Cardiology Practice Exam Quiz!

Reviewed by Editorial Team
The ProProfs editorial team is comprised of experienced subject matter experts. They've collectively created over 10,000 quizzes and lessons, serving over 100 million users. Our team includes in-house content moderators and subject matter experts, as well as a global network of rigorously trained contributors. All adhere to our comprehensive editorial guidelines, ensuring the delivery of high-quality content.
Learn about Our Editorial Process
| By Scottishduffy
S
Scottishduffy
Community Contributor
Quizzes Created: 28 | Total Attempts: 62,390
| Attempts: 1,419
Quiz Flashcard
SettingsSettings
Please wait...
  • 1/109 Questions

    Is S1 associated with systole or diastole?

    • Systole
    • Diastole
Please wait...
About This Quiz

This Cardiology Practice Exam Quiz assesses knowledge in diagnosing and understanding conditions such as atrial fibrillation, heart failure, and mitral valve prolapse through clinical scenarios.

Cardiology Practice Exam Quiz! - Quiz

Quiz Preview

  • 2. 

    Which cranial nerve is responsible for smell?

    • CN 1 (Olfactory)

    • CN 7 (facial)

    • CN 8 (Vestibulocochlear)

    • CN 2 (Optic)

    Correct Answer
    A. CN 1 (Olfactory)
    Explanation
    The cranial nerve responsible for smell is CN 1, also known as the Olfactory nerve. This nerve is responsible for transmitting information related to smell from the nose to the brain. It plays a crucial role in our sense of smell and is responsible for detecting and identifying different odors.

    Rate this question:

  • 3. 

    Which of the following descriptions best describes a GRADE 1 murmur?

    • Loud; may be associated with a thrill

    • Very faint

    • May be heard when the stethoscope is entirely off the chest

    Correct Answer
    A. Very faint
    Explanation
    A Grade 1 murmur is described as very faint. This means that it is barely audible and may be difficult to detect even with a stethoscope. It is the softest type of murmur and may require a trained ear to hear. This murmur is typically not associated with any other physical findings such as a thrill, which is a vibrating sensation felt on the chest wall. It is important for healthcare professionals to accurately identify the grade of a murmur as it can provide valuable information about the severity and potential underlying causes of the condition.

    Rate this question:

  • 4. 

    The Frontal lobe is mainly responsible for...

    • It is concerned with emotions, reasoning, planning, movement, and parts of speech. It is also involved in purposeful acts such as creativity, judgment, problem solving, and planning.

    • Connected with the processing of nerve impulses related to the senses, such as touch, pain, taste, pressure, and temperature.

    • Responsible for hearing, memory, meaning, and language. Also are concerned with interpreting and processing auditory stimuli. Play a role in emotion and learning.

    • Involved with the brain's ability to recognize objects. It is responsible for our vision. Reading and interpretation of reading.

    Correct Answer
    A. It is concerned with emotions, reasoning, planning, movement, and parts of speech. It is also involved in purposeful acts such as creativity, judgment, problem solving, and planning.
    Explanation
    The frontal lobe is responsible for a wide range of cognitive functions such as emotions, reasoning, planning, movement, and parts of speech. It plays a crucial role in purposeful acts like creativity, judgment, problem solving, and planning. This explanation aligns with the information provided in the question, which highlights the various functions associated with the frontal lobe.

    Rate this question:

  • 5. 

    A 68-year-old retired kindergarten teacher presents to your office for evaluation of swelling in her right arm. On questioning her further, you discover that she has had a recent mastectomy for right-sided ductal carcinoma in situ. What is you most likely diagnosis?

    • Orthostatic edema

    • Lymphedema

    • Lipedema

    • Chronic venous insufficiency

    Correct Answer
    A. Lymphedema
    Explanation
    The most likely diagnosis for the 68-year-old retired kindergarten teacher with swelling in her right arm after a recent mastectomy for right-sided ductal carcinoma in situ is lymphedema. Lymphedema is a condition characterized by the accumulation of lymphatic fluid, leading to swelling in the affected limb. In this case, the surgery and removal of lymph nodes during the mastectomy may have disrupted the normal lymphatic drainage, resulting in lymphedema.

    Rate this question:

  • 6. 

    A 25-year-old housewife presents to the urgent care clinic for evaluation of paralysis in her face.  She has a history of an upper respiratory 2 weeks before the onset of these symptoms.  She states that her face is drooping and that she is unable to close her eye.  On physical examination, you note that her forehead is smooth on the right side, her palpebral fissure appears widened, and her nasolabial fold appears flattened and she is drooling.  Based on this information, what is the most likely diagnosis?

