Mega Quiz- Assessment

109 Questions | Total Attempts: 88

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Mega Quiz- Assessment

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Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    An 80 year old woman presents to your clinic for evaluation of palpations and shortness of breath.  You obtain an electrocardiogram, which reveals an irregularly irregular rhythm without discrete p waves.  You diagnosis her with atrial fibrillation.  The most likely physical finding upon auscultation of her heart is
    • A. 

      An irregulary irregular rhythm

    • B. 

      A rapid regular rhythm

    • C. 

      A midsystolic click

    • D. 

      Bigeminy

  • 2. 
    A 61 year old hairdresser presents for evaluation of shortness of breath.  You examine her jugular venous pulse (JVP) and listen to her heart.  You diagnosis her with right-sided heart failure.  Your JVP measurement is most likely to be:
    • A. 

      1 cm above the sternal angle

    • B. 

      3 cm above the sternal angle

    • C. 

      6 cm above the sternal angle

    • D. 

      1 cm below the sternal angle

  • 3. 
    A 22 year old waitress presents to your clinic for evaluation of pain in her chest.  She appears to be anxious.  The pain is worse with physical exertion, such as climbing stairs.  She does not smoke, use alcohol or illicit drugs, or consume excessive amounts of caffeine.  You auscultate her heart and diagnosis mitral valve prolapsed.  What did you hear to make this diagnosis ?
    • A. 

      An opening snap

    • B. 

      A midsystolic click

    • C. 

      A diastolic rumble

    • D. 

      A holo-systolic murmur

  • 4. 
    What could you ask a patient to do to accentuate the findings of a mitral valve prolapsed?
    • A. 

      Perform a Valsalva maneuver

    • B. 

      Squat

    • C. 

      Hop on one foot

    • D. 

      Kneel

  • 5. 
    A 73 year old retired publisher presents to your clinic for a routine checkup.  He has a history of class III congestive heart failure, hypertension, and hyperlipidemia.  He is doing well and is taking his medication as prescribed.  On examination of his cardiovascular system, what would you expect to find?
    • A. 

      PMI in the fifth interspace, midclavicular line, 8 cm lateral to the midsternal line

    • B. 

      PMI in the fifth interspace, anterior axillary line

    • C. 

      PMI in the third interspace, midclavicular line

    • D. 

      PMI in the eight interspace, anterior axillary line

  • 6. 
    Which of the following describes the S2 heart sound?
    • A. 

      Occurs during atrial contraction

    • B. 

      Produced by the closure of the mitral & tricuspid valve

    • C. 

      Occurs after the mitral valve opens; rapid ventricular filling

    • D. 

      Produced by closure of the aortic & pulmonic valve

  • 7. 
    Which of the following describes the S3 heart sound?
    • A. 

      Occurs during atrial contraction

    • B. 

      Produced by the closure of the mitral & tricuspid valves

    • C. 

      Occurs after the mitral valve opens; rapid ventricular filling

    • D. 

      Produced by closure of the aortic & pulmonic valves

  • 8. 
    Which of the following describes the S4 heart sound?
    • A. 

      Occurs during atrial contraction

    • B. 

      Produced by the closure of the mitral & tricuspid valves

    • C. 

      Occurs after the mitral valve opens; rapid ventricular filling

    • D. 

      Produced by closure of the aortic & pulmonic valves

  • 9. 
    Which of the following descriptions best describes a GRADE 1 murmur?
    • A. 

      Loud; may be associated with a thrill

    • B. 

      Very faint

    • C. 

      May be heard when the stethoscope is entirely off the chest

  • 10. 
    Which of the following descriptions best describes a GRADE 6 murmur?
    • A. 

      Loud; may be associated with a thrill

    • B. 

      Very faint

    • C. 

      May be heard when the stethoscope is entirely off the chest

  • 11. 
    Which of the following descriptions best describes a GRADE 4 murmur?
    • A. 

      Loud; may be associated with a thrill

    • B. 

      Very faint

    • C. 

      May be heard when the stethoscope is entirely off the chest

  • 12. 
    When auscultating a patients heart sounds you hear an Early diastolic decreased murmur. This would be indicative of what?
    • A. 

      Aortic stenosis

    • B. 

      Mitral regurgitation

    • C. 

      Mitral valve stenosis

    • D. 

      Aortic Regurgitation

  • 13. 
    When auscultating a patients heart sounds you hear a Pan-systolic plateau murmur. This would be indicative of what?
    • A. 

      Aortic stenosis

    • B. 

      Mitral regurgitation

    • C. 

      Mitral valve stenosis

    • D. 

      Aortic Regurgitation

  • 14. 
    When auscultating a patients heart sounds you hear a Midsystolic crescendo-decrescendo murmur. This would be indicative of what?
    • A. 

      Aortic stenosis

    • B. 

      Mitral regurgitation

    • C. 

      Mitral valve stenosis

    • D. 

