Microbiology & Parasitology

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Quizzes Created: 5 | Total Attempts: 47,239
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  • 1/26 Questions

    Proper media for culture of a urethral discharge from a man include:

    • Sheep blood and phenylethyl alcohol agars
    • Eosin-methylene blue and sheep blood agars
    • Thioglycollate broth and chocolate agar
    • Chocolate and modified Thayer-Martin agars
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Microbiology Quizzes & Trivia
About This Quiz

Explore key microbiological techniques in the 'Microbiology & Parasitology' quiz. Assess skills in culture media selection, understanding colony counts, and antibiotic resistance testing, essential for clinical diagnostics and research in health sciences.

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  • 2. 

    A sheep blood agar plate inoculated with 0.001 mL of urine grows 70 colonies of Staphylococcus aureus. How many colony forming units per mL of urine should be reported?

    • 70

    • 700

    • 7,000

    • 70,000

    Correct Answer
    A. 70,000
    Explanation
    Based on the information given, a sheep blood agar plate inoculated with 0.001 mL of urine grows 70 colonies of Staphylococcus aureus. This means that there are 70 colonies in 0.001 mL of urine. To find the number of colony forming units per mL of urine, we can use the fact that 0.001 mL is equivalent to 1/1000 of a mL. Therefore, if there are 70 colonies in 0.001 mL, there would be 70,000 colonies in 1 mL of urine.

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  • 3. 

    The lowest concentration of antibiotic that inhibits growth of a test organism is the:

    • Minimum inhibitory concentration

    • Serum inhibitory concentration

    • Minimum bactericidal titer

    • Maximum inhibitory titer

    Correct Answer
    A. Minimum inhibitory concentration
    Explanation
    The lowest concentration of antibiotic that inhibits the growth of a test organism is known as the minimum inhibitory concentration (MIC). This concentration is determined through laboratory testing and is used to assess the effectiveness of an antibiotic against a specific organism. The MIC is important in determining the appropriate dosage and treatment duration to effectively inhibit the growth of the organism and prevent the development of antibiotic resistance.

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  • 4. 

    Which of the following clean catch urine culture colony counts indicates the patient likely has a urinary tract infection?

    • 10^1 CFU/mL

    • 10^3 CFU/mL

    • 10^5 CFU/mL

    • No growth

    Correct Answer
    A. 10^3 CFU/mL
    Explanation
    A clean catch urine culture is a test used to detect the presence of bacteria in the urine. A colony count of 10^3 CFU/mL indicates that there is a significant amount of bacteria present in the urine, suggesting a urinary tract infection. A colony count of 10^1 CFU/mL is considered a low count and may not be clinically significant. A colony count of 10^5 CFU/mL is considered a high count and is also indicative of a urinary tract infection. "No growth" means that no bacteria were detected in the urine sample, indicating that the patient likely does not have a urinary tract infection.

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  • 5. 

    The steam autoclave method of sterilization:

    • Uses 15 lbs of pressure for 15 minutes

    • Utilizes dry heat for 20 minutes

    • Produces a maximum temperature of 100 degrees C

    • Requires a source of ethylene oxide

    Correct Answer
    A. Uses 15 lbs of pressure for 15 minutes
    Explanation
    The steam autoclave method of sterilization uses 15 lbs of pressure for 15 minutes. This means that the sterilization process involves subjecting the materials or equipment to high pressure steam for a specific duration. The pressure helps to ensure the effective killing or removal of microorganisms, making the items sterile. This method is commonly used in medical and laboratory settings to sterilize surgical instruments, laboratory equipment, and other materials that need to be free from any microbial contamination.

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  • 6. 

    The expected colony count in a suprapubic urine from a healthy individual is:

    • 0 CFU/mL

    • 100 CFU/mL

    • 1,000 CFU/mL

    • 100,000 CFU/mL

    Correct Answer
    A. 0 CFU/mL
    Explanation
    The expected colony count in a suprapubic urine from a healthy individual is 0 CFU/mL. This means that there should be no bacterial growth present in the urine sample. A healthy individual's urine should be sterile, without any bacteria or other microorganisms. A colony count of 0 CFU/mL indicates that there is no infection or bacterial overgrowth in the urinary tract.

