Cardiology Practice Exam Quiz!

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1. Is S1 associated with systole or diastole?

Explanation

S1 is associated with systole because it is the first heart sound that occurs during the contraction of the ventricles. Systole is the phase of the cardiac cycle when the heart muscle contracts and pumps blood out of the chambers. During systole, the ventricles contract, the atrioventricular valves close, and the semilunar valves open, causing the first heart sound (S1) to be heard. This sound is caused by the closure of the mitral and tricuspid valves and marks the beginning of systole.

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About This Quiz
Cardiology Practice Exam Quiz! - Quiz

This Cardiology Practice Exam Quiz assesses knowledge in diagnosing and understanding conditions such as atrial fibrillation, heart failure, and mitral valve prolapse through clinical scenarios.

2. Which cranial nerve is responsible for smell?

Explanation

The cranial nerve responsible for smell is CN 1, also known as the Olfactory nerve. This nerve is responsible for transmitting information related to smell from the nose to the brain. It plays a crucial role in our sense of smell and is responsible for detecting and identifying different odors.

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3. Which of the following descriptions best describes a GRADE 1 murmur?

Explanation

A Grade 1 murmur is described as very faint. This means that it is barely audible and may be difficult to detect even with a stethoscope. It is the softest type of murmur and may require a trained ear to hear. This murmur is typically not associated with any other physical findings such as a thrill, which is a vibrating sensation felt on the chest wall. It is important for healthcare professionals to accurately identify the grade of a murmur as it can provide valuable information about the severity and potential underlying causes of the condition.

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4. A 25-year-old housewife presents to the urgent care clinic for evaluation of paralysis in her face.  She has a history of an upper respiratory 2 weeks before the onset of these symptoms.  She states that her face is drooping and that she is unable to close her eye.  On physical examination, you note that her forehead is smooth on the right side, her palpebral fissure appears widened, and her nasolabial fold appears flattened and she is drooling.  Based on this information, what is the most likely diagnosis?

Explanation

The most likely diagnosis in this case is Bell's palsy. Bell's palsy is a condition characterized by sudden, unilateral facial paralysis that is often preceded by an upper respiratory infection. The symptoms include drooping of the face, inability to close the eye, smooth forehead on the affected side, widened palpebral fissure, flattened nasolabial fold, and drooling. These findings are consistent with the given patient's presentation, making Bell's palsy the most likely diagnosis. Cortical stroke would typically present with other neurological symptoms, and Horner's syndrome and stress reaction do not explain the facial paralysis.

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5. Is S2 associated with systole of diastole?

Explanation

Diastole refers to the phase of the cardiac cycle when the heart muscle relaxes and fills with blood. S2, also known as the second heart sound, occurs during the diastole phase. Therefore, S2 is associated with diastole, not systole.

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6. A 68-year-old retired kindergarten teacher presents to your office for evaluation of swelling in her right arm. On questioning her further, you discover that she has had a recent mastectomy for right-sided ductal carcinoma in situ. What is you most likely diagnosis?

Explanation

The most likely diagnosis for the 68-year-old retired kindergarten teacher with swelling in her right arm after a recent mastectomy for right-sided ductal carcinoma in situ is lymphedema. Lymphedema is a condition characterized by the accumulation of lymphatic fluid, leading to swelling in the affected limb. In this case, the surgery and removal of lymph nodes during the mastectomy may have disrupted the normal lymphatic drainage, resulting in lymphedema.

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7. Which cranial nerve is responsible for vision?

Explanation

The cranial nerve responsible for vision is CN 2 (Optic). The optic nerve carries visual information from the retina to the brain, allowing us to perceive and interpret visual stimuli. CN 3 (Oculomotor) controls the movement of the eye, CN 8 (Vestibulocochlear) is responsible for hearing and balance, and CN 1 (Olfactory) is involved in the sense of smell. However, only CN 2 is specifically related to vision.

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8. Which cranial nerve is responsible for facial movement, facial expressions,& secretion of tears and saliva?

Explanation

Cranial nerve 7, also known as the Facial nerve, is responsible for facial movement, facial expressions, and secretion of tears and saliva. This nerve innervates the muscles of facial expression, allowing us to smile, frown, and make various facial expressions. It also controls the lacrimal and salivary glands, which produce tears and saliva respectively. Therefore, the correct answer is CN 7 (Facial).

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9. The Frontal lobe is mainly responsible for...

Explanation

The frontal lobe is responsible for a wide range of cognitive functions such as emotions, reasoning, planning, movement, and parts of speech. It plays a crucial role in purposeful acts like creativity, judgment, problem solving, and planning. This explanation aligns with the information provided in the question, which highlights the various functions associated with the frontal lobe.

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10. An 80 year old woman presents to your clinic for evaluation of palpations and shortness of breath.  You obtain an electrocardiogram, which reveals an irregularly irregular rhythm without discrete p waves.  You diagnosis her with atrial fibrillation.  The most likely physical finding upon auscultation of her heart is

Explanation

The correct answer is an irregularly irregular rhythm. Atrial fibrillation is characterized by an irregularly irregular rhythm on auscultation of the heart. This means that the intervals between the beats are inconsistent and there is no predictable pattern. This is due to the chaotic electrical activity in the atria, resulting in an irregular ventricular response. The absence of discrete p waves on the electrocardiogram also supports the diagnosis of atrial fibrillation.

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11. What kind of edema would you see with Right sided heart failure?

Explanation

Right sided heart failure leads to increased pressure in the right side of the heart, causing fluid to back up into the venous system. This results in dependent edema, which is edema that occurs in the lower parts of the body such as the legs, ankles, and feet. Additionally, when the patient is supine, fluid may accumulate in the sacral area due to gravity. Other signs of right sided heart failure include increased jugular venous distention (JVD), an enlarged liver, and an enlarged heart.

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12. What tests would you perform to check for Carpal Tunnel Syndrome?

Explanation

Tinnel's Sign and Phelan's Test are both diagnostic tests used to check for Carpal Tunnel Syndrome. Tinnel's Sign involves tapping or pressing on the median nerve in the wrist to see if it produces tingling or numbness in the hand. Phelan's Test involves flexing the wrist for 60 seconds to see if it produces symptoms such as tingling or numbness. These tests help to identify potential nerve compression or irritation in the carpal tunnel, which is a common symptom of Carpal Tunnel Syndrome.

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13. Which of the following is an S shaped curvature of the spine?

Explanation

Scoliosis is the correct answer because it refers to an S-shaped curvature of the spine. It is a condition where the spine curves sideways, causing it to appear like an "S" or a "C" shape. Scoliosis can occur in any part of the spine and can range from mild to severe. It can cause discomfort, pain, and difficulty with posture and movement. Treatment options for scoliosis include physical therapy, bracing, and in severe cases, surgery.

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14. Define attention:

Explanation

Attention refers to the ability to focus or concentrate on a particular task or activity for a sustained period of time. It involves directing cognitive resources towards a specific stimulus or goal while ignoring distractions. This ability allows individuals to filter out irrelevant information and allocate their mental resources effectively. Attention is crucial for learning, problem-solving, and completing tasks efficiently.

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15. You blindfold your pt and hold an orange under their nose. You ask them to identify the smell which they correctly do. Which cranial nerve have you just tested?

Explanation

By blindfolding the patient and holding an orange under their nose, the test is assessing their ability to identify smells. The olfactory nerve (CN 1) is responsible for the sense of smell, so by correctly identifying the smell of the orange, it indicates that the olfactory nerve is functioning properly. Therefore, the correct answer is CN 1 (Olfactory).

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16. Which of the following is associated with deposits of sodium urate crystals?

Explanation

Gout Arthritis is associated with deposits of sodium urate crystals. Gout is a form of arthritis that occurs when there is a buildup of uric acid in the blood, leading to the formation of these crystals in the joints. The crystals cause inflammation and severe pain, typically in the big toe, but can also affect other joints such as the ankles, knees, wrists, and fingers. Gout is often characterized by sudden and intense attacks of pain, swelling, redness, and tenderness in the affected joint.

