MBLEx Practice Test - Pass This Test So You Can Pass The Exam!

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  • 1/50 Questions

    Some cases of lordosis or lower back pain are related to weakness in which muscle  

    • Serratus anterior
    • Rectus abdominis
    • Iliopsoas
    • Erector spinae
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About This Quiz

The Massage and Bodywork Licensing Examination, or MBLEx test, is a nationally recognized exam for massage therapy licensure. The test is used by 44 U. S. States to assess a massage therapist's educational background and understanding of key massage concepts.
Pass this MBLEx Practice Test so you can pass the exam!

MBLEx Practice Test - Pass This Test So You Can Pass The Exam! - Quiz

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  • 2. 

    Which form of hydrotherapy reduces inflammation  

    • Cold packs

    • Hot packs

    • Contrast bath

    • Steam bath

    Correct Answer
    A. Cold packs
    Explanation
    Cold packs reduce inflammation by constricting blood vessels and reducing blood flow to the affected area. This helps to decrease swelling and inflammation by limiting the amount of fluid that accumulates in the tissues. Cold therapy also numbs the area, providing pain relief. Hot packs, on the other hand, increase blood flow and can actually promote inflammation in some cases. Contrast baths and steam baths may have other therapeutic benefits, but they are not specifically known for reducing inflammation.

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  • 3. 

    What is an autoimmune disorder in which myelin sheaths in the central nervous system are progressively destroyed 

    • Trigeminal neuralgia

    • Myasthenia gravis

    • Multiple sclerosis

    • Alzheimer disease

    Correct Answer
    A. Multiple sclerosis
    Explanation
    Multiple sclerosis is an autoimmune disorder in which the myelin sheaths, which protect and insulate nerve fibers in the central nervous system, are progressively destroyed. This leads to communication problems between the brain and the rest of the body, resulting in various symptoms such as fatigue, difficulty walking, numbness or weakness in limbs, and problems with coordination and balance. Trigeminal neuralgia is a condition characterized by severe facial pain, Myasthenia gravis is a neuromuscular disorder causing muscle weakness and fatigue, and Alzheimer's disease is a progressive brain disorder causing memory loss and cognitive decline.

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  • 4. 

    The mastoid process is located on which skull bone  

    • Parietal

    • Frontal

    • Sphenoid

    • Temporal

    Correct Answer
    A. Temporal
    Explanation
    The mastoid process is a bony projection located on the temporal bone of the skull. It is situated behind the ear and serves as an attachment point for various muscles, including those involved in head and neck movements. The parietal bone forms the sides and roof of the skull, while the frontal bone is located at the front of the skull. The sphenoid bone is situated at the base of the skull, behind the eye sockets. Therefore, the correct answer is temporal.

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  • 5. 

    A muscle is inhibited by contraction of its antagonist. This is an example of 

    • Reciprocal inhibition

    • Active resisted range of motion

    • Law of facilitation

    • Hilton’s Law of Bilateral Symmetry

    Correct Answer
    A. Reciprocal inhibition
    Explanation
    Reciprocal inhibition refers to the process where the contraction of a muscle's antagonist leads to the inhibition of the muscle itself. In this case, when the antagonist muscle contracts, it sends inhibitory signals to the muscle, preventing it from contracting further. This mechanism ensures coordinated movement and prevents both muscles from contracting simultaneously, allowing for smooth and controlled movement.

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  • 6. 

    To reduce physical strain when performing massage, the therapist should keep his or her knees slighty

    • Inverted

    • Rotated

    • Flexed

    • Extended

    Correct Answer
    A. Flexed
    Explanation
    To reduce physical strain when performing a massage, it is recommended for the therapist to keep their knees flexed. Flexing the knees helps to maintain a stable and balanced position, allowing the therapist to have better control and leverage during the massage. This position also helps to distribute the body weight more evenly, reducing the strain on the muscles and joints. Additionally, keeping the knees flexed helps to prevent excessive bending or reaching, which can cause discomfort and potential injury to the therapist.

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  • 7. 

    Which structure lies between the stomach and small intestine 

    • Pyloric sphincter

    • Sphincter of Oddi

    • Lower esophageal sphincter

    • Ileocecal sphincter

    Correct Answer
    A. Pyloric sphincter
    Explanation
    The correct answer is the Pyloric sphincter. The pyloric sphincter is a muscular ring located between the stomach and small intestine. It regulates the flow of partially digested food from the stomach into the small intestine. This structure plays an important role in digestion by controlling the release of food into the small intestine at a controlled pace, allowing for proper absorption of nutrients.