      Aortic Regurgitation

  • 15. 
    A 68-year-old retired kindergarten teacher presents to your office for evaluation of swelling in her right arm. On questioning her further, you discover that she has had a recent mastectomy for right-sided ductal carcinoma in situ. What is you most likely diagnosis?
    • A. 

      Orthostatic edema

    • B. 

      Lymphedema

    • C. 

      Lipedema

    • D. 

      Chronic venous insufficiency

  • 16. 
    A 55-year-old construction worker presents for evaluation of swelling in his feet. He has smoked 2 packs of cigarettes daily since the age of 15. He has noticed pain in both legs when walking, which is relieved with resting for 10 minutes. On physical examination, his dorsalis pedis pulses are decreased bilaterally in comparison with his femoral pulses. His feet are cool to the touch when compared with his upper legs. He has no pedal edema. What is your most likely diagnosis?
    • A. 

      Deep vein thrombosis

    • B. 

      Arterial insufficiency

    • C. 

      Venous insufficiency

    • D. 

      Peripheral neuropathy

  • 17. 
    A 62-year-old accountant presents for evaluation of a rash on his lower legs. He has had this rash for several months. He denies fever or chills. The skin itches. He has tried OTC creams without success. He has smoked ½ pack of cigarettes daily for the past 20 years. On physical examination, the skin of his lower legs is hyperpigmented and bluish-red. He has a shallow ulcer on his right medial calf. His dorsalis pedis pulses are 2+ bilaterally, and he has normal hair distribution on his lower legs. These findings are most compatible with which one?
    • A. 

      Deep vein thrombosis

    • B. 

      Tinea pedis

    • C. 

      Arterial insufficiency

    • D. 

      Venous insufficiency

  • 18. 
    A 55-year-old- nursing assistant presents to your office because of persistent swelling in her feet. She is a nonsmoker. Her medical history is noncontributory. She has never had any surgeries. She works two 8-hour shifts daily, 6 days weekly. On physical examination, her BP is 110/60 mm/Hg; her cardiovascular examination is normal; and her legs have 2+ pitting edema bilaterally without rashes, thickening, or ulceration of the skin. What is your most likely diagnosis?
    • A. 

      Orthostatic edema

    • B. 

      Lymphedema

    • C. 

      Lipedema

    • D. 

      Chronic venous insufficiency

  • 19. 
    What kind of edema would you see with Right sided heart failure?
    • A. 

      Dependent edema; sacral edema when patient is supine; may see increased JVD, enlarged liver, enlarged heart;

    • B. 

      Edema in the loose subcutaneous tissues of the eyelids; may also appear in the feet and legs

    • C. 

      Localized edema; involves one or both legs

    • D. 

      Edema of the dependent areas; no cardiac or hepatic signs

  • 20. 
    A 50-year-old physician presents for evaluation of pain in his right shoulder. The pain has been intermittent for the past 20 years, but over the past 3 weeks, it has been present daily. He has tried OTC analgesics, but they do not relieve the symptoms. 5 years ago, he fell on the icy pavement and landed on his shoulder. You perform a physical examination maneuver, because you suspect a rotator cuff tear. What is the name of this test?
    • A. 

      Drop arm test

    • B. 

      McMurray’s test

    • C. 

      Anterior drawer test

    • D. 

      Tinel’s test

  • 21. 
    A 35-year-old factory worker presents to your office for evaluation of pain in his left arm. He denies any acute trauma or injury. His job involves inspecting jars, and he has to test the opening and closing of the jar lids. He denies fever or chills. On physical examination, there is no swelling over the elbow. You palpate the olecranon process, and he has tenderness on the left lateral epicondyle but not on the medial epicondyle. Based on this information, what is your most likely diagnosis?
    • A. 

      Olecranon bursitis

    • B. 

      Osteoarthritis

    • C. 

      Lateral epicondylitis

    • D. 

      Epicondylar fracture

  • 22. 
    A 27-year-old software specialist presents to your office for evaluation of numbness and pain in his fingers. He has noticed that the numbness increases as the day goes on; at first he noticed it only at the end of the day, but now it is present upon awakening. It is present in both his hands. The pain started several months ago and is not relieved by OTC analgesics. The patient’s family history is significant for HTN and cerebrovascular disease. On physical examination, his BP is 110/70 mmHg and his thenar eminence is atrophic. Which tests would you perform to confirm your initial hypothesis of carpal tunnel syndrome
    • A. 

      Tinel’s test

    • B. 

      Anterior drawer test

    • C. 

      McMurray’s test

    • D. 

      Allen test

  • 23. 
    A 35-year-old postal worker presents to your office for evaluation of pain in her joints. She states that the pain is worse in her fingers and wrists; both hands are affected. She notices that it takes her longer than 1 hour to get moving in the morning because she is so stiff. For the past few weeks, she has been having fevers, some as high as 100.5℉. You notice that she has fusiform swelling in her fingers and wrists bilaterally and that the PIP and MCP joints are tender to palpation. Based on the history and physical examination findings, what is your most likely diagnosis?
    • A. 

      Osteoarthritis

    • B. 

