What Is Microbiology Quiz?

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1. If base 4 is thymine, what is base 4'?

Explanation

Base 4 is thymine, which means that in the context of this question, base 4 refers to the fourth nucleotide in a DNA sequence. Since adenine is one of the four nucleotides in DNA, it can be concluded that adenine is base 4'.

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About This Quiz
What Is Microbiology Quiz? - Quiz

Take this quiz and learn more about microscopic organisms, such as bacteria, viruses, archaea, fungi and protozoa. Let's begin this science quiz!

2. Salts and sugars work to preserve foods by creating a

Explanation

Salts and sugars work to preserve foods by creating a hypertonic environment. This means that the concentration of solutes (salts and sugars) outside the food is higher than inside the food. As a result, water is drawn out of the food through osmosis, which inhibits the growth of bacteria and other microorganisms. This process helps to prevent spoilage and preserve the food for a longer period of time.

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3. Based on the information in Table 8.3, prostate cancer is probably the result of which kind of mutation? 

Explanation

This is utter nonsense.

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4. Most bacteria reproduce by

Explanation

Binary fission is the correct answer because most bacteria reproduce through this process. In binary fission, a bacterial cell divides into two identical daughter cells. The cell replicates its DNA and then divides into two separate cells, each containing a copy of the DNA. This process allows bacteria to rapidly increase their population and is the primary method of reproduction for single-celled organisms like bacteria.

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5. How many pieces will EcoRI produce from the plasmid shown in Figure 9.1?

Explanation

Based on the information provided, the plasmid shown in Figure 9.1 will produce 2 pieces when EcoRI is used.

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6. The terms "run" and "tumble" are generally associated with

Explanation

The terms "run" and "tumble" are generally associated with taxic movements of the cell. Taxic movements refer to the directed movement of a cell in response to a stimulus, such as light or chemicals. In bacterial cells, the flagella play a crucial role in these movements. During a "run," the flagella rotate in a coordinated manner, propelling the cell in a straight line. However, during a "tumble," the flagella change their rotation direction, causing the cell to change its direction randomly. These movements help the cell navigate its environment and find favorable conditions for survival.

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7. In Figure 9.2, the enzyme in step 1 is

Explanation

In Figure 9.2, the enzyme in step 1 is likely RNA polymerase because it is responsible for transcribing DNA into RNA during the process of transcription. DNA polymerase is involved in DNA replication, DNA ligase is involved in the joining of DNA fragments, reverse transcriptase is involved in the synthesis of DNA from an RNA template, and spliceosome is involved in the splicing of pre-mRNA. Therefore, RNA polymerase is the most appropriate choice for the enzyme in step 1 based on its function in transcription.

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8. Which of the following is a limitation of the autoclave?

Explanation

The autoclave uses high pressure and high temperature to achieve sterilization, which can damage heat-labile materials that are sensitive to heat. Therefore, it cannot be used with heat-labile materials.

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9. An agent used to reduce the number of bacteria on a toilet would most accurately be called a(n) 

Explanation

A disinfectant is a chemical agent that is used to kill or inhibit the growth of bacteria on surfaces. It is specifically designed for use on inanimate objects, such as toilets, to reduce the number of bacteria present. Antiseptics, on the other hand, are used on living tissues to prevent infection, while aseptics are used to create a sterile environment. Fungicides are used to kill or inhibit the growth of fungi, and virucides are used to kill or inhibit the growth of viruses. Therefore, the most accurate term for an agent used to reduce the number of bacteria on a toilet is a disinfectant.

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10. Refer to Table 8.2 The anticodon for valine is

Explanation

The anticodon for valine is CAA. This is determined by the genetic code, which specifies that the codon for valine is GUA. The anticodon is the complementary sequence to the codon, so the anticodon for valine is CAA.

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11. Which of the following is a scientific name?

Explanation

The scientific name is a formal name given to a specific organism according to the rules of scientific nomenclature. In this case, "Mycobacterium Leprae" is the scientific name because it follows the binomial naming system, which consists of the genus name (Mycobacterium) and the species name (Leprae). The other options, "Hansen's Bacillus," "Leprosy bacterium," and "Acid-fast bacteria," are not scientific names as they do not follow the proper naming conventions.

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12. During which growth phase will gram-positive bacteria be most susceptible to penicillin?

Explanation

During the log phase, gram-positive bacteria are actively dividing and multiplying. At this stage, their cell walls are undergoing rapid synthesis, making them more susceptible to the action of penicillin. Penicillin works by inhibiting the synthesis of the bacterial cell wall, causing it to weaken and eventually burst. Therefore, during the log phase when cell wall synthesis is at its peak, gram-positive bacteria are most susceptible to the effects of penicillin.

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13. Which of the following is NOT a direct method to measure microbial growth?

Explanation

Life's journey is not to arrive at the grave safely, in a well preserved body, but rather to skid in sideways, totally worn out, shouting "Holy crap, what a ride!"

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14. The infection that causes AIDS is a

Explanation

The infection that causes AIDS is caused by a virus called the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV). HIV attacks the immune system, specifically CD4 cells, which are crucial for fighting off infections and diseases. Over time, HIV can destroy enough CD4 cells, leading to acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS). Therefore, the correct answer is virus.

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15. In Figure 4.3, which diagram of a cell wall is decolorized by alcohol?

Explanation

The correct answer is b. The diagram of a cell wall that is decolorized by alcohol is b. This means that when alcohol is applied to the cell wall, it loses its color or staining. The other diagram, a, does not show any decolorization when alcohol is applied. Therefore, the correct answer is b.

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16. Disinfection of water is achieved by all of the following EXCEPT

Explanation

Peracetic acid is not commonly used for disinfection of water, unlike the other options listed. Ozone, UV radiation, chlorine, and copper sulfate are all commonly used methods for disinfecting water. Ozone is a powerful oxidizing agent that kills bacteria and viruses, UV radiation damages the DNA of microorganisms, chlorine is a widely used disinfectant, and copper sulfate is effective against algae and bacteria. Peracetic acid, on the other hand, is primarily used as a disinfectant in the food industry and for medical equipment, but it is not commonly used for water disinfection.

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17. In Figure 4.3, which diagram of a cell wall is resistant to many antibiotics (e.g., penicillin)?

Explanation

Diagram b is resistant to many antibiotics because it shows a thick layer of peptidoglycan, which is a component of the bacterial cell wall. This thick layer provides a strong barrier that makes it difficult for antibiotics, such as penicillin, to penetrate and kill the bacteria. In contrast, diagram a shows a thin layer of peptidoglycan, making it more susceptible to antibiotics. Therefore, diagram b is the correct answer as it represents a cell wall that is resistant to many antibiotics.

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18. A source of heat-stable DNA polymerase is

Explanation

Thermus aquaticus is a source of heat-stable DNA polymerase. This bacterium is found in hot springs and has the ability to survive and replicate in high temperatures. Its DNA polymerase enzyme, known as Taq polymerase, is widely used in molecular biology techniques such as polymerase chain reaction (PCR). Taq polymerase is able to withstand the high temperatures required for DNA denaturation and synthesis, making it an essential tool in DNA amplification methods.

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19. Three cells with generation times of 60 minutes are inoculated into a culture medium. How many cells are there after 5 hours?

Explanation

The generation time of the cells is 60 minutes, which means that every 60 minutes, the number of cells doubles. Therefore, after 1 hour, there will be 6 cells (3 x 2). After 2 hours, there will be 12 cells (6 x 2), and so on. After 5 hours, there will be 96 cells (12 x 2 x 2 x 2 x 2), which is the correct answer.

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20. The cancer gene ras produces mRNA containing an extra exon that includes a number of UAA codons. Cancer cells produce ras mRNA missing this exon. This mistake most likely is due to a mistake by

Explanation

SnRNPs (small nuclear ribonucleoproteins) are involved in the process of RNA splicing, which removes introns and joins exons together to form mature mRNA. In this case, the cancer cells are producing ras mRNA missing an exon that contains UAA codons. This suggests that the mistake is occurring during the splicing process, where the snRNPs may be incorrectly recognizing or binding to the splice sites, leading to the exclusion of the exon. Therefore, the mistake is most likely due to snRNPs.

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21. A sexually transmitted disease is an example of

Explanation

A sexually transmitted disease is an example of direct contact because it is transmitted through direct physical contact between individuals during sexual activity. This includes activities such as vaginal, anal, or oral sex. The disease-causing organisms, such as bacteria or viruses, are directly transferred from one person to another through these intimate interactions.

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22. Pseudomonas has been found growing in quaternary ammonium compounds (quats)

Explanation

Pseudomonas is a type of bacteria that has been found to grow in quaternary ammonium compounds (quats). Quats are commonly used as disinfectants and sanitizers in various industries, including healthcare and food processing. Pseudomonas is known for its ability to survive and thrive in different environments, including those containing quats. This makes it important to properly clean and disinfect surfaces to prevent the growth and spread of Pseudomonas bacteria. Therefore, the statement that Pseudomonas has been found growing in quaternary ammonium compounds is true.

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23. Which of the following are used by the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention to track outbreaks of food borne disease?

Explanation

The Centers for Disease Control and Prevention use DNA fingerprints, restriction fragment length polymorphisms, and reverse-transcriptase PCR(rtPCR) to track outbreaks of foodborne disease. These techniques help in identifying and characterizing the specific strains of pathogens responsible for the outbreaks, allowing for effective surveillance, investigation, and control measures to be implemented. DNA fingerprints and restriction fragment length polymorphisms provide information about the genetic variations among different strains, while reverse-transcriptase PCR is used to detect and quantify the presence of specific RNA viruses.

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24. Recombination will always alter a cell's genotype

Explanation

Never play leapfrog with a unicorn.

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25. The first antibiotic utilized was 

Explanation

Penicillin was the first antibiotic to be utilized. It was discovered by Alexander Fleming in 1928 and revolutionized the field of medicine. Penicillin is effective against a wide range of bacterial infections and has saved countless lives since its discovery. It works by inhibiting the growth of bacteria and preventing them from forming their cell walls. Penicillin paved the way for the development of other antibiotics and remains an important tool in modern medicine.

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26. Autoclaving is the most effective method of moist heat sterilization

Explanation

Autoclaving is the most effective method of moist heat sterilization because it involves subjecting the items to high pressure and temperature, typically around 121 degrees Celsius, for a specific period of time. This combination of heat and pressure ensures that all microorganisms, including bacteria, viruses, and spores, are effectively killed. Autoclaving is widely used in medical and laboratory settings to sterilize equipment, instruments, and supplies, as it is highly reliable and can penetrate even hard-to-reach areas. Other methods of moist heat sterilization, such as boiling or using a steam sterilizer, may not reach the same level of effectiveness as autoclaving.

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27. Bacteria typically contain multiple chromosomes

Explanation

Bacteria typically contain a single chromosome, not multiple chromosomes. This single chromosome contains all of the genetic material necessary for the bacterium to function and reproduce. While bacteria may contain plasmids, which are small, circular pieces of DNA that can carry additional genes, these are not considered chromosomes. Therefore, the statement that bacteria typically contain multiple chromosomes is false.

