MBLEx NCBTMB Practice Test - 1

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  • 1/135 Questions

    The description of the probable progression of a disease pattern for an individual is the

    • Etiology
    • Diagnosis
    • Prognosis
    • Idiopathic Nature
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MBLEx Quizzes & Trivia
About This Quiz

This MBLEX NCBTMB Practice Test - 1 assesses knowledge in anatomy, physiology, and disease progression. It helps prepare for the MBLEx certification, essential for professional practice in therapeutic massage and bodywork.

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  • 2. 

    The sternum is inferior to the:

    • Pelvis

    • Clavicles

    • Diaphragm muscle

    • Pancreas

    Correct Answer
    A. Clavicles
    Explanation
    The sternum is a bone located in the middle of the chest. It is inferior, or below, the clavicles, which are also known as the collarbones. The clavicles are located superiorly, or above, the sternum. Therefore, the correct answer is clavicles.

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  • 3. 

    The thyroid, thymus, parathyroid, pineal are organs of what system

    • Endocrine

    • Integumentary

    • Digestive

    • Lymphatic

    Correct Answer
    A. Endocrine
    Explanation
    The thyroid, thymus, parathyroid, and pineal are all organs that are part of the endocrine system. The endocrine system is responsible for producing and releasing hormones that regulate various bodily functions and processes. These organs play a crucial role in maintaining homeostasis and controlling metabolism, growth, and development.

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  • 4. 

    An air space in the facial bones is a

    • Sinus

    • Trabeculae

    • Foramen

    • Meatus

    Correct Answer
    A. Sinus
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Sinus." Sinuses are air spaces located within the facial bones. They are lined with mucous membranes and are connected to the nasal cavity. The sinuses help to lighten the weight of the skull and provide resonance to the voice. They also play a role in humidifying and filtering the air we breathe.

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  • 5. 

    The involuntary movement that occurs between joint surfaces is called

    • Hypermobility

    • Anatomic range of motion

    • Osteokinematic

    • Joint play

    Correct Answer
    A. Joint play
    Explanation
    Joint play refers to the small, involuntary movements that occur between joint surfaces. These movements are necessary for proper joint function and are distinct from the larger, voluntary movements known as osteokinematic movements. Hypermobility refers to excessive joint movement beyond the normal range, while anatomic range of motion refers to the normal, expected range of movement for a particular joint. Therefore, the correct answer is joint play.

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  • 6. 

    The stimulus at which the first noticeable muscle contraction occurs is called the

    • Static force

    • Maximal stimulas

    • Threshold stimulus

    • Tone pattern

    Correct Answer
    A. Threshold stimulus
    Explanation
    The threshold stimulus refers to the minimum level of stimulation required to elicit a noticeable muscle contraction. It is the point at which the muscle fibers are sufficiently stimulated to generate an action potential and initiate a contraction. This level of stimulation is necessary to overcome the muscle's resting membrane potential and reach the threshold for excitation. Once the threshold stimulus is reached, the muscle fibers will contract, resulting in a noticeable muscle contraction.

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  • 7. 

    A force applied to a lever to overcome resistance is called the

    • Equilibrium

    • Fulcrum

    • Acceleration

    • Effort

    Correct Answer
    A. Effort
    Explanation
    In a lever system, the force applied to overcome resistance is known as the effort force. The effort force is the force that is applied to one end of the lever in order to move or lift an object on the other end. The equilibrium refers to a state where all forces acting on the lever are balanced, fulcrum is the pivot point of the lever, and acceleration is the rate of change of velocity. Therefore, the correct answer is "effort".

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  • 8. 

    What is the main neurotransmitter affecting muscles

    • Serotonin

    • Histamine

    • Dopamine

    • Acetylcholine

    Correct Answer
    A. Acetylcholine
    Explanation
    Acetylcholine is the main neurotransmitter affecting muscles. It is released by motor neurons at the neuromuscular junction, where it binds to receptors on muscle fibers, causing them to contract. This neurotransmitter plays a crucial role in muscle movement and coordination. Serotonin, histamine, and dopamine are also neurotransmitters, but they do not directly affect muscles in the same way as acetylcholine.

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  • 9. 

    What is the sac around the heart that secretes a lubricating fluid to prevent frictions from the movement of the heart?