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17. What is the ideal blood pressure?

Explanation

The ideal blood pressure is generally considered to be around 120/80 mmHg. The given answer of 118/78 falls within this range, making it a suitable choice. It is important for blood pressure to be within a healthy range to prevent cardiovascular diseases and maintain overall health.

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18. Define Orientation

Explanation

Orientation refers to the awareness an individual has of their surroundings, including their understanding of time, place, and the people around them. It involves being cognizant of one's own identity in relation to these factors. This awareness allows individuals to navigate and interact with their environment effectively.

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19. You are sitting in your apartment with your best friend, when your friend excuses herself to go to the bathroom. You hear her grunting and straining to have a BM and then you hear a thump. You run to the bathroom and find your friend momentarily disoriented on the bathroom floor. Thinking back to assessment class you realize which cranial nerve has likely been stimulated?

Explanation

The correct answer is CN 10 (Vagus). The question describes a situation where the person is straining to have a bowel movement and then experiences a momentary disorientation. The Vagus nerve is responsible for controlling the muscles involved in swallowing, as well as regulating the heart rate, blood pressure, and gastrointestinal function. The straining during bowel movement could have stimulated the Vagus nerve, leading to a temporary decrease in blood flow to the brain and resulting in disorientation.

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20. Which grade of murmur is barely audible?

Explanation

Grade 1 murmur is barely audible because it is very soft and can only be heard in a quiet room with a stethoscope placed directly on the chest. It is often described as a faint, low-pitched sound that is difficult to detect and may require a trained ear to identify. This grade of murmur is typically not associated with any significant abnormalities or clinical symptoms.

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21. When asking your patient to shrug their shoulders and turn their head side-to-side which cranial nerve are you assessing?

Explanation

When asking the patient to shrug their shoulders and turn their head side-to-side, you are assessing the function of the CN 11 (Spinal Accessory) cranial nerve. This nerve innervates the sternocleidomastoid and trapezius muscles, which are responsible for these movements. The other cranial nerves listed do not control these specific actions.

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22. You are assessing a 4 month old baby in the ER. You stroke the bottom of the babies foot and see the toes fan out. Is this normal?

Explanation

The Babinski reflex is a normal reflex in infants under 1 year of age. When the sole of the foot is stroked, the toes fan out. This reflex is present in infants and gradually disappears as they develop. It is not indicative of any brain injury or medical condition.

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23. A 75-year-old retired short-order cook presents to the office for evaluation of weakness.  He has a history of hypertension; he stopped taking his medication a few months ago because he couldn’t tell that it was making a difference and it was too expensive.  On physical examination, his blood pressure is 220/110 mmHg.  He has deviation of the tongue to the left side.  Which cranial nerve would have to be affected for this finding to be present?

Explanation

The finding of tongue deviation to the left side suggests a dysfunction of the hypoglossal nerve (CN XII). The hypoglossal nerve innervates the muscles of the tongue, and any impairment in its function can result in weakness or deviation of the tongue. The patient's history of hypertension and non-compliance with medication may have contributed to the development of this cranial nerve dysfunction.

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24. Define Recent Memory.

Explanation

Recent memory refers to the ability to retain information over a short period of time, ranging from minutes to hours or even days. It involves the capacity to remember and recall events, facts, or experiences that have occurred recently. This type of memory allows individuals to retain and access information that is relevant to their immediate needs and activities. It is an essential cognitive function that enables us to navigate daily life, make decisions, and engage in conversations by remembering recent events and conversations.

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25. Deep tendon reflexes are assessing what?

Explanation

Deep tendon reflexes are a type of spinal cord reflexes. These reflexes involve the stimulation of a muscle tendon, which causes a quick and involuntary contraction of the muscle. This reflex arc involves the sensory neurons carrying the signal from the tendon to the spinal cord, where it is processed and then sent back to the muscle via motor neurons. The purpose of assessing deep tendon reflexes is to evaluate the integrity of the spinal cord and the associated nerve pathways.

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26. Which of the following descriptions best describes a GRADE 4 murmur?

Explanation

A grade 4 murmur is described as loud and may be associated with a thrill. A thrill refers to a vibrating sensation felt on the chest wall when the hand is placed over the area where the murmur is heard. This indicates a significant and easily audible murmur that can be heard even without the stethoscope being fully on the chest.

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27. A 50-year-old physician presents for evaluation of pain in his right shoulder. The pain has been intermittent for the past 20 years, but over the past 3 weeks, it has been present daily. He has tried OTC analgesics, but they do not relieve the symptoms. 5 years ago, he fell on the icy pavement and landed on his shoulder. You perform a physical examination maneuver, because you suspect a rotator cuff tear. What is the name of this test?

Explanation

The drop arm test is used to assess for a rotator cuff tear. In this test, the patient is asked to actively abduct their arm to 90 degrees and then slowly lower it back down to their side. If the patient is unable to smoothly and controlled lower their arm, it suggests a rotator cuff tear. This test is specific for assessing the integrity of the supraspinatus tendon.

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28. Which cranial nerve is responsible for hearing & sense of balance (equilibrium)?

Explanation

The cranial nerve responsible for hearing and sense of balance (equilibrium) is CN 8, also known as the Vestibulocochlear nerve. This nerve has two components: the vestibular branch, which is responsible for balance and spatial orientation, and the cochlear branch, which is responsible for hearing. CN 11 (Spinal Accessory) is responsible for controlling certain muscles in the neck and shoulders, CN 4 (Trochlear) is responsible for eye movement, and CN 10 (vagus) is responsible for various functions such as heart rate, digestion, and speech.

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29. The occipital lobe is primarily responsible for....

Explanation

The occipital lobe is responsible for our vision and the brain's ability to recognize objects. It is involved in the processing of visual stimuli and the interpretation of reading. It plays a crucial role in our ability to see and understand the world around us.

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30. Which of the following is an exagerrated curvature of the posterior spine (Humpback)?

Explanation

Kyphosis is an exaggerated curvature of the posterior spine, commonly known as "Humpback". It is characterized by an excessive outward curvature of the thoracic spine, causing a rounded or hunched back appearance. This condition can lead to poor posture, back pain, and difficulty in breathing. Scoliosis refers to an abnormal sideways curvature of the spine, while lordosis is an exaggerated inward curvature of the spine, commonly known as "swayback". The term "List" does not refer to any specific spinal curvature condition.

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31. You are auscultating your patients carotid artery and ask the patient to hold their breath. Why do you do this?

Explanation

By asking the patient to hold their breath while auscultating their carotid artery, it ensures that the breath sounds do not interfere with the detection of a bruit. A bruit is an abnormal sound caused by turbulent blood flow through a narrowed or blocked artery. By eliminating the breath sounds, the healthcare professional can better focus on listening for any abnormal sounds specifically related to the carotid artery, which could indicate the presence of a bruit. This technique helps to ensure accurate assessment and diagnosis.

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32. What could you ask a patient to do to accentuate the findings of a mitral valve prolapsed?

Explanation

Performing a Valsalva maneuver can accentuate the findings of a mitral valve prolapse. This maneuver involves the patient exhaling forcefully against a closed airway, which increases intrathoracic pressure. This increased pressure can cause the prolapsed mitral valve to move further into the left atrium, making the prolapse more pronounced and easier to detect during examination.

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33. Which cranial nerve is responsible for pharyngeal movement, taste, sensing carotid BP,  sensation on posterior tongue and pharynx?

Explanation

The glossopharyngeal nerve (CN 9) is responsible for pharyngeal movement, taste, sensing carotid blood pressure, and sensation on the posterior tongue and pharynx. This nerve innervates the muscles involved in swallowing and helps in the coordination of swallowing and speech. It also carries taste sensations from the posterior third of the tongue. Additionally, the glossopharyngeal nerve has baroreceptor fibers that sense changes in blood pressure in the carotid sinus. Therefore, CN 9 is the correct answer for this question.