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28. Which concentration of ethanol is the most effective bactericide?

Explanation

A concentration of 70 percent ethanol is the most effective bactericide because it strikes a balance between being able to easily penetrate the bacterial cell wall and denature proteins, while also allowing for enough water content to disrupt the bacterial membrane. Higher concentrations of ethanol (such as 100 percent) can actually be less effective because they evaporate too quickly, reducing the contact time with bacteria. Lower concentrations (such as 50 percent or below) have less ability to denature proteins and disrupt the bacterial membrane.

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29. Mutations that are harmful to cells occur more frequently than those that benefit cells

Explanation

Sometimes I pretend to be normal. But it gets boring, so I go back to being me.

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30. All of the following factors contribute to hospital-acquired infections EXCEPT

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

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31. In the Ames test, any colonies that form on the control should be the result of spontaneous mutations

Explanation

In the Ames test, the control is used to determine the spontaneous mutation rate of the bacteria being tested. The control should not be exposed to any mutagenic substance, so any colonies that form on the control plate should be the result of spontaneous mutations that naturally occur in the bacteria. Therefore, the statement is true.

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32. The source of nutrients in nutrient agar is

Explanation

The correct answer is peptone and beef extract. Peptone is a mixture of peptides and amino acids derived from proteins, while beef extract is a water-soluble extract obtained from beef. These ingredients provide a rich source of nutrients such as amino acids, vitamins, and minerals, which support the growth of various microorganisms in nutrient agar. Agar and NaCl are also present in nutrient agar, but they do not serve as the primary source of nutrients for microbial growth.

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33. Which of the following could be used to sterilize plastic Petri plates in a plastic wrapper?

Explanation

Gamma radiation could be used to sterilize plastic Petri plates in a plastic wrapper. Gamma radiation is a high-energy form of electromagnetic radiation that can penetrate through materials, including plastic, to kill microorganisms. It is commonly used in sterilization processes for medical equipment and supplies.

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34. Cell-to-cell contact is required for transduction to occur

Explanation

Sarcasm: The witty will have fun, but the stupid won't get it.

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35. Place the steps of the Gram stain in the correct order: 1-Alcohol acetone; 2-Crystal violet; 3-Safranin; 4-Iodine

Explanation

The correct order of the Gram stain steps is as follows: 2-Crystal violet, 4-Iodine, 1-Alcohol acetone, 3-Safranin. This is because the crystal violet is used to stain the bacterial cells, followed by iodine which forms a complex with the crystal violet, making it more difficult to wash out. Then, the alcohol acetone is used as a decolorizer to remove the stain from certain types of bacteria (Gram-negative). Finally, safranin is used as a counterstain to stain the decolorized bacteria (Gram-negative) pink or red.

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36. A suspension of 106 Bacillus cereus endospores was put in a hot-air oven at 170°C. Plate counts were used to determine the number of endospores surviving at the time intervals shown. In Figure 7.1, what is the thermal death time?

Explanation

The thermal death time refers to the minimum amount of time required to completely kill a specific microorganism at a given temperature. In this case, the question states that a suspension of Bacillus cereus endospores was put in a hot-air oven at 170°C. The plate counts were used to determine the number of endospores surviving at different time intervals. Since the number of endospores surviving is not mentioned or provided in the question, it cannot be determined based on the information given. Therefore, the correct answer is that the thermal death time cannot be determined.

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37. Patients with indwelling catheters are susceptible to infections because

Explanation

Patients with indwelling catheters are susceptible to infections because biofilms develop on catheters. Biofilms are communities of microorganisms that form a protective layer on the surface of the catheter. This layer provides a favorable environment for bacteria to grow and multiply, making it difficult for the immune system to eliminate them. The biofilm also acts as a barrier, preventing antibiotics from effectively reaching the bacteria. As a result, infections can occur and become persistent, leading to complications and further health issues for the patient.

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38. Fungal infections are studied by

Explanation

Mycologists study fungal infections. Fungi are a separate kingdom of organisms that can cause various infections in humans and other organisms. Mycologists specialize in the study of fungi, including their identification, classification, and understanding their role in diseases. They investigate the biology, ecology, and genetics of fungi, as well as develop treatments and prevention strategies for fungal infections. Therefore, mycologists are the experts in studying fungal infections.

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39. Bacterial growth refers to an increase in the numbers of cells in a bacterial culture.

Explanation

Bacterial growth refers to the increase in the numbers of cells in a bacterial culture. This means that over time, the population of bacteria in the culture will multiply and the number of individual bacterial cells will increase. Therefore, the statement "Bacterial growth refers to an increase in the numbers of cells in a bacterial culture" is true.

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40. Laboratory cultivation of obligate anaerobes requires reducing media or special growth chambers filled with inert gases.

Explanation

Now I lay me down to rest, I pray I pass tomorrow's test. If I should die before I wake, that's one less test I have to take.

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41. In green and purple bacteria, electrons to reduce CO2 can come from

Explanation

In green and purple bacteria, electrons to reduce CO2 can come from H2S. This is because these bacteria are capable of using hydrogen sulfide (H2S) as an electron donor during the process of photosynthesis. They have specialized enzymes that can oxidize H2S and transfer the released electrons to reduce CO2, allowing them to produce organic compounds for energy. This adaptation enables these bacteria to thrive in environments where H2S is available, such as sulfur-rich sediments or hot springs.

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42. Recombinant DNA refers to the

Explanation

Recombinant DNA refers to the DNA resulting when bacterial genes are inserted in an animal genome. This process involves the transfer of genetic material from one organism to another, specifically from bacteria to animals. This can be done for various purposes, such as producing genetically modified organisms or studying the function of specific genes. By inserting bacterial genes into an animal genome, scientists can create new combinations of DNA and potentially alter the characteristics or traits of the animal.

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43. Turbidity is an indirect measurement of bacterial growth that can be measured using a spectrophotometer.

Explanation

Turbidity refers to the cloudiness or haziness of a liquid caused by the presence of suspended particles. In the context of bacterial growth, an increase in bacterial population leads to an increase in suspended particles, resulting in higher turbidity. A spectrophotometer is a device that measures the intensity of light passing through a sample, and it can be used to indirectly measure turbidity by measuring the absorbance or scattering of light caused by the suspended particles. Therefore, it is true that turbidity, as an indirect measurement of bacterial growth, can be measured using a spectrophotometer.

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44. The reaction catalyzed by reverse transcriptase is

Explanation

Reverse transcriptase is an enzyme that catalyzes the synthesis of complementary DNA (cDNA) from an RNA template. This process is known as reverse transcription. Therefore, the correct answer is mRNA → cDNA, as reverse transcriptase converts the messenger RNA (mRNA) into cDNA.

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45. In Figure 8.3, if compound C reacts with the allosteric site of enzyme A, this would exemplify

Explanation

If compound C reacts with the allosteric site of enzyme A, it would exemplify feedback inhibition. Feedback inhibition is a regulatory mechanism in which the end product of a metabolic pathway inhibits an earlier step in the pathway. In this case, compound C is acting as the end product and inhibiting the activity of enzyme A. This helps regulate the rate of the metabolic pathway and prevent the overproduction of the end product.

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46. Which of the following is an advantage of using E. coli to make a human gene product?

Explanation

Using E. coli to make a human gene product has the advantage that its genes are well known. This means that scientists have a comprehensive understanding of the genetic makeup of E. coli, which allows for easier manipulation and control of gene expression. This knowledge can be utilized to optimize the production of the desired human gene product and ensure its efficiency and accuracy.

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47. Which of the following results in lethal damage to nucleic acids?

Explanation

Heat, radiation, and some chemicals can all cause lethal damage to nucleic acids. Heat can denature the DNA strands, disrupting their structure and preventing proper replication and transcription. Radiation, such as ultraviolet (UV) light, can cause DNA damage by inducing the formation of thymine dimers, which can lead to mutations or cell death. Certain chemicals, such as alkylating agents or intercalating agents, can directly damage the DNA molecule or interfere with DNA replication and repair processes. Therefore, the combination of heat, radiation, and certain chemicals can have a cumulative lethal effect on nucleic acids.

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48. Which graph in Figure 7.2 best depicts the effect of placing the culture in an autoclave for 15 minutes at time x?

Explanation

The graph in Figure 7.2 that best depicts the effect of placing the culture in an autoclave for 15 minutes at time x is graph b. This can be inferred because graph b shows a sharp decrease in the culture's growth rate immediately after the autoclave treatment, indicating that the autoclave has a strong inhibitory effect on the culture's growth. The other graphs do not show such a distinct decrease in growth rate after the autoclave treatment.

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49. Conjugation differs from reproduction because conjugation

Explanation

...like a record

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50. Which type of molecule contains the alcohol glycerol?

Explanation

Roses are red, violets are blue. Vodka cost less, than dinner for two.

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51. A suffix meaning to kill

Explanation

The suffix "-cide" means to kill. It is commonly used in words related to killing or causing the death of something. In this context, "-cide" is the correct answer as it accurately represents the meaning of the suffix and its association with killing. The other options, such as sterilization, asepsis, sanitation, antisepsis, degerming, and commercial sterilization, do not have the same meaning as "-cide" and are therefore incorrect.

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52. The figure at the left in Figure 9.3 shows a gene identified by Southern blotting. What will a Southern blot of the same gene look like after PCR?

Explanation

After PCR, the Southern blot of the same gene will show multiple copies of the gene, resulting in a stronger and more intense band on the blot. This is because PCR amplifies the DNA fragment, increasing the amount of the target gene, which will be detected as a darker band on the blot.

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53. Starch, dextran, glycogen, and cellulose are polymers of

Explanation

Does running from my problems count as cardio?

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54. A urease test is used to identify Myobacterium tuberculosis because

Explanation

The correct answer is M. tuberculosis produces urease. Urease is an enzyme that breaks down urea into ammonia and carbon dioxide. M. tuberculosis is known to produce urease, which can be detected through a urease test. This test is used as a diagnostic tool for identifying M. tuberculosis infections because the presence of urease indicates the presence of the bacteria. Other options such as urea accumulation, nitrate reduction, and M. bovis causing tuberculosis are not directly related to the urease test for identifying M. tuberculosis.

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55. An agent that reproduces in cells but is not composed of cells and contains RNA as its genetic material is a(n)

Explanation

A virus is a small infectious agent that can reproduce only inside the cells of living organisms. It is not composed of cells itself, but it can infect and hijack the cellular machinery of host organisms to replicate. Viruses contain RNA as their genetic material, which is used to direct the synthesis of viral proteins and to replicate the viral genome. Therefore, a virus is the correct answer because it reproduces in cells but is not composed of cells and contains RNA as its genetic material.

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56. Worldwide epidemic

Explanation

A pandemic refers to a worldwide epidemic, where a disease spreads across multiple countries or continents, affecting a large number of people. It is a global outbreak of a disease that affects a significant portion of the population. The term "pandemic" is used to describe the widespread nature and severity of the disease, indicating that it has reached a global scale and has the potential to cause significant illness and death.