      Rheumatoid arthritis

    • C. 

      Gouty arthritis

    • D. 

      Ankylosing spondylitis

  • 24. 
    A 55-year-old executive assistant presents to your office for evaluation of pain in her wrist. She states that the pain has been present daily. She has taken OTC analgesics for the pain, which seem to help. She denies fever, chills, or rashes. On physical examination, she has pain and tenderness over the right wrist but not the left. She has a hard dorsolateral nodule on the DIP joint of her right middle finger. The MCP joints are normal. What is your most likely diagnosis?
    • A. 

      Gouty arthritis

    • B. 

      Rheumatoid arthritis

    • C. 

      Systemic lupus erythematosus

    • D. 

      Osteoarthritis

  • 25. 
    A 13-year-old junior high school student is brought into your office by her mother for evaluation of unequal shoulder height. Her mother first noticed this problem 2 weeks ago. There is no history of birth trauma or recent injury. On physical examination, there is a lateral curvature to the spine. The curvature is more pronounced with forward flexion. Based on this information, what is your most likely diagnosis?
    • A. 

      Normal spinal curvature

    • B. 

      Kyphosis

    • C. 

      Scoliosis

    • D. 

      Lumbar lordosis

  • 26. 
    An 18-year-old college football player comes to your office after sustaining an injury on the field. He states that he planted his foot and had to pivot to catch the ball. He heard a “pop,” and his right knee gave way and started to swell. The trainer iced it down. On physical examination, you note increased swelling and tenderness over the right knee. He has significant forward excursion when you perform the Lachman test. He also has more movement of the right tibia when you draw it forward when compared with the left. Based on this information, what is your most likely diagnosis?
    • A. 

      Posterior cruciate ligament tear

    • B. 

      Anterior cruciate ligament tear

    • C. 

      Meniscus tear

    • D. 

      Patellar tear

  • 27. 
    A 23-year-old fast food worker presents to your office for evaluation of pain in his feet, especially the heels. He notes that the pain is most intense when he first awakens, then eases up somewhat after walking for a few minutes. By the end of the day, the pain has returned again to its full intensity. He has tried OTC analgesics without success. He denies fever, chills, trauma, or injury to his feet. On physical examination, he has tenderness upon palpation of the plantar fascia. There are no deformities or joint swelling. What is your most likely diagnosis?
    • A. 

      Ankle sprain

    • B. 

      Heel spur

    • C. 

      Plantar fasciitis

    • D. 

      Gout

  • 28. 
    An 18-year-old college freshman presents to the emergency room for evaluation of fever, headache, and neck stiffness.  On physical examination, the patient is resting quietly and has a flushed face.  His vital signs are as follows: temperature, 104 degrees F; pulse, 110 bpm; and BP, 105/70 mmHg.  He has no rashes. During the physical examination, you flex the patient’s neck and hips and knees flex in response, indicating meningeal irritation.  The name of this positive sign is:
    • A. 

      Kernig’s sign

    • B. 

      Brudzinski’s sign

    • C. 

      Babinski’s sign

    • D. 

      Lachman’s sign

  • 29. 
    A 22-year-old daycare worker comes to the clinic for evaluation of fever as high as 103.5 degrees F, headache, and neck pain.  She has photophobia and neck stiffness.  During the physical examination, you flex the patient’s leg at both the hip and the knee and then straighten her knee to elicit meningeal irritation.  The patient experiences severe pain.  The name of this sign is:
    • A. 

      Kernig’s sign

    • B. 

      Brudzinski’s sign

    • C. 

      Babinski’s sign

    • D. 

      Lachman’s sign

  • 30. 
    This is your first day on the medical ICU rotation.  One of the patients you have been assigned to follow is comatose.  You want to decide whether this patient’s coma is due to a metabolic or structural cause; therefore, you examine the patient’s papillary response to light.  If the patient were in a coma due to an opiate overdose, you would expect to see which type of reaction?
    • A. 

      Pupils equal and reactive to light, pinpoint

    • B. 

      Pupils fixed and dilated

    • C. 

      Pupils unequal to light

    • D. 

      One pupil fixed and dilated

  • 31. 
    A patient is brought to the emergency room for evaluation of mental status changes.  She has a history of a fever as high 105 degrees F.  She has had a headache and symptoms consistent with an upper respiratory infection 2 weeks before the worsening of these symptoms tonight.  You are updating this patient’s clinical progress.  You diagnose her with a coma.  You note that her respiratory pattern has become irregular, with Cheyne-Stokes breathing.  Her pupils, which were previously equal, are now unequally reactive to light.  What is the most likely cause of her coma?
    • A. 

      Drug overdose

    • B. 

      Alcohol intoxication

    • C. 

      Uremia

    • D. 

      Brain abscess

  • 32. 
    A 25-year-old housewife presents to the urgent care clinic for evaluation of paralysis in her face.  She has a history of an upper respiratory 2 weeks before the onset of these symptoms.  She states that her face is drooping and that she is unable to close her eye.  On physical examination, you note that her forehead is smooth on the right side, her palpebral fissure appears widened, and her nasolabial fold appears flattened and she is drooling.  Based on this information, what is the most likely diagnosis?
    • A. 