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34. When applying a painful stimulus to an unconscious patient you notice that the pt bends their arms inward toward the chest with wrists bent and fingers clenched. Their legs are extended and rigid. What is this known as?

Explanation

The correct answer is decorticate response. When an unconscious patient exhibits a decorticate response, it means that they are experiencing damage to the cerebral hemispheres of the brain. This response is characterized by the patient flexing their arms inward towards the chest, with their wrists bent and fingers clenched. Their legs are usually extended and rigid. This abnormal posture indicates dysfunction in the corticospinal tract, which connects the brain to the spinal cord.

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35. Which of the following is a systemic autoimmune disease that occurs when the body's own immune system mistakenly attacks the synovium (cell lining inside the joint) and effects all joints?

Explanation

Rheumatoid arthritis is a systemic autoimmune disease that affects the synovium, which is the cell lining inside the joints. In this condition, the body's immune system mistakenly attacks the synovium, leading to inflammation, pain, and swelling in the joints. Unlike osteoarthritis, which is caused by wear and tear on the joints, rheumatoid arthritis affects multiple joints throughout the body. Gout arthritis is a different condition characterized by the buildup of uric acid crystals in the joints, while kyphosis refers to an abnormal curvature of the spine.

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36. Which of the following is a lumbar concavity that is accentuated by pregnancy of obesity?

Explanation

Lordosis is a lumbar concavity that is accentuated by pregnancy or obesity. Lordosis refers to the inward curvature of the lower back, creating a concave shape. During pregnancy, the weight of the growing baby can cause the pelvis to tilt forward, increasing the curvature of the lower back. Obesity can also contribute to an accentuated lumbar curve by placing excess weight on the lower back. Scoliosis refers to an abnormal sideways curvature of the spine, while kyphosis is an excessive outward curvature of the upper back.

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37. You are assessing 72 yr old Mr. Payne and find he has + JVD, Lift,recent weight gain, and Swelling of the ankles. What is your diagnosis for Mr. Payne?

Explanation

Based on the symptoms described, such as jugular venous distention (JVD), lift, recent weight gain, and swelling of the ankles, the diagnosis for Mr. Payne is right-sided heart failure. These symptoms are indicative of fluid retention and congestion in the systemic venous circulation, which is commonly seen in right-sided heart failure. Left-sided heart failure typically presents with symptoms such as shortness of breath, cough, and pulmonary congestion, which are not mentioned in this case. Therefore, right-sided heart failure is the most appropriate diagnosis for Mr. Payne.

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38. Which grade of murmur can you hear without using a stethoscope?

Explanation

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39. A 27-year-old software specialist presents to your office for evaluation of numbness and pain in his fingers. He has noticed that the numbness increases as the day goes on; at first he noticed it only at the end of the day, but now it is present upon awakening. It is present in both his hands. The pain started several months ago and is not relieved by OTC analgesics. The patient’s family history is significant for HTN and cerebrovascular disease. On physical examination, his BP is 110/70 mmHg and his thenar eminence is atrophic. Which tests would you perform to confirm your initial hypothesis of carpal tunnel syndrome

Explanation

Tinel's test is used to assess for carpal tunnel syndrome. It involves tapping over the median nerve at the wrist to elicit tingling or numbness in the distribution of the median nerve, which is indicative of nerve compression. In this case, the patient's symptoms of numbness and pain in the fingers, worsening throughout the day and present in both hands, along with the atrophy of the thenar eminence, are consistent with carpal tunnel syndrome. Therefore, performing Tinel's test would help confirm the initial hypothesis.

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40. A 35-year-old postal worker presents to your office for evaluation of pain in her joints. She states that the pain is worse in her fingers and wrists; both hands are affected. She notices that it takes her longer than 1 hour to get moving in the morning because she is so stiff. For the past few weeks, she has been having fevers, some as high as 100.5℉. You notice that she has fusiform swelling in her fingers and wrists bilaterally and that the PIP and MCP joints are tender to palpation. Based on the history and physical examination findings, what is your most likely diagnosis?

Explanation

Based on the patient's symptoms of joint pain, stiffness, fevers, and specific physical examination findings such as fusiform swelling in the fingers and wrists and tenderness in the PIP and MCP joints, the most likely diagnosis is rheumatoid arthritis. Rheumatoid arthritis is an autoimmune disease that primarily affects the joints, causing pain, swelling, and stiffness. The symmetrical involvement of multiple joints, along with systemic symptoms like fevers, is characteristic of rheumatoid arthritis.

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41. You are doing a neuro assessment on 37 yr old M, who had a serious fall and brain injury several months ago. During your assessment you find M has trouble with language comprehension and with processing auditory stimuli. You recognize he most likely sustained an injury to which brain lobe?

Explanation

Based on the symptoms described, it is likely that the individual sustained an injury to the temporal lobe of the brain. The temporal lobe is responsible for language comprehension and processing auditory stimuli. The fact that the individual is experiencing trouble with both of these functions suggests damage to this specific area of the brain.

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42. Which of the following descriptions best describes a GRADE 6 murmur?

Explanation

A Grade 6 murmur is a very loud murmur that may be associated with a thrill. It is so intense that it can still be heard even when the stethoscope is not in contact with the chest.

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43. A 13-year-old junior high school student is brought into your office by her mother for evaluation of unequal shoulder height. Her mother first noticed this problem 2 weeks ago. There is no history of birth trauma or recent injury. On physical examination, there is a lateral curvature to the spine. The curvature is more pronounced with forward flexion. Based on this information, what is your most likely diagnosis?

Explanation

Based on the information provided, the most likely diagnosis for the 13-year-old junior high school student with unequal shoulder height and a lateral curvature to the spine is scoliosis. Scoliosis is a condition characterized by an abnormal sideways curvature of the spine. The fact that the curvature is more pronounced with forward flexion further supports this diagnosis. There is no mention of any other symptoms or history that would suggest a different diagnosis such as kyphosis or lumbar lordosis. Therefore, scoliosis is the most likely explanation for the patient's presentation.

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44. Which of the following knee deformites would you see a 'knock kneed' patient?

Explanation

A 'knock kneed' patient would exhibit a knee deformity known as valgus. Valgus refers to the inward angulation of the knees, causing them to come closer together and the feet to be further apart. This condition is commonly seen in children during their growth and development, but can also occur in adults due to certain factors such as obesity or injury.

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45. You are examing the legs of Mrs.Wackadoo and find her legs to be warm and edematous with a dark bluish/purple discoloration. There is a small ulcer on her ankle and she states elevating her legs helps to relive the swelling. What is causing these symptoms?

Explanation

Venous insufficiency can cause warm and edematous legs with a dark bluish/purple discoloration. The presence of a small ulcer on the ankle and the relief of swelling with leg elevation further support this diagnosis. Venous insufficiency occurs when the veins in the legs are unable to efficiently return blood back to the heart, leading to pooling of blood and increased pressure in the veins. This can result in symptoms such as swelling, discoloration, and ulcers. DVT, arterial insufficiency, and kidney failure would not typically present with these specific symptoms.

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46. While doing a neuro assessment you ask your patient to smile, puff their cheeks, and raise their eyebrows. Which cranial nerve are you testing?

Explanation

When asking the patient to smile, puff their cheeks, and raise their eyebrows, you are testing the function of the facial muscles. The facial nerve (CN 7) is responsible for controlling the muscles of facial expression. This nerve innervates the muscles involved in smiling, puffing the cheeks, and raising the eyebrows. Therefore, testing these actions helps to assess the function of CN 7.

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47. How do you perform McMurray's Test?

Explanation

McMurray's Test is a physical examination maneuver used to assess for meniscus tears in the knee joint. The correct answer describes the correct technique for performing this test, which involves laying the patient flat and bending their knee. By doing so, a click or popping sensation may be felt or heard, indicating a possible meniscus tear. This test helps in the diagnosis of meniscal injuries and is commonly used in orthopedic evaluations.

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48. Which of the following describes the S4 heart sound?