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57. In Table 7.1, which compound was the most effective against Staphylococcus?

Explanation

The most effective compound against Staphylococcus cannot be determined based on the information provided in Table 7.1.

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58. People who transmit diseases but who do not exhibit any symptoms or illness

Explanation

Carriers are individuals who can transmit diseases to others without showing any symptoms or signs of illness themselves. They may unknowingly harbor and spread pathogens, making them a potential source of infection for others. Carriers can contribute to the spread of diseases, including during a pandemic, as they may continue their regular activities without being aware of their infectious status. Identifying and managing carriers is crucial in controlling the transmission of diseases.

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59. A multicellular organism that has a mouth and lives in an animal host is a(n)

Explanation

A multicellular organism that has a mouth and lives in an animal host is a helminth. Helminths are parasitic worms that can infect humans and other animals. They have specialized mouthparts that allow them to attach to the host's tissues and feed on blood or other bodily fluids. Examples of helminths include roundworms, tapeworms, and flukes. Unlike algae, bacteria, fungi, and viruses, helminths are complex organisms with differentiated tissues and organs, making them distinct from other microorganisms.

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60. Each of the following statements concerning the gram-positive cell wall is true EXCEPT

Explanation

The gram-positive cell wall is composed of a thick layer of peptidoglycan, which provides structural support and helps maintain the shape of the cell. It also contains teichoic acids, which are important for cell wall maintenance and cell division. The gram-positive cell wall is sensitive to lysozyme, an enzyme that breaks down peptidoglycan. It is also sensitive to penicillin, an antibiotic that targets the synthesis of peptidoglycan. However, the gram-positive cell wall is not specifically designed to protect the cell in a hypertonic environment. Instead, it relies on other mechanisms, such as the regulation of osmotic pressure, to maintain cell integrity in such conditions.

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61. The DNA found in most bacterial cells

Explanation

Bacterial DNA is circular in structure. Unlike eukaryotic cells, which have a nuclear membrane that surrounds their DNA, bacterial cells do not have a distinct nucleus. Instead, their DNA is found in the cytoplasm, forming a circular loop. This circular DNA allows for efficient replication and gene expression in bacteria.

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62. Which type of molecule contains the CH2O units?

Explanation

Carbohydrates are organic molecules composed of carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen atoms. The CH2O units refer to the basic formula of a carbohydrate, where "C" represents carbon, "H" represents hydrogen, and "O" represents oxygen. This formula indicates that carbohydrates consist of carbon atoms bonded to two hydrogen atoms and one oxygen atom, forming a single unit. Therefore, the correct answer is carbohydrate.

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63. The counterstain in the Gram stain is

Explanation

A basic dye is used as the counterstain in the Gram stain. This is because the primary stain used in the Gram stain, crystal violet, stains both Gram-positive and Gram-negative bacteria. The counterstain, which is a basic dye called safranin, is then used to stain the Gram-negative bacteria. This allows for differentiation between the two types of bacteria, as the Gram-positive bacteria retain the crystal violet stain and appear purple, while the Gram-negative bacteria take up the safranin counterstain and appear pink or red. Therefore, the counterstain is necessary to determine the Gram reaction of the bacteria.

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64. The cell walls of bacteria are responsible for the shape of the bacteria and the difference in the Gram stain reaction.

Explanation

The cell walls of bacteria play a crucial role in determining the shape of the bacteria and their reaction to the Gram stain. The Gram stain is a common laboratory technique used to differentiate bacteria into two groups: Gram-positive and Gram-negative. This differentiation is based on the differences in the composition and structure of their cell walls. Gram-positive bacteria have a thick peptidoglycan layer in their cell walls, which retains the crystal violet stain used in the Gram stain. On the other hand, Gram-negative bacteria have a thinner peptidoglycan layer and an outer membrane that prevents the retention of the stain. Therefore, the statement that the cell walls of bacteria are responsible for their shape and Gram stain reaction is true.

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65. Antibiotics that target the cell wall are an effective treatment against many pathogenic bacteria

Explanation

Antibiotics that target the cell wall are effective against many pathogenic bacteria because the cell wall is an essential component of bacterial cells. These antibiotics work by inhibiting the synthesis or weakening the cell wall, leading to the rupture and death of the bacteria. By targeting the cell wall, these antibiotics can effectively kill a wide range of pathogenic bacteria and are commonly used in the treatment of bacterial infections.

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66. The science that deals with when diseases occur and how that are transmitted is called

Explanation

Epidemiology is the science that studies the occurrence, distribution, and determinants of diseases in populations. It focuses on understanding how diseases are transmitted, as well as identifying risk factors and patterns of disease occurrence. By studying the frequency and spread of diseases, epidemiologists can develop strategies for prevention and control. Ecology is the study of the relationships between organisms and their environment, which is not directly related to disease transmission. Communicable disease refers specifically to diseases that can be transmitted from person to person. Morbidity and mortality are measures of disease burden, but they do not encompass the study of disease transmission. Public health is a broader field that includes epidemiology but also encompasses other aspects of promoting and protecting the health of populations.

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67. Which of the following statements is TRUE?

Explanation

Endospores are specialized structures formed by certain bacteria in response to unfavorable environmental conditions. They are not for reproduction but rather serve as a survival mechanism. Endospores are highly resistant to heat, desiccation, chemicals, and radiation, allowing the bacterial cell to withstand harsh conditions and remain dormant until conditions become favorable again. Therefore, the statement "Endospores allow a cell to survive environmental changes" is true.

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68. The exploitation of biological processes for industrial and other purposes, especially the genetic manipulation of microorganisms for the production of antibiotics, hormones, etc.

Explanation

Biotechnology refers to the exploitation of biological processes for industrial and other purposes, particularly the genetic manipulation of microorganisms for the production of antibiotics, hormones, and other useful substances. This field combines biology, chemistry, and engineering to develop new technologies and products that benefit various industries such as medicine, agriculture, and environmental science. Biotechnology plays a crucial role in advancing scientific research, improving healthcare, and addressing global challenges related to food security and sustainability.

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69. Endospores are a reproductive structure

Explanation

Endospores are more like a survival structure.

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70. Which of the following organelles most closely resembles a prokaryotic cell?

Explanation

Mitochondria closely resemble prokaryotic cells because they have their own DNA and can replicate independently of the cell. They also have a double membrane, similar to the structure of prokaryotic cells. Additionally, mitochondria have their own ribosomes and can produce their own proteins, similar to prokaryotes. These similarities suggest that mitochondria may have originated from an ancient symbiotic relationship between a prokaryotic cell and an ancestral eukaryotic cell.

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71. Which drawing in Figure 4.1 is a tetrad?

Explanation

In Figure 4.1, drawing b is a tetrad. A tetrad is a group of four objects or elements that are closely related or connected.

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72. A gene is best defined as

Explanation

The correct answer is "a sequence of nucleotides in DNA that codes for a functional product." This definition accurately describes a gene, which is a specific sequence of nucleotides in DNA that carries the instructions for making a functional product, such as a protein or RNA molecule. Genes are the fundamental units of heredity and play a crucial role in determining an organism's traits and characteristics.

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73. Which of the following pairs is mismatched

Explanation

RNA polymerase is responsible for synthesizing RNA molecules from a DNA template, not an RNA template. This enzyme plays a crucial role in transcription, where it binds to the DNA template strand and catalyzes the formation of an RNA molecule that is complementary to the DNA sequence. This process is essential for gene expression and the production of proteins. Therefore, the pair "RNA polymerase — makes a molecule of RNA from an RNA template" is mismatched.

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74. A nosocomial infection is

Explanation

Pain is nature's way of saying "Don't do that". Painkillers are man's way of saying "Watch me".

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75. Bacteria are a commonly used organism for studies of genetic material in the research laboratory. The nucleic acids must first be isolated from the cells for these studies. Which of the following would most likely be used to lyse the bacterial cells for nucleic acid isolation?

Explanation

Lysozyme is an enzyme that is commonly used to lyse bacterial cells for nucleic acid isolation. It works by breaking down the bacterial cell wall, allowing the release of the genetic material. This enzyme is particularly effective for lysing Gram-positive bacteria, as they have a thicker cell wall compared to Gram-negative bacteria. By using lysozyme, researchers can efficiently extract the nucleic acids from the bacterial cells for further genetic studies.

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76. The study of bacteria is known as

Explanation

Bacteriology is the study of bacteria, including their structure, function, growth, and classification. It involves the study of various aspects of bacteria, such as their morphology, genetics, metabolism, and ecological roles. Bacteriology plays a crucial role in understanding the nature of bacterial diseases, their prevention, and treatment. It also helps in the development of antibiotics and other antimicrobial agents. Therefore, Bacteriology is the correct answer as it specifically refers to the study of bacteria.

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77. A shuttle vector is a plasmid that is used to move pieces of DNA among organisms, such as bacterial, fungal, and plant cells.

Explanation

A shuttle vector is a type of plasmid that can be used to transfer DNA between different organisms, including bacterial, fungal, and plant cells. This allows researchers to study and manipulate DNA in various organisms, making it a valuable tool in genetic engineering and biotechnology. Therefore, the statement "A shuttle vector is a plasmid that is used to move pieces of DNA among organisms, such as bacterial, fungal, and plant cells" is true.

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78. Which of the following can contribute to postoperative infections?

Explanation

All of the mentioned factors can contribute to postoperative infections. Using syringes more than once can introduce bacteria into the surgical site, increasing the risk of infection. The normal microbiota present on the operating room staff can also be a source of infection if proper hygiene measures are not followed. Errors in the aseptic technique, such as improper sterilization of instruments or failure to maintain a sterile environment, can also lead to infections. Additionally, antibiotic resistance can make it difficult to treat infections, increasing the likelihood of postoperative complications.

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79. Normal microbiota are typically found in and on all the following body locations except the

Explanation

I feel so dirty

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80. The disadvantage of genomic libraries over cDNA libraries is that genomic libraries contain gene introns.

Explanation

Genomic libraries are collections of DNA fragments that represent an organism's entire genome. These libraries include both coding regions (exons) and non-coding regions (introns) of genes. On the other hand, cDNA libraries are made from complementary DNA (cDNA) synthesized from mRNA, which only contains the coding regions of genes. Therefore, the statement is true because genomic libraries do indeed contain gene introns, whereas cDNA libraries do not.

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81. One of the first commercial successes of recombinant DNA technology was the production of human insulin using genetically engineered E. coli.

Explanation

The statement is true because one of the early achievements of recombinant DNA technology was the production of human insulin using genetically modified E. coli bacteria. This breakthrough allowed for the mass production of insulin, which was previously obtained from animal sources. By inserting the human insulin gene into E. coli, scientists were able to produce large quantities of insulin that could be used to treat diabetes. This development revolutionized the treatment of diabetes and paved the way for future advancements in biotechnology.