    • Atrium

    • Epicardium

    • Myocardium

    • Pericardium

    Correct Answer
    A. Pericardium
    Explanation
    The pericardium is the sac around the heart that secretes a lubricating fluid to prevent friction from the movement of the heart. It acts as a protective layer, reducing friction and allowing the heart to move smoothly within the chest cavity. The pericardium also helps to maintain the position of the heart and prevents it from overfilling with blood.

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  • 10. 

    The right lymphatic duct drains the

    • Lower right limp and abdomen

    • Left and right upper body

    • Upper right half of the body

    • Lower limbs

    Correct Answer
    A. Upper right half of the body
    Explanation
    The right lymphatic duct drains the upper right half of the body. This includes the right side of the head and neck, right upper limb, and right side of the thorax. It does not drain the lower right limb and abdomen, left and right upper body, or lower limbs.

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  • 11. 

    A substance that causes the immune system to respond is called a (n):

    • Antigen

    • Phagocyte

    • Anaphylactic Substance

    • Natural killer cell

    Correct Answer
    A. Antigen
    Explanation
    An antigen is a substance that triggers an immune response in the body. When introduced into the body, antigens are recognized by the immune system as foreign and elicit an immune response. This response can involve the production of antibodies, activation of immune cells, and the release of inflammatory mediators. Antigens can be derived from pathogens, such as bacteria or viruses, or from non-infectious sources, such as pollen or certain food proteins. The immune system's response to antigens is crucial for defending the body against infections and maintaining overall health.

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  • 12. 

      What is the primary muscle(s) that produces quiet inspiration?

    • Anterior Scalene

    • Diaphragm

    • Internal intercostals

    • Abdominals

    Correct Answer
    A. Diaphragm
    Explanation
    The diaphragm is the primary muscle responsible for quiet inspiration. It contracts and flattens, causing the volume of the thoracic cavity to increase, which leads to the expansion of the lungs and the intake of air. The other muscles listed, such as the anterior scalene, internal intercostals, and abdominals, may assist in inspiration during more forceful breathing but are not primarily responsible for quiet inspiration.

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  • 13. 

    The rhythmic contraction of smooth muscle in the intestine is called

    • Peritonitis

    • Mastication

    • Ingestion

    • Peristalsis

    Correct Answer
    A. Peristalsis
    Explanation
    Peristalsis is the correct answer because it refers to the rhythmic contraction of smooth muscle in the intestine. This contraction helps to propel food through the digestive system, allowing for the efficient digestion and absorption of nutrients. Peritonitis, on the other hand, is the inflammation of the peritoneum, the lining of the abdominal cavity, and is unrelated to the contraction of smooth muscle in the intestine. Mastication refers to the process of chewing food, and ingestion refers to the act of taking in food or drink.

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  • 14. 

    Oxytocin is secreted by the

    • Thyroid

    • Hypothalamus

    • Pituitary

    • Ovaries

    Correct Answer
    A. Pituitary
    Explanation
    Oxytocin is a hormone that is responsible for various functions in the body, including childbirth, breastfeeding, and social bonding. It is primarily secreted by the pituitary gland, which is located at the base of the brain. The pituitary gland plays a crucial role in regulating many hormones in the body, and it releases oxytocin into the bloodstream when stimulated by certain events, such as childbirth or skin-to-skin contact. Therefore, the correct answer is the pituitary gland.

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  • 15. 

    Which of the following is a contagious skin pathology?

    • Corn

    • Psoriasis

    • Scleroderma

    • Scabies

    Correct Answer
    A. Scabies
    Explanation
    Scabies is a contagious skin pathology caused by infestation with the Sarcoptes scabiei mite. It is characterized by intense itching, redness, and the presence of small, raised bumps or blisters on the skin. Scabies is highly contagious and can spread through close physical contact or sharing personal items with an infected person. Corn, psoriasis, and scleroderma are not contagious skin pathologies.

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  • 16. 

    A procedure that filters blood through an external source is used for those with progressive renal failure. What is the process called?

    • Hemodialysis

    • Juxtaglomerular apparatus

    • Micturition

    • Urinalysis

    Correct Answer
    A. Hemodialysis
    Explanation
    Hemodialysis is the correct answer because it is a procedure used for individuals with progressive renal failure to filter their blood through an external source. This process helps remove waste products and excess fluid from the blood when the kidneys are no longer able to perform this function effectively. Hemodialysis involves the use of a machine called a dialyzer, which acts as an artificial kidney, and it is typically performed multiple times a week.