Explanation

The S4 heart sound occurs during atrial contraction. This sound is caused by the blood forcefully entering the ventricles and vibrating the ventricular walls. It is typically heard as a low-pitched sound and is associated with conditions such as ventricular hypertrophy or stiffened ventricles. The closure of the mitral and tricuspid valves does not produce the S4 sound, and it does not occur after the mitral valve opens or the closure of the aortic and pulmonic valves.

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49. A 55-year-old- nursing assistant presents to your office because of persistent swelling in her feet. She is a nonsmoker. Her medical history is noncontributory. She has never had any surgeries. She works two 8-hour shifts daily, 6 days weekly. On physical examination, her BP is 110/60 mm/Hg; her cardiovascular examination is normal; and her legs have 2+ pitting edema bilaterally without rashes, thickening, or ulceration of the skin. What is your most likely diagnosis?

Explanation

Orthostatic edema is the most likely diagnosis in this case. The patient's symptoms of persistent swelling in her feet, along with the absence of any skin abnormalities, suggest that the edema is not caused by a skin condition such as lymphedema or lipedema. Additionally, the patient's normal cardiovascular examination and blood pressure indicate that the edema is not likely due to chronic venous insufficiency. Orthostatic edema refers to swelling that occurs due to prolonged standing or sitting, which is consistent with the patient's work schedule of two 8-hour shifts daily.

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50. An 18-year-old college football player comes to your office after sustaining an injury on the field. He states that he planted his foot and had to pivot to catch the ball. He heard a “pop,” and his right knee gave way and started to swell. The trainer iced it down. On physical examination, you note increased swelling and tenderness over the right knee. He has significant forward excursion when you perform the Lachman test. He also has more movement of the right tibia when you draw it forward when compared with the left. Based on this information, what is your most likely diagnosis?

Explanation

Based on the given information, the 18-year-old football player experienced a "pop" sound and his right knee gave way after pivoting during a catch. He also has increased swelling and tenderness over the right knee. The Lachman test shows significant forward excursion and there is more movement of the right tibia compared to the left. These findings are consistent with an anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) tear. The ACL is responsible for stabilizing the knee joint, and its tear can lead to instability and increased movement of the tibia.

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51. A 23-year-old fast food worker presents to your office for evaluation of pain in his feet, especially the heels. He notes that the pain is most intense when he first awakens, then eases up somewhat after walking for a few minutes. By the end of the day, the pain has returned again to its full intensity. He has tried OTC analgesics without success. He denies fever, chills, trauma, or injury to his feet. On physical examination, he has tenderness upon palpation of the plantar fascia. There are no deformities or joint swelling. What is your most likely diagnosis?

Explanation

The most likely diagnosis for the patient's symptoms is plantar fasciitis. The patient's pain is most intense in the morning and eases up after walking for a few minutes, which is a common characteristic of plantar fasciitis. The tenderness upon palpation of the plantar fascia also supports this diagnosis. Ankle sprain, heel spur, and gout are less likely as they do not typically present with the same pattern of pain and tenderness in the plantar fascia.

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52. You are doing a quick neuro assessment on Mr.Finkelstein. You aks him to sit on the table so you may assess him and he complies. His eyes are open as you start your assessment by determining orientation and find he is completely oriented. You continue with the rest of your neuro assessment but have determined his Glascow Coma scale score is:

Explanation

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53. You are assessing a 26 yr old woman, R, who 6 months ago was in a serious car accident. Her family states that ever since the accident R has had little control of her emotions, seems to have lost the ability to reason, and now has very poor judgement and problem solving skills. Her personality just seems different. R most likely sustained an injury to which lobe of the brain?

Explanation

The frontal lobe is responsible for higher cognitive functions such as reasoning, problem-solving, judgement, and personality. Damage to this lobe can result in emotional instability, impaired reasoning abilities, poor judgement, and changes in personality. Given R's symptoms of little control over emotions, loss of reasoning ability, poor judgement, and a different personality, it is likely that she sustained an injury to the frontal lobe of her brain.

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54. The temporal lobes are mainly responsible for...

Explanation

The temporal lobes are responsible for hearing, memory, meaning, and language. They are also involved in interpreting and processing auditory stimuli, playing a role in emotion and learning.

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55. This is your first day on the medical ICU rotation.  One of the patients you have been assigned to follow is comatose.  You want to decide whether this patient’s coma is due to a metabolic or structural cause; therefore, you examine the patient’s papillary response to light.  If the patient were in a coma due to an opiate overdose, you would expect to see which type of reaction?

Explanation

In the given scenario, the question is asking about the expected pupillary response in a patient who is in a coma due to an opiate overdose. Opiates, such as opioids, can cause pinpoint pupils, which means that the pupils are constricted and appear very small. Therefore, the correct answer is "Pupils equal and reactive to light, pinpoint." This response suggests that the patient's coma is likely due to a metabolic cause, specifically an opiate overdose.

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56. Define Remote Memory.

Explanation

Remote memory refers to the ability to retain information over a long period of time, typically spanning years. It involves the recollection of past events, experiences, and knowledge that have been stored in memory for an extended duration. This type of memory allows individuals to recall and retrieve information from the distant past, demonstrating their ability to retain information over a significant interval of time.

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57. Mrs. Fluffernutter is a new pt in the ICU whom you are going to assess. She had a cerebral aneurysm rupture and is being monitored in the units. When you assess her you find she will not open her eyes no matter what you do. You are unable to elicit any verbal response and upon deep painful stimuli she demonstrates a decerebrate response. What is Mrs. Fluffernutters Glascow Coma Score?

Explanation

Based on the given scenario, Mrs. Fluffernutter's Glasgow Coma Score (GCS) is 4. The GCS is a neurological scale used to assess the level of consciousness in patients. A score of 4 indicates severe impairment of consciousness. In this case, Mrs. Fluffernutter's inability to open her eyes, lack of verbal response, and decerebrate response to painful stimuli all suggest a significantly decreased level of consciousness.

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58. Which of the following is caused by stretching or contraction beyond muscle capability & repetitive motion?

Explanation

A strain is caused by stretching or contraction beyond the muscle's capability and repetitive motion. This can happen when a muscle is stretched too far or contracted too forcefully, leading to damage in the muscle fibers. Repetitive motion, such as repetitive use of a particular muscle or group of muscles, can also contribute to the development of a strain. Symptoms of a strain may include pain, swelling, muscle weakness, and limited range of motion. Treatment typically involves rest, ice, compression, and elevation (RICE), as well as pain medication and physical therapy.

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59. An 18-year-old college freshman presents to the emergency room for evaluation of fever, headache, and neck stiffness.  On physical examination, the patient is resting quietly and has a flushed face.  His vital signs are as follows: temperature, 104 degrees F; pulse, 110 bpm; and BP, 105/70 mmHg.  He has no rashes. During the physical examination, you flex the patient’s neck and hips and knees flex in response, indicating meningeal irritation.  The name of this positive sign is:

Explanation

Brudzinski's sign is a positive sign indicating meningeal irritation. It is observed when the patient's hips and knees flex involuntarily in response to flexing the neck. This sign suggests inflammation of the meninges, which can be seen in conditions such as meningitis. Kernig's sign, on the other hand, is characterized by pain and resistance when attempting to extend the leg at the knee while the hip is flexed, indicating irritation of the meninges. Babinski's sign is a neurological sign characterized by the upward movement of the big toe and fanning of the other toes when the sole of the foot is stimulated, indicating damage to the upper motor neurons. Lachman's sign is a physical examination maneuver used to assess the integrity of the anterior cruciate ligament in the knee.

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60. What is stereognosis?

Explanation

Stereognosis refers to the ability to identify objects solely by touch and without the aid of vision. It involves using tactile sensations to recognize the shape, texture, and other physical characteristics of an object. This skill is possible due to the integration of sensory information from the hands and fingers, allowing individuals to form mental representations of objects based on touch alone.

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61. At what point would you diagnose Hypertension in a normal patient?