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  • 8. 

    Which of the following refers to information gained from the client's perception 

    • Statistical data

    • Objective data

    • Subjective data

    • Pertinent data

    Correct Answer
    A. Subjective data
    Explanation
    Subjective data pertains to information derived from the client's personal perception, feelings, and experiences. It involves insights that are inherently individual and may vary from person to person, providing valuable subjective perspectives to complement objective, measurable data in various fields, including healthcare and research.

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  • 9. 

    Which of the follow best describes a restriction of motion at the end of passive joint mobilization or stretching 

    • Crepitus

    • End-feel

    • Turgor

    • Fulling

    Correct Answer
    A. End-feel
    Explanation
    End-feel refers to the quality of resistance felt when a joint is moved to its end range of motion during passive joint mobilization or stretching. It describes the sensation or perception of the joint's resistance to further movement. Crepitus refers to a crackling or popping sound or sensation that may occur during joint movement and is not specific to the end of motion. Turgor refers to the elasticity or firmness of the skin and is not related to joint movement. Fulling is not a term commonly used in relation to joint mobilization or stretching.

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  • 10. 

    Which muscle would MOST likely be involved in adhesive capsulitis or frozen shoulder 

    • Rhomboids

    • Trapezius

    • Subscapularis

    • Pectoralis major

    Correct Answer
    A. Subscapularis
    Explanation
    Adhesive capsulitis, also known as frozen shoulder, is a condition characterized by stiffness and pain in the shoulder joint. The subscapularis muscle is located in the front of the shoulder and is one of the four muscles that make up the rotator cuff. It helps to internally rotate the shoulder joint and stabilize the shoulder during movement. In adhesive capsulitis, the subscapularis muscle may become tight or inflamed, contributing to the limited range of motion and pain experienced in frozen shoulder. Therefore, the subscapularis muscle is most likely involved in adhesive capsulitis.

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  • 11. 

    The term costal refers to the 

    • Vertebrae

    • Sternum

    • Great toe

    • Ribs

    Correct Answer
    A. Ribs
    Explanation
    The term costal refers to the ribs. The ribs are a set of curved bones that form the ribcage and protect the internal organs of the chest. They are attached to the vertebrae in the back and the sternum in the front, forming a protective cage around the vital organs such as the heart and lungs. The term costal is specifically used to describe anything related to the ribs, such as the costal cartilage that connects the ribs to the sternum.

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  • 12. 

    Lifting soft tissues vertically, then compressing and releasing them using rhythmic alternating pressures best describe which massage technique 

    • Vibration or shaking movements

    • Pétrissage/kneading

    • Tapotement/percussion

    • Effleurage/gliding

    Correct Answer
    A. Pétrissage/kneading
    Explanation
    Pétrissage/kneading involves lifting soft tissues vertically and then compressing and releasing them using rhythmic alternating pressures. This technique is often used in massage therapy to improve circulation, reduce muscle tension, and promote relaxation. It helps to break up adhesions and knots in the muscles, making it an effective technique for relieving muscle pain and stiffness.

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  • 13. 

    Which of the following conditions is indicated for massage

    • Acute inflammation

    • Fever

    • Fibromyalgia

    • Abnormal lumps

    Correct Answer
    A. Fibromyalgia
    Explanation
    Massage is indicated for fibromyalgia. Fibromyalgia is a chronic condition characterized by widespread musculoskeletal pain, fatigue, and tenderness in specific areas of the body. Massage therapy can help alleviate the symptoms of fibromyalgia by reducing pain, improving sleep quality, and promoting relaxation. It can also help improve circulation and reduce muscle stiffness and tension. However, massage is not recommended for acute inflammation, fever, or abnormal lumps, as it can potentially worsen these conditions.

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  • 14. 

    What signed document gives the therapist permission to release client information 

    • Release form

    • Confidentiality form

    • Consent form

    • Intake form

    Correct Answer
    A. Release form
    Explanation
    A release form is a signed document that gives the therapist permission to release client information. This form allows the therapist to share confidential information with other individuals or organizations as specified by the client. It ensures that the therapist follows ethical and legal guidelines regarding client confidentiality while also allowing for necessary communication and collaboration with other professionals involved in the client's care.

