combo

    Correct Answer
    B. IV penicillin for 10 days
    Explanation
    pt has neurosyphilis, need IV penicillin for 10 days

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  • 25. 

    Which of the following is not a spirochete?

    • A.

      Treponema

    • B.

      Mycobacterium

    • C.

      Borrelia

    Correct Answer
    B. Mycobacterium
    Explanation
    Mycobacterium is not a spirochete. Spirochetes are a group of bacteria characterized by their spiral shape and flexible bodies. Treponema and Borrelia are both examples of spirochetes, while Mycobacterium belongs to a different bacterial group called Actinobacteria. Mycobacterium species are rod-shaped bacteria that do not have the characteristic spiral shape of spirochetes.

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  • 26. 

    Which of the following bacteria may have a similar clinical manifestation to infection with treponema pallidum?

    • A.

      AIDs

    • B.

      Mycobacterium

    • C.

      Borrelia

    • D.

      Chlamydia

    Correct Answer
    C. Borrelia
    Explanation
    Borrelia may have a similar clinical manifestation to infection with treponema pallidum because both bacteria can cause a sexually transmitted infection known as syphilis. Syphilis is characterized by the appearance of a painless sore or ulcer at the site of infection, which can progress to a rash, fever, and other systemic symptoms if left untreated. Both Treponema pallidum and certain species of Borrelia are spirochetes, which are spiral-shaped bacteria that can cause similar clinical presentations. Therefore, Borrelia is a possible bacteria that may have a similar clinical manifestation to infection with Treponema pallidum.

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  • 27. 

    To start off summer vacation you take a trip to the great lakes. A week later you discover a deer tick which is a vector for  borellia. Which of the following is true?

    • A.

      If the tick has OspA it cannot infect you

    • B.

      By removing the tick you have prevented infection

    • C.

      You may have lyme disease

    • D.

      Infectious deer ticks are only found in the northeast and mid-Atlantic

    Correct Answer
    C. You may have lyme disease
    Explanation
    Need to remove within first 2 days

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  • 28. 

    Bull's eye rash is found in which stage of Borrelia burgdorferi infection.

    • A.

      1 st stage

    • B.

      Latent stage

    • C.

      Endogenous reactivation

    • D.

      Paroxysmal stage

    Correct Answer
    A. 1 st stage
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 1st stage. During the first stage of Borrelia burgdorferi infection, a characteristic rash known as the bull's eye rash or erythema migrans can be observed. This rash typically appears at the site of the tick bite and is characterized by a red outer ring surrounding a clear area, giving it the appearance of a bull's eye. It is an early sign of Lyme disease and usually develops within 3-30 days after the tick bite. If left untreated, the infection can progress to later stages and affect other organs in the body.

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  • 29. 

    Pt's labs show the spread of spirochetes to the CNs, musculoskeletal system and heart via the bloodstream. which stage of borrelia infection are they experiencing?

    • A.

      1st stage

    • B.

      Chronic stage

    • C.

      2nd stage

    • D.

      Paroxysmal stage

    Correct Answer
    C. 2nd stage
    Explanation
    The given information states that the spirochetes have spread to the central nervous system (CNs), musculoskeletal system, and heart via the bloodstream. This indicates a systemic dissemination of the infection, suggesting that the patient is in the 2nd stage of borrelia infection. In the 2nd stage, the bacteria have spread beyond the site of the initial infection and can affect various organs and systems in the body.

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  • 30. 

    Which of the following occurs during Stage 2 (early disseminated infection) of borrelia?

    • A.

      Chronic lyme arthritis

    • B.

      Lyme borreliosis

    • C.

      Lyme encephalopathy

    • D.

      Vasculitis with vascular damage

    Correct Answer
    D. Vasculitis with vascular damage
    Explanation
    other Sx are from chronic stage (3)

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  • 31. 

    Pt presents with Lyme encephalopathy and borreliosis, which of the following would be the best treatment?

    • A.

      IV cephalosporins

    • B.

      Amoxicillin

    • C.

      IV penicillin for ten days

    • D.

      Doxycycline

    Correct Answer
    A. IV cephalosporins
    Explanation
    The best treatment for Lyme encephalopathy and borreliosis is IV cephalosporins. Lyme encephalopathy refers to the neurological symptoms that can occur as a result of Lyme disease, which is caused by the bacteria Borrelia burgdorferi. IV cephalosporins are effective in treating Lyme disease and are the preferred choice for severe cases or when the infection has spread to the central nervous system. Amoxicillin and IV penicillin are also used in the treatment of Lyme disease, but IV cephalosporins are considered more effective. Doxycycline is another option for treating Lyme disease, but it is usually used for milder cases or when the patient cannot tolerate cephalosporins.

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  • 32. 

    Dx of borrelia can be made with which of the following methods?

    • A.

      Culture on routine media

    • B.

      Clinical presentation

    • C.

      DNA based tests

    • D.

      B & C

    • E.

      All of the above

    Correct Answer
    D. B & C
    Explanation
    The correct answer is B & C. Borrelia can be diagnosed using clinical presentation, as the symptoms and signs of the infection can be indicative of the disease. Additionally, DNA-based tests can be used to detect the presence of Borrelia DNA in the patient's blood or tissue samples. Culture on routine media may not be as effective for diagnosing Borrelia, as it is a slow-growing organism and may not grow well in routine culture conditions. Therefore, a combination of clinical presentation and DNA-based tests is the most reliable method for diagnosing Borrelia infection.

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    Quiz Edited by
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