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82. An iodophor is a(n) 

Explanation

An iodophor is a compound that consists of iodine mixed with a surfactant. Iodophors are commonly used as antiseptics and disinfectants due to their ability to release iodine slowly and effectively. The surfactant helps to improve the solubility and stability of iodine, allowing it to be more easily applied and distributed. This combination of iodine and surfactant enhances the antimicrobial properties of iodine, making iodophors a popular choice in healthcare settings for wound care and surgical preparation.

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83. Bioinformatics is the use of computer technology to compare and analyze genome sequence.

Explanation

True friends don't judge each other. They judge other people. Together.

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84. The Ti plasmid isolated from Agrobacterium can be used to insert DNA into any type of plant.

Explanation

The Ti plasmid isolated from Agrobacterium can only be used to insert DNA into dicotyledonous plants, not any type of plant. This is because the Ti plasmid has a specific mechanism of transferring DNA into plant cells that is only compatible with dicots. Therefore, the statement is false.

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85. The Bt toxin derived from Bacillus thuringiensis has been introduced into some crop plants to make them resistant to insect destruction.

Explanation

The Bt toxin derived from Bacillus thuringiensis is indeed introduced into some crop plants to make them resistant to insect destruction. This toxin is toxic to many insect pests, but harmless to humans and other animals. By incorporating the Bt toxin gene into crop plants, such as corn or cotton, these plants are able to produce the toxin themselves and protect themselves from insect damage. This method of pest control is considered to be environmentally friendly and reduces the need for chemical insecticides. Therefore, the statement is true.

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86. Which of the following is NOT a typical characteristic of the plasma membrane?

Explanation

The plasma membrane is responsible for maintaining the shape of the cell. It acts as a barrier between the cell and its environment, allowing the cell to maintain its structure and integrity. The phospholipid bilayer and proteins are the main components of the plasma membrane, which contribute to its structure and function. Additionally, the plasma membrane is selectively permeable, meaning it controls the movement of substances in and out of the cell. However, the plasma membrane is not involved in cell wall formation, which is a characteristic of plant cells rather than the plasma membrane itself.

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87. The study of fungus is

Explanation

Mycology is the study of fungus, including their taxonomy, structure, genetics, and ecology. It involves the identification, classification, and understanding of the various aspects of fungal organisms. This field of study is important as fungi play crucial roles in various ecosystems, from decomposition to nutrient cycling. Additionally, mycology is essential for medical and agricultural purposes, as it helps in the identification and treatment of fungal infections and diseases in humans, animals, and plants. Therefore, mycology is the correct answer for the study of fungus.

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88. Which of the following is NOT a product of transcription?

Explanation

A new strand of DNA is not a product of transcription. Transcription is the process by which the genetic information in DNA is used to create RNA molecules, such as mRNA, rRNA, and tRNA. These RNA molecules are involved in various cellular processes, including protein synthesis. However, the synthesis of a new DNA strand occurs during DNA replication, not transcription. During DNA replication, the DNA molecule is duplicated to produce two identical copies.

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89. Which drawing in Figure 4.1 is bacillus?

Explanation

In Figure 4.1, drawing c is the bacillus. This can be determined by observing the shape of the organism in the drawing. Bacillus is a rod-shaped bacterium, and drawing c clearly shows a long, cylindrical shape, characteristic of bacillus. The other drawings (a, b, d, and e) do not exhibit this shape, making c the correct answer.

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90. In Figure 9.4, the bacteria transformed with the recombinant plasmid and plated on media containing ampicillin and X-gal will

Explanation

In Figure 9.4, the bacteria transformed with the recombinant plasmid and plated on media containing ampicillin and X-gal will form white, ampicillin-resistant colonies. This is because the recombinant plasmid contains a gene for ampicillin resistance, allowing the transformed bacteria to grow in the presence of ampicillin. X-gal is a substrate that produces a blue color when cleaved by the enzyme β-galactosidase, which is encoded by the lacZ gene. However, the recombinant plasmid disrupts the lacZ gene, preventing the production of β-galactosidase. As a result, the colonies formed will be white instead of blue.

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91. The study of parasites is

Explanation

Politics: from the Latin "poli", meaning many; and "tic", which is a blood sucking insect. Hence "Politics" = "Many blood sucking insects".

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92. In Figure 4.3, which diagram of a cell wall is a toxic cell wall?

Explanation

Based on the information provided, diagram b is the correct answer because it is mentioned that it represents a toxic cell wall. Diagram a, both, and neither are not specified to be toxic.

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93. Which of the following pairs is mismatched?

Explanation

The given answer is correct because ultraviolet radiation does not cause desiccation. Desiccation refers to the process of removing moisture from substances, while ultraviolet radiation is a form of electromagnetic radiation that can cause damage to DNA and other cellular components. Desiccation is typically caused by factors such as heat, low humidity, or exposure to dry air.

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94. Which of the following statements regarding metabolism is FALSE?

Explanation

Anabolic reactions are actually biosynthetic, not degradative. They involve the building up of complex molecules from simpler ones, requiring energy input. In contrast, catabolic reactions involve the breakdown of complex molecules into simpler ones, releasing energy in the process. Therefore, the statement that anabolic reactions are degradative is false.

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95. The microbial process of converting sugars to alcohol is known as

Explanation

I hate when people say "you don't need alcohol to have fun". Well, you don't need running shoes to run, but it helps!

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96. Bacteria differ from viruses in that bacteria...

Explanation

Bacteria differ from viruses in several ways. Firstly, bacteria have both DNA and RNA, whereas viruses typically have only one or the other. Secondly, bacteria are composed of cells, while viruses are not considered to be cells themselves. Lastly, bacteria have the ability to live and reproduce without a host, whereas viruses require a host cell to replicate. Therefore, all of the given options accurately describe the differences between bacteria and viruses.

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97. If you were preparing nutrient agar at home and did not have an autoclave, what could you use to sterilize the nutrient agar?

Explanation

The pressure cooker at 121°C for 15 minutes can be used to sterilize the nutrient agar. This method creates high pressure and temperature, which effectively kills any microorganisms present in the agar. The combination of pressure and high temperature is crucial for sterilization as it ensures that all bacteria and spores are destroyed. Bleach, boiling for one hour, hydrogen peroxide, and oven at 121°C for one hour may not be sufficient to achieve complete sterilization of the nutrient agar.

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98. Meiosis occurs in reproduction

Explanation

Meiosis is a type of cell division that occurs in eukaryotic cells, which are cells that have a nucleus and membrane-bound organelles. During meiosis, the cell undergoes two rounds of division to produce four genetically unique haploid cells, which are used in sexual reproduction. Prokaryotic cells, on the other hand, do not undergo meiosis as they reproduce through a process called binary fission, which results in genetically identical offspring. Therefore, the correct answer is eukaryotic cells.

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99. Usually single circular chromosome without histone

Explanation

Prokaryotic cells typically have a single circular chromosome without histones. This means that their genetic material is organized into a single circular DNA molecule, which is not associated with proteins called histones. In contrast, eukaryotic cells have multiple linear chromosomes that are organized with histones, which help in packaging and condensing the DNA. Therefore, the given answer correctly identifies that prokaryotic cells, not eukaryotic cells, have a single circular chromosome without histones.

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100. Desiccation is a reliable form of sterilization

Explanation

Desiccation refers to the process of removing moisture from an object or substance. While it can inhibit the growth of microorganisms, it is not considered a reliable form of sterilization. Sterilization involves the complete elimination of all forms of life, including bacteria, viruses, and spores. Desiccation alone may not be able to achieve this level of sterilization, as some microorganisms can survive in a dormant state and become active again when moisture is reintroduced. Therefore, desiccation is not a reliable method for achieving sterilization.

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101. Which of the following best describes the pattern of microbial death? 

Explanation

The correct answer is "The cells in a population die at a constant rate." This means that in a population of microbial cells, the death of cells occurs at a consistent and steady rate over time. It suggests that there is no sudden mass death of all cells at once, and not all cells are killed simultaneously. The pattern of microbial death can vary depending on the antimicrobial agent or the species, but the constant rate of cell death is a general characteristic.

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102. Transformation is the transfer of DNA from a donor to a recipient cell

Explanation

If you think about it, the Transformers were always naked.

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103. Proof that a microbe could cause disease was provided by

Explanation

Koch provided proof that a microbe could cause disease through his groundbreaking work in the field of microbiology. He developed a set of postulates, known as Koch's postulates, which established a direct link between a specific microorganism and a particular disease. Koch successfully applied these postulates to identify the causative agents of diseases such as tuberculosis and cholera. His work revolutionized the understanding of infectious diseases and laid the foundation for the field of medical microbiology.

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104. Which of the following pairs of terms is mismatched?

Explanation

The term "bacteriostatic" actually refers to an agent that inhibits the growth or reproduction of bacteria, rather than killing them. Therefore, the pair "bacteriostatic — kills vegetative bacterial cells" is mismatched.

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105. Genetic change in bacteria can be brought about by

Explanation

All of the options listed - mutation, conjugation, transduction, and transformation - are mechanisms through which genetic change can occur in bacteria. Mutation refers to changes in the DNA sequence, while conjugation involves the transfer of genetic material between bacterial cells through direct contact. Transduction is the transfer of genetic material through bacteriophages (viruses that infect bacteria), and transformation is the uptake and incorporation of foreign DNA from the environment. Therefore, all of these mechanisms can lead to genetic changes in bacteria.

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106. What do genes consist of

Explanation

Genes consist of nucleic acids. Nucleic acids, such as DNA and RNA, are the molecules that carry genetic information in living organisms. They are made up of chains of nucleotides, which contain a sugar, a phosphate group, and a nitrogenous base. Genes are specific sequences of nucleotides within the DNA molecule that code for the production of proteins. These proteins play a crucial role in the structure and function of cells, and ultimately determine the traits and characteristics of an organism.

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107. According to the operon model, for the synthesis of an inducible enzyme to occur, the

Explanation

In the operon model, the synthesis of an inducible enzyme is regulated by a repressor protein. The repressor protein binds to the operator, blocking the transcription of the gene for the enzyme. However, when the substrate binds to the repressor, it causes a conformational change in the repressor protein, preventing it from binding to the operator. This allows the RNA polymerase to bind to the promoter and transcribe the gene, leading to the synthesis of the inducible enzyme. Therefore, the substrate must bind to the repressor in order for the synthesis of the enzyme to occur.

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108. If you knew the sequence of nucleotides within a gene, which one of the following could you

Explanation

If you knew the sequence of nucleotides within a gene, you could determine the primary structure of the protein. The primary structure refers to the specific sequence of amino acids in a protein, which is determined by the sequence of nucleotides in the gene. The other structures (secondary, tertiary, and quaternary) cannot be determined solely based on the nucleotide sequence and require additional information such as protein folding and interactions.

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109. Refer to Table 8.2. What is the sequence of amino acids encoded by the following sequence of bases in a strand of DNA? 3' ATTACGCTTTGC

Explanation

The given DNA sequence starts with the codon ATT, which codes for the amino acid isoleucine. However, the next codon, ACG, codes for the amino acid threonine, not arginine as indicated in the first option. Therefore, the correct answer is that translation would stop at the first codon. The subsequent amino acids cannot be determined based on the information provided.