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  • 15. 

    Which of the following represents the meningeal layers from superficial to deep 

    • Dura mater – pia mater – arachnoid

    • Pia mater – dura mater – arachnoid

    • Dura mater – arachnoid – pia mater

    • Pia mater – arachnoid – dura mater

    Correct Answer
    A. Dura mater – arachnoid – pia mater
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Dura mater - arachnoid - pia mater. The meningeal layers of the brain and spinal cord are composed of three layers: the dura mater, arachnoid, and pia mater. The dura mater is the outermost layer, followed by the arachnoid, and finally the pia mater, which is the innermost layer. This order represents the layers from superficial to deep.

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  • 16. 

    Which receptor is responsible for detecting deep pressure 

    • Meissner corpuscles

    • Krause bulbs

    • Pacinian corpuscles

    • Pressure spindles

    Correct Answer
    A. Pacinian corpuscles
    Explanation
    Pacinian corpuscles are responsible for detecting deep pressure. These are sensory receptors found in the skin and other tissues, and they are particularly sensitive to changes in pressure. When pressure is applied to the skin, the Pacinian corpuscles detect and transmit this information to the brain, allowing us to perceive deep pressure sensations. Meissner corpuscles, Krause bulbs, and pressure spindles are not specifically responsible for detecting deep pressure.

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  • 17. 

    If an independent contractor is compensated by a salon for massage services, what tax document does the salon provide the contractor annually 

    • 1099

    • W-2

    • 1040

    • W-4

    Correct Answer
    A. 1099
    Explanation
    When an independent contractor is compensated by a salon for massage services, the salon provides the contractor with a 1099 tax document annually. This document is used to report the income earned by the contractor to the IRS. Unlike employees who receive a W-2 form, independent contractors receive a 1099 form to report their earnings and are responsible for paying their own taxes, including self-employment taxes.

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  • 18. 

    Crepitus can be detected by what means

    • Observation

    • Palpation

    • Listening

    • Range of motion

    Correct Answer
    A. Listening
    Explanation
    Listening is the correct answer because crepitus refers to the sound or sensation of a crackling, grating, or popping noise that occurs when moving a joint. This sound can be detected by listening carefully to the joint during movement. Observation, palpation, and range of motion may also provide some information about crepitus, but listening is the most direct and specific means of detecting it.

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  • 19. 

    What best describes the initial response of blood vessels during ice application 

    • Vasoactive

    • Vasodilation

    • Vasoconstriction

    • Vasogenic

    Correct Answer
    A. Vasoconstriction
    Explanation
    When ice is applied to the skin, the blood vessels initially respond by constricting or narrowing. This is known as vasoconstriction. Vasoconstriction helps to reduce blood flow to the area, which in turn decreases inflammation and swelling. It also helps to conserve heat and prevent further heat loss from the body. This initial response of vasoconstriction is a protective mechanism of the body to minimize damage and promote healing.

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  • 20. 

    Thixotropism describes 

    • Diseases marked by stages of exacerbation and remission

    • The acute and subacute phases of injury or trauma

    • Fascia's ability to change from a more solid to a more gelatinous state and back

    • Latent trigger points that become active trigger points by overstimulation of nerves

    Correct Answer
    A. Fascia's ability to change from a more solid to a more gelatinous state and back
    Explanation
    Thixotropism describes the ability of fascia to change from a more solid state to a more gelatinous state and back. This means that under certain conditions, such as pressure or movement, the fascia can become more fluid and pliable, allowing for increased flexibility and range of motion. Once the pressure or movement is removed, the fascia returns to its more solid state. This phenomenon is important for maintaining the structural integrity and function of the body's connective tissues.

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  • 21. 

    Which of the following is a term used to describe motor nerves 

    • Afferent

    • Receptor

    • Efferent

    • Sensory

    Correct Answer
    A. Efferent
    Explanation
    Efferent is the correct answer because it is a term used to describe motor nerves. Motor nerves carry signals from the central nervous system to the muscles and glands, allowing for movement and secretion. Afferent, on the other hand, refers to sensory nerves that carry signals from the body to the central nervous system. Receptor is a general term for specialized cells or structures that detect stimuli. Sensory is an adjective that describes something related to the senses or perception.