Explanation

Hypertension is diagnosed when a patient consistently has two readings of blood pressure greater than 140/90. This is because high blood pressure can fluctuate throughout the day, so multiple readings are necessary to establish a consistent pattern. A single reading above 150/95 may indicate high blood pressure, but it is not enough to make a diagnosis. Similarly, a single reading below 90/40 is considered low blood pressure and not indicative of hypertension. Two readings above 130/80 may be a cause for concern, but the threshold for diagnosis is generally set at 140/90.

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62. A 61 year old hairdresser presents for evaluation of shortness of breath.  You examine her jugular venous pulse (JVP) and listen to her heart.  You diagnosis her with right-sided heart failure.  Your JVP measurement is most likely to be:

Explanation

In right-sided heart failure, there is an increase in venous pressure, leading to jugular venous distention. The jugular venous pulse (JVP) is measured as the vertical distance above the sternal angle. In a normal individual, the JVP is typically 1-2 cm above the sternal angle. However, in right-sided heart failure, the JVP can be significantly elevated. Therefore, in this case, the JVP measurement of 6 cm above the sternal angle is most likely due to the right-sided heart failure.

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63. A 22-year-old daycare worker comes to the clinic for evaluation of fever as high as 103.5 degrees F, headache, and neck pain.  She has photophobia and neck stiffness.  During the physical examination, you flex the patient’s leg at both the hip and the knee and then straighten her knee to elicit meningeal irritation.  The patient experiences severe pain.  The name of this sign is:

Explanation

During the physical examination, the healthcare provider flexes the patient's leg at both the hip and the knee and then straightens her knee. If the patient experiences severe pain during this maneuver, it indicates meningeal irritation. This sign is called Kernig's sign.

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64. Which of the following is a degenerative joint disease that results from wear and tear of the joints and is associated with heberden & bouchards nodes?

Explanation

Osteoarthritis is a degenerative joint disease that occurs due to the wear and tear of the joints. It is characterized by the presence of Heberden's nodes (bony enlargements) and Bouchard's nodes (bony enlargements in the middle joints of the fingers). Osteoporosis, on the other hand, is a condition characterized by a decrease in bone density, while Rheumatoid Arthritis is an autoimmune disease that affects the joints. Gout Arthritis is a form of arthritis caused by the buildup of uric acid crystals in the joints.

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65.  Which of the following is NOT a risk factor for osteoporosis?

Explanation

Pre-menopausal women are not a risk factor for osteoporosis because during this stage, women still have high levels of estrogen which helps in maintaining bone density. Osteoporosis is more common in post-menopausal women when estrogen levels decrease. Sedentary individuals, long-term steroid therapy, and hyperparathyroidism are all risk factors for osteoporosis as they can cause bone loss or decrease bone density.

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66. When auscultating your pts heart you hear a blowing, "shshing" sound. What is this? 

Explanation

A blowing, "shshing" sound heard when auscultating the heart is indicative of a murmur. Murmurs are abnormal sounds caused by turbulent blood flow through the heart valves. They can be caused by various conditions such as valve abnormalities, structural defects, or heart diseases. The sound of a murmur is often described as a blowing or whooshing noise and can be heard during different phases of the cardiac cycle. It is important to further evaluate the murmur to determine its cause and potential implications for the patient's health.

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67. A 55-year-old construction worker presents for evaluation of swelling in his feet. He has smoked 2 packs of cigarettes daily since the age of 15. He has noticed pain in both legs when walking, which is relieved with resting for 10 minutes. On physical examination, his dorsalis pedis pulses are decreased bilaterally in comparison with his femoral pulses. His feet are cool to the touch when compared with his upper legs. He has no pedal edema. What is your most likely diagnosis?

Explanation

Based on the information provided, the patient is a heavy smoker and presents with pain in both legs when walking, which is relieved with resting. Physical examination reveals decreased dorsalis pedis pulses and cool feet compared to the upper legs. These findings suggest arterial insufficiency, which is commonly seen in smokers due to the development of peripheral arterial disease (PAD). PAD is characterized by narrowing or blockage of the arteries that supply blood to the limbs, resulting in decreased blood flow and oxygenation to the tissues. This can lead to symptoms such as pain, decreased pulses, and coolness in the affected area.

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68. Which cranial nerve controls tongue symmetry, movement and position?

Explanation

The cranial nerve that controls tongue symmetry, movement, and position is CN 12 (hypoglossal). This nerve innervates the muscles of the tongue, allowing for its voluntary movements and maintaining its proper position within the oral cavity.

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69. Which of the following reflexes usually indicates a severe injury to the brainstem?

Explanation

Decerebrate is the correct answer because it is a reflex posture that usually indicates a severe injury to the brainstem. Decerebrate posture involves rigid extension of the arms and legs, with the arms pronated and the toes pointed downward. This reflex is a result of damage to the upper brainstem, specifically the midbrain and pons, and it suggests dysfunction in the neural pathways that control muscle tone and movement.

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70. You are assessing Mr. Wink's legs and find them to be cool to the touch and pale. He complains of intermittent pain the legs and he has no hair growing on either leg. What is causing this?

Explanation

Mr. Wink's cool and pale legs, along with the absence of hair growth, indicate a lack of blood flow to the legs. This suggests arterial insufficiency, a condition where there is inadequate blood supply to the tissues due to narrowed or blocked arteries. The intermittent pain in the legs is also consistent with this condition. DVT (deep vein thrombosis) is unlikely as it involves a blood clot in the veins, which would cause swelling and warmth, not coolness. Kidney failure and venous insufficiency do not explain the specific symptoms mentioned.

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71. Which of the following describes the S2 heart sound?

Explanation

The S2 heart sound is produced by the closure of the aortic and pulmonic valves. This sound occurs during the diastolic phase of the cardiac cycle when the ventricles relax and the aortic and pulmonic valves close to prevent blood from flowing back into the ventricles. This closure produces the second heart sound, known as S2. It is a normal sound heard during a routine cardiac examination and indicates proper functioning of the heart valves.

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72. Which of the following describes the S3 heart sound?

Explanation

The S3 heart sound occurs after the mitral valve opens and is associated with rapid ventricular filling. This sound is caused by the sudden deceleration of blood flow when it enters the ventricles during early diastole. It is often heard in conditions of increased blood volume or decreased ventricular compliance, such as heart failure. The closure of the mitral and tricuspid valves does not produce the S3 sound.

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73. A 55-year-old executive assistant presents to your office for evaluation of pain in her wrist. She states that the pain has been present daily. She has taken OTC analgesics for the pain, which seem to help. She denies fever, chills, or rashes. On physical examination, she has pain and tenderness over the right wrist but not the left. She has a hard dorsolateral nodule on the DIP joint of her right middle finger. The MCP joints are normal. What is your most likely diagnosis?

Explanation

The most likely diagnosis in this case is osteoarthritis. Osteoarthritis is a degenerative joint disease that commonly affects the hands, particularly the DIP joints. The presence of pain and tenderness over the right wrist, along with the hard dorsolateral nodule on the DIP joint of the right middle finger, are consistent with osteoarthritis. Gouty arthritis is less likely as it typically presents with sudden, severe pain and swelling in a single joint. Rheumatoid arthritis and systemic lupus erythematosus are also less likely as they usually involve multiple joints and may have other systemic symptoms.

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74. Which symptoms would you see with Left Sided Heart Failure?

Explanation

Left-sided heart failure occurs when the left side of the heart is unable to effectively pump blood to the rest of the body. This can lead to a buildup of fluid in the lungs, causing pulmonary edema. Pulmonary edema can result in symptoms such as shortness of breath, coughing, and wheezing. The term "heave" refers to a visible or palpable pulsation or movement of the chest wall, which can be a sign of an enlarged heart. Therefore, the presence of pulmonary edema and a heave are symptoms commonly seen in left-sided heart failure.