    • Cortical stroke

    • Bell’s palsy

    • Horner’s syndrome

    • Stress reaction

    Correct Answer
    A. Bell’s palsy
    Explanation
    The most likely diagnosis in this case is Bell's palsy. Bell's palsy is a condition characterized by sudden, unilateral facial paralysis that is often preceded by an upper respiratory infection. The symptoms include drooping of the face, inability to close the eye, smooth forehead on the affected side, widened palpebral fissure, flattened nasolabial fold, and drooling. These findings are consistent with the given patient's presentation, making Bell's palsy the most likely diagnosis. Cortical stroke would typically present with other neurological symptoms, and Horner's syndrome and stress reaction do not explain the facial paralysis.

    Rate this question:

  • 7. 

    Is S2 associated with systole of diastole?

    • Systole

    • Diastole

    Correct Answer
    A. Diastole
    Explanation
    Diastole refers to the phase of the cardiac cycle when the heart muscle relaxes and fills with blood. S2, also known as the second heart sound, occurs during the diastole phase. Therefore, S2 is associated with diastole, not systole.

    Rate this question:

  • 8. 

    An 80 year old woman presents to your clinic for evaluation of palpations and shortness of breath.  You obtain an electrocardiogram, which reveals an irregularly irregular rhythm without discrete p waves.  You diagnosis her with atrial fibrillation.  The most likely physical finding upon auscultation of her heart is

    • An irregulary irregular rhythm

    • A rapid regular rhythm

    • A midsystolic click

    • Bigeminy

    Correct Answer
    A. An irregulary irregular rhythm
    Explanation
    The correct answer is an irregularly irregular rhythm. Atrial fibrillation is characterized by an irregularly irregular rhythm on auscultation of the heart. This means that the intervals between the beats are inconsistent and there is no predictable pattern. This is due to the chaotic electrical activity in the atria, resulting in an irregular ventricular response. The absence of discrete p waves on the electrocardiogram also supports the diagnosis of atrial fibrillation.

    Rate this question:

  • 9. 

    Which cranial nerve is responsible for vision?

    • CN 3 (Oculomotor)

    • CN 2 (Optic)

    • CN 8 (Vestibulocochlear)

    • CN 1 (Olfactory)

    Correct Answer
    A. CN 2 (Optic)
    Explanation
    The cranial nerve responsible for vision is CN 2 (Optic). The optic nerve carries visual information from the retina to the brain, allowing us to perceive and interpret visual stimuli. CN 3 (Oculomotor) controls the movement of the eye, CN 8 (Vestibulocochlear) is responsible for hearing and balance, and CN 1 (Olfactory) is involved in the sense of smell. However, only CN 2 is specifically related to vision.

    Rate this question:

  • 10. 

    Which cranial nerve is responsible for facial movement, facial expressions,& secretion of tears and saliva?

    • CN 5 (trigeminal)

    • CN 8 (vestibulocochlear)

    • CN 3 (Oculomotor)

    • CN 7 (Facial)

    Correct Answer
    A. CN 7 (Facial)
    Explanation
    Cranial nerve 7, also known as the Facial nerve, is responsible for facial movement, facial expressions, and secretion of tears and saliva. This nerve innervates the muscles of facial expression, allowing us to smile, frown, and make various facial expressions. It also controls the lacrimal and salivary glands, which produce tears and saliva respectively. Therefore, the correct answer is CN 7 (Facial).

    Rate this question:

  • 11. 

    What kind of edema would you see with Right sided heart failure?

    • Dependent edema; sacral edema when patient is supine; may see increased JVD, enlarged liver, enlarged heart;

    • Edema in the loose subcutaneous tissues of the eyelids; may also appear in the feet and legs

    • Localized edema; involves one or both legs

    • Edema of the dependent areas; no cardiac or hepatic signs

    Correct Answer
    A. Dependent edema; sacral edema when patient is supine; may see increased JVD, enlarged liver, enlarged heart;
    Explanation
    Right sided heart failure leads to increased pressure in the right side of the heart, causing fluid to back up into the venous system. This results in dependent edema, which is edema that occurs in the lower parts of the body such as the legs, ankles, and feet. Additionally, when the patient is supine, fluid may accumulate in the sacral area due to gravity. Other signs of right sided heart failure include increased jugular venous distention (JVD), an enlarged liver, and an enlarged heart.

    Rate this question:

  • 12. 

    What tests would you perform to check for Carpal Tunnel Syndrome?

    • Tinnel's Sign & Phelan's Test

    • Kernig's Sign & Brudzinskis Test

    • Romberg Test & Proprioception Test

    • Gouty test & Green test

    Correct Answer
    A. Tinnel's Sign & Phelan's Test
    Explanation
    Tinnel's Sign and Phelan's Test are both diagnostic tests used to check for Carpal Tunnel Syndrome. Tinnel's Sign involves tapping or pressing on the median nerve in the wrist to see if it produces tingling or numbness in the hand. Phelan's Test involves flexing the wrist for 60 seconds to see if it produces symptoms such as tingling or numbness. These tests help to identify potential nerve compression or irritation in the carpal tunnel, which is a common symptom of Carpal Tunnel Syndrome.

