Maternal And Child Health Practice Test Part 1- By Rnpedia

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1.
A client LMP began July 5. Her EDD should be which of the following?

Explanation

To determine the EDD when the date of the client’s LMP is known use Nagele rule. To the first day of the LMP, add 7 days, subtract 3 months, and add 1 year (if applicable) to arrive at the EDD as follows: 5 + 7 = 12 (July) minus 3 = 4 (April). Therefore, the client’s EDD is April 12.

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Maternal And Child Health Practice Test Part 1- By Rnpedia - Quiz

Mark the letter of the letter of choice then click on the next button. Score will be posted as soon as the you are done with the quiz.... see moreYou got 60 minutes to finish the exam. Good luck! see less

2. Which of the following danger signs should be reported promptly during the antepartum period?

Explanation

Danger signs that require prompt reporting leaking of amniotic fluid, vaginal bleeding, blurred vision, rapid weight gain, and elevated blood pressure. Constipation, breast tenderness, and nasal stuffiness are common discomforts associated with pregnancy.

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3. Which of the following actions demonstrates the nurse’s understanding about the newborn’s thermoregulatory ability?

Explanation

The newborn’s ability to regulate body temperature is poor. Therefore, placing the newborn under a radiant warmer aids in maintaining his or her body temperature. Suctioning with a bulb syringe helps maintain a patent airway. Obtaining an Apgar score measures the newborn’s immediate adjustment to extrauterine life. Inspecting the umbilical cord aids in detecting cord anomalies.

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4. Which of the following urinary symptoms does the pregnant woman most frequently experience during the first trimester?

Explanation

Pressure and irritation of the bladder by the growing uterus during the first trimester is responsible for causing urinary frequency. Dysuria, incontinence, and burning are symptoms associated with urinary tract infections.

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5. Which of the following describes the Babinski reflex?

Explanation

With the babinski reflex, the newborn’s toes hyperextend and fan apart from dorsiflexion of the big toe when one side of foot is stroked upward form the heel and across the ball of the foot. With the startle reflex, the newborn abducts and flexes all extremities and may begin to cry when exposed to sudden movement of loud noise. With the rooting and sucking reflex, the newborn turns his head in the direction of stimulus, opens the mouth, and begins to suck when the cheeks, lip, or corner of mouth is touched. With the crawl reflex, the newborn will attempt to crawl forward with both arms and legs when he is placed on his abdomen on a flat surface.

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6. Which of the following statements best describes hyperemesis gravidarum?

Explanation

The description of hyperemesis gravidarum includes severe nausea and vomiting, leading to electrolyte, metabolic, and nutritional imbalances in the absence of other medical problems. Hyperemesis is not a form of anemia. Loss of appetite may occur secondary to the nausea and vomiting of hyperemesis, which, if it continues, can deplete the nutrients transported to the fetus. Diarrhea does not occur with hyperemesis.

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7. Which of the following amounts of blood loss following birth marks the criterion for describing postpartum hemorrhage?

Explanation

Postpartum hemorrhage is defined as blood loss of more than 500 ml following birth. Any amount less than this not considered postpartum hemorrhage.

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8. Which of the following is the primary predisposing factor related to mastitis?

Explanation

With mastitis, injury to the breast, such as overdistention, stasis, and cracking of the nipples, is the primary predisposing factor. Epidemic and endemic infections are probable sources of infection for mastitis. Temporary urinary retention due to decreased perception of the urge to void is a contributory factor to the development of urinary tract infection, not mastitis.

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9. Which of the following would the nurse identify as a presumptive sign of pregnancy?

Explanation

Presumptive signs of pregnancy are subjective signs. Of the signs listed, only nausea and vomiting are presumptive signs. Hegar sign,skin pigmentation changes, and a positive serum pregnancy test are considered probably signs, which are strongly suggestive of pregnancy.

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10. Which of the following is described as premature separation of a normally implanted placenta during the second half of pregnancy, usually with severe hemorrhage?

Explanation

Abruptio placentae is described as premature separation of a normally implanted placenta during the second half of pregnancy, usually with severe hemorrhage. Placenta previa refers to implantation of the placenta in the lower uterine segment, causing painless bleeding in the third trimester of pregnancy. Ectopic pregnancy refers to the implantation of the products of conception in a site other than the endometrium. Incompetent cervix is a conduction characterized by painful dilation of the cervical os without uterine contractions.

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11. When uterine rupture occurs, which of the following would be the priority?

Explanation

With uterine rupture, the client is at risk for hypovolemic shock. Therefore, the priority is to prevent and limit hypovolemic shock. Immediate steps should include giving oxygen, replacing lost fluids, providing drug therapy as needed, evaluating fetal responses and preparing for surgery. Obtaining blood specimens, instituting complete bed rest, and inserting a urinary catheter are necessary in preparation for surgery to remedy the rupture.

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12. Which of the following groups of newborn reflexes below are present at birth and remain unchanged through adulthood?

Explanation

Blink, cough, sneeze, swallowing and gag reflexes are all present at birth and remain unchanged through adulthood. Reflexes such as rooting and stepping subside within the first year.

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13. Which of the following may happen if the uterus becomes overstimulated by oxytocin during the induction of labor?