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75. A 35-year-old factory worker presents to your office for evaluation of pain in his left arm. He denies any acute trauma or injury. His job involves inspecting jars, and he has to test the opening and closing of the jar lids. He denies fever or chills. On physical examination, there is no swelling over the elbow. You palpate the olecranon process, and he has tenderness on the left lateral epicondyle but not on the medial epicondyle. Based on this information, what is your most likely diagnosis?

Explanation

The patient's symptoms of pain in the left arm, tenderness on the left lateral epicondyle, and the nature of his job involving repetitive motions suggest a diagnosis of lateral epicondylitis, also known as tennis elbow. This condition is characterized by inflammation of the tendons on the outside of the elbow, typically caused by overuse or repetitive strain. Olecranon bursitis, osteoarthritis, and epicondylar fracture are less likely based on the absence of swelling, fever, acute trauma, and tenderness on the medial epicondyle.

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76. Which cranial nerve is responsible for turning eye laterally?

Explanation

The cranial nerve responsible for turning the eye laterally is CN 6 (Abducens). This nerve innervates the lateral rectus muscle, which is responsible for abduction of the eye, or turning it outward. CN 3 (Oculomotor) controls the movement of most of the other extraocular muscles, but not the lateral rectus. CN 1 (Optic) is responsible for vision and CN 5 (Trigeminal) is responsible for sensation in the face.

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77. When applying a painful stimulus your patient rigidly extends his arms and legs. His toes are pointed downwards and he arches his head backwards. This response is known as what?

Explanation

The patient's response of rigidly extending his arms and legs, pointing his toes downwards, and arching his head backwards indicates a condition known as decerebrate posturing. This abnormal posture is typically observed in patients with severe brainstem damage, specifically affecting the midbrain and upper pons. It is characterized by the loss of inhibitory control from higher brain centers, resulting in exaggerated extensor muscle activity. Decerebrate posturing is considered a more severe form of abnormal posturing compared to decorticate posturing. Babinski's sign is a different neurological test that involves the upward movement of the big toe in response to the sole of the foot being stimulated. The Phelan test is used to assess for carpal tunnel syndrome.

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78.
This is your brain...

In the picture above. which lobe of the brain is pictured in blue?

Explanation

The correct answer is Frontal. The picture shows a blue region, which corresponds to the frontal lobe of the brain. The frontal lobe is responsible for various functions including decision-making, problem-solving, and controlling emotions.

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79. A patient is brought to the emergency room for evaluation of mental status changes.  She has a history of a fever as high 105 degrees F.  She has had a headache and symptoms consistent with an upper respiratory infection 2 weeks before the worsening of these symptoms tonight.  You are updating this patient’s clinical progress.  You diagnose her with a coma.  You note that her respiratory pattern has become irregular, with Cheyne-Stokes breathing.  Her pupils, which were previously equal, are now unequally reactive to light.  What is the most likely cause of her coma?

Explanation

The most likely cause of the patient's coma is a brain abscess. The patient's history of fever, headache, and upper respiratory infection suggests an underlying infection. The development of a coma, irregular respiratory pattern (Cheyne-Stokes breathing), and unequal pupil reactivity to light are all consistent with a brain abscess. Drug overdose and alcohol intoxication may cause altered mental status, but they do not typically present with the other symptoms mentioned. Uremia, which is a buildup of waste products in the blood due to kidney dysfunction, can cause altered mental status but does not explain the other findings.

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80. Which cranial nerve is responsible for chewing, sensation on the face,  & corneal reflex.

Explanation

The trigeminal nerve (CN 5) is responsible for chewing, sensation on the face, and the corneal reflex. It is the largest cranial nerve and has three main branches: the ophthalmic branch, the maxillary branch, and the mandibular branch. The ophthalmic branch provides sensation to the forehead, scalp, and upper eyelid. The maxillary branch provides sensation to the lower eyelid, cheek, and upper lip. The mandibular branch controls the muscles of mastication (chewing) and provides sensation to the lower lip, chin, and lower teeth. Therefore, CN 5 is the correct answer for this question.

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81. This is your brain...

In the picture above. which lobe of the brain is pictured in green?

Explanation

The green area in the picture represents the temporal lobe of the brain. The temporal lobe is responsible for processing auditory information, language comprehension, memory, and some aspects of visual perception.

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82. When auscultating a patients heart sounds you hear a Midsystolic crescendo-decrescendo murmur. This would be indicative of what?

Explanation

A midsystolic crescendo-decrescendo murmur is characteristic of aortic stenosis. This type of murmur occurs when there is obstruction to blood flow across the aortic valve during systole. The murmur starts soft, increases in intensity, and then decreases in intensity as systole progresses. Aortic stenosis is a narrowing of the aortic valve, which can lead to reduced blood flow from the left ventricle to the aorta.

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83. A 62-year-old accountant presents for evaluation of a rash on his lower legs. He has had this rash for several months. He denies fever or chills. The skin itches. He has tried OTC creams without success. He has smoked ½ pack of cigarettes daily for the past 20 years. On physical examination, the skin of his lower legs is hyperpigmented and bluish-red. He has a shallow ulcer on his right medial calf. His dorsalis pedis pulses are 2+ bilaterally, and he has normal hair distribution on his lower legs. These findings are most compatible with which one?

Explanation

The patient's presentation of hyperpigmented and bluish-red skin, along with a shallow ulcer on the lower leg, suggests venous insufficiency. Venous insufficiency is characterized by impaired blood flow in the veins, leading to pooling of blood and increased pressure in the lower extremities. This can cause skin changes such as hyperpigmentation and ulceration. The presence of 2+ dorsalis pedis pulses and normal hair distribution on the lower legs suggests that arterial insufficiency is less likely. Deep vein thrombosis and tinea pedis do not typically present with the same skin findings as described in the patient.

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84. In which lobe of the brain is Broca's area located?

Explanation

Broca's area is located in the frontal lobe of the brain. This area is responsible for the production of speech and language comprehension. Damage to Broca's area can result in a condition called Broca's aphasia, which affects a person's ability to speak fluently but does not affect their ability to understand language. Therefore, the correct answer is the frontal lobe.

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85. Which cranial nerve is responsible for downward & inward movement of eye, and innervates superior oblique muscle?

Explanation

Cranial nerve 4, also known as the trochlear nerve, is responsible for the downward and inward movement of the eye. It innervates the superior oblique muscle, which is involved in these movements. The trochlear nerve is the smallest cranial nerve and originates from the midbrain. It controls the movement of the eye and helps to coordinate eye movements with the other cranial nerves.

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86. A patient with a recent brain injury is found to have lateral neglect. This is associated with injury to which lobe?

Explanation

Lateral neglect, also known as hemispatial neglect, is a condition where an individual is unable to attend to or be aware of one side of their body or the space around them. This condition is commonly associated with damage to the parietal lobe of the brain. The parietal lobe plays a crucial role in spatial awareness, perception, and attention. Therefore, injury to this lobe can result in the manifestation of lateral neglect symptoms.

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87. Wernicke's area is located in which lobe of the brain?

Explanation

Wernicke's area is located in the temporal lobe of the brain. This area is responsible for language comprehension and understanding. Damage to Wernicke's area can result in a language disorder called Wernicke's aphasia, where individuals have difficulty understanding and producing coherent speech. The temporal lobe is involved in various other functions such as memory, hearing, and visual recognition.

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88. What is a sprain?

Explanation

A sprain is a stretch or tear of a ligament. Ligaments are tough bands of fibrous tissue that connect bones to each other and help stabilize joints. When a joint is forced into an unnatural position or is subjected to excessive force, the ligaments can stretch or tear, resulting in a sprain. This can cause pain, swelling, and difficulty in moving the affected joint.

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89. The Parietal lobes are mainly respsonsible for...

Explanation

The answer is connected with the processing of nerve impulses related to the senses, such as touch, pain, taste, pressure, and temperature. This is because the Parietal lobes are responsible for processing sensory information from the body, including touch, pain, taste, pressure, and temperature. They help us perceive and interpret these sensations, allowing us to navigate and interact with our environment effectively.