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  • 17. 

    What do secondary sexual characteristics appear?

    • Menstruation

    • Parturition

    • Puberty

    • Androgyny

    Correct Answer
    A. Puberty
    Explanation
    Secondary sexual characteristics appear during puberty. Puberty is the period of sexual development in which a person becomes capable of reproduction. During this time, various physical changes occur, such as the development of breasts in females and the deepening of voice in males. These changes are known as secondary sexual characteristics and are a result of hormonal changes that take place during puberty. Menstruation and parturition are specific events related to the female reproductive system, while androgyny refers to a lack of clear gender characteristics.

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  • 18. 

    What is the spreading of a pathogen by particles of air?

    • Opportunistic invasion

    • Person to person contact

    • Invasion by ingestion

    • Transmission by inhalation

    Correct Answer
    A. Transmission by inhalation
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Transmission by inhalation." This refers to the spread of a pathogen through the air, where particles containing the pathogen are inhaled by individuals, allowing the pathogen to enter the respiratory system and potentially cause infection. This mode of transmission is particularly relevant for respiratory viruses such as COVID-19, where droplets containing the virus can be released into the air when an infected person coughs, sneezes, or talks. Inhaling these droplets can lead to the transmission of the virus to a susceptible individual.

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  • 19. 

    The ability to endure sustained stress is related to which aspect of the general adaptation syndrome?

    • The resistance phase

    • The alarm phase

    • The exhaustion phase

    • The chronic phase

    Correct Answer
    A. The alarm phase
    Explanation
    During the alarm phase of the general adaptation syndrome, the body initially reacts to stress by activating the fight-or-flight response. This response prepares the body to either confront the stressor or escape from it. It involves the release of stress hormones, increased heart rate, heightened senses, and other physiological changes. While the resistance phase is also related to the ability to endure stress, it occurs after the initial alarm phase and involves the body's efforts to adapt and cope with the ongoing stress. The exhaustion phase occurs when the body's resources are depleted after prolonged exposure to stress. The chronic phase is not a recognized phase of the general adaptation syndrome.

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  • 20. 

    The client reports at the beginning of the massage that they did not sleep well and are fatigued. This information is recorded in what section of SOAP?

    • S

    • O

    • A

    • P

    Correct Answer
    A. S
    Explanation
    The given correct answer is "S". In the SOAP format, "S" stands for subjective information, which includes the client's complaints, symptoms, and any relevant information they provide. In this case, the client reporting that they did not sleep well and are fatigued is subjective information as it is based on their personal experience and perception. Therefore, it would be recorded in the subjective section of the SOAP notes.

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  • 21. 

    What is the method of massage that reflects the concept of Swedish gymnastics?

    • Tapotement

    • Shaking

    • Petrissage

    • Passive ROM

    Correct Answer
    A. Passive ROM
    Explanation
    Passive ROM (Range of Motion) is the method of massage that reflects the concept of Swedish gymnastics. This technique involves the therapist gently moving and stretching the client's limbs and joints, promoting flexibility and mobility. It is similar to Swedish gymnastics, which focuses on gentle movements and exercises to improve overall physical fitness and flexibility.

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  • 22. 

    In which way do wellness approaches to bodywork differ from medical approaches?

    • Wellness approaches focus on reduce suffering

    • Medical approaches are mainly palliative

    • Wellness approaches focus on remedial intervention

    • Medical approaches are remedial and palliative

    Correct Answer
    A. Medical approaches are remedial and palliative
    Explanation
    Wellness approaches to bodywork differ from medical approaches in that wellness approaches focus on remedial intervention, while medical approaches are both remedial and palliative. While both approaches aim to address physical health concerns, wellness approaches prioritize taking proactive steps to prevent and alleviate suffering, while medical approaches focus on providing relief and managing symptoms. Medical approaches often involve the use of medication and other treatments to alleviate pain and discomfort, while wellness approaches may include a combination of therapies, lifestyle changes, and self-care practices to promote overall well-being.

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  • 23. 

    What type of insurance provides coverage if a person is injured in a fall at a place of business?