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  • 7. 

    An aspiration of a deep wound was plated on blood agar plates and incubated aerobically and anaerobically. At 24 hours there was growth on both plates. This indicates that the organism is a(n):

    • Nonfermenter

    • Obligate anaerobe

    • Aerobe

    • Facultative anaerobe

    Correct Answer
    A. Facultative anaerobe
    Explanation
    The growth of the organism on both the aerobic and anaerobic plates indicates that it is capable of growing in the presence or absence of oxygen. This suggests that the organism is a facultative anaerobe, meaning it can switch between aerobic and anaerobic respiration depending on the availability of oxygen.

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  • 8. 

    The proper blood-to-broth ration for blood cultures to reduce the antibacterial effect of serum in adults is:

    • 1:2

    • 1:3

    • 1:10

    • 1:30

    Correct Answer
    A. 1:10
    Explanation
    The proper blood-to-broth ratio for blood cultures in adults should be 1:10. This ratio is necessary to reduce the antibacterial effect of serum. A higher ratio of blood to broth allows for a higher concentration of bacteria in the broth, which increases the chances of detecting any potential infections. A ratio of 1:10 ensures that there is enough blood in the culture to provide a sufficient sample for accurate testing while also diluting the antibacterial effect of serum.

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  • 9. 

    A penicillin-resistant Neisseria gonorrhoeae produces:

    • Alpha-hemolysin

    • Beta-lactamase

    • Enterotoxin

    • Coagulase

    Correct Answer
    A. Beta-lactamase
    Explanation
    A penicillin-resistant Neisseria gonorrhoeae produces beta-lactamase. Beta-lactamase is an enzyme that breaks down the beta-lactam ring structure found in penicillin and other related antibiotics. This enzyme is produced by bacteria as a defense mechanism to protect themselves from the effects of these antibiotics. In the case of penicillin-resistant Neisseria gonorrhoeae, the production of beta-lactamase allows the bacteria to inactivate penicillin and render it ineffective in treating the infection.

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  • 10. 

    Which selective medium is used for the isolation of gram-positive microorganisms?

    • Columbia CNA with 5% sheep blood

    • Trypticase soy agar with 5% sheep blood

    • Eosin methylene blue

    • Modified Thayer-Martin

    Correct Answer
    A. Columbia CNA with 5% sheep blood
    Explanation
    Columbia CNA with 5% sheep blood is used as a selective medium for the isolation of gram-positive microorganisms. This medium contains colistin and nalidixic acid, which inhibit the growth of gram-negative bacteria. Additionally, the addition of sheep blood provides essential nutrients for the growth of gram-positive bacteria. Therefore, this medium promotes the growth of gram-positive microorganisms while inhibiting the growth of gram-negative bacteria.

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  • 11. 

    The most sensitive substrate for the detection of beta-lactamases is:

    • Penicillin

    • Ampicillin

    • Cefoxitin

    • Nitrocefin

    Correct Answer
    A. Nitrocefin
    Explanation
    Nitrocefin is the most sensitive substrate for the detection of beta-lactamases. Beta-lactamases are enzymes produced by bacteria that can inactivate beta-lactam antibiotics, such as penicillin, ampicillin, and cefoxitin. Nitrocefin is a chromogenic cephalosporin that changes color when it is hydrolyzed by beta-lactamases, making it a useful tool for detecting the presence of these enzymes. Therefore, nitrocefin is the correct answer as it is specifically designed to detect beta-lactamase activity.

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  • 12. 

    A Stephylococcus aureus isolate has an MIC of 4ug/mL to oxacillin. There is uncertainty as to whether this represents an oxacillin (heteroresistant) resistant strain or a hyperproducer of beta lactamase. Strain                             Oxacillin                  Amoxicillin-clavulanic acid strain A                            s                              s strain B                            s                              r strain C                            r                              s strain D                            r                              r Based on the above results for oxacillin and amoxicillin-clavulanic acid, which strain is heteroresistant?