    Rate this question:

  • 13. 

    Which of the following is associated with deposits of sodium urate crystals?

    • Rheumatoid arthritis

    • Scoliosis

    • Osteoarthritis

    • Gout Arthritis

    Correct Answer
    A. Gout Arthritis
    Explanation
    Gout Arthritis is associated with deposits of sodium urate crystals. Gout is a form of arthritis that occurs when there is a buildup of uric acid in the blood, leading to the formation of these crystals in the joints. The crystals cause inflammation and severe pain, typically in the big toe, but can also affect other joints such as the ankles, knees, wrists, and fingers. Gout is often characterized by sudden and intense attacks of pain, swelling, redness, and tenderness in the affected joint.

    Rate this question:

  • 14. 

    Which of the following is an S shaped curvature of the spine?

    • Scoliosis

    • List

    • Kyphosis

    • Lordosis

    Correct Answer
    A. Scoliosis
    Explanation
    Scoliosis is the correct answer because it refers to an S-shaped curvature of the spine. It is a condition where the spine curves sideways, causing it to appear like an "S" or a "C" shape. Scoliosis can occur in any part of the spine and can range from mild to severe. It can cause discomfort, pain, and difficulty with posture and movement. Treatment options for scoliosis include physical therapy, bracing, and in severe cases, surgery.

    Rate this question:

  • 15. 

    Which grade of murmur is barely audible?

    • 6

    • 4

    • 3

    • 1

    Correct Answer
    A. 1
    Explanation
    Grade 1 murmur is barely audible because it is very soft and can only be heard in a quiet room with a stethoscope placed directly on the chest. It is often described as a faint, low-pitched sound that is difficult to detect and may require a trained ear to identify. This grade of murmur is typically not associated with any significant abnormalities or clinical symptoms.

    Rate this question:

  • 16. 

    Define attention:

    • Awareness of who or what the person is in relation to time, place, and people

    • Ability to retain information over an interval of minutes, hours, or days

    • Ability to retain information over an Interval of years

    • Ability to focus or concentrate over time on one task or activity

    • Alertness and state of awareness of the environment

    Correct Answer
    A. Ability to focus or concentrate over time on one task or activity
    Explanation
    Attention refers to the ability to focus or concentrate on a particular task or activity for a sustained period of time. It involves directing cognitive resources towards a specific stimulus or goal while ignoring distractions. This ability allows individuals to filter out irrelevant information and allocate their mental resources effectively. Attention is crucial for learning, problem-solving, and completing tasks efficiently.

    Rate this question:

  • 17. 

    What is the ideal blood pressure?

    • 104/22

    • 118/78

    • 138/ 98

    • Whatever each individual patient can tolerate

    Correct Answer
    A. 118/78
    Explanation
    The ideal blood pressure is generally considered to be around 120/80 mmHg. The given answer of 118/78 falls within this range, making it a suitable choice. It is important for blood pressure to be within a healthy range to prevent cardiovascular diseases and maintain overall health.

    Rate this question:

  • 18. 

    Define Orientation

    • Awareness of who or what the person is in relation to time, place, and people

    • Ability to retain information over an interval of minutes, hours, or days

    • Ability to retain information over an Interval of years

    • Ability to focus or concentrate over time on one task or activity

    • Alertness and state of awareness of the environment

    Correct Answer
    A. Awareness of who or what the person is in relation to time, place, and people
    Explanation
    Orientation refers to the awareness an individual has of their surroundings, including their understanding of time, place, and the people around them. It involves being cognizant of one's own identity in relation to these factors. This awareness allows individuals to navigate and interact with their environment effectively.

    Rate this question:

  • 19. 

    You blindfold your pt and hold an orange under their nose. You ask them to identify the smell which they correctly do. Which cranial nerve have you just tested?

    • CN 1 (Olfactory)

    • CN 7 (Facial)

    • CN 11 (Spinal Accessory)

    • CN 4 (Trochlear)

    Correct Answer
    A. CN 1 (Olfactory)
    Explanation
    By blindfolding the patient and holding an orange under their nose, the test is assessing their ability to identify smells. The olfactory nerve (CN 1) is responsible for the sense of smell, so by correctly identifying the smell of the orange, it indicates that the olfactory nerve is functioning properly. Therefore, the correct answer is CN 1 (Olfactory).

    Rate this question:

  • 20. 

    You are sitting in your apartment with your best friend, when your friend excuses herself to go to the bathroom. You hear her grunting and straining to have a BM and then you hear a thump. You run to the bathroom and find your friend momentarily disoriented on the bathroom floor. Thinking back to assessment class you realize which cranial nerve has likely been stimulated?