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90. With which knee deformity would your pt be 'bow legged'?

Explanation

The correct answer is Varus. Varus is a knee deformity characterized by an inward angulation of the distal segment of the leg, resulting in a "bow-legged" appearance. This deformity is commonly seen in conditions such as osteoarthritis, rickets, and trauma.

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91. Which cranial nerve is responsible for PERRLA (Pupillary reactions) & visual fields?

Explanation

The correct answer is CN 3 (Oculomotor). The oculomotor nerve is responsible for controlling the movement of the eye muscles and also plays a role in pupillary reactions. It innervates the muscles that control the constriction and dilation of the pupil, which are important for assessing the pupillary light reflex. Additionally, CN 3 is involved in controlling the extraocular muscles that move the eye and is responsible for coordinating eye movements and maintaining visual fields.

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92. You are doing an assessment on Mr. Donald who is an inpatient at this time. When you call out Mr. Donald's name he does not respond to you nor open his eyes.  You are only able to get him to open his eyes upon deep painful stimulus. At this point he also mumbles some incomprensible speech and then shuts his eyes again. He will not follow commands and there is only a slight withdrawal from pain. What is Mr. Donalds Glasgow Coma Scale score

Explanation

Mr. Donald's Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score is 8. This score is determined based on his response to stimuli, eye opening, and verbal response. In this case, Mr. Donald does not respond to his name being called and only opens his eyes upon deep painful stimulus. He mumbles incomprehensible speech and then shuts his eyes again. He does not follow commands and only shows a slight withdrawal from pain. Based on these responses, his GCS score is 8.

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93. You are going to do an assessment on Mrs. Lotty and upon arriving to her room find her lying in bed. When you call her name softly she does not open her eyes. You must shout in order for Mrs. Lotty to open her eyes just slightly. You ask her for her name and she mumbles "Dog.... Train... California". She is able to speak, but it is not relevant to the questions you are asking. Upon asking her to stick out her tongue she is able to do so and also squeezes your hand upon request but her eyes remain closed unless you repeatedly call her name and ask her to open them. What is Mrs. Lotty's Glasgow Coma Score?

Explanation

Eyes- 3 (open to voice)
Verbal- 3 (words discernable, inappropriate to conversation)
Motor- 6 (follows commands)

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94. Which of the following is NOT associated with diastolic murmurs?

Explanation

Diastolic murmurs occur during the relaxation phase of the cardiac cycle, specifically during diastole. Aortic stenosis is a condition characterized by narrowing of the aortic valve, which obstructs blood flow during systole. Therefore, aortic stenosis is not associated with diastolic murmurs. On the other hand, aortic regurgitation, mitral stenosis, and aortic insufficiency are all conditions that can cause abnormal blood flow during diastole and are associated with diastolic murmurs.

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95. You are in the morgue and assessing a DEAD patient. Your snarky instructor decides to ask you for this patients current Glasgow Coma Scale score. What is your response your instructor?

Explanation

The Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) is used to assess the level of consciousness in a patient. A score of 3 on the GCS indicates that the patient is in a deep coma and is completely unresponsive. This means that the patient is not able to open their eyes, speak, or move in any way. It is the lowest possible score on the GCS and indicates a very severe neurological impairment.

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96. Define graphesthesia.

Explanation

Graphesthesia refers to the ability to recognize a number that has been drawn in your hand. This means that even without seeing the number, you can perceive and identify it solely through the sense of touch. This skill is often used in neurological exams to assess sensory perception and cognitive function. It is unrelated to speaking, reading, writing, amnesia, or identifying objects by touch.

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97. Which of the following is a hinge joint?

Explanation

The knee is a hinge joint because it allows movement in only one direction, similar to a door hinge. It allows for flexion and extension, which means bending and straightening of the leg. The other options listed, TMJ (temporomandibular joint), hip, and base of thumb, are not hinge joints. The TMJ is a sliding joint, the hip is a ball-and-socket joint, and the base of the thumb is a saddle joint.

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98. A 73 year old retired publisher presents to your clinic for a routine checkup.  He has a history of class III congestive heart failure, hypertension, and hyperlipidemia.  He is doing well and is taking his medication as prescribed.  On examination of his cardiovascular system, what would you expect to find?

Explanation

In this case, the correct answer is "PMI in the fifth interspace, anterior axillary line." PMI stands for Point of Maximum Impulse, which refers to the location where the heartbeat can be felt or heard most prominently. In a healthy individual, the PMI is typically located in the fifth interspace, midclavicular line. However, in patients with congestive heart failure, the heart may enlarge and shift the PMI to a different location. In this patient with class III congestive heart failure, it is expected that the PMI would be found in the fifth interspace, but in the anterior axillary line rather than the midclavicular line.

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99. Which of the following is NOT associated with systolic murmurs?

Explanation

Aortic regurgitation is not associated with systolic murmurs because it is a diastolic murmur. Systolic murmurs occur during ventricular contraction, while diastolic murmurs occur during ventricular relaxation and filling. Aortic stenosis, pulmonic stenosis, and mitral regurgitation are all examples of systolic murmurs.

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100. You have arrived to class early and find Mrs. Hammack is not quite herself. She is sitting on the assessment table talking to Harvey the Dummy. Her eyes are open spontaneously as she is intently staring at Harvey. When you speak with Mrs. Hammock she is able to answer questions appropriately, but is confused in conversation.  She does not follow your commands but when you pinch her hand she purposefully pulls away her hand and threatens to flunk you. What is Mrs. Hammocks current Glasgow Coma Scale score? 

Explanation

Eyes- 4 (open spontaneously)
Verbal- 4 (answers questions, confused in conversation)
Motor- 5 (will not follow commands, purposefully withdraws to pain)

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101. A 22 year old waitress presents to your clinic for evaluation of pain in her chest.  She appears to be anxious.  The pain is worse with physical exertion, such as climbing stairs.  She does not smoke, use alcohol or illicit drugs, or consume excessive amounts of caffeine.  You auscultate her heart and diagnosis mitral valve prolapsed.  What did you hear to make this diagnosis ?

Explanation

The presence of a midsystolic click suggests a diagnosis of mitral valve prolapse. Mitral valve prolapse is a condition where the valve between the left atrium and left ventricle does not close properly, causing blood to leak back into the left atrium. This can result in symptoms such as chest pain, especially with physical exertion. The midsystolic click is caused by the prolapsed valve snapping back into place during systole, and it is a characteristic sound associated with this condition.

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102. When auscultating a patients heart sounds you hear a Pan-systolic plateau murmur. This would be indicative of what?

Explanation

A pan-systolic plateau murmur heard during auscultation of a patient's heart sounds is indicative of mitral regurgitation. This type of murmur is characterized by a continuous sound throughout systole, without any crescendo or decrescendo. Mitral regurgitation occurs when the mitral valve fails to close properly, allowing blood to leak back into the left atrium during ventricular contraction. This results in a turbulent flow of blood and the pan-systolic plateau murmur. Aortic stenosis, mitral valve stenosis, and aortic regurgitation would present with different types of murmurs and are not consistent with the given description.

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103. This is your brain...

In the picture above. which lobe of the brain is pictured in pink?

Explanation

The pink area in the picture represents the occipital lobe of the brain. The occipital lobe is located at the back of the brain and is primarily responsible for processing visual information. It plays a crucial role in interpreting and making sense of what we see.

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104. Which of the following is a Condylar joint?

Explanation

The Temporomandibular Joint (TMJ) is a condylar joint. It is the joint that connects the jawbone to the skull, allowing for movement of the jaw. The condylar joint is a type of synovial joint that allows for both hinge-like movement and sliding or gliding movement. It is characterized by the rounded surface of one bone fitting into the concave surface of another bone, which is the case in the TMJ where the condyle of the mandible fits into the mandibular fossa of the temporal bone.

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105. You are palpating Mr. Vil's carotid and listening to his heart. You hear an excess heart sound which does NOT correlate with your carotid palpation. Which heart sounds is this?