      Cortical stroke

    • B. 

      Bell’s palsy

    • C. 

      Horner’s syndrome

    • D. 

      Stress reaction

  • 33. 
    A 35-year-old reporter presents to you office for evaluation of back pain and weakness in his left leg.  He was play-wrestling with his nephew and hurt his back 2 weeks ago.  He states that he has noticed tingling in his left leg as well.  He has not noticed incontinence of bowel or bladder function.  You perform a physical examination and confirm that he is dragging his left foot when he walks and that his Achilles reflex is diminished. You diagnose him with a herniated disc.  Which nerve root are you testing with the Achilles reflex?
    • A. 

      C5, C6

    • B. 

      L2, L3, L4

    • C. 

      S1

    • D. 

      L4, L5

  • 34. 
    A 75-year-old retired short-order cook presents to the office for evaluation of weakness.  He has a history of hypertension; he stopped taking his medication a few months ago because he couldn’t tell that it was making a difference and it was too expensive.  On physical examination, his blood pressure is 220/110 mmHg.  He has deviation of the tongue to the left side.  Which cranial nerve would have to be affected for this finding to be present?
    • A. 

      CN I (olfactory)

    • B. 

      CN V (trigeminal)

    • C. 

      CN VII (facial)

    • D. 

      CN XII (hypoglossal)

  • 35. 
    Define attention:
    • A. 

      Awareness of who or what the person is in relation to time, place, and people

    • B. 

      Ability to retain information over an interval of minutes, hours, or days

    • C. 

      Ability to retain information over an Interval of years

    • D. 

      Ability to focus or concentrate over time on one task or activity

    • E. 

      Alertness and state of awareness of the environment

  • 36. 
    Define Recent Memory.
    • A. 

      Awareness of who or what the person is in relation to time, place, and people

    • B. 

      Ability to retain information over an interval of minutes, hours, or days

    • C. 

      Ability to retain information over an Interval of years

    • D. 

      Ability to focus or concentrate over time on one task or activity

    • E. 

      Alertness and state of awareness of the environment

  • 37. 
    Define Remote Memory.
    • A. 

      Awareness of who or what the person is in relation to time, place, and people

    • B. 

      Ability to retain information over an interval of minutes, hours, or days

    • C. 

      Ability to retain information over an Interval of years

    • D. 

      Ability to focus or concentrate over time on one task or activity

    • E. 

      Alertness and state of awareness of the environment

  • 38. 
    Define Orientation
    • A. 

      Awareness of who or what the person is in relation to time, place, and people

    • B. 

      Ability to retain information over an interval of minutes, hours, or days

    • C. 

      Ability to retain information over an Interval of years

    • D. 

      Ability to focus or concentrate over time on one task or activity

    • E. 

      Alertness and state of awareness of the environment

  • 39. 
    Which cranial nerve controls tongue symmetry, movement and position?
    • A. 

      CN 2 (Optic)

    • B. 

      CN 9 (glossopharyngeal)

    • C. 

      CN 5 (trigeminal)

    • D. 

      CN 12 (hypoglossal)

  • 40. 
    Which cranial nerve is responsible for pharyngeal movement, taste, sensing carotid BP,  sensation on posterior tongue and pharynx?
    • A. 

      CN 7 (facial)

    • B. 

      CN 12 (Hypoglossal)

    • C. 

      CN 9 (glossopharyngeal)

    • D. 

      CN 1 (Olfactory)

  • 41. 
    Which cranial nerve is responsible for vision?
    • A. 

      CN 3 (Oculomotor)

    • B. 

      CN 2 (Optic)

    • C. 

      CN 8 (Vestibulocochlear)

    • D. 

      CN 1 (Olfactory)

  • 42. 
    Which cranial nerve is responsible for downward & inward movement of eye, and innervates superior oblique muscle?
    • A. 

      CN 4 (trochlear)

    • B. 

      CN 5 (Trigeminal)

    • C. 

      CN 6 (abducens)

    • D. 

      CN 3 (Oculomotor)

  • 43. 
    Which cranial nerve is responsible for smell?
    • A. 

      CN 1 (Olfactory)

    • B. 

      CN 7 (facial)

    • C. 

      CN 8 (Vestibulocochlear)

    • D. 

      CN 2 (Optic)

  • 44. 
    Which cranial nerve is responsible for chewing, sensation on the face,  & corneal reflex.
    • A. 

      CN 7 (Facial)

    • B. 

      CN 9 (glossopharyngeal)

    • C. 

      CN 5 (trigeminal)

    • D. 

      CN 11 (Spinal Accessory)

  • 45. 
    Which cranial nerve is responsible for facial movement, facial expressions,& secretion of tears and saliva?
    • A. 

      CN 5 (trigeminal)

    • B. 