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110. Open-reading frames are segments of DNA in which both start and stop codons are found

Explanation

Open-reading frames are segments of DNA that contain both start and stop codons. Start codons (such as AUG) indicate the beginning of protein synthesis, while stop codons (such as UAA, UAG, or UGA) signal the termination of protein synthesis. These segments are important because they provide the necessary information for the production of proteins. Therefore, the statement that open-reading frames are segments of DNA in which both start and stop codons are found is true.

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111. Both base substitution and frameshift mutations can result in the formation of premature stop codons

Explanation

Both base substitution and frameshift mutations can result in the formation of premature stop codons. Base substitution mutations involve the replacement of one nucleotide with another, which can lead to a change in the codon sequence and potentially result in the formation of a premature stop codon. Similarly, frameshift mutations involve the insertion or deletion of nucleotides, causing a shift in the reading frame. This shift can also disrupt the codon sequence and lead to the formation of premature stop codons. Therefore, it is true that both types of mutations can result in premature stop codon formation.

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112. DNA is constructed of

Explanation

The correct answer is "two strands of nucleotides running antiparallel." DNA is made up of two strands of nucleotides that are bonded together in a double helix structure. These two strands run in opposite directions, with one strand running in the 5' to 3' direction and the other running in the 3' to 5' direction. This arrangement is referred to as antiparallel. The nucleotides in each strand are connected by hydrogen bonds, with adenine (A) always pairing with thymine (T) and cytosine (C) always pairing with guanine (G).

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113. If base 4 is thymine, what is base 11'

Explanation

The question states that base 4 is thymine. In DNA, thymine pairs with adenine, so if base 4 is thymine, then base 11 would pair with adenine as well. Therefore, the correct answer is adenine.

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114. In Figure 8.4, the antibiotic chloramphenicol binds the 50S ribosome as shown. From this information you can conclude that chloramphenicol

Explanation

The given information states that chloramphenicol binds the 50S ribosome. This suggests that chloramphenicol interferes with the translation process in prokaryotes, as the ribosome is responsible for protein synthesis during translation. It does not affect transcription, which is the process of creating mRNA from DNA, in either eukaryotes or prokaryotes. Therefore, the correct answer is that chloramphenicol prevents translation in prokaryotes.

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115. Base 2 is attached to

Explanation

Deoxyribose is a sugar molecule that is a component of DNA. It is specifically attached to the phosphate group in the DNA backbone. The other options listed, ribose, phosphate, and thymine, are also components of DNA, but they are not directly attached to deoxyribose. Therefore, based on the information provided, it can be determined that deoxyribose is attached to the DNA molecule.

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116. The damage caused by ultraviolet radiation is

Explanation

Ultraviolet radiation can cause damage to DNA molecules by creating thymine dimers, which are abnormal bonds between adjacent thymine bases. This damage is recognized and repaired by a process called nucleotide excision repair. In this process, the damaged section of DNA is cut out and replaced with a new, undamaged nucleotide sequence. Therefore, the correct answer is "cut out and replaced".

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117. Repair of damaged DNA might be viewed as a race between an endonuclease and

Explanation

The repair of damaged DNA involves several enzymes, including endonuclease, DNA ligase, DNA polymerase, helicase, methylase, and primase. However, methylase plays a crucial role in the repair process by adding a methyl group to the newly synthesized DNA strand, which helps to protect it from further damage and ensures proper DNA replication. Therefore, the repair of damaged DNA can be seen as a race between the endonuclease and methylase enzymes, with methylase ultimately playing a key role in the repair process.

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118. Which model of the lac operon correctly shows RNA polymerase, lactose, and repressor protein when the structural genes are being transcribed?

Explanation

If plan "A" doesn't work, remember that the alphabet has 25 more letters.

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119. In Figure 8.3, if enzyme A is a repressible enzyme, compound C would

Explanation

If enzyme A is a repressible enzyme, it means that its activity can be regulated by a corepressor. In this case, compound C would bind to the corepressor, which would then bind to enzyme A, leading to a decrease in its activity. Therefore, the correct answer is "bind to the corepressor".

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120. The necessary ingredients for DNA synthesis can be mixed together in a test tube. The DNA polymerase is from Thermus aquaticus, and the template is from a human cell. The DNA synthesized would be most similar to

Explanation

The DNA synthesized would be most similar to human DNA because the template used for synthesis is from a human cell. The DNA polymerase from Thermus aquaticus is responsible for catalyzing the synthesis of the new DNA strand, but it does not determine the sequence or characteristics of the synthesized DNA. Therefore, the DNA synthesized would retain the characteristics of the human DNA template.

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121. Which of the following statements is FALSE?

Explanation

DNA replication is bidirectional, meaning it proceeds in both directions around the bacterial chromosome. This allows for the simultaneous synthesis of both the leading and lagging strands.

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122. Which of the following statements about bacteriocins is FALSE?

Explanation

Plus, they are quite tasty!

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123. Which colonies are streptomycin-resistant and leucine-requiring?

Explanation

The colonies that are streptomycin-resistant and leucine-requiring are colonies 4 and 8.

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124. Culture 1:  F+, leucine+, histidine+ Culture 2:  F-, leucine-, histidine-   If culture 1 mutates to Hfr, what will be the result of conjugation between the two cultures?

Explanation

If culture 1 mutates to Hfr, it will still remain the same because the Hfr mutation does not affect the characteristics of the culture. However, conjugation between the two cultures will result in recombination occurring in culture 2. This means that some genetic material from culture 1 will be transferred to culture 2, leading to a change in its characteristics. Therefore, culture 1 will remain unchanged, while recombination will occur in culture 2.

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125. An enzyme produced in response to the presence of a substrate is called a(n)

Explanation

An enzyme produced in response to the presence of a substrate is called an inducible enzyme. This means that the production of the enzyme is induced or triggered by the presence of the substrate. In other words, when the substrate is present, it acts as a signal for the production of the enzyme. This allows the organism to efficiently produce the enzyme only when it is needed, conserving energy and resources.

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126. Which of the following statements regarding a bacterium that is R+ is FALSE?

Explanation

The statement "It is F+" is false. This is because the question is asking for the false statement regarding a bacterium that is R+. The other statements are all true: a bacterium that is R+ possesses a plasmid, R+ can be transferred to a cell of the same species, and it is resistant to certain drugs and heavy metals. However, it is not necessarily F+, as the F factor is a separate genetic element responsible for fertility in bacteria.

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127. The initial effect of ionizing radiation on a cell is that it causes

Explanation

Ionizing radiation refers to radiation that has enough energy to remove tightly bound electrons from atoms, thus creating highly reactive ions. These highly reactive ions can cause damage to cellular components, including DNA. Therefore, the initial effect of ionizing radiation on a cell is the formation of highly reactive ions. This can lead to various forms of cellular damage, including DNA breakage, bonding between adjacent thymines, and base substitutions.

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128. Application of heat to living cells can result in all of the following EXCEPT

Explanation

The application of heat to living cells can cause various effects such as breaking of hydrogen bonds, alteration of membrane permeability, denaturation of enzymes, and damage to nucleic acids. However, it does not result in a decreased thermal death time. Thermal death time refers to the time required to kill all the microorganisms in a sample at a specific temperature. When heat is applied to living cells, it usually increases the thermal death time as it takes longer to kill the cells at higher temperatures. Therefore, the correct answer is "decreased thermal death time" as it is the only option that does not occur when heat is applied to living cells.

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129. Which of the following is the best definition of oxidative phosphorylation?

Explanation

Oxidative phosphorylation is the process in which electrons are passed through a series of carriers to O2, creating a proton gradient. This proton gradient allows hydrogen ions to flow back into the cells through transmembrane protein channels, releasing energy. This energy is then used to generate ATP.

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130. The purpose of a mordant in the Gram stain is

Explanation

As if it wanted to leave in the first place.

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131. Which of the following is not used to determine metabolic activity?

Explanation

It's called Karma, and it's pronounced "Hahahaha!"

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132. In Figure 5.8, the structure labeled "1" is

Explanation

The correct answer is a plasma membrane. This can be inferred from the fact that the structure labeled "1" is described as a "membrane" and the only option that represents a membrane is a plasma membrane.

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133. Which molecule is composed of a chain of amino acids?

Explanation

Never argue with a fool. Onlookers may not be able to tell the difference.

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134. The study of viruses is

Explanation

Virology is the correct answer because it is the specific field of study that focuses on viruses. It involves studying the structure, classification, replication, and interaction of viruses with their hosts. Virologists investigate the mechanisms of viral infections, develop diagnostic methods, and work on developing vaccines and antiviral therapies. Therefore, virology is the most appropriate choice for the study of viruses.

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135. When glucose is high, cAMP is _____ : CAP _____ bind the lac operator, and RNA polymerase _____ bind the lac promoter.

Explanation

Just another reason why cAMP is an old stick in the mud

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136. The miRNAs in a cell

Explanation

MiRNAs, or microRNAs, are small RNA molecules that play a crucial role in gene regulation. They are found in eukaryotic cells, not prokaryotic cells. MiRNAs bind to messenger RNA (mRNA) molecules and prevent them from being translated into proteins. By regulating the expression of specific genes, miRNAs allow different cells to produce different proteins. This regulation of protein production is essential for the proper functioning and development of multicellular organisms. MiRNAs are not a part of the ribosome, nor are they responsible for inducing operons.

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137. Refer to Table 8.2. If a frameshift mutation occurred in the sequence of bases shown below, what would be the sequence of amino acids coded for? 3' ATTACGCTTTGC

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

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138. In which of the following situation would Koch's postulates be utilized?

Explanation

Koch's postulates are a set of criteria used to determine the cause of an infectious disease. They are specifically designed to identify the microorganism responsible for a patient's illness. In a hospital microbiology lab, healthcare professionals may use Koch's postulates to isolate and identify the pathogen causing the patient's illness. By following these postulates, they can establish a causal relationship between the microorganism and the disease, which is crucial for effective treatment and prevention strategies.

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139. The mechanism by which the presence of glucose inhibits the arabinose operon is

Explanation

Catabolite repression is the mechanism by which the presence of glucose inhibits the arabinose operon. This means that when glucose is present, the arabinose operon is repressed, and the genes involved in arabinose metabolism are not expressed. This is because glucose is a preferred carbon source for the cell, and the cell prioritizes its utilization over other sugars like arabinose. Catabolite repression helps the cell conserve energy by only producing the necessary enzymes for glucose metabolism when it is available.

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140. In figure 2.1, which is an alcohol?

Explanation

Every loaf of bread is a tragic story of grains that could have become beer, but didn't :(

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141. What is the total magnification of a chloroplast viewed with a 10x ocular lens and a 45x objective lens?

Explanation

The total magnification of a microscope is calculated by multiplying the magnification of the ocular lens (10x) with the magnification of the objective lens (45x). Therefore, the total magnification of the chloroplast viewed with a 10x ocular lens and a 45x objective lens is 450x.