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  • 22. 

    Which term is used to describe decubitus ulcers 

    • Bedsores

    • Herpes whitlow

    • Plantar warts

    • Athlete's foot

    Correct Answer
    A. Bedsores
    Explanation
    Bedsores, also known as decubitus ulcers, are the correct term used to describe the condition. Bedsores occur when there is prolonged pressure on the skin, typically due to immobility or being bedridden. They commonly develop in areas where bones are close to the skin, such as the heels, hips, and tailbone. The constant pressure restricts blood flow to the affected area, leading to tissue damage and the formation of ulcers. Therefore, bedsores accurately describe this condition.

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  • 23. 

    Which muscle is antagonist to gastrocnemius 

    • Tibialis anterior

    • Biceps femoris

    • Plantaris

    • Soleus

    Correct Answer
    A. Tibialis anterior
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Tibialis anterior. The gastrocnemius muscle is responsible for plantar flexion of the foot, while the tibialis anterior muscle is responsible for dorsiflexion of the foot. These actions are opposite to each other, making the tibialis anterior the antagonist to the gastrocnemius muscle.

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  • 24. 

    What is the accounting term for monies owed to you or your business 

    • Depreciation

    • Accounts payable

    • Equity

    • Accounts receivable

    Correct Answer
    A. Accounts receivable
    Explanation
    Accounts receivable is the correct answer because it refers to the accounting term for monies owed to you or your business. It represents the outstanding payments that a business is expecting to receive from its customers or clients for goods or services that have already been provided. Accounts receivable is considered an asset on the balance sheet and is recorded as a credit entry in the accounting records. It represents the amount of money that the business is entitled to receive and is an important indicator of the business's financial health and liquidity.

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  • 25. 

    Cervical acceleration/deceleration injury is also known as 

    • Whiplash

    • Migraine

    • Sciatic

    • Tetanus

    Correct Answer
    A. Whiplash
    Explanation
    Cervical acceleration/deceleration injury refers to the sudden and forceful movement of the neck, commonly caused by a car accident. This injury is commonly known as whiplash because the neck moves in a whip-like motion during the accident. Whiplash can result in symptoms such as neck pain, stiffness, headaches, and dizziness. It is important to seek medical attention if whiplash is suspected, as proper diagnosis and treatment can help alleviate symptoms and prevent long-term complications.

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  • 26. 

    What is the medial clavicular joint called 

    • Sternocostal joint

    • Costochondral joint

    • Acromioclavicular joint

    • Sternoclavicular joint

    Correct Answer
    A. Sternoclavicular joint
    Explanation
    The medial clavicular joint is called the sternoclavicular joint. This joint is located between the sternum and the clavicle and allows for movement of the shoulder and arm. It is a synovial joint that is supported by ligaments and allows for a wide range of motion, including elevation, depression, protraction, and retraction of the shoulder.

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  • 27. 

    Lifting soft tissues vertically, then compressing and releasing them using rhythmic alternating pressures best describe which massage technique 

    • Vibration or shaking movements

    • Effleurage/gliding

    • Pétrissage/kneading

    • Tapotement/percussion

    Correct Answer
    A. Pétrissage/kneading
    Explanation
    Pétrissage/kneading involves lifting soft tissues vertically, then compressing and releasing them using rhythmic alternating pressures. This technique is commonly used in massage therapy to promote relaxation, improve circulation, and relieve muscle tension. It helps to stretch and mobilize the soft tissues, break down knots and adhesions, and stimulate the flow of blood and lymphatic fluid. By kneading the muscles, the massage therapist can target specific areas of tension and provide deep tissue manipulation.

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  • 28. 

    What is another name for the zygomatic arch 

    • Cheekbone

    • Forehead

    • Chin

    • Jaw

    Correct Answer
    A. Cheekbone
    Explanation
    The zygomatic arch is commonly known as the cheekbone. It is a prominent bone in the face that extends from the temporal bone to the maxilla, forming the structure of the cheek. The zygomatic arch plays a crucial role in facial aesthetics and provides support to the soft tissues of the face.

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  • 29. 