      CN 8 (vestibulocochlear)

    • C. 

      CN 3 (Oculomotor)

    • D. 

      CN 7 (Facial)

  • 46. 
    Which cranial nerve is responsible for turning eye laterally?
    • A. 

      CN 6 (Abducens)

    • B. 

      CN 3 (Oculomotor)

    • C. 

      CN 1 (Optic)

    • D. 

      CN 5 (Trigeminal)

  • 47. 
    Which cranial nerve is responsible for hearing & sense of balance (equilibrium)?
    • A. 

      CN 11 (Spinal Accessory)

    • B. 

      CN 8 (Vestibulocochlear)

    • C. 

      CN 4 (Trochlear)

    • D. 

      CN 10 (vagus)

  • 48. 
    Which cranial nerve is responsible for PERRLA (Pupillary reactions) & visual fields?
    • A. 

      CN 2 (Optic)

    • B. 

      CN 6 (Abducens)

    • C. 

      CN 3 (Oculomotor)

    • D. 

      CN 12 (hypoglossal)

  • 49. 
    You have arrived to class early and find Mrs. Hammack is not quite herself. She is sitting on the assessment table talking to Harvey the Dummy. Her eyes are open spontaneously as she is intently staring at Harvey. When you speak with Mrs. Hammock she is able to answer questions appropriately, but is confused in conversation.  She does not follow your commands but when you pinch her hand she purposefully pulls away her hand and threatens to flunk you. What is Mrs. Hammocks current Glasgow Coma Scale score? 
    • A. 

      GCS 15

    • B. 

      GCS 9

    • C. 

      GCS 13

    • D. 

      GCS 11

  • 50. 
    You are doing an assessment on Mr. Donald who is an inpatient at this time. When you call out Mr. Donald's name he does not respond to you nor open his eyes.  You are only able to get him to open his eyes upon deep painful stimulus. At this point he also mumbles some incomprensible speech and then shuts his eyes again. He will not follow commands and there is only a slight withdrawal from pain. What is Mr. Donalds Glasgow Coma Scale score
    • A. 

      GCS 8

    • B. 

      GCS 5

    • C. 

      GCS 12

    • D. 

      GCS 3

  • 51. 
    Mrs. Fluffernutter is a new pt in the ICU whom you are going to assess. She had a cerebral aneurysm rupture and is being monitored in the units. When you assess her you find she will not open her eyes no matter what you do. You are unable to elicit any verbal response and upon deep painful stimuli she demonstrates a decerebrate response. What is Mrs. Fluffernutters Glascow Coma Score?
    • A. 

      GCS 1

    • B. 

      GCS 4

    • C. 

      GCS 7

    • D. 

      GCS 9

  • 52. 
    You are doing a quick neuro assessment on Mr.Finkelstein. You aks him to sit on the table so you may assess him and he complies. His eyes are open as you start your assessment by determining orientation and find he is completely oriented. You continue with the rest of your neuro assessment but have determined his Glascow Coma scale score is:
    • A. 

      GCS 12

    • B. 

      GCS 3

    • C. 

      GCS 15

    • D. 

      GCS 10

  • 53. 
    • A. 

      GCS 12

    • B. 

      GCS 14

    • C. 

      GCS 10

    • D. 

      GCS 7

  • 54. 
    You are in the morgue and assessing a DEAD patient. Your snarky instructor decides to ask you for this patients current Glasgow Coma Scale score. What is your response your instructor?
    • A. 

      GCS 0

    • B. 

      GCS 5

    • C. 

      GCS 15

    • D. 

      GCS 3

  • 55. 
    You blindfold your pt and hold an orange under their nose. You ask them to identify the smell which they correctly do. Which cranial nerve have you just tested?
    • A. 

      CN 1 (Olfactory)

    • B. 

      CN 7 (Facial)

    • C. 

      CN 11 (Spinal Accessory)

    • D. 

      CN 4 (Trochlear)

  • 56. 
    While doing a neuro assessment you ask your patient to smile, puff their cheeks, and raise their eyebrows. Which cranial nerve are you testing?
    • A. 

      CN 3 (Oculomotor)

    • B. 

      CN 5 (Trigeminal)

    • C. 

      CN 7 (Facial)

    • D. 

      CN 9 (Glossopharyngeal)

  • 57. 
    You are sitting in your apartment with your best friend, when your friend excuses herself to go to the bathroom. You hear her grunting and straining to have a BM and then you hear a thump. You run to the bathroom and find your friend momentarily disoriented on the bathroom floor. Thinking back to assessment class you realize which cranial nerve has likely been stimulated?
    • A. 

      CN 10 (Vagus)

    • B. 

      CN 12 (Hypoglossal)

    • C. 

      CN 8 (Vestibulocochlear)

    • D. 

      Who cares?! You need to go and get your camera NOW. This is soooo going on myspace.

  • 58. 
    When asking your patient to shrug their shoulders and turn their head side-to-side which cranial nerve are you assessing?
    • A. 

      CN 10 (Vagus)

    • B. 