    • Disability Insurance

    • Product Liability Insurance

    • Professional liability insurance

    • Premise liability insurance

    Correct Answer
    A. Premise liability insurance
    Explanation
    Premise liability insurance provides coverage if a person is injured in a fall at a place of business. This type of insurance protects the business owner from legal claims and financial losses that may arise due to injuries or accidents that occur on their premises. It covers medical expenses, legal fees, and any potential settlements or judgments resulting from the injury. Premise liability insurance is essential for businesses to ensure they are protected against potential liabilities and can provide compensation to individuals who are injured on their property.

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  • 24. 

    What defines the practice parameters of a particular profession?

    • Code of ethics

    • Standards of Practice

    • Scope of Practice

    • Informed Consent

    Correct Answer
    A. Scope of Practice
    Explanation
    The practice parameters of a particular profession are defined by the scope of practice. This refers to the specific activities and responsibilities that professionals in that field are legally and ethically allowed to perform. It outlines the boundaries and limitations of their practice, ensuring that they work within their area of expertise and do not exceed their qualifications. The scope of practice helps maintain professional standards and protects the well-being of both professionals and their clients.

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  • 25. 

    When a female client prefers to have a female bodywork professional, what type of touch issue is being displayed?

    • Culture

    • Gender

    • Diversity

    • Intimacy

    Correct Answer
    A. Gender
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Gender. When a female client prefers to have a female bodywork professional, it indicates a preference based on the gender of the professional. This preference may stem from personal comfort, cultural norms, or a desire for a sense of safety and understanding during the bodywork session.

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  • 26. 

    The exacerbation of an acute illness means the illness: The exacerbation of an acute illness means the illness:

    • Is beginning to reverse to a healthy state

    • Has become worse

    • Is infectious

    • Is becoming chronic

    Correct Answer
    A. Has become worse
    Explanation
    The exacerbation of an acute illness means that the illness has become worse. This implies that the symptoms or severity of the illness have intensified or escalated. It does not indicate that the illness is starting to reverse to a healthy state, is infectious, or becoming chronic.

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  • 27. 

    The client has a bruise on the bottom of their foot. How would you describe the location of the bruise in your charting? The bruise is located:

    • On the dorsal aspect of the foot

    • On the volar aspect of the foot

    • Plantar aspect of the foot

    • Caudad portion of the foot

    Correct Answer
    A. Plantar aspect of the foot
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "plantar aspect of the foot." The term "plantar" refers to the bottom or sole of the foot. Therefore, if the bruise is located on the bottom of the foot, it would be described as being on the plantar aspect.

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  • 28. 

    When considering the relationship between anatomy and physiology, which of the following is the most accurate statement?

    • Anatomy is the function of the body parts and physiology is the structure of the body

    • Anatomy describes structure and physiology describes function

    • Physiologic functions are best studied during dissection and anatomy is best studied by observation

    • Physiology is more concrete while anatomy is more fluctuating.

    Correct Answer
    A. Anatomy describes structure and physiology describes function
    Explanation
    Anatomy and physiology are two distinct but closely related fields in the study of the human body. Anatomy focuses on the structure and organization of body parts, such as bones, muscles, and organs. Physiology, on the other hand, examines the functions and processes of these body parts, including how they work together to maintain homeostasis. The statement "Anatomy describes structure and physiology describes function" accurately captures the essence of this relationship, highlighting the complementary nature of these two disciplines in understanding the human body.

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  • 29. 

    Which set of bones represent the tarsal group?

    • Tibia, talus, hamate

    • Glenoid, trapezium

    • Cuneiform, cuboid, talus

    • Ethmoid, vomer, calcaneus

    Correct Answer
    A. Cuneiform, cuboid, talus
    Explanation
    The tarsal group consists of the bones in the foot that form the tarsus, which is the posterior part of the foot. The cuneiform, cuboid, and talus are all bones that make up the tarsal group. The cuneiform bones are located on the medial side of the foot, the cuboid bone is located on the lateral side, and the talus bone is located between the tibia and the calcaneus. Therefore, the correct answer is cuneiform, cuboid, talus.

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  • 30. 