    Which of the following best describes and increase in localized blood flow 

    • Polyuria

    • Hyperemia

    • Hematuria

    • Ischemia

    Correct Answer
    A. Hyperemia
    Explanation
    Hyperemia is the best description for an increase in localized blood flow. It refers to the increased blood flow to a specific area of the body, resulting in redness, warmth, and swelling. This can occur in response to inflammation, injury, or increased metabolic activity in the area. Polyuria refers to excessive urination, hematuria refers to the presence of blood in the urine, and ischemia refers to a decrease in blood flow to a specific area.

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  • 30. 

    Which of the following joints moves in only one plane 

    • Saddle

    • Ellipsoid

    • Ball and socket

    • Hinge

    Correct Answer
    A. Hinge
    Explanation
    A hinge joint moves in only one plane, allowing for movement in only one direction, like a door hinge. The other options listed, such as saddle, ellipsoid, and ball and socket joints, allow for movement in multiple planes.

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  • 31. 

    Bell palsy involves which cranial nerve 

    • V

    • X

    • VII

    • I

    Correct Answer
    A. VII
    Explanation
    Bell's palsy is a condition that affects the facial nerve, which is also known as cranial nerve VII. This nerve controls the muscles of the face, including those responsible for facial expressions, blinking, and closing the eyelids. When the facial nerve is damaged or inflamed, it can cause weakness or paralysis on one side of the face, leading to symptoms such as drooping of the mouth or inability to close the eye. Therefore, the correct answer is VII.

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  • 32. 

    Proper body mechanics are important to prevent injury to the therapist. Which of the following demonstrates good body mechanics

    • Knees flexed while shifting weight between the feet

    • Majority of weight on the right foot

    • Knees locked with back straight

    • Feet close together and bent at the waist

    Correct Answer
    A. Knees flexed while shifting weight between the feet
    Explanation
    Flexing the knees while shifting weight between the feet demonstrates good body mechanics because it helps to maintain stability and balance. This position allows the therapist to distribute their weight evenly, reducing the strain on their muscles and joints. It also promotes proper alignment of the spine and prevents excessive stress on the lower back. By keeping the knees flexed, the therapist can also easily adjust their position and move smoothly during the treatment, minimizing the risk of injury.

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  • 33. 

    A client comes into your office and states that he is HIV positive. Which of the following is part of your treatment plan 

    • Adjust the massage to his vitality and stamina and avoid any open sores

    • Massage is contraindicated.

    • Proceed with the massage while avoiding wearing disposable gloves

    • Obtain medical clearance, then use vibration over the sternum to stimulate the thymus

    Correct Answer
    A. Adjust the massage to his vitality and stamina and avoid any open sores
    Explanation
    The correct answer is to adjust the massage to the client's vitality and stamina and avoid any open sores. This is because HIV positive individuals may have varying levels of energy and immune function, so it is important to tailor the massage to their specific needs. Additionally, avoiding any open sores is crucial to prevent the spread of infection.

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  • 34. 

    A person who habitually smokes cigarettes is more likely than a nonsmoker to develop which of the following 

    • Pleurisy

    • Emphysema

    • Pleurisy

    • Tuberculosis

    Correct Answer
    A. Emphysema
    Explanation
    A person who habitually smokes cigarettes is more likely to develop emphysema. This is because smoking damages the air sacs in the lungs, causing them to lose their elasticity and making it difficult to exhale. Over time, this leads to the destruction of the air sacs and the development of emphysema. Pleurisy and tuberculosis can also be associated with smoking, but emphysema is more directly linked to smoking as a result of the damage it causes to the lungs.

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  • 35. 

    When a person is raised up on his toes, the ankle is in what position 

    • Dorsiflexion

    • Inversion

    • Plantar flexion

    • Eversion

    Correct Answer
    A. Plantar flexion
    Explanation
    When a person is raised up on his toes, the ankle is in the position of plantar flexion. Plantar flexion occurs when the foot is pointed downward, away from the leg. This movement is commonly used when standing on tiptoes or during activities such as walking, running, or jumping. In contrast, dorsiflexion is the movement of the foot towards the shin, inversion is the movement of the foot towards the midline of the body, and eversion is the movement of the foot away from the midline of the body.

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  • 36. 