Explanation

The excess heart sound that does not correlate with carotid palpation is S3. S3 is an abnormal third heart sound that occurs during rapid ventricular filling in early diastole. It is often associated with conditions such as heart failure and volume overload. This sound can be heard with a stethoscope during auscultation of the heart and is not directly related to carotid palpation.

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106. This is your brain...

In the picture above. which lobe of the brain is pictured in yellow?

Explanation

The yellow area in the picture represents the parietal lobe of the brain. The parietal lobe is responsible for processing sensory information, such as touch, temperature, and pain. It also plays a role in spatial awareness, perception, and attention.

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107. A 35-year-old reporter presents to you office for evaluation of back pain and weakness in his left leg.  He was play-wrestling with his nephew and hurt his back 2 weeks ago.  He states that he has noticed tingling in his left leg as well.  He has not noticed incontinence of bowel or bladder function.  You perform a physical examination and confirm that he is dragging his left foot when he walks and that his Achilles reflex is diminished. You diagnose him with a herniated disc.  Which nerve root are you testing with the Achilles reflex?

Explanation

The Achilles reflex is a reflex that tests the integrity of the S1 nerve root. In this scenario, the patient's diminished Achilles reflex indicates dysfunction or compression of the S1 nerve root, which is consistent with a herniated disc. The other nerve roots listed (C5, C6, L2, L3, L4, L4, L5) are not specifically associated with the Achilles reflex.

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108. At what point would you diagnose Hypertension in a patient with Diabetes and Renal disease?

Explanation

In patients with diabetes and renal disease, hypertension is diagnosed when there are two readings of blood pressure (BP) that are consistently above 130/80. This is because individuals with these conditions are at a higher risk of developing hypertension, which can further worsen their renal function. Therefore, it is important to monitor their BP regularly and diagnose hypertension based on multiple readings to ensure accurate diagnosis and appropriate management.

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109. When auscultating a patients heart sounds you hear an Early diastolic decreased murmur. This would be indicative of what?

Explanation

This condition typically presents with an early diastolic murmur, best heard at the left sternal border. The murmur is often described as "decrescendo," meaning it decreases in intensity as diastole progresses.

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Is S1 associated with systole or diastole?
Which cranial nerve is responsible for smell?
Which of the following descriptions best describes a GRADE 1 murmur?
A 25-year-old housewife presents to the urgent care clinic for...
Is S2 associated with systole of diastole?
A 68-year-old retired kindergarten teacher presents to your office for...
Which cranial nerve is responsible for vision?
Which cranial nerve is responsible for facial movement, facial...
The Frontal lobe is mainly responsible for...
An 80 year old woman presents to your clinic for evaluation of...
What kind of edema would you see with Right sided heart failure?
What tests would you perform to check for Carpal Tunnel Syndrome?
Which of the following is an S shaped curvature of the spine?
Define attention:
You blindfold your pt and hold an orange under their nose. You ask...
Which of the following is associated with deposits of sodium urate...
What is the ideal blood pressure?
Define Orientation
You are sitting in your apartment with your best friend, when your...
Which grade of murmur is barely audible?
When asking your patient to shrug their shoulders and turn their head...
You are assessing a 4 month old baby in the ER. You stroke the bottom...
A 75-year-old retired short-order cook presents to the office for...
Define Recent Memory.
Deep tendon reflexes are assessing what?
Which of the following descriptions best describes a GRADE 4...
A 50-year-old physician presents for evaluation of pain in his right...
Which cranial nerve is responsible for hearing & sense of balance...
The occipital lobe is primarily responsible for....
Which of the following is an exagerrated curvature of the posterior...
You are auscultating your patients carotid artery and ask the patient...
What could you ask a patient to do to accentuate the findings of a...
Which cranial nerve is responsible for pharyngeal movement, taste,...
When applying a painful stimulus to an unconscious patient you notice...
Which of the following is a systemic autoimmune disease that...
Which of the following is a lumbar concavity that is accentuated by...
You are assessing 72 yr old Mr. Payne and find he has + JVD,...
Which grade of murmur can you hear without using a stethoscope?
A 27-year-old software specialist presents to your office for...
A 35-year-old postal worker presents to your office for evaluation of...
You are doing a neuro assessment on 37 yr old M, who had a serious...
Which of the following descriptions best describes a GRADE 6...
A 13-year-old junior high school student is brought into your office...
Which of the following knee deformites would you see a 'knock kneed'...
You are examing the legs of Mrs.Wackadoo and find her legs to be warm...
While doing a neuro assessment you ask your patient to smile, puff...
How do you perform McMurray's Test?
Which of the following describes the S4 heart sound?
A 55-year-old- nursing assistant presents to your office because of...
An 18-year-old college football player comes to your office after...
A 23-year-old fast food worker presents to your office for evaluation...
You are doing a quick neuro assessment on Mr.Finkelstein. You aks him...
You are assessing a 26 yr old woman, R, who 6 months ago was in a...
The temporal lobes are mainly responsible for...
This is your first day on the medical ICU rotation.  One of the...
Define Remote Memory.
Mrs. Fluffernutter is a new pt in the ICU whom you are going to...
Which of the following is caused by stretching or contraction beyond...
An 18-year-old college freshman presents to the emergency room for...
What is stereognosis?
At what point would you diagnose Hypertension in a normal patient?
A 61 year old hairdresser presents for evaluation of shortness of...
A 22-year-old daycare worker comes to the clinic for evaluation of...
Which of the following is a degenerative joint disease that results...
 Which of the following is NOT a risk factor for osteoporosis?
When auscultating your pts heart you hear a blowing, "shshing" sound....
A 55-year-old construction worker presents for evaluation of swelling...
Which cranial nerve controls tongue symmetry, movement and...
Which of the following reflexes usually indicates a severe injury to...
You are assessing Mr. Wink's legs and find them to be cool to the...
Which of the following describes the S2 heart sound?
Which of the following describes the S3 heart sound?
A 55-year-old executive assistant presents to your office for...
Which symptoms would you see with Left Sided Heart Failure?
A 35-year-old factory worker presents to your office for evaluation of...
Which cranial nerve is responsible for turning eye laterally?
When applying a painful stimulus your patient rigidly extends his arms...
In the picture above. which lobe of the brain is pictured in blue?
A patient is brought to the emergency room for evaluation of mental...
Which cranial nerve is responsible for chewing, sensation on the...
In the picture above. which lobe of the brain is pictured in green?
When auscultating a patients heart sounds you hear a Midsystolic...
A 62-year-old accountant presents for evaluation of a rash on his...
In which lobe of the brain is Broca's area located?
Which cranial nerve is responsible for downward & inward movement...
A patient with a recent brain injury is found to have lateral neglect....
Wernicke's area is located in which lobe of the brain?
What is a sprain?
The Parietal lobes are mainly respsonsible for...
With which knee deformity would your pt be 'bow legged'?
Which cranial nerve is responsible for PERRLA (Pupillary reactions)...
You are doing an assessment on Mr. Donald who is an inpatient at this...
You are going to do an assessment on Mrs. Lotty and upon arriving to...
Which of the following is NOT associated with diastolic murmurs?
You are in the morgue and assessing a DEAD patient. Your...
Define graphesthesia.
Which of the following is a hinge joint?
A 73 year old retired publisher presents to your clinic for a routine...
Which of the following is NOT associated with systolic murmurs?
You have arrived to class early and find Mrs. Hammack is not quite...
A 22 year old waitress presents to your clinic for evaluation of pain...
When auscultating a patients heart sounds you hear a Pan-systolic...
In the picture above. which lobe of the brain is pictured in pink?
Which of the following is a Condylar joint?
You are palpating Mr. Vil's carotid and listening to his heart. You...
In the picture above. which lobe of the brain is pictured in yellow?
A 35-year-old reporter presents to you office for evaluation of back...
At what point would you diagnose Hypertension in a patient with...
When auscultating a patients heart sounds you hear an Early diastolic...
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