    • Strain A

    • Strain B

    • Strain C

    • Strain D

    Correct Answer
    A. Strain D
    Explanation
    Strain D is considered heteroresistant because it shows resistance to oxacillin but susceptibility to amoxicillin-clavulanic acid. This suggests that the strain may be producing beta-lactamase, an enzyme that can degrade oxacillin, leading to resistance. The susceptibility to amoxicillin-clavulanic acid indicates that the strain is susceptible to this antibiotic combination, which inhibits beta-lactamase activity. Therefore, strain D is likely a hyperproducer of beta-lactamase rather than a true oxacillin-resistant strain.

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  • 13. 

    An Enterococcus isolated from multiple blood cultures in a patient endocarditis should be:

    • Screened for high level aminoglycoside resistance

    • Checked for tolerance

    • Assayed for serum antimicrobial activity

    • Tested for beta-lactamase production

    Correct Answer
    A. Screened for high level aminoglycoside resistance
    Explanation
    In patients with endocarditis, it is important to screen Enterococcus isolates for high level aminoglycoside resistance. This is because aminoglycosides are commonly used in combination with other antibiotics to treat endocarditis caused by Enterococcus. High level resistance to aminoglycosides can significantly impact the effectiveness of treatment. Therefore, it is crucial to identify isolates that are resistant to aminoglycosides early on, in order to determine appropriate alternative treatment options for the patient.

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  • 14. 

    In the Kirby-Bauer disc diffusion susceptibility test, which variable is critical when testing Pseudomonas species for antibiotic susceptibility to aminoglycosides?

    • Incubation temperature

    • Duration of incubation

    • Cation content of media

    • Dept of agar

    Correct Answer
    A. Cation content of media
    Explanation
    The variable that is critical when testing Pseudomonas species for antibiotic susceptibility to aminoglycosides in the Kirby-Bauer disc diffusion susceptibility test is the cation content of media. This is because aminoglycosides require the presence of certain cations, such as magnesium and calcium, in order to exert their antibacterial activity effectively. The absence or inadequate concentration of these cations in the media can lead to false results and inaccurate interpretation of the susceptibility of Pseudomonas species to aminoglycosides.

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  • 15. 

    The procedure that assures the most accurate detection of mecA-mediated oxacillin resistance in routine broth microdilution susceptibility testing against S aureus is:

    • Addition of 4% NaCl

    • Incubation at 30 degrees C

    • Incubation for 48 hours

    • Use of cefoxitin for testing

    Correct Answer
    A. Use of cefoxitin for testing
    Explanation
    The most accurate detection of mecA-mediated oxacillin resistance in routine broth microdilution susceptibility testing against S. aureus is achieved by using cefoxitin for testing. MecA is a gene that confers resistance to methicillin and oxacillin in S. aureus. Cefoxitin is a cephalosporin antibiotic that is more reliable in detecting mecA-mediated resistance compared to oxacillin. It has been found to have a higher sensitivity and specificity for detecting MRSA (methicillin-resistant S. aureus) strains. Therefore, using cefoxitin as the antibiotic for testing ensures the most accurate detection of mecA-mediated oxacillin resistance.

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  • 16. 

    When performing a stool culture, a colony type typical of an enteric pathogen is subcultured on a blood agar plate. The resulting pure culture is screened with several tests to obtain the following results:
    • TSI: acid butt, alkaline slant, no gas, no H2S
    • phenylalanine deaminase: negative
    • motility: positive
    • serological typing: Shigella flexneri (Shigella subgroup B)
    The serological typing is verified with new kit controls. The best course of action would be to:

    • Report the organism as Shigella flexneri without further testing

    • Verify reactivity of motility medium with positive and negative controls

    • Verify reactivity of the TSI slant with positive and negative controls for H2S production

    • Verify reactivity of phenylalanine deaminase with postive and negative controls

    Correct Answer
    A. Verify reactivity of motility medium with positive and negative controls
    Explanation
    The best course of action would be to verify the reactivity of the motility medium with positive and negative controls. This is because the given information states that the motility test is positive. However, it is important to confirm the accuracy of this result by using positive and negative controls. This step is necessary to ensure the reliability of the test and to rule out any potential errors or false positives. Therefore, verifying the reactivity of the motility medium with controls is the appropriate next step in the process.