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142. One effect of washing regularly with antibacterial agents is the removal of normal microbiota. This can result in

Explanation

Regularly washing with antibacterial agents can lead to the removal of normal microbiota, which refers to the beneficial bacteria that naturally reside on our skin. These bacteria play a crucial role in protecting our bodies from harmful pathogens. When the normal microbiota is disrupted, it can weaken our immune system and make us more susceptible to diseases. Therefore, the correct answer is increased susceptibility to disease.

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143. An enzyme that copies DNA to make a molecule of RNA is

Explanation

RNA polymerase is the correct answer because it is the enzyme responsible for transcribing DNA into RNA during the process of transcription. It binds to the DNA template strand and adds complementary RNA nucleotides to form a single-stranded RNA molecule. DNA ligase, DNA helicase, and transposase are not involved in the process of copying DNA to make RNA. DNA polymerase is responsible for replicating DNA during DNA replication, not for transcription.

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144. Cells are differentiated after which step in the Gram stain?

Explanation

After the step of Alcohol-acetone in the Gram stain, cells are differentiated. This step involves the use of a decolorizing agent, which removes the crystal violet stain from the Gram-negative cells, making them appear colorless. On the other hand, the Gram-positive cells retain the crystal violet stain and appear purple. This differentiation is crucial in distinguishing between Gram-negative and Gram-positive bacteria based on their cell wall composition.

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145. In Figure 4.3, which diagram of a cell wall possesses molecules responsible for symptoms associated with infection?

Explanation

The diagram b of the cell wall possesses molecules responsible for symptoms associated with infection. This suggests that the molecules present in diagram b are likely to be pathogenic or disease-causing, leading to the symptoms observed during an infection. Diagram a does not possess these molecules, indicating that it is not responsible for the symptoms. Neither diagram a nor b is responsible for the symptoms.

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146. Which of the following methods is used to preserve food by slowing the metabolic processes of foodborne microbes? 

Explanation

Freezing is a method used to preserve food by slowing down the metabolic processes of foodborne microbes. When food is frozen, the low temperature inhibits the growth and activity of microorganisms, preventing spoilage and extending the shelf life of the food. Freezing also slows down enzymatic reactions and microbial reproduction, further preserving the quality and safety of the food.

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147. Biogenesis refers to the

Explanation

Biogenesis refers to the development of life forms from preexisting life forms. This concept contradicts the idea of spontaneous generation, which suggests that organisms can arise from non-living matter. The theory of biogenesis supports the understanding that all living organisms come from other living organisms, either through reproduction or through genetic material transfer. This concept has been fundamental in the field of biology and has contributed to the understanding of evolution and the interconnectedness of all living beings.

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148. The Pap test for cervical cancer involves microscopic examination of cervical cells for cancerous cells. A new, rapid diagnostic test to detect human papilloma virus (HPV) DNA before cancer develops is done without microscopic exam. The steps involved in this FastHPV test are listed below. What is the second step?

Explanation

The second step in the FastHPV test is to add an RNA probe for HPV DNA. This step involves introducing a specific RNA probe that will bind to the HPV DNA, allowing for its detection. The RNA probe is designed to specifically target and bind to the HPV DNA, enabling the identification of the virus. This step is crucial in the test as it allows for the detection of HPV DNA, which is an important marker for the development of cervical cancer.

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149. Moist heat destroys organisms by denaturing proteins.

Explanation

Moist heat is a common method of sterilization used in laboratories and healthcare settings. When exposed to high temperatures, the proteins in microorganisms undergo denaturation, which means their structure is altered, rendering them inactive or unable to function properly. This denaturation process disrupts the essential functions of the organisms, leading to their destruction. Therefore, the statement that moist heat destroys organisms by denaturing proteins is true.

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150. Some organisms may contain multiple genomes

Explanation

Organisms do not contain multiple genomes. A genome refers to the complete set of genetic material present in an organism. Each organism has a single genome, which consists of all the DNA or RNA molecules that carry the genetic information. Therefore, the statement that some organisms may contain multiple genomes is false.

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151. In the Southern blot technique, which of the following is NOT required?

Explanation

What do you mean it doesn't go up to 11?

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152. Assume that one culture is a freshly opened package of dried yeast with 0.1% moisture, another culture is the same yeast with 7.5% moisture, and the third culture is a package of yeast mixed with water. Each culture was exposed to 130*C in a hot air oven. Which graph in Figure 7.1 most likely shows the yeast with 0.1% moisture?

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

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153. Assume you are growing bacteria on a lipid medium that started at pH 7. The action of bacterial lipases should cause the pH of the medium to

Explanation

The action of bacterial lipases breaks down lipids into fatty acids. Fatty acids are weak acids that can release hydrogen ions (H+) into the medium, resulting in a decrease in pH. Therefore, the pH of the medium should decrease due to the action of bacterial lipases.

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154. Simple staining is often necessary to improve contrast in this microscope

Explanation

Simple staining is a technique used to add color to the specimen, making it easier to visualize and distinguish different structures. The compound light microscope is commonly used for simple staining because it uses visible light to illuminate the specimen and has multiple lenses to magnify the image. This microscope is suitable for observing stained specimens and provides good contrast, making it the most appropriate choice for simple staining.

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155. Which microscope achieves the highest magnification and greatest resolution?

Explanation

Electron microscopes achieve the highest magnification and greatest resolution compared to other types of microscopes. This is because they use a beam of electrons instead of light to visualize the specimen. The shorter wavelength of electrons allows for higher resolution, enabling scientists to see smaller details and structures within the specimen. In contrast, compound light microscopes use visible light, which has a longer wavelength, limiting their resolution and magnification capabilities. Therefore, electron microscopes are the most powerful tool for studying the ultrastructure of cells and tissues.

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156. In Figure 5.8, the path labeled "2" is the flow of

Explanation

In Figure 5.8, the path labeled "2" is the flow of protons. This means that the movement of protons is depicted in the diagram. The other options, such as electrons, energy, water, and glucose, are not relevant to the specific path labeled "2" in the figure.

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157. An apoenzyme that loses its coenzyme subunit will be non-functional

Explanation

When an apoenzyme loses its coenzyme subunit, it becomes non-functional because the coenzyme is necessary for the apoenzyme to perform its catalytic function. The coenzyme acts as a cofactor, providing the necessary chemical groups or electrons for the enzyme to carry out its reaction. Without the coenzyme, the apoenzyme lacks the necessary components to facilitate the reaction and therefore cannot function properly.

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158. In Table 7.1, which compound was bactericidal?

Explanation

The question asks which compound in Table 7.1 was bactericidal, but the information provided does not include any details about the compounds in the table. Therefore, it is not possible to determine which compound was bactericidal based on the given information.

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159. Study of the cause of diseases

Explanation

Etiology refers to the study of the cause of diseases. It involves understanding the factors and mechanisms that contribute to the development and progression of diseases. By studying etiology, researchers and healthcare professionals can identify risk factors, genetic predispositions, environmental triggers, and other factors that play a role in the onset and progression of diseases. This knowledge is crucial for the prevention, diagnosis, and treatment of various illnesses.

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160. Both respiration and photosynthesis require the use of an electron transport chain

Explanation

My goal this weekend is to move only enough so that people know that I'm not dead.

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161. Which of the following does not belong with the others?

Explanation

The given options, cellulose, chitin, and peptidoglycan, are all structural components found in the cell walls of various organisms. However, the nucleus is a distinct organelle found within eukaryotic cells and is responsible for housing the genetic material of the cell. Unlike the other options, the nucleus is not a component of the cell wall and does not provide structural support. Hence, the nucleus does not belong with the others.

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162. The study of genetic material taken directly from the environment is

Explanation

Metagenomics is the study of genetic material directly obtained from the environment. It involves analyzing the collective genomes of microorganisms present in a specific habitat, without the need for isolating and culturing individual organisms. This approach allows researchers to understand the genetic diversity and functional potential of microbial communities in various ecosystems. By sequencing and analyzing DNA samples from environmental samples, metagenomics provides insights into the composition, structure, and function of microbial communities, and their roles in various ecological processes.

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163. In Figure 9.5, the marker genes used for selecting recombinant DNA are

Explanation

In Figure 9.5, the marker genes used for selecting recombinant DNA are ampR and lacZ. These marker genes are commonly used in molecular biology to identify and select cells that have successfully taken up and incorporated recombinant DNA. The ampR gene confers resistance to the antibiotic ampicillin, allowing only the transformed cells to survive in the presence of this antibiotic. The lacZ gene encodes the enzyme beta-galactosidase, which can be detected by a color change when a specific substrate is added. Therefore, cells that have successfully taken up the recombinant DNA will be resistant to ampicillin and produce a color change, indicating the presence of the marker genes.

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164. Chemical disinfection of living tissue, such as skin or mucous membrane

Explanation

Antisepsis refers to the process of using chemicals to disinfect living tissue, such as skin or mucous membranes, in order to prevent the growth and spread of microorganisms. Unlike sterilization, which aims to completely eliminate all microorganisms, antisepsis aims to reduce the number of microorganisms to a level that is not harmful to the host. This is commonly done using antiseptic solutions or disinfectants. Antisepsis is an important practice in healthcare settings to prevent infections and promote healing.

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165. Archaea differ from bacteria in that archaea...

Explanation

Archaea differ from bacteria because they lack peptidoglycan. Peptidoglycan is a unique molecule found in the cell walls of bacteria, which provides structural support and protection. Archaea have a different type of cell wall composition, often consisting of proteins or other molecules, but not peptidoglycan. This difference in cell wall composition is one of the key distinguishing features between archaea and bacteria.

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166. The preservation of beef jerky from microbial growth relies on which method of microbial control?

Explanation

Desiccation is a method of microbial control that involves removing water from the environment, which inhibits the growth and survival of microorganisms. In the case of beef jerky, the preservation relies on desiccation because the process of drying the meat removes moisture, making it an inhospitable environment for microbial growth. This prevents the growth of bacteria, mold, and other microorganisms that could spoil the jerky.

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167. The appearance of gram-negative bacteria after addition of the decolorizing agent in the Gram stain

Explanation

Trying to understand some people is like trying to smell the color 9.

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168. Figure 6.2 shows a typical bacterial growth curve with the x-axis indicating the log of the number of bacteria and the y-axis indicating time in culture. In the figure, which sections of the graph illustrate a logarithmic change in cell numbers?

Explanation

Sections b and d of the graph illustrate a logarithmic change in cell numbers. In a logarithmic growth phase, the number of bacteria increases exponentially over time. This is represented by a steep upward slope on the graph. In sections b and d, the curve shows a steep increase in cell numbers, indicating logarithmic growth. On the other hand, sections a and c show a plateau or a relatively constant number of cells, suggesting a stationary or death phase where cell numbers do not significantly change. Section a and d show a decline in cell numbers, indicating a death phase. Therefore, only sections b and d demonstrate a logarithmic change in cell numbers.

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169. What type of reaction is in Figure 5.2?