    • CN 10 (Vagus)

    • CN 12 (Hypoglossal)

    • CN 8 (Vestibulocochlear)

    • Who cares?! You need to go and get your camera NOW. This is soooo going on myspace.

    Correct Answer
    A. CN 10 (Vagus)
    Explanation
    The correct answer is CN 10 (Vagus). The question describes a situation where the person is straining to have a bowel movement and then experiences a momentary disorientation. The Vagus nerve is responsible for controlling the muscles involved in swallowing, as well as regulating the heart rate, blood pressure, and gastrointestinal function. The straining during bowel movement could have stimulated the Vagus nerve, leading to a temporary decrease in blood flow to the brain and resulting in disorientation.

    Rate this question:

  • 21. 

    You are assessing a 4 month old baby in the ER. You stroke the bottom of the babies foot and see the toes fan out. Is this normal?

    • No, this is a positive babinski's and may indicate the child has been shaken and sustained a brain injury.

    • No, this is Kernig's sign and may be indicative of meningitis.

    • Yes, This reflex is normal in children under 1 yr of age.

    • No, this is a positive Phelan's test and indicates the baby may have hypotonia.

    Correct Answer
    A. Yes, This reflex is normal in children under 1 yr of age.
    Explanation
    The Babinski reflex is a normal reflex in infants under 1 year of age. When the sole of the foot is stroked, the toes fan out. This reflex is present in infants and gradually disappears as they develop. It is not indicative of any brain injury or medical condition.

    Rate this question:

  • 22. 

    When asking your patient to shrug their shoulders and turn their head side-to-side which cranial nerve are you assessing?

    • CN 10 (Vagus)

    • CN 11 (Spinal Accessory)

    • CN 6 (Abducens)

    • CN 12 (Hypoglossal)

    Correct Answer
    A. CN 11 (Spinal Accessory)
    Explanation
    When asking the patient to shrug their shoulders and turn their head side-to-side, you are assessing the function of the CN 11 (Spinal Accessory) cranial nerve. This nerve innervates the sternocleidomastoid and trapezius muscles, which are responsible for these movements. The other cranial nerves listed do not control these specific actions.

    Rate this question:

  • 23. 

    Deep tendon reflexes are assessing what?

    • Spinal Cord reflexes

    • Brain stem reflexes

    • Speed of cerebellar processing

    • Yo momma

    Correct Answer
    A. Spinal Cord reflexes
    Explanation
    Deep tendon reflexes are a type of spinal cord reflexes. These reflexes involve the stimulation of a muscle tendon, which causes a quick and involuntary contraction of the muscle. This reflex arc involves the sensory neurons carrying the signal from the tendon to the spinal cord, where it is processed and then sent back to the muscle via motor neurons. The purpose of assessing deep tendon reflexes is to evaluate the integrity of the spinal cord and the associated nerve pathways.

    Rate this question:

  • 24. 

    Which of the following descriptions best describes a GRADE 4 murmur?

    • Loud; may be associated with a thrill

    • Very faint

    • May be heard when the stethoscope is entirely off the chest

    Correct Answer
    A. Loud; may be associated with a thrill
    Explanation
    A grade 4 murmur is described as loud and may be associated with a thrill. A thrill refers to a vibrating sensation felt on the chest wall when the hand is placed over the area where the murmur is heard. This indicates a significant and easily audible murmur that can be heard even without the stethoscope being fully on the chest.

    Rate this question:

  • 25. 

    A 50-year-old physician presents for evaluation of pain in his right shoulder. The pain has been intermittent for the past 20 years, but over the past 3 weeks, it has been present daily. He has tried OTC analgesics, but they do not relieve the symptoms. 5 years ago, he fell on the icy pavement and landed on his shoulder. You perform a physical examination maneuver, because you suspect a rotator cuff tear. What is the name of this test?

    • Drop arm test

    • McMurray’s test

    • Anterior drawer test

    • Tinel’s test

    Correct Answer
    A. Drop arm test
    Explanation
    The drop arm test is used to assess for a rotator cuff tear. In this test, the patient is asked to actively abduct their arm to 90 degrees and then slowly lower it back down to their side. If the patient is unable to smoothly and controlled lower their arm, it suggests a rotator cuff tear. This test is specific for assessing the integrity of the supraspinatus tendon.

    Rate this question:

  • 26. 

    A 75-year-old retired short-order cook presents to the office for evaluation of weakness.  He has a history of hypertension; he stopped taking his medication a few months ago because he couldn’t tell that it was making a difference and it was too expensive.  On physical examination, his blood pressure is 220/110 mmHg.  He has deviation of the tongue to the left side.  Which cranial nerve would have to be affected for this finding to be present?