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  • 17. 

    Susceptibility testing performed on quality control organisms using a new media lot number yielded zone sizes that were too large for all antibiotics tested. The testing was repeated using media from a previouly used lot number and all zone sizes were acceptable. Which of the following best explains the unacceptable zone sizes?

    • The antibiotic disks were not stored with proper desiccant

    • The depth of the media was too thick

    • The depth of the media was too thin

    • The antibiotic disks were not properly applied to the media

    Correct Answer
    A. The depth of the media was too thin
    Explanation
    The depth of the media being too thin can explain the unacceptable zone sizes. The susceptibility testing relies on the diffusion of antibiotics from the disks into the media, creating zones of inhibition around the disks. If the media is too thin, it may not provide enough space for the antibiotics to diffuse properly, resulting in larger zone sizes. Repeating the testing with media from a previously used lot number, which likely had a thicker depth, resulted in acceptable zone sizes.

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  • 18. 

    Three sets of blood cultures were obtained from an adult patient with fever and suspected endocarditis. The aerobic bottle of one set had growth of Staphylococcus epidermidis at 5 days of incubation. This indicates that:

    • There was a low-grade bacteremia

    • The organism is most likely a contaminant

    • The patient has a line infection

    • The blood culture bottles are defective

    Correct Answer
    A. The organism is most likely a contaminant
    Explanation
    The growth of Staphylococcus epidermidis in the aerobic bottle after 5 days of incubation suggests that the organism is most likely a contaminant. Staphylococcus epidermidis is a common skin commensal and is often found as a contaminant in blood cultures. In cases of true infection, the organism would typically grow in multiple sets of blood cultures, not just one. Therefore, the presence of Staphylococcus epidermidis in only one set of blood cultures suggests that it is likely a contaminant rather than a true pathogen causing endocarditis or bacteremia.

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  • 19. 

    In order to isolate Campylobacter coli/jejuni, the fecal specimen should be:

    • Inoculated onto selective plating media and incubated in reduced oxygen with added CO2 at 42 degrees C

    • Stored in tryptic soy brother before plating to ensure growth of the organism

    • Inoculated onto selective plating media and incubated at both 35 degrees and at room temperature

    • Incubated at 35 degrees C for 2 hours in Cary-Blair media before inoculating onto selective plating media

    Correct Answer
    A. Inoculated onto selective plating media and incubated in reduced oxygen with added CO2 at 42 degrees C
    Explanation
    To isolate Campylobacter coli/jejuni, the fecal specimen should be inoculated onto selective plating media and incubated in reduced oxygen with added CO2 at 42 degrees C. This is because Campylobacter coli/jejuni is a microaerophilic bacteria that requires a low oxygen environment for growth. The selective plating media helps in suppressing the growth of other bacteria while promoting the growth of Campylobacter coli/jejuni. The high temperature of 42 degrees C is optimal for the growth of this organism. The addition of CO2 further enhances the growth conditions for Campylobacter coli/jejuni.

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  • 20. 

    An expectorated sputum is sent to the laboratory for culture from a patient with respiratory distress. The gram stain of the specimen shows many squamous epithelial cells (>25/lpf) and rare neutrophils. The microscopic appearance of the organism presents include:
    • moderate gram-positive cocci and chains and diplococci
    • moderate gram-negative diplococci
    • moderate palisading gram-positive bacilli all in moderate amounts
    This gram stain is most indicative of:

    • A pneumococcal pneumonia

    • An anaerobic infection

    • An Haemophilus pneumonia

    • Oropharyngeal flora

    Correct Answer
    A. Oropharyngeal flora
    Explanation
    The presence of many squamous epithelial cells and rare neutrophils in the gram stain suggests that the specimen is contaminated with oropharyngeal flora. Oropharyngeal flora refers to the normal bacteria that are present in the throat and mouth. These bacteria can contaminate sputum samples during collection and can be seen on the gram stain. The presence of moderate amounts of gram-positive cocci and chains and diplococci, as well as gram-negative diplococci and palisading gram-positive bacilli, further supports the idea of contamination with oropharyngeal flora rather than indicating a specific infection like pneumococcal pneumonia or Haemophilus pneumonia.