      CN 11 (Spinal Accessory)

    • C. 

      CN 6 (Abducens)

    • D. 

      CN 12 (Hypoglossal)

  • 59. 
    Which of the following reflexes usually indicates a severe injury to the brainstem?
    • A. 

      Decerebrate

    • B. 

      Brudzinki's sign

    • C. 

      Decorticate

    • D. 

      Corneal reflex

  • 60. 
    When applying a painful stimulus to an unconscious patient you notice that the pt bends their arms inward toward the chest with wrists bent and fingers clenched. Their legs are extended and rigid. What is this known as?
    • A. 

      Babinski's sign

    • B. 

      Decorticate response

    • C. 

      Appropriate response

    • D. 

      Decerebrate response

  • 61. 
    When applying a painful stimulus your patient rigidly extends his arms and legs. His toes are pointed downwards and he arches his head backwards. This response is known as what?
    • A. 

      Decorticate

    • B. 

      Babinski's sign

    • C. 

      Decerebrate

    • D. 

      Phelan test

  • 62. 
    What is stereognosis?
    • A. 

      The ability to recognize a really cool song on the radio.

    • B. 

      The ability to recognize a number that has been drawn in your hand.

    • C. 

      The ability to identify objects just by feeling them in your hand without seeing the object.

    • D. 

      Being able to accurately understand speech while losing the ability to appropriately form words.

  • 63. 
    Define graphesthesia.
    • A. 

      Maintaining the ability to speak while losing the ability to read or write due to a traumatic brain injury.

    • B. 

      The ability to recognize a number that has been drawn in your hand.

    • C. 

      Complete amnesia regarding anything you have written

    • D. 

      The ability to identify objects just by feeling them in your hand without seeing the object.

  • 64. 
    In the picture above. which lobe of the brain is pictured in blue?
    • A. 

      Frontal

    • B. 

      Parietal

    • C. 

      Temporal

    • D. 

      Occipital

  • 65. 
    In the picture above. which lobe of the brain is pictured in yellow?
    • A. 

      Frontal

    • B. 

      Temporal

    • C. 

      Parietal

    • D. 

      Occipital

  • 66. 
    In the picture above. which lobe of the brain is pictured in green?
    • A. 

      Frontal

    • B. 

      Parietal

    • C. 

      Temporal

    • D. 

      Occipital

  • 67. 
    In the picture above. which lobe of the brain is pictured in pink?
    • A. 

      Frontal

    • B. 

      Parietal

    • C. 

      Temporal

    • D. 

      Occipital

  • 68. 
    The Frontal lobe is mainly responsible for...
    • A. 

      It is concerned with emotions, reasoning, planning, movement, and parts of speech. It is also involved in purposeful acts such as creativity, judgment, problem solving, and planning.

    • B. 

      Connected with the processing of nerve impulses related to the senses, such as touch, pain, taste, pressure, and temperature.

    • C. 

      Responsible for hearing, memory, meaning, and language. Also are concerned with interpreting and processing auditory stimuli. Play a role in emotion and learning.

    • D. 

      Involved with the brain's ability to recognize objects. It is responsible for our vision. Reading and interpretation of reading.

  • 69. 
    The Parietal lobes are mainly respsonsible for...
    • A. 

      It is concerned with emotions, reasoning, planning, movement, and parts of speech. It is also involved in purposeful acts such as creativity, judgment, problem solving, and planning.

    • B. 

      Connected with the processing of nerve impulses related to the senses, such as touch, pain, taste, pressure, and temperature.

    • C. 

      Responsible for hearing, memory, meaning, and language. Also are concerned with interpreting and processing auditory stimuli. Play a role in emotion and learning.

    • D. 

      Involved with the brain's ability to recognize objects. It is responsible for our vision. Reading and interpretation of reading.

  • 70. 
    The temporal lobes are mainly responsible for...
    • A. 

      It is concerned with emotions, reasoning, planning, movement, and parts of speech. It is also involved in purposeful acts such as creativity, judgment, problem solving, and planning.

    • B. 

      Connected with the processing of nerve impulses related to the senses, such as touch, pain, taste, pressure, and temperature.

    • C. 

      Responsible for hearing, memory, meaning, and language. Also are concerned with interpreting and processing auditory stimuli. Play a role in emotion and learning.

    • D. 

      Involved with the brain's ability to recognize objects. It is responsible for our vision. Reading and interpretation of reading.

  • 71. 
    The occipital lobe is primarily responsible for....
    • A. 

      It is concerned with emotions, reasoning, planning, movement, and parts of speech. It is also involved in purposeful acts such as creativity, judgment, problem solving, and planning.

    • B. 

      Connected with the processing of nerve impulses related to the senses, such as touch, pain, taste, pressure, and temperature.

    • C. 

      Responsible for hearing, memory, meaning, and language. Also are concerned with interpreting and processing auditory stimuli. Play a role in emotion and learning.

    • D. 