    • CN I (olfactory)

    • CN V (trigeminal)

    • CN VII (facial)

    • CN XII (hypoglossal)

    Correct Answer
    A. CN XII (hypoglossal)
    Explanation
    The finding of tongue deviation to the left side suggests a dysfunction of the hypoglossal nerve (CN XII). The hypoglossal nerve innervates the muscles of the tongue, and any impairment in its function can result in weakness or deviation of the tongue. The patient's history of hypertension and non-compliance with medication may have contributed to the development of this cranial nerve dysfunction.

    Rate this question:

  • 27. 

    Define Recent Memory.

    • Awareness of who or what the person is in relation to time, place, and people

    • Ability to retain information over an interval of minutes, hours, or days

    • Ability to retain information over an Interval of years

    • Ability to focus or concentrate over time on one task or activity

    • Alertness and state of awareness of the environment

    Correct Answer
    A. Ability to retain information over an interval of minutes, hours, or days
    Explanation
    Recent memory refers to the ability to retain information over a short period of time, ranging from minutes to hours or even days. It involves the capacity to remember and recall events, facts, or experiences that have occurred recently. This type of memory allows individuals to retain and access information that is relevant to their immediate needs and activities. It is an essential cognitive function that enables us to navigate daily life, make decisions, and engage in conversations by remembering recent events and conversations.

    Rate this question:

  • 28. 

    Which cranial nerve is responsible for hearing & sense of balance (equilibrium)?

    • CN 11 (Spinal Accessory)

    • CN 8 (Vestibulocochlear)

    • CN 4 (Trochlear)

    • CN 10 (vagus)

    Correct Answer
    A. CN 8 (Vestibulocochlear)
    Explanation
    The cranial nerve responsible for hearing and sense of balance (equilibrium) is CN 8, also known as the Vestibulocochlear nerve. This nerve has two components: the vestibular branch, which is responsible for balance and spatial orientation, and the cochlear branch, which is responsible for hearing. CN 11 (Spinal Accessory) is responsible for controlling certain muscles in the neck and shoulders, CN 4 (Trochlear) is responsible for eye movement, and CN 10 (vagus) is responsible for various functions such as heart rate, digestion, and speech.

    Rate this question:

  • 29. 

    When applying a painful stimulus to an unconscious patient you notice that the pt bends their arms inward toward the chest with wrists bent and fingers clenched. Their legs are extended and rigid. What is this known as?

    • Babinski's sign

    • Decorticate response

    • Appropriate response

    • Decerebrate response

    Correct Answer
    A. Decorticate response
    Explanation
    The correct answer is decorticate response. When an unconscious patient exhibits a decorticate response, it means that they are experiencing damage to the cerebral hemispheres of the brain. This response is characterized by the patient flexing their arms inward towards the chest, with their wrists bent and fingers clenched. Their legs are usually extended and rigid. This abnormal posture indicates dysfunction in the corticospinal tract, which connects the brain to the spinal cord.

    Rate this question:

  • 30. 

    Which of the following is a systemic autoimmune disease that occurs when the body's own immune system mistakenly attacks the synovium (cell lining inside the joint) and effects all joints?

    • Gout Arthritis

    • Rheumatoid Arthritis

    • Osteoarthritis

    • Kyphosis

    Correct Answer
    A. Rheumatoid Arthritis
    Explanation
    Rheumatoid arthritis is a systemic autoimmune disease that affects the synovium, which is the cell lining inside the joints. In this condition, the body's immune system mistakenly attacks the synovium, leading to inflammation, pain, and swelling in the joints. Unlike osteoarthritis, which is caused by wear and tear on the joints, rheumatoid arthritis affects multiple joints throughout the body. Gout arthritis is a different condition characterized by the buildup of uric acid crystals in the joints, while kyphosis refers to an abnormal curvature of the spine.

    Rate this question:

  • 31. 

    Which of the following is an exagerrated curvature of the posterior spine (Humpback)?

    • Scoliosis

    • Kyphosis

    • List

    • Lordosis

    Correct Answer
    A. Kyphosis
    Explanation
    Kyphosis is an exaggerated curvature of the posterior spine, commonly known as "Humpback". It is characterized by an excessive outward curvature of the thoracic spine, causing a rounded or hunched back appearance. This condition can lead to poor posture, back pain, and difficulty in breathing. Scoliosis refers to an abnormal sideways curvature of the spine, while lordosis is an exaggerated inward curvature of the spine, commonly known as "swayback". The term "List" does not refer to any specific spinal curvature condition.

    Rate this question:

  • 32. 

    You are assessing 72 yr old Mr. Payne and find he has + JVD, Lift,recent weight gain, and Swelling of the ankles. What is your diagnosis for Mr. Payne?

    • Left Sided Heart Failure

    • Heart Murmur

    • He's just old.