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  • 21. 

    Which type of microscope would be most useful in examining viruses and the structure of microbial cells?

    • Electron

    • Phase-contrast

    • Dark-field

    • Bright-field

    Correct Answer
    A. Electron
    Explanation
    The electron microscope would be most useful in examining viruses and the structure of microbial cells because it uses a beam of electrons to create high-resolution images. This allows for detailed examination of the small size and intricate structures of viruses and microbial cells, which cannot be easily observed with other types of microscopes.

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  • 22. 

    After satisfactory performance of daily disk diffusion susceptibility quality control is documented the frequency of quality control can be reduced to:

    • Twice a week

    • Every week

    • Every other week

    • Every month

    Correct Answer
    A. Every week
    Explanation
    After satisfactory performance of daily disk diffusion susceptibility quality control is documented, the frequency of quality control can be reduced to every week. This means that conducting quality control tests once a week is sufficient to ensure the accuracy and reliability of the results. This frequency allows for regular monitoring and identification of any potential issues or errors in the testing process, while also allowing for efficient use of resources and time.

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  • 23. 

    In disk diffusion susceptibility testing, as an antibicrobial agent diffuses away from the disk, the concentration of antibiotics:

    • Increased

    • Decreased

    • Unchanged

    • Inoculum dependent

    Correct Answer
    A. Decreased
    Explanation
    In disk diffusion susceptibility testing, the concentration of antibiotics decreases as the antimicrobial agent diffuses away from the disk. As the antibiotics spread out, their concentration becomes more diluted, leading to a decrease in their overall concentration. This decrease in concentration is essential for determining the susceptibility of bacteria to the antibiotics. If the concentration remains unchanged or increases, it may not accurately reflect the effectiveness of the antibiotics against the bacteria being tested.

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  • 24. 

    The most common cause for failure of a gaspak anaerobic jar to establlish an adequate environment for anaerobic incubation is:

    • The failure of the oxidation-reduction potential indicator system due to deterioration of methylene blue

    • The failure of the packet to generate adequate H2 and/or CO2

    • Condensation of water on the inner surface of the jar

    • Catalysts that have become inactivated after repeated use

    Correct Answer
    A. Catalysts that have become inactivated after repeated use
  • 25. 

    Which of the following is the most appropriate method for collecting a urine specimen from a patient with an indwelling catheter?

    • Remove the catheter, cut the tip, and submit for culture

    • Disconnect the catheter from the bag, and collect urine from the terminal end of the catheter

    • Collect urine directly from the bag

    • Aspirate urine aseptically from the catheter tubing

    Correct Answer
    A. Aspirate urine aseptically from the catheter tubing
    Explanation
    The most appropriate method for collecting a urine specimen from a patient with an indwelling catheter is to aspirate urine aseptically from the catheter tubing. This method ensures that the urine sample is collected directly from the catheter, maintaining sterility and minimizing the risk of contamination. Removing the catheter, cutting the tip, and submitting it for culture is not necessary and may introduce unnecessary risks. Disconnecting the catheter from the bag and collecting urine from the terminal end of the catheter may also increase the risk of contamination. Collecting urine directly from the bag may not provide an accurate representation of the patient's urine.

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  • 26. 

    Which one of the following specimen requests is acceptable?

    • Feces submitted for anaerobic culture

    • Foley catheter tip submitted for aerobic culture

    • Rectal swab submitted for direct smear for gonococci

    • Urine for culture of acid-fast bacilli

    Correct Answer
    A. Urine for culture of acid-fast bacilli
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "urine for culture of acid-fast bacilli" because acid-fast bacilli are a type of bacteria that are difficult to stain using standard laboratory techniques. They are commonly associated with tuberculosis and other mycobacterial infections. Urine samples can be used to culture and identify acid-fast bacilli, making this specimen request acceptable for diagnosing such infections.

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  • Current Version
  • Mar 22, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Jun 14, 2012
    Quiz Created by
    Melissa3393

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