    A major ligament supporting the medial aspect of the tibiotalar joint is the

    • Tibial collateral ligament

    • Deltoid ligament

    • Coacohumeral ligament

    • Labrum ligament

    Correct Answer
    A. Deltoid ligament
    Explanation
    The deltoid ligament is a major ligament that supports the medial aspect of the tibiotalar joint. It is located on the inner side of the ankle and is responsible for stabilizing the joint. This ligament is strong and helps to prevent excessive inward rolling or inversion of the ankle, which is a common mechanism of injury. The tibial collateral ligament, coacohumeral ligament, and labrum ligament are not directly involved in supporting the tibiotalar joint.

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  • 31. 

    A muscle synergistic to the triceps brachii is the

    • Pronator quadratus

    • Flexor carpi radialis

    • Palmaris Longus

    • Anconeus

    Correct Answer
    A. Anconeus
    Explanation
    The anconeus muscle is synergistic to the triceps brachii because it assists in the extension of the forearm at the elbow joint. It is located on the posterior aspect of the elbow and helps stabilize the joint during movements such as throwing or pushing. The anconeus works together with the triceps brachii to provide strength and control to the extension of the forearm.

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  • 32. 

    Which set of bones represent the tarsal group?

    • Tibia, talus, hamate

    • Glenoid, trapezium

    • Cuneiform, cuboid, talus

    • Ethmoid, vomer, calcaneus

    Correct Answer
    A. Cuneiform, cuboid, talus
    Explanation
    The tarsal group refers to the bones found in the tarsus region of the foot. The tarsus is located between the leg and the metatarsus. The bones that make up the tarsal group are the cuneiform, cuboid, and talus. These bones are responsible for providing stability and support to the foot, allowing for movements such as walking and running. The tibia, talus, and hamate are not part of the tarsal group, as the tibia is a bone in the lower leg, the talus is one of the tarsal bones, but it is not part of the tarsal group, and the hamate is a bone found in the wrist.

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  • 33. 

    A client often experiences soreness the day after a resistance training routine with weights. Which of the following types of muscle contraction is likely the cause of this tenderness?

    • Concentric

    • Eccentric

    • Isometric

    • Isotonic

    Correct Answer
    A. Eccentric
    Explanation
    Eccentric muscle contractions occur when the muscle lengthens while generating force, such as when lowering a weight during resistance training. These contractions are known to cause more muscle damage compared to other types of contractions. The soreness experienced the day after a resistance training routine with weights is known as delayed onset muscle soreness (DOMS), which is believed to be caused by microscopic damage to the muscle fibers. Therefore, the eccentric muscle contractions involved in resistance training are likely the cause of this tenderness.

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  • 34. 

    Which of the following sensory receptors detects changes in muscle length?

    • Chemoreceptors

    • Photoreceptors

    • Nociceptors

    • Proprioceptors

    Correct Answer
    A. Proprioceptors
    Explanation
    Proprioceptors are sensory receptors that detect changes in muscle length. They are responsible for providing information about the position, movement, and tension of muscles, allowing us to have a sense of body awareness and coordination. Chemoreceptors detect chemical changes, photoreceptors detect light, and nociceptors detect pain. However, proprioceptors specifically monitor muscle length and are therefore the correct answer in this context.

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  • 35. 

    A client has systolic pressure of 112 mmhg. What is being measured?

    • Maximal pressure when the ventricles relax

    • Pressure that occurs when the ventricles relax

    • Maximal pressure when ventricle contract

    • Increases blood pressure and cardiac output

    Correct Answer
    A. Maximal pressure when ventricle contract
    Explanation
    The systolic pressure of 112 mmHg indicates the maximum pressure that occurs when the ventricles contract. This is the highest pressure reached in the arteries during each heartbeat, as the ventricles forcefully pump blood into the circulatory system.

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  • 36. 

    Which of the following most supports flow of lymph through the healthy body?

    • Movement

    • Lymphatic drainage massage

    • Hydrotherapy

    • Fluid Intake

    Correct Answer
    A. Movement
    Explanation
    Movement supports the flow of lymph through the healthy body because the lymphatic system does not have a central pump like the heart in the circulatory system. Instead, lymph relies on the contraction of muscles and movement of the body to push it through the lymphatic vessels. When we move, our muscles contract and squeeze the lymphatic vessels, helping to propel the lymph forward. This movement also aids in the removal of waste products and toxins from the body, as well as the transportation of immune cells to fight infections.

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  • 37. 