    • Right Sided Heart Failure

    Correct Answer
    A. Right Sided Heart Failure
    Explanation
    Based on the symptoms described, such as jugular venous distention (JVD), lift, recent weight gain, and swelling of the ankles, the diagnosis for Mr. Payne is right-sided heart failure. These symptoms are indicative of fluid retention and congestion in the systemic venous circulation, which is commonly seen in right-sided heart failure. Left-sided heart failure typically presents with symptoms such as shortness of breath, cough, and pulmonary congestion, which are not mentioned in this case. Therefore, right-sided heart failure is the most appropriate diagnosis for Mr. Payne.

    Rate this question:

  • 33. 

    Which grade of murmur can you hear without using a stethoscope?

    • 6

    • 4

    • 3

    • 1

    Correct Answer
    A. 6
  • 34. 

    The occipital lobe is primarily responsible for....

    • It is concerned with emotions, reasoning, planning, movement, and parts of speech. It is also involved in purposeful acts such as creativity, judgment, problem solving, and planning.

    • Connected with the processing of nerve impulses related to the senses, such as touch, pain, taste, pressure, and temperature.

    • Responsible for hearing, memory, meaning, and language. Also are concerned with interpreting and processing auditory stimuli. Play a role in emotion and learning.

    • Involved with the brain's ability to recognize objects. It is responsible for our vision. Reading and interpretation of reading.

    Correct Answer
    A. Involved with the brain's ability to recognize objects. It is responsible for our vision. Reading and interpretation of reading.
    Explanation
    The occipital lobe is responsible for our vision and the brain's ability to recognize objects. It is involved in the processing of visual stimuli and the interpretation of reading. It plays a crucial role in our ability to see and understand the world around us.

    Rate this question:

  • 35. 

    What could you ask a patient to do to accentuate the findings of a mitral valve prolapsed?

    • Perform a Valsalva maneuver

    • Squat

    • Hop on one foot

    • Kneel

    Correct Answer
    A. Perform a Valsalva maneuver
    Explanation
    Performing a Valsalva maneuver can accentuate the findings of a mitral valve prolapse. This maneuver involves the patient exhaling forcefully against a closed airway, which increases intrathoracic pressure. This increased pressure can cause the prolapsed mitral valve to move further into the left atrium, making the prolapse more pronounced and easier to detect during examination.

    Rate this question:

  • 36. 

    A 27-year-old software specialist presents to your office for evaluation of numbness and pain in his fingers. He has noticed that the numbness increases as the day goes on; at first he noticed it only at the end of the day, but now it is present upon awakening. It is present in both his hands. The pain started several months ago and is not relieved by OTC analgesics. The patient’s family history is significant for HTN and cerebrovascular disease. On physical examination, his BP is 110/70 mmHg and his thenar eminence is atrophic. Which tests would you perform to confirm your initial hypothesis of carpal tunnel syndrome

    • Tinel’s test

    • Anterior drawer test

    • McMurray’s test

    • Allen test

    Correct Answer
    A. Tinel’s test
    Explanation
    Tinel's test is used to assess for carpal tunnel syndrome. It involves tapping over the median nerve at the wrist to elicit tingling or numbness in the distribution of the median nerve, which is indicative of nerve compression. In this case, the patient's symptoms of numbness and pain in the fingers, worsening throughout the day and present in both hands, along with the atrophy of the thenar eminence, are consistent with carpal tunnel syndrome. Therefore, performing Tinel's test would help confirm the initial hypothesis.

    Rate this question:

  • 37. 

    A 35-year-old postal worker presents to your office for evaluation of pain in her joints. She states that the pain is worse in her fingers and wrists; both hands are affected. She notices that it takes her longer than 1 hour to get moving in the morning because she is so stiff. For the past few weeks, she has been having fevers, some as high as 100.5℉. You notice that she has fusiform swelling in her fingers and wrists bilaterally and that the PIP and MCP joints are tender to palpation. Based on the history and physical examination findings, what is your most likely diagnosis?

    • Osteoarthritis

    • Rheumatoid arthritis

    • Gouty arthritis

    • Ankylosing spondylitis

    Correct Answer
    A. Rheumatoid arthritis
    Explanation
    Based on the patient's symptoms of joint pain, stiffness, fevers, and specific physical examination findings such as fusiform swelling in the fingers and wrists and tenderness in the PIP and MCP joints, the most likely diagnosis is rheumatoid arthritis. Rheumatoid arthritis is an autoimmune disease that primarily affects the joints, causing pain, swelling, and stiffness. The symmetrical involvement of multiple joints, along with systemic symptoms like fevers, is characteristic of rheumatoid arthritis.

    Rate this question:

  • 38. 

    Which cranial nerve is responsible for pharyngeal movement, taste, sensing carotid BP,  sensation on posterior tongue and pharynx?