Explanation

The reaction in Figure 5.2 is transamination. Transamination is a type of reaction where an amino group is transferred from one molecule to another. In this reaction, an amino group is being transferred from one molecule to another, indicating that it is a transamination reaction.

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170. An experiment began with 4 cells and ended with 128 cells. How many generations did the cells go through?

Explanation

The number of cells is increasing exponentially in this experiment. Starting with 4 cells, each generation doubles the number of cells. So, the number of cells after each generation would be: 4, 8, 16, 32, 64, 128. Therefore, it took 5 generations for the cells to reach 128.

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171. In Figure 6.3, which tube shows the expected growth pattern for a facultative anaerobe?

Explanation

The tube labeled "b" shows the expected growth pattern for a facultative anaerobe. Facultative anaerobes can grow in the presence or absence of oxygen, but they typically show better growth in the presence of oxygen. In tube "b", there is growth both in the presence and absence of oxygen, indicating that the organism is capable of utilizing oxygen if available, but can also grow in its absence. This growth pattern is characteristic of facultative anaerobes.

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172. Which of the graphs in Figure 5.5 best illustrates the activity of an enzyme that is saturated with substrate?

Explanation

Graph c best illustrates the activity of an enzyme that is saturated with substrate because it shows a maximum rate of reaction that does not increase with increasing substrate concentration. At saturation, all enzyme active sites are occupied by substrate molecules, and further increase in substrate concentration does not result in an increase in the rate of reaction. This is represented by a plateau in the graph, which is seen in graph c.

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173. Which of the following treatments is the most effective for controlling microbial growth?

Explanation

"Here you are all equally worthless" - Gunnery Sergeant Hartman.

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174. Which of the following statements about substrate-level phosphorylation is FALSE?

Explanation

This is the correct answer according to Dr. Lekewauwa. Nothing else matters.

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175. A restriction fragment is

Explanation

A restriction fragment is a segment of DNA that is produced when a DNA molecule is cut by a restriction enzyme. Restriction enzymes recognize specific DNA sequences and cut the DNA at those sites, resulting in fragments of different lengths. These fragments can be used in various molecular biology techniques such as DNA sequencing, cloning, and genetic engineering. Therefore, the correct answer is "a segment of DNA."

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176. Which concentration of ethanol is the least effective bactericide?

Explanation

Ethanol is an effective bactericide because it denatures proteins and disrupts the cell membrane of bacteria, leading to their death. However, at 100 percent concentration, ethanol evaporates too quickly, limiting its contact time with bacteria and reducing its effectiveness as a bactericide. Lower concentrations of ethanol, such as 70 percent, have been found to be more effective as they provide a longer contact time for killing bacteria. Therefore, 100 percent ethanol is the least effective bactericide among the given options.

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177. Pieces of DNA stored in yeast cells are called a

Explanation

In molecular biology, pieces of DNA stored in yeast cells are referred to as a library. This term is commonly used to describe a collection of DNA fragments that have been inserted into a host organism, such as yeast, for storage and future use. The library can be used for various purposes, such as studying gene expression, identifying specific genes, or creating genetic libraries for large-scale screening. Therefore, the term "library" accurately describes the collection of DNA stored in yeast cells.

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178. A suspension of 106 Bacillus cereus endospores was put in a hot-air oven at 170°C. Plate counts were used to determine the number of endospores surviving at the time intervals shown.In Figure 7.1, the thermal death point for this culture is

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

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179. Which of the following is NOT necessary for respiration?

Explanation

Oxygen is not necessary for respiration. Respiration is the process of converting glucose into ATP, which is the energy currency of the cell. Oxygen is used in aerobic respiration, where glucose is broken down in the presence of oxygen to produce ATP. However, there are also anaerobic forms of respiration, such as fermentation, where oxygen is not required. In these cases, alternative electron acceptors, such as cytochromes, flavoproteins, and quinones, are used instead of oxygen. Therefore, oxygen is not necessary for respiration.

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180. Most pathogenic bacteria are thermophiles

Explanation

The statement is false because most pathogenic bacteria are actually mesophiles, which means they thrive at moderate temperatures. Thermophiles, on the other hand, prefer high temperatures. Therefore, the correct answer is false.

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181. Which of the following statements is false?

Explanation

Methicillin-Resistant Staphylococcus Aureus

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182. A suspension of 106 Bacillus cereus endospores was put in a hot-air oven at 170°C. Plate counts were used to determine the number of endospores surviving at the time intervals shown.In Figure 7.1, the decimal reduction time (D value) for the culture is approximately

Explanation

The decimal reduction time (D value) represents the time it takes for a specific process (in this case, heat treatment in a hot-air oven) to reduce the population of microorganisms by 90%. In this experiment, the suspension of Bacillus cereus endospores was subjected to heat at 170°C. By observing the plate counts at different time intervals, it was determined that it took approximately 10 minutes for the population of endospores to decrease by 90%. Therefore, the D value for this culture is 10 minutes.

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183. If you have inserted a gene in the Ti plasmid, the next step in genetic engineering is

Explanation

The Ti plasmid is commonly used in genetic engineering to transfer genes into plants. Agrobacterium is a natural genetic engineer that can transfer the Ti plasmid into plant cells. Therefore, the next step in genetic engineering after inserting a gene in the Ti plasmid would be to insert the Ti plasmid into Agrobacterium, which will then be used to transfer the gene into plant cells.

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184. The pentose phosphate pathway can be characterized as an anabolic pathway

Explanation

I think the next cat I get is going to be named Pentose.

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185. In general, ATP is generated in catabolic pathways and expended in anabolic pathways.

Explanation

ATP is actually generated in both catabolic and anabolic pathways. In catabolic pathways, ATP is produced through processes like glycolysis and the citric acid cycle, where energy is released from the breakdown of molecules. In anabolic pathways, ATP is used to fuel the synthesis of larger molecules, such as proteins and nucleic acids. Therefore, the statement that ATP is only generated in catabolic pathways is incorrect.

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186. Which of the following statements best describes what happens when a bacterial cell is placed in a solution containing 5 percent NaCl

Explanation

When a bacterial cell is placed in a solution containing 5 percent NaCl, the solution becomes hypertonic compared to the cell's cytoplasm. This means that the concentration of solutes outside the cell is higher than inside the cell. As a result, water molecules will move out of the cell through osmosis, causing the cell to shrink and potentially undergo plasmolysis. Therefore, the correct answer is that water will move out of the cell.

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187. Glycolysis is utilized by cells in both respiration and fermentation

Explanation

Glycolysis is a metabolic pathway that occurs in the cytoplasm of cells and is the first step in both aerobic respiration and fermentation. In aerobic respiration, glycolysis is followed by the Krebs cycle and oxidative phosphorylation, while in fermentation, glycolysis is followed by the production of either lactic acid or ethanol. Therefore, glycolysis is indeed utilized by cells in both respiration and fermentation.

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188. By which of the following mechanisms can a cell transport a substance from a lower to a higher concentration?

Explanation

Active transport is the mechanism by which a cell can transport a substance from a lower to a higher concentration. Unlike simple diffusion and facilitated diffusion, which rely on the concentration gradient to move substances across the cell membrane, active transport requires the use of energy in the form of ATP. This allows the cell to move molecules against their concentration gradient, ensuring that substances can be transported into the cell even when their concentration is higher outside. Extracellular enzymes and aquaporins do not directly involve the transport of substances from a lower to a higher concentration.

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189. Once an enzyme has converted substrates into products, the active site reverts back to its original form.

Explanation

Enzymes are catalysts that speed up chemical reactions by binding to substrates at their active sites. After the reaction takes place, the products are released and the enzyme returns to its original form. This is because enzymes are not consumed or permanently altered during the reaction. They can be reused and continue to catalyze the same reaction multiple times. Therefore, it is true that once an enzyme has converted substrates into products, the active site reverts back to its original form.

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190. The number of organelles such as chloroplasts, mitochondria, and rough endoplasmic reticulum is the same in all eukaryotic cells.

Explanation

The statement is false because the number of organelles such as chloroplasts, mitochondria, and rough endoplasmic reticulum can vary in different eukaryotic cells. Different cells have different functions and requirements, so the number and types of organelles can differ. For example, plant cells have a higher number of chloroplasts for photosynthesis, while muscle cells have a higher number of mitochondria for energy production. Therefore, the number of organelles can vary among eukaryotic cells.

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191. In recombinant DNA technology, a vector is a self-replicating segment of DNA, such as a plasmid or viral genome.

Explanation

A vector in recombinant DNA technology refers to a self-replicating segment of DNA, such as a plasmid or viral genome. This means that vectors have the ability to replicate themselves within a host organism. They are commonly used in genetic engineering to carry and transfer foreign DNA into host cells, allowing for the production of recombinant DNA molecules. Therefore, the statement "True" is correct as it accurately describes the role and function of vectors in recombinant DNA technology.

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192. The best definition of osmotic pressure is

Explanation

Osmotic pressure is defined as the force with which a solvent moves across a semipermeable membrane from a higher to a lower concentration. This occurs when there is a difference in solute concentration on either side of the membrane, causing the solvent to move in order to equalize the concentrations. The pressure exerted by this movement is known as osmotic pressure.

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193. In Table 7.2, which preservative is most effective?

Explanation

Sodium benzoate is the most effective preservative based on the information provided in Table 7.2. The question implies that the table contains data comparing the effectiveness of different preservatives, and sodium benzoate is likely to have the highest effectiveness among the options listed.

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194. Ethylene oxide

Explanation

Ethylene oxide is a sterilizing agent. Sterilizing agents are substances or methods used to eliminate or destroy all forms of microbial life, including bacteria, viruses, fungi, and spores. Ethylene oxide is commonly used in sterilization processes for medical equipment and supplies due to its ability to penetrate materials and effectively kill microorganisms. It is known for its broad-spectrum antimicrobial activity and is particularly effective against heat-sensitive and moisture-sensitive items. Therefore, ethylene oxide is considered a reliable sterilizing agent in various industries.

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195. All of the following substances are used to preserve foods EXCEPT

Explanation

Biguanides are not used to preserve foods. While substances like nisin, potassium sorbate, sodium nitrite, and calcium propionate are commonly used as food preservatives, biguanides are not typically utilized for this purpose. They may have other applications in the medical field or as disinfectants, but they are not commonly used in food preservation.

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196. In Table 7.3, which disinfectant was most effective against Salmonella?

Explanation

The question asks for the most effective disinfectant against Salmonella, but it does not provide any information about the effectiveness of each disinfectant. Therefore, it is not possible to determine which disinfectant was most effective against Salmonella based on the given information.

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197. All of the following are effective for destroying prions EXCEPT

Explanation

Boiling is not effective for destroying prions because prions are highly resistant to heat. Prions are abnormal proteins that can cause diseases like Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease and mad cow disease. While boiling can kill many types of pathogens, it is not sufficient to destroy prions. Other methods such as incineration, NaOH + autoclaving at 134°C, and proteases are more effective in destroying prions. Therefore, the correct answer is boiling.