      Involved with the brain's ability to recognize objects. It is responsible for our vision. Reading and interpretation of reading.

  • 72. 
    In which lobe of the brain is Broca's area located?
    • A. 

      Frontal Lobe

    • B. 

      Parietal lobe

    • C. 

      Temporal lobe

    • D. 

      Occipital lobe

  • 73. 
    You are assessing a 26 yr old woman, R, who 6 months ago was in a serious car accident. Her family states that ever since the accident R has had little control of her emotions, seems to have lost the ability to reason, and now has very poor judgement and problem solving skills. Her personality just seems different. R most likely sustained an injury to which lobe of the brain?
    • A. 

      Temporal Lobe

    • B. 

      Frontal Lobe

    • C. 

      Parietal Lobe

    • D. 

      Occipital Lobe

  • 74. 
    A patient with a recent brain injury is found to have lateral neglect. This is associated with injury to which lobe?
    • A. 

      Frontal

    • B. 

      Temporal

    • C. 

      Parietal

    • D. 

      Occipital

  • 75. 
    Wernicke's area is located in which lobe of the brain?
    • A. 

      Frontal

    • B. 

      Occipital

    • C. 

      Parietal

    • D. 

      Temporal

  • 76. 
    You are doing a neuro assessment on 37 yr old M, who had a serious fall and brain injury several months ago. During your assessment you find M has trouble with language comprehension and with processing auditory stimuli. You recognize he most likely sustained an injury to which brain lobe?
    • A. 

      Temporal

    • B. 

      Frontal

    • C. 

      Parietal

    • D. 

      Occipital

  • 77. 
    Deep tendon reflexes are assessing what?
    • A. 

      Spinal Cord reflexes

    • B. 

      Brain stem reflexes

    • C. 

      Speed of cerebellar processing

    • D. 

      Yo momma

  • 78. 
    You are assessing a 4 month old baby in the ER. You stroke the bottom of the babies foot and see the toes fan out. Is this normal?
    • A. 

      No, this is a positive babinski's and may indicate the child has been shaken and sustained a brain injury.

    • B. 

      No, this is Kernig's sign and may be indicative of meningitis.

    • C. 

      Yes, This reflex is normal in children under 1 yr of age.

    • D. 

      No, this is a positive Phelan's test and indicates the baby may have hypotonia.

  • 79. 
    Which of the following is a hinge joint?
    • A. 

      TMJ

    • B. 

      Knee

    • C. 

      Hip

    • D. 

      Base of thumb

  • 80. 
    Which of the following is a Condylar joint?
    • A. 

      Knee

    • B. 

      Hip

    • C. 

      TMJ

    • D. 

      Base of thumb

  • 81. 
    How do you perform McMurray's Test?
    • A. 

      Lay the pt flat and bend their knee in order to assess for a click in the joint which may indicate a meniscus tear.

    • B. 

      Hold the wrist in forced flexion for 1 minute there will be tingling in median nerve.

    • C. 

      Flex the patients hip 90 degrees and then extende the knee to see if this elicits pain.

    • D. 

      Flex the patents neck by putting their chin to their chest to see if this elicits a pain response.

  • 82. 
    Which of the following is a systemic autoimmune disease that occurs when the body's own immune system mistakenly attacks the synovium (cell lining inside the joint) and effects all joints?
    • A. 

      Gout Arthritis

    • B. 

      Rheumatoid Arthritis

    • C. 

      Osteoarthritis

    • D. 

      Kyphosis

  • 83. 
    Which of the following is a degenerative joint disease that results from wear and tear of the joints and is associated with heberden & bouchards nodes?
    • A. 

      Osteoporosis

    • B. 

      Rheumatoid Arthritis

    • C. 

      Osteoarthritis

    • D. 

      Gout Arthritis

  • 84. 
    Which of the following is associated with deposits of sodium urate crystals?
    • A. 

      Rheumatoid arthritis

    • B. 

      Scoliosis

    • C. 

      Osteoarthritis

    • D. 

      Gout Arthritis

  • 85. 
    What tests would you perform to check for Carpal Tunnel Syndrome?
    • A. 

      Tinnel's Sign & Phelan's Test

    • B. 

      Kernig's Sign & Brudzinskis Test

    • C. 

      Romberg Test & Proprioception Test

    • D. 

      Gouty test & Green test

  • 86. 
     Which of the following is NOT a risk factor for osteoporosis?
    • A. 

      Sedentary individual

    • B. 

      Pre-Menopausal women

    • C. 

      Long term Steroid therapy

    • D. 

      Hyperparathyroidism

  • 87. 
    Which of the following is caused by stretching or contraction beyond muscle capability & repetitive motion?
    • A. 

      Sprain

    • B. 

      Fracture

    • C. 

      Strain

    • D. 

      Dislocation

  • 88. 
    What is a sprain?
    • A. 

      A hairline fracture in the bone.

    • B. 

      Excessive stretching or contraction beyond muscle capability caused by repitive motion.

    • C. 

      Resistance of a joint to movement.

    • D. 