    Which of the following is a fibrous protein that helps to protect and waterproof the skin 

    • Melanin

    • Carotene

    • Sebum

    • Keratin

    Correct Answer
    A. Keratin
    Explanation
    Keratin is a fibrous protein that helps to protect and waterproof the skin. It is the main structural protein found in the skin, hair, and nails. Keratin forms a tough, flexible, and waterproof barrier that helps to prevent water loss, protect against mechanical damage, and provide strength to the skin. Melanin is a pigment that gives color to the skin and helps to protect against harmful UV rays. Carotene is a pigment found in fruits and vegetables that can give a yellow or orange color to the skin. Sebum is an oily substance produced by the sebaceous glands that helps to moisturize and lubricate the skin.

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  • 37. 

    Which muscle is located directly inferior to the scapular spine 

    • Subscapularis

    • Infraspinatus

    • Supraspinatus

    • Teres minor

    Correct Answer
    A. Infraspinatus
    Explanation
    The muscle located directly inferior to the scapular spine is the infraspinatus. The scapular spine is a bony ridge on the posterior side of the scapula (shoulder blade), and the infraspinatus muscle lies beneath it. This muscle plays a crucial role in shoulder movement and stability, as it is responsible for the external rotation and adduction of the arm.

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  • 38. 

    A hinge joint is capable of making which of the following movements 

    • Inversion and eversion

    • Adduction and abduction

    • Flexion and extension

    • Pronation and supination

    Correct Answer
    A. Flexion and extension
    Explanation
    A hinge joint, such as the knee or elbow joint, allows for flexion and extension movements. Flexion refers to the bending of a joint, while extension refers to the straightening of a joint. Inversion and eversion involve movements of the foot, adduction and abduction involve movements towards and away from the body's midline, and pronation and supination involve movements of the forearm. Therefore, the correct answer is flexion and extension.

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  • 39. 

    Why should you avoid scented massage lubricants 

    • Client may have allergies or scent sensitivities

    • They are cost-prohibitive

    • They often stain linens

    • They may interfere with releasing energy blocks

    Correct Answer
    A. Client may have allergies or scent sensitivities
    Explanation
    Using scented massage lubricants can be problematic because some clients may have allergies or sensitivities to certain scents. This can lead to allergic reactions or discomfort during the massage session. It is important to prioritize the client's comfort and well-being, so avoiding scented lubricants is a good practice.

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  • 40. 

     A client approaches you at a social function and asks about another one of your clients’ progress with treatment. This conflicts directly with which code of ethics principle 

    • Networking

    • Dual relationships

    • Confidentiality

    • Networking

    Correct Answer
    A. Confidentiality
    Explanation
    Confidentiality is the correct answer because it is a code of ethics principle that requires professionals to keep information about their clients confidential. Sharing information about a client's progress with treatment without their consent would be a violation of this principle, as it breaches the trust and privacy that clients expect from their therapists.

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  • 41. 

    If a client has pain in the acromial region, which joint is most likely involved 

    • Knee

    • Hip

    • Elbow

    • Shoulder

    Correct Answer
    A. Shoulder
    Explanation
    If a client has pain in the acromial region, the joint that is most likely involved is the shoulder. The acromial region refers to the area around the acromion, which is a bony process of the shoulder blade. The shoulder joint is responsible for the movement and stability of the arm, and pain in this region is often associated with shoulder-related issues such as rotator cuff injuries, shoulder impingement, or shoulder arthritis. Therefore, the shoulder joint is the most likely joint involved when experiencing pain in the acromial region.

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  • 42. 

    If you come across an unconscious adult, what should you do first  

    • Try to rouse the person to consciousness

    • Clear the person’s airway by tilting the head back

    • Try to locate a pulse in the person’s throat

    • Call emergency services immediately

    Correct Answer
    A. Try to rouse the person to consciousness
    Explanation
    If you come across an unconscious adult, the first thing you should do is try to rouse the person to consciousness. This can be done by gently shaking the person, calling their name, or applying a painful stimulus such as a pinch. By attempting to wake the person up, you are assessing their level of responsiveness and determining if they are conscious or not. If the person does not respond, then further steps such as clearing the airway, checking for a pulse, and calling emergency services should be taken.

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  • 43. 

    What percentage of income from bartered goods or services is reportable to the Internal Revenue Service 

    • None is reportable

    • 50%

    • 75%

    • 100%

    Correct Answer
    A. 100%
    Explanation
    All income from bartered goods or services is reportable to the Internal Revenue Service. This means that individuals or businesses must report the fair market value of the goods or services received through bartering as income on their tax returns. This is because bartering is considered a form of taxable income, just like any other form of payment or compensation. Therefore, the correct answer is 100%.