    • CN 7 (facial)

    • CN 12 (Hypoglossal)

    • CN 9 (glossopharyngeal)

    • CN 1 (Olfactory)

    Correct Answer
    A. CN 9 (glossopharyngeal)
    Explanation
    The glossopharyngeal nerve (CN 9) is responsible for pharyngeal movement, taste, sensing carotid blood pressure, and sensation on the posterior tongue and pharynx. This nerve innervates the muscles involved in swallowing and helps in the coordination of swallowing and speech. It also carries taste sensations from the posterior third of the tongue. Additionally, the glossopharyngeal nerve has baroreceptor fibers that sense changes in blood pressure in the carotid sinus. Therefore, CN 9 is the correct answer for this question.

    Rate this question:

  • 39. 

    You are doing a neuro assessment on 37 yr old M, who had a serious fall and brain injury several months ago. During your assessment you find M has trouble with language comprehension and with processing auditory stimuli. You recognize he most likely sustained an injury to which brain lobe?

    • Temporal

    • Frontal

    • Parietal

    • Occipital

    Correct Answer
    A. Temporal
    Explanation
    Based on the symptoms described, it is likely that the individual sustained an injury to the temporal lobe of the brain. The temporal lobe is responsible for language comprehension and processing auditory stimuli. The fact that the individual is experiencing trouble with both of these functions suggests damage to this specific area of the brain.

    Rate this question:

  • 40. 

    You are auscultating your patients carotid artery and ask the patient to hold their breath. Why do you do this?

    • Just for fun.

    • So you can better feel the thrill

    • To assess their ability to follow commands

    • So you do not confuse their breath sounds for a bruit

    Correct Answer
    A. So you do not confuse their breath sounds for a bruit
    Explanation
    By asking the patient to hold their breath while auscultating their carotid artery, it ensures that the breath sounds do not interfere with the detection of a bruit. A bruit is an abnormal sound caused by turbulent blood flow through a narrowed or blocked artery. By eliminating the breath sounds, the healthcare professional can better focus on listening for any abnormal sounds specifically related to the carotid artery, which could indicate the presence of a bruit. This technique helps to ensure accurate assessment and diagnosis.

    Rate this question:

  • 41. 

    Which of the following is a lumbar concavity that is accentuated by pregnancy of obesity?

    • Scoliosis

    • List

    • Lordosis

    • Kyphosis

    Correct Answer
    A. Lordosis
    Explanation
    Lordosis is a lumbar concavity that is accentuated by pregnancy or obesity. Lordosis refers to the inward curvature of the lower back, creating a concave shape. During pregnancy, the weight of the growing baby can cause the pelvis to tilt forward, increasing the curvature of the lower back. Obesity can also contribute to an accentuated lumbar curve by placing excess weight on the lower back. Scoliosis refers to an abnormal sideways curvature of the spine, while kyphosis is an excessive outward curvature of the upper back.

    Rate this question:

  • 42. 

    Which of the following descriptions best describes a GRADE 6 murmur?

    • Loud; may be associated with a thrill

    • Very faint

    • May be heard when the stethoscope is entirely off the chest

    Correct Answer
    A. May be heard when the stethoscope is entirely off the chest
    Explanation
    A Grade 6 murmur is a very loud murmur that may be associated with a thrill. It is so intense that it can still be heard even when the stethoscope is not in contact with the chest.

    Rate this question:

  • 43. 

    Which of the following knee deformites would you see a 'knock kneed' patient?

    • Valgus

    • Veritas

    • Vino

    • Varus

    Correct Answer
    A. Valgus
    Explanation
    A 'knock kneed' patient would exhibit a knee deformity known as valgus. Valgus refers to the inward angulation of the knees, causing them to come closer together and the feet to be further apart. This condition is commonly seen in children during their growth and development, but can also occur in adults due to certain factors such as obesity or injury.

    Rate this question:

  • 44. 

    Which of the following describes the S4 heart sound?

    • Occurs during atrial contraction

    • Produced by the closure of the mitral & tricuspid valves

    • Occurs after the mitral valve opens; rapid ventricular filling

    • Produced by closure of the aortic & pulmonic valves

    Correct Answer
    A. Occurs during atrial contraction
    Explanation
    The S4 heart sound occurs during atrial contraction. This sound is caused by the blood forcefully entering the ventricles and vibrating the ventricular walls. It is typically heard as a low-pitched sound and is associated with conditions such as ventricular hypertrophy or stiffened ventricles. The closure of the mitral and tricuspid valves does not produce the S4 sound, and it does not occur after the mitral valve opens or the closure of the aortic and pulmonic valves.

    Rate this question:

  • 45. 

    A 55-year-old- nursing assistant presents to your office because of persistent swelling in her feet. She is a nonsmoker. Her medical history is noncontributory. She has never had any surgeries. She works two 8-hour shifts daily, 6 days weekly. On physical examination, her BP is 110/60 mm/Hg; her cardiovascular examination is normal; and her legs have 2+ pitting edema bilaterally without rashes, thickening, or ulceration of the skin. What is your most likely diagnosis?