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198. All of the following are methods of food preservation EXCEPT

Explanation

Microwaves are not a method of food preservation. Desiccation involves removing moisture from food, high pressure can kill microorganisms, ionizing radiation can kill bacteria and pests, and osmotic pressure involves using high concentrations of salt or sugar to preserve food. However, microwaves are primarily used for heating and cooking food, rather than preserving it.

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199. The reduction of microbial populations to safe public health levels

Explanation

Sanitation refers to the process of maintaining cleanliness and hygiene in order to prevent the spread of diseases and reduce microbial populations to safe levels. It involves practices such as proper waste disposal, cleaning of surfaces, and personal hygiene. While sterilization, asepsis, and antisepsis are also related to reducing microbial populations, they specifically focus on killing or preventing the growth of microorganisms. Degerming refers to the removal of microorganisms from a specific area, and commercial sterilization refers to the process of sterilizing food products to make them safe for consumption. However, sanitation encompasses a broader range of practices aimed at ensuring overall public health and safety.

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200. Which one of the following is most resistant to chemical biocides?

Explanation

"gram-negative bacteria" was also accepted as the correct answer on the test, but "mycobacteria" was preferred.

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If base 4 is thymine, what is base 4'?
Salts and sugars work to preserve foods by creating a
Based on the information in Table 8.3, prostate cancer is probably the...
Most bacteria reproduce by
How many pieces will EcoRI produce from the plasmid shown in Figure...
The terms "run" and "tumble" are generally associated with
In Figure 9.2, the enzyme in step 1 is
Which of the following is a limitation of the autoclave?
An agent used to reduce the number of bacteria on a toilet would most...
Refer to Table 8.2 The anticodon for valine is
Which of the following is a scientific name?
During which growth phase will gram-positive bacteria be most...
Which of the following is NOT a direct method to measure microbial...
The infection that causes AIDS is a
In Figure 4.3, which diagram of a cell wall is decolorized by alcohol?
Disinfection of water is achieved by all of the following EXCEPT
In Figure 4.3, which diagram of a cell wall is resistant to many...
A source of heat-stable DNA polymerase is
Three cells with generation times of 60 minutes are inoculated into a...
The cancer gene ras produces mRNA containing an extra exon that...
A sexually transmitted disease is an example of
Pseudomonas has been found growing in quaternary ammonium compounds...
Which of the following are used by the Centers for Disease Control and...
Recombination will always alter a cell's genotype
The first antibiotic utilized was 
Autoclaving is the most effective method of moist heat sterilization
Bacteria typically contain multiple chromosomes
Which concentration of ethanol is the most effective bactericide?
Mutations that are harmful to cells occur more frequently than those...
All of the following factors contribute to hospital-acquired...
In the Ames test, any colonies that form on the control should be the...
The source of nutrients in nutrient agar is
Which of the following could be used to sterilize plastic Petri plates...
Cell-to-cell contact is required for transduction to occur
Place the steps of the Gram stain in the correct order: 1-Alcohol...
A suspension of 106 Bacillus cereus endospores was put in a hot-air...
Patients with indwelling catheters are susceptible to infections...
Fungal infections are studied by
Bacterial growth refers to an increase in the numbers of cells in a...
Laboratory cultivation of obligate anaerobes requires reducing media...
In green and purple bacteria, electrons to reduce CO2 can come from
Recombinant DNA refers to the
Turbidity is an indirect measurement of bacterial growth that can be...
The reaction catalyzed by reverse transcriptase is
In Figure 8.3, if compound C reacts with the allosteric site of enzyme...
Which of the following is an advantage of using E. coli to make a...
Which of the following results in lethal damage to nucleic acids?
Which graph in Figure 7.2 best depicts the effect of placing the...
Conjugation differs from reproduction because conjugation
Which type of molecule contains the alcohol glycerol?
A suffix meaning to kill
The figure at the left in Figure 9.3 shows a gene identified by...
Starch, dextran, glycogen, and cellulose are polymers of
A urease test is used to identify Myobacterium tuberculosis because
An agent that reproduces in cells but is not composed of cells and...
Worldwide epidemic
In Table 7.1, which compound was the most effective against...
People who transmit diseases but who do not exhibit any symptoms or...
A multicellular organism that has a mouth and lives in an animal host...
Each of the following statements concerning the gram-positive cell...
The DNA found in most bacterial cells
Which type of molecule contains the CH2O units?
The counterstain in the Gram stain is
The cell walls of bacteria are responsible for the shape of the...
Antibiotics that target the cell wall are an effective treatment...
The science that deals with when diseases occur and how that are...
Which of the following statements is TRUE?
The exploitation of biological processes for industrial and other...
Endospores are a reproductive structure
Which of the following organelles most closely resembles a prokaryotic...
Which drawing in Figure 4.1 is a tetrad?
A gene is best defined as
Which of the following pairs is mismatched
A nosocomial infection is
Bacteria are a commonly used organism for studies of genetic material...
The study of bacteria is known as
A shuttle vector is a plasmid that is used to move pieces of DNA among...
Which of the following can contribute to postoperative infections?
Normal microbiota are typically found in and on all the following body...
The disadvantage of genomic libraries over cDNA libraries is that...
One of the first commercial successes of recombinant DNA technology...
An iodophor is a(n) 
Bioinformatics is the use of computer technology to compare and...
The Ti plasmid isolated from Agrobacterium can be used to insert DNA...
The Bt toxin derived from Bacillus thuringiensis has been introduced...
Which of the following is NOT a typical characteristic of the plasma...
The study of fungus is
Which of the following is NOT a product of transcription?
Which drawing in Figure 4.1 is bacillus?
In Figure 9.4, the bacteria transformed with the recombinant plasmid...
The study of parasites is
In Figure 4.3, which diagram of a cell wall is a toxic cell wall?
Which of the following pairs is mismatched?
Which of the following statements regarding metabolism is FALSE?
The microbial process of converting sugars to alcohol is known as
Bacteria differ from viruses in that bacteria...
If you were preparing nutrient agar at home and did not have an...
Meiosis occurs in reproduction
Usually single circular chromosome without histone
Desiccation is a reliable form of sterilization
Which of the following best describes the pattern of microbial...
Transformation is the transfer of DNA from a donor to a recipient cell
Proof that a microbe could cause disease was provided by
Which of the following pairs of terms is mismatched?
Genetic change in bacteria can be brought about by
What do genes consist of
According to the operon model, for the synthesis of an inducible...
If you knew the sequence of nucleotides within a gene, which one of...
Refer to Table 8.2. What is the sequence of amino acids encoded by the...
Open-reading frames are segments of DNA in which both start and stop...
Both base substitution and frameshift mutations can result in the...
DNA is constructed of
If base 4 is thymine, what is base 11'
In Figure 8.4, the antibiotic chloramphenicol binds the 50S ribosome...
Base 2 is attached to
The damage caused by ultraviolet radiation is
Repair of damaged DNA might be viewed as a race between an...
Which model of the lac operon correctly shows RNA polymerase, lactose,...
In Figure 8.3, if enzyme A is a repressible enzyme, compound C would
The necessary ingredients for DNA synthesis can be mixed together in a...
Which of the following statements is FALSE?
Which of the following statements about bacteriocins is FALSE?
Which colonies are streptomycin-resistant and leucine-requiring?
Culture 1:  F+, leucine+, histidine+ Culture 2:  F-,...
An enzyme produced in response to the presence of a substrate is...
Which of the following statements regarding a bacterium that is R+ is...
The initial effect of ionizing radiation on a cell is that it causes
Application of heat to living cells can result in all of the following...
Which of the following is the best definition of oxidative...
The purpose of a mordant in the Gram stain is
Which of the following is not used to determine metabolic activity?
In Figure 5.8, the structure labeled "1" is
Which molecule is composed of a chain of amino acids?
The study of viruses is
When glucose is high, cAMP is _____ : CAP _____ bind the lac operator,...
The miRNAs in a cell
Refer to Table 8.2. If a frameshift mutation occurred in the sequence...
In which of the following situation would Koch's postulates be...
The mechanism by which the presence of glucose inhibits the arabinose...
In figure 2.1, which is an alcohol?
What is the total magnification of a chloroplast viewed with a 10x...
One effect of washing regularly with antibacterial agents is the...
An enzyme that copies DNA to make a molecule of RNA is
Cells are differentiated after which step in the Gram stain?
In Figure 4.3, which diagram of a cell wall possesses molecules...
Which of the following methods is used to preserve food by slowing the...
Biogenesis refers to the
The Pap test for cervical cancer involves microscopic examination of...
Moist heat destroys organisms by denaturing proteins.
Some organisms may contain multiple genomes
In the Southern blot technique, which of the following is NOT...
Assume that one culture is a freshly opened package of dried yeast...
Assume you are growing bacteria on a lipid medium that started at pH...
Simple staining is often necessary to improve contrast in this...
Which microscope achieves the highest magnification and greatest...
In Figure 5.8, the path labeled "2" is the flow of
An apoenzyme that loses its coenzyme subunit will be non-functional
In Table 7.1, which compound was bactericidal?
Study of the cause of diseases
Both respiration and photosynthesis require the use of an electron...
Which of the following does not belong with the others?
The study of genetic material taken directly from the environment is
In Figure 9.5, the marker genes used for selecting recombinant DNA are
Chemical disinfection of living tissue, such as skin or mucous...
Archaea differ from bacteria in that archaea...
The preservation of beef jerky from microbial growth relies on which...
The appearance of gram-negative bacteria after addition of the...
Figure 6.2 shows a typical bacterial growth curve with the x-axis...
What type of reaction is in Figure 5.2?
An experiment began with 4 cells and ended with 128 cells. How many...
In Figure 6.3, which tube shows the expected growth pattern for a...
Which of the graphs in Figure 5.5 best illustrates the activity of an...
Which of the following treatments is the most effective for...
Which of the following statements about substrate-level...
A restriction fragment is
Which concentration of ethanol is the least effective bactericide?
Pieces of DNA stored in yeast cells are called a
A suspension of 106 Bacillus cereus endospores was put in a hot-air...
Which of the following is NOT necessary for respiration?
Most pathogenic bacteria are thermophiles
Which of the following statements is false?
A suspension of 106 Bacillus cereus endospores was put in a hot-air...
If you have inserted a gene in the Ti plasmid, the next step in...
The pentose phosphate pathway can be characterized as an anabolic...
In general, ATP is generated in catabolic pathways and expended in...
Which of the following statements best describes what happens when a...
Glycolysis is utilized by cells in both respiration and fermentation
By which of the following mechanisms can a cell transport a substance...
Once an enzyme has converted substrates into products, the active site...
The number of organelles such as chloroplasts, mitochondria, and rough...
In recombinant DNA technology, a vector is a self-replicating segment...
The best definition of osmotic pressure is
In Table 7.2, which preservative is most effective?
Ethylene oxide
All of the following substances are used to preserve foods EXCEPT
In Table 7.3, which disinfectant was most effective against...
All of the following are effective for destroying prions EXCEPT
All of the following are methods of food preservation EXCEPT
The reduction of microbial populations to safe public health levels
Which one of the following is most resistant to chemical biocides?
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