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  • 44. 

    Which muscles are parts of the rotator cuff 

    • Teres minor, subscapularis, supraspinatus, and infraspinatus

    • Supraspinatus, infraspinatus, pectoralis minor, and subscapularis

    • Infraspinatus, subscapularis, teres major, and subclavius

    • Subclavius, infraspinatus, teres major, and supraspinatus

    Correct Answer
    A. Teres minor, subscapularis, supraspinatus, and infraspinatus
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Teres minor, subscapularis, supraspinatus, and infraspinatus. These muscles are all part of the rotator cuff, which is a group of muscles and tendons that surround the shoulder joint. The rotator cuff muscles work together to stabilize and move the shoulder joint, allowing for various movements of the arm. The teres minor, subscapularis, supraspinatus, and infraspinatus muscles specifically play important roles in shoulder abduction, external rotation, and internal rotation.

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  • 45. 

    When calling Emergency Medical Services (EMS: 911), what is the most valuable information given to the dispatcher 

    • Time and place of the accident

    • If police are needed with the emergency

    • What the emergency is and where it happened

    • Your name and your credentials

    Correct Answer
    A. What the emergency is and where it happened
    Explanation
    The most valuable information given to the dispatcher when calling EMS is what the emergency is and where it happened. This information allows the dispatcher to understand the nature of the emergency and dispatch the appropriate resources to the scene. Knowing the specific details of the emergency and its location helps EMS responders arrive quickly and prepared to provide the necessary medical assistance.

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  • 46. 

    What muscle is a synergist to the iliopsoas 

    • Rectus femoris

    • Semitendinosus

    • Piriformis

    • Gluteus maximus

    Correct Answer
    A. Rectus femoris
    Explanation
    The rectus femoris muscle is a synergist to the iliopsoas. This means that it works together with the iliopsoas to perform a similar action or movement. The iliopsoas is responsible for flexing the hip joint, and the rectus femoris assists in this movement by also flexing the hip. Therefore, the rectus femoris can be considered a synergist to the iliopsoas.

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  • 47. 

    What are trigger points 

    • Gap between two nerves where information is transmitted

    • Junction between a muscle and a tendon that is hypermobile

    • Localized areas of hyperirritability that, when pressed, may refer pain

    • Areas of numbness brought on by neuropathy

    Correct Answer
    A. Localized areas of hyperirritability that, when pressed, may refer pain
    Explanation
    Trigger points are localized areas of hyperirritability in the muscles or soft tissues. When these points are pressed or stimulated, they can cause referred pain, meaning the pain is felt in a different area of the body than where the trigger point is located. Trigger points are commonly found in muscles and can cause pain, discomfort, and restricted movement. They are often associated with muscle knots and can be treated through various techniques such as massage, stretching, and trigger point injections.

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  • 48. 

    What type of insurance protects the therapist if he or she injures a client during a procedure 

    • Workman's compensation insurance

    • Health and wellness insurance

    • Disability insurance

    • Professional liability insurance

    Correct Answer
    A. Professional liability insurance
    Explanation
    Professional liability insurance is the correct answer because it specifically covers therapists and other professionals in case they cause injury or harm to a client during a procedure. This type of insurance provides financial protection for legal expenses, settlements, or damages that may arise from malpractice or negligence. Workman's compensation insurance, health and wellness insurance, and disability insurance are not designed to cover such incidents and would not provide the necessary coverage in this situation.

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  • 49. 

    What is the most common cause of chronic bronchitis 

    • Family history

    • Alcohol overconsumption

    • Mineral deficiency

    • Cigarette smoking

    Correct Answer
    A. Cigarette smoking
    Explanation
    Cigarette smoking is the most common cause of chronic bronchitis. Chronic bronchitis is a condition characterized by inflammation and irritation of the bronchial tubes, leading to persistent coughing and mucus production. Smoking cigarettes exposes the lungs to harmful chemicals and toxins, which can damage the bronchial tubes over time and increase the risk of developing chronic bronchitis. Quitting smoking is crucial in preventing and managing this condition.

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Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Jan 16, 2024 +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Jan 16, 2024
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Jan 04, 2012
    Quiz Created by
    Omtpmassage

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