    Which of the following sensory receptors detects changes in muscle length?

    • Chemoreceptors

    • Photoreceptors

    • Nociceptors

    • Proprioceptors

    Correct Answer
    A. Proprioceptors
    Explanation
    Proprioceptors are sensory receptors that detect changes in muscle length. These receptors are located in muscles, tendons, and joints, and they provide information to the brain about the position and movement of the body. They play a crucial role in proprioception, which is the body's ability to sense its own position and movement in space. Chemoreceptors detect changes in chemical concentrations, photoreceptors detect light, and nociceptors detect pain. Therefore, proprioceptors are the correct answer for detecting changes in muscle length.

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  • 38. 

    The inflammatory response is part of what type of immune response?

    • Development of antigens

    • Homeopathy

    • Nonspecific Immunity

    • Opportunistic invasion

    Correct Answer
    A. Nonspecific Immunity
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Nonspecific Immunity". The inflammatory response is a part of the nonspecific immune response. This type of immune response is the body's immediate, general defense mechanism against any foreign substance or pathogen. The inflammatory response is characterized by redness, swelling, heat, and pain at the site of infection or injury. It is a nonspecific reaction that occurs regardless of the specific antigen involved.

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  • 39. 

    The gas exchange between blood and tissue is called

    • pulmonary respiration

    • Quiet inspiration

    • External respiration

    • Internal respiration

    Correct Answer
    A. Internal respiration
    Explanation
    Internal respiration refers to the process of gas exchange that occurs between the blood and the body's tissues. It involves the diffusion of oxygen from the blood into the tissues, where it is used for cellular respiration, and the diffusion of carbon dioxide from the tissues into the blood, where it is transported back to the lungs for elimination. This process takes place within the cells of the body, allowing for the exchange of gases necessary for cellular metabolism.

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  • 40. 

    What type of food is broken down by amylase in the saliva

    • Carbohydrates

    • Fats

    • Proteins

    • Amino Acids

    Correct Answer
    A. Carbohydrates
    Explanation
    Amylase is an enzyme found in saliva that helps break down carbohydrates. Carbohydrates are one of the main types of food that our body needs for energy. When we eat foods like bread, rice, or potatoes, amylase in our saliva begins to break down the complex carbohydrates into simpler sugars, which can then be absorbed by the body for energy. Therefore, the correct answer is carbohydrates.

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  • 41. 

    Androgens are secreted by the gonads and the

    • Adrenals

    • Pancreas

    • Pituitary

    • Thymus

    Correct Answer
    A. Adrenals
    Explanation
    Androgens are male sex hormones that are primarily secreted by the gonads (testes) in males and to a lesser extent by the ovaries in females. However, they are also secreted by the adrenal glands, which are located on top of the kidneys. The adrenal glands produce various hormones, including androgens, cortisol, and adrenaline, which play important roles in regulating metabolism, stress response, and sexual development. Therefore, the correct answer is "Adrenals."

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  • 42. 

      What are the glands in the skin involved in sweating to cool off the body

    • Sebaceous

    • Eccrine

    • Apocrine

    • Ceruminous

    Correct Answer
    A. Eccrine
    Explanation
    Eccrine glands are the glands in the skin that are involved in sweating to cool off the body. These glands are found all over the body and produce a clear, odorless sweat that helps regulate body temperature. Sebaceous glands produce sebum, which moisturizes the skin and hair. Apocrine glands produce a thicker, odorless sweat that is associated with body odor. Ceruminous glands produce earwax.

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  • 43. 

    A client has stress incontinence. Which bodywork method may be uncomfortable for them?

    • Vibration of kidneys

    • Passive ROM

    • Compression of lower abdomen

    • Compression to the Kidney meridian

    Correct Answer
    A. Compression of lower abdomen
    Explanation
    Compression of the lower abdomen may be uncomfortable for a client with stress incontinence because it can put pressure on the bladder and potentially worsen their symptoms. Stress incontinence is characterized by the involuntary leakage of urine during activities that put pressure on the bladder, such as coughing, sneezing, or exercising. Therefore, applying compression to the lower abdomen could exacerbate the client's condition and cause discomfort.

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  • 44. 

    A client coughs into their hands during a session. There is no opportunity for the client to wash their hands before leaving the area. What sanitary procedures would the professional need to do before the next client.