      Stretch or tear of ligament

  • 89. 
    Which of the following is an S shaped curvature of the spine?
    • A. 

      Scoliosis

    • B. 

      List

    • C. 

      Kyphosis

    • D. 

      Lordosis

  • 90. 
    Which of the following is an exagerrated curvature of the posterior spine (Humpback)?
    • A. 

      Scoliosis

    • B. 

      Kyphosis

    • C. 

      List

    • D. 

      Lordosis

  • 91. 
    Which of the following is a lumbar concavity that is accentuated by pregnancy of obesity?
    • A. 

      Scoliosis

    • B. 

      List

    • C. 

      Lordosis

    • D. 

      Kyphosis

  • 92. 
    With which knee deformity would your pt be 'bow legged'?
    • A. 

      Veritas

    • B. 

      Tinnel

    • C. 

      Valgus

    • D. 

      Varus

  • 93. 
    Which of the following knee deformites would you see a 'knock kneed' patient?
    • A. 

      Valgus

    • B. 

      Veritas

    • C. 

      Vino

    • D. 

      Varus

  • 94. 
    What is the ideal blood pressure?
    • A. 

      104/22

    • B. 

      118/78

    • C. 

      138/ 98

    • D. 

      Whatever each individual patient can tolerate

  • 95. 
    Which symptoms would you see with Left Sided Heart Failure?
    • A. 

      + JVD

    • B. 

      Dependent Edema & Lift

    • C. 

      Pulm Edema & Heave

    • D. 

      A-Fib

  • 96. 
    You are assessing 72 yr old Mr. Payne and find he has + JVD, Lift,recent weight gain, and Swelling of the ankles. What is your diagnosis for Mr. Payne?
    • A. 

      Left Sided Heart Failure

    • B. 

      Heart Murmur

    • C. 

      He's just old.

    • D. 

      Right Sided Heart Failure

  • 97. 
    Is S1 associated with systole or diastole?
    • A. 

      Systole

    • B. 

      Diastole

  • 98. 
    Is S2 associated with systole of diastole?
    • A. 

      Systole

    • B. 

      Diastole

  • 99. 
    You are auscultating your patients carotid artery and ask the patient to hold their breath. Why do you do this?
    • A. 

      Just for fun.

    • B. 

      So you can better feel the thrill

    • C. 

      To assess their ability to follow commands

    • D. 

      So you do not confuse their breath sounds for a bruit

  • 100. 
    When auscultating your pts heart you hear a blowing, "shshing" sound. What is this? 
    • A. 

      Murmur

    • B. 

      S3

    • C. 

      S4

    • D. 

      Thrill

  • 101. 
    You are palpating Mr. Vil's carotid and listening to his heart. You hear an excess heart sound which does NOT correlate with your carotid palpation. Which heart sounds is this?
    • A. 

      S4

    • B. 

      S1

    • C. 

      Murmur

    • D. 

      S3

  • 102. 
    Which grade of murmur can you hear without using a stethoscope?
    • A. 

      6

    • B. 

      4

    • C. 

      3

    • D. 

      1

  • 103. 
    Which grade of murmur is barely audible?
    • A. 

      6

    • B. 

      4

    • C. 

      3

    • D. 

      1

  • 104. 
    Which of the following is NOT associated with systolic murmurs?
    • A. 

      Aortic Stenosis

    • B. 

      Pulmonic Stenosis

    • C. 

      Aortic Regurgitation

    • D. 

      Mitral Regurgitation

  • 105. 
    Which of the following is NOT associated with diastolic murmurs?
    • A. 

      Aortic Stenosis

    • B. 

      Aortic Regurgitation

    • C. 

      Mitral Stenosis

    • D. 

      Aortic Insufficiency

  • 106. 
    At what point would you diagnose Hypertension in a normal patient?
    • A. 

      One reading of BP > 150/95

    • B. 

      Two readings of BP > 140/90

    • C. 

      Two readings of BP >130/80

    • D. 

      One reading BP < 90/40

  • 107. 
    At what point would you diagnose Hypertension in a patient with Diabetes and Renal disease?
    • A. 

      One reading of BP > 150/95

    • B. 

      Two readings of BP > 140/90

    • C. 

      Two readings of BP >130/80

    • D. 

      One reading BP < 90/40

  • 108. 
    You are examing the legs of Mrs.Wackadoo and find her legs to be warm and edematous with a dark bluish/purple discoloration. There is a small ulcer on her ankle and she states elevating her legs helps to relive the swelling. What is causing these symptoms?
    • A. 

      DVT

    • B. 

      Arterial Insufficiency

    • C. 

      Kidney failure

    • D. 

      Venous Insufficiency

  • 109. 
    You are assessing Mr. Wink's legs and find them to be cool to the touch and pale. He complains of intermittent pain the legs and he has no hair growing on either leg. What is causing this?
    • A. 

      DVT

    • B. 

      Arterial Insufficiency

    • C. 

      Kidney Failure

    • D. 

      Venous Insufficiency