    • Orthostatic edema

    • Lymphedema

    • Lipedema

    • Chronic venous insufficiency

    Correct Answer
    A. Orthostatic edema
    Explanation
    Orthostatic edema is the most likely diagnosis in this case. The patient's symptoms of persistent swelling in her feet, along with the absence of any skin abnormalities, suggest that the edema is not caused by a skin condition such as lymphedema or lipedema. Additionally, the patient's normal cardiovascular examination and blood pressure indicate that the edema is not likely due to chronic venous insufficiency. Orthostatic edema refers to swelling that occurs due to prolonged standing or sitting, which is consistent with the patient's work schedule of two 8-hour shifts daily.

    Rate this question:

  • 46. 

    A 13-year-old junior high school student is brought into your office by her mother for evaluation of unequal shoulder height. Her mother first noticed this problem 2 weeks ago. There is no history of birth trauma or recent injury. On physical examination, there is a lateral curvature to the spine. The curvature is more pronounced with forward flexion. Based on this information, what is your most likely diagnosis?

    • Normal spinal curvature

    • Kyphosis

    • Scoliosis

    • Lumbar lordosis

    Correct Answer
    A. Scoliosis
    Explanation
    Based on the information provided, the most likely diagnosis for the 13-year-old junior high school student with unequal shoulder height and a lateral curvature to the spine is scoliosis. Scoliosis is a condition characterized by an abnormal sideways curvature of the spine. The fact that the curvature is more pronounced with forward flexion further supports this diagnosis. There is no mention of any other symptoms or history that would suggest a different diagnosis such as kyphosis or lumbar lordosis. Therefore, scoliosis is the most likely explanation for the patient's presentation.

    Rate this question:

  • 47. 

    An 18-year-old college football player comes to your office after sustaining an injury on the field. He states that he planted his foot and had to pivot to catch the ball. He heard a “pop,” and his right knee gave way and started to swell. The trainer iced it down. On physical examination, you note increased swelling and tenderness over the right knee. He has significant forward excursion when you perform the Lachman test. He also has more movement of the right tibia when you draw it forward when compared with the left. Based on this information, what is your most likely diagnosis?

    • Posterior cruciate ligament tear

    • Anterior cruciate ligament tear

    • Meniscus tear

    • Patellar tear

    Correct Answer
    A. Anterior cruciate ligament tear
    Explanation
    Based on the given information, the 18-year-old football player experienced a "pop" sound and his right knee gave way after pivoting during a catch. He also has increased swelling and tenderness over the right knee. The Lachman test shows significant forward excursion and there is more movement of the right tibia compared to the left. These findings are consistent with an anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) tear. The ACL is responsible for stabilizing the knee joint, and its tear can lead to instability and increased movement of the tibia.

    Rate this question:

  • 48. 

    You are assessing a 26 yr old woman, R, who 6 months ago was in a serious car accident. Her family states that ever since the accident R has had little control of her emotions, seems to have lost the ability to reason, and now has very poor judgement and problem solving skills. Her personality just seems different. R most likely sustained an injury to which lobe of the brain?

    • Temporal Lobe

    • Frontal Lobe

    • Parietal Lobe

    • Occipital Lobe

    Correct Answer
    A. Frontal Lobe
    Explanation
    The frontal lobe is responsible for higher cognitive functions such as reasoning, problem-solving, judgement, and personality. Damage to this lobe can result in emotional instability, impaired reasoning abilities, poor judgement, and changes in personality. Given R's symptoms of little control over emotions, loss of reasoning ability, poor judgement, and a different personality, it is likely that she sustained an injury to the frontal lobe of her brain.

    Rate this question:

  • 49. 

    You are examing the legs of Mrs.Wackadoo and find her legs to be warm and edematous with a dark bluish/purple discoloration. There is a small ulcer on her ankle and she states elevating her legs helps to relive the swelling. What is causing these symptoms?

    • DVT

    • Arterial Insufficiency

    • Kidney failure

    • Venous Insufficiency

    Correct Answer
    A. Venous Insufficiency
    Explanation
    Venous insufficiency can cause warm and edematous legs with a dark bluish/purple discoloration. The presence of a small ulcer on the ankle and the relief of swelling with leg elevation further support this diagnosis. Venous insufficiency occurs when the veins in the legs are unable to efficiently return blood back to the heart, leading to pooling of blood and increased pressure in the veins. This can result in symptoms such as swelling, discoloration, and ulcers. DVT, arterial insufficiency, and kidney failure would not typically present with these specific symptoms.

    Rate this question:

Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Jun 10, 2024 +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Jun 10, 2024
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Oct 14, 2008
    Quiz Created by
    Scottishduffy
Back to Top Back to top
Advertisement
×

Wait!
Here's an interesting quiz for you.

We have other quizzes matching your interest.