    • Disinfect the table and change the linens

    • Wash their hands and forearms with hot soapy water

    • Disinfect any object touched by the client

    • Spray the air with disinfectant to clear the air.

    Correct Answer
    A. Disinfect any object touched by the client
    Explanation
    The correct answer is to disinfect any object touched by the client. This is important because the client coughed into their hands, which means that any object they touched could potentially be contaminated with germs. Disinfecting these objects helps to prevent the spread of any potential pathogens to the next client. Washing hands and forearms with hot soapy water is also important for maintaining personal hygiene, but it is not sufficient to ensure the cleanliness of the objects in the area. Changing linens and spraying the air with disinfectant are not necessary in this situation as the focus should be on disinfecting the objects touched by the client.

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  • 45. 

    A client informs you that they have been taking two aspirin every four to six hours for a mild ankle sprain for the past two days. What modifications to the bodywork approach may need to be made?

    • Use of lubricant may need to be modified to reduce increased skin sensitivity caused by the aspirin.

    • Compression approaches would be the methods of choice since the aspirin would increase the potential for blood clotting.

    • Intensity of compressive force for the methods used may need to be reduced to prevent bruising since the aspirin thins the blood and decrease clotting ability

    • Only energetic methods would be advisable to avoid an inflammatory response.

    Correct Answer
    A. Intensity of compressive force for the methods used may need to be reduced to prevent bruising since the aspirin thins the blood and decrease clotting ability
    Explanation
    The client has been taking aspirin, which thins the blood and decreases clotting ability. This means that there is an increased risk of bruising during bodywork. Therefore, the intensity of compressive force for the methods used may need to be reduced to prevent bruising.

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  • 46. 

    Care plan development is based on the information obtained during the needs assessment, applicable benefits of bodywork, general description of methodology to be used, time frames and

    • Textbook protocols

    • Informed consent

    • Narrative reporting

    • Client goals

    Correct Answer
    A. Client goals
    Explanation
    Care plan development is based on various factors, including the information obtained during the needs assessment, applicable benefits of bodywork, general description of methodology to be used, time frames, textbook protocols, and client goals. Client goals play a crucial role in shaping the care plan as they provide specific objectives and outcomes that the client wishes to achieve through bodywork. By considering client goals, the care plan can be tailored to meet the individual needs and preferences of the client, ensuring a personalized and effective approach to their care.

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  • 47. 

    What is the massage method that requires lubricant for effective application

    • Tapotement

    • Friction

    • Effleurage

    • Compression

    Correct Answer
    A. Effleurage
    Explanation
    Effleurage is a massage technique that involves long, sweeping strokes using the palms of the hands. It is performed with the use of lubricant, such as oil or lotion, to ensure smooth and effective application. The lubricant helps to reduce friction between the hands and the client's skin, allowing the therapist to glide effortlessly and provide a soothing and relaxing massage experience.

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  • 48. 

    With what approach is Randolph Stone credited with

    • Myofascial release

    • Orthobionomy

    • Polarity

    • Trager

    Correct Answer
    A. Polarity
    Explanation
    Randolph Stone is credited with the approach of Polarity. Polarity therapy is a holistic healing system that focuses on balancing the flow of energy in the body. It combines bodywork, energy work, and dietary and lifestyle recommendations to promote physical, mental, and emotional well-being. Randolph Stone developed this approach based on his understanding of Eastern and Western healing traditions, including Ayurveda, Chinese medicine, and osteopathy. Polarity therapy aims to release energy blockages, restore balance, and support the body's natural healing abilities.

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  • 49. 

    What is the meridian or vessel that is located on the ventral aspect of the body along the mid-sagittal plane?

    • Bladder meridian

    • Pericardium meridian

    • Governing Vessel

    • Central Vessel

    Correct Answer
    A. Central Vessel
    Explanation
    The meridian or vessel that is located on the ventral aspect of the body along the mid-sagittal plane is the Central Vessel. This meridian runs along the midline of the body and is responsible for regulating the flow of energy throughout the body. It is an important meridian in traditional Chinese medicine and is believed to have a significant impact on overall health and well-being.

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Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Mar 21, 2023 +

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  • Current Version
  • Mar 21, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Dec 15, 2011
    Quiz Created by
    Omtpmassage

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