Explanation

Hyperstimulation of the uterus such as with oxytocin during the induction of labor may result in tetanic contractions prolonged to more than 90seconds, which could lead to such complications as fetal distress, abruptio placentae, amniotic fluid embolism, laceration of the cervix, and uterine rupture. Weak contractions would not occur. Pain, bright red vaginal bleeding, and increased restlessness and anxiety are not associated with hyperstimulation.

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14. Which of the following assessment findings would the nurse expect if the client develops DVT?

Explanation

Classic symptoms of DVT include muscle pain, the presence of Homans sign, and swelling of the affected limb. Midcalf pain, tenderness, and redness, along the vein reflect superficial thrombophlebitis. Chills, fever and malaise occurring 2 weeks after delivery reflect pelvic thrombophlebitis. Chills, fever, stiffness and pain occurring 10 to 14 days after delivery suggest femoral thrombophlebitis.

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15.  Which of the following common emotional reactions to pregnancy would the nurse expect to occur during the first trimester?

Explanation

During the first trimester, common emotional reactions include ambivalence, fear, fantasies, or anxiety. The second trimester is a period of well-being accompanied by the increased need to learn about fetal growth and development. Common emotional reactions during this trimester include narcissism, passivity, or introversion. At times the woman may seem egocentric and self-centered. During the third trimester, the woman typically feels awkward, clumsy, and unattractive, often becoming more introverted or reflective of her own childhood.

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16. On which of the following areas would the nurse expect to observe chloasma?

Explanation

Chloasma, also called the mask of pregnancy, is an irregular hyperpigmented area found on the face. It is not seen on the breasts, areola, nipples, chest, neck, arms, legs, abdomen, or thighs.

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17. Immediately before expulsion, which of the following cardinal movements occur?

Explanation

Immediately before expulsion or birth of the rest of the body, the cardinal movement of external rotation occurs. Descent flexion, internal rotation, extension, and restitution (in this order) occur before external rotation.

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18. Which of the following best describes preterm labor?

Explanation

Preterm labor is best described as labor that begins after 20 weeks’ gestation and before 37 weeks’ gestation. The other time periods are inaccurate.

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19. A couple who wants to conceive but has been unsuccessful during the last 2 years has undergone many diagnostic procedures. When discussing the situation with the nurse, one partner states, “We know several friends in our age group and all of them have their own child already, Why can’t we have one?”. Which of the following would be the most pertinent nursing diagnosis for this couple?

Explanation

Based on the partner’s statement, the couple is verbalizing feelings of inadequacy and negative feelings about themselves and their capabilities. Thus, the nursing diagnosis of self-esteem disturbance is most appropriate. Fear, pain, and ineffective family coping also may be present but as secondary nursing diagnoses.

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20. During which of the following would the focus of classes be mainly on physiologic changes, fetal development, sexuality, during pregnancy, and nutrition?

Explanation

First-trimester classes commonly focus on such issues as early physiologic changes, fetal development, sexuality during pregnancy, and nutrition. Some early classes may include pregnant couples. Second and third trimester classes may focus on preparation for birth, parenting, and newborn care.

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21. Which of the following would be disadvantage of breast feeding?

Explanation

With breast feeding, the father’s body is not capable of providing the milk for the newborn, which may interfere with feeding the newborn, providing fewer chances for bonding, or he may be jealous of the infant’s demands on his wife’s time and body. Breast feeding is advantageous because uterine involution occurs more rapidly, thus minimizing blood loss. The presence of maternal antibodies in breast milk helps decrease the incidence of allergies in the newborn. A greater chance for error is associated with bottle feeding. No preparation is required for breast feeding.

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22.
Which of the following fundal heights indicates less than 12 weeks’ gestation when the date of the LMP is unknown?

Explanation

When the LMP is unknown, the gestational age of the fetus is estimated by uterine size or position (fundal height). The presence of the uterus in the pelvis indicates less than 12 weeks’ gestation. At approximately 12 to 14 weeks, the fundus is out of the pelvis above the symphysis pubis. The fundus is at the level of the umbilicus at approximately 20 weeks’ gestation and reaches the xiphoid at term or 40 weeks.

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23. Cervical softening and uterine souffle are classified as which of the following?

Explanation

Cervical softening (Goodell sign) and uterine soufflé are two probable signs of pregnancy. Probable signs are objective findings that strongly suggest pregnancy. Other probable signs include Hegar sign, which is softening of the lower uterine segment; Piskacek sign, which is enlargement and softening of the uterus; serum laboratory tests; changes in skin pigmentation; and ultrasonic evidence of a gestational sac. Presumptive signs are subjective signs and include amenorrhea; nausea and vomiting; urinary frequency; breast tenderness and changes; excessive fatigue; uterine enlargement; and quickening.

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24. Before birth, which of the following structures connects the right and left auricles of the heart?

Explanation

The foramen ovale is an opening between the right and left auricles (atria) that should close shortly after birth so the newborn will not have a murmur or mixed blood traveling through the vascular system. The umbilical vein, ductus arteriosus, and ductus venosus are obliterated at birth.

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25. Which of the following factors is the underlying cause of dystocia?

Explanation

Dystocia is difficult, painful, prolonged labor due to mechanical factors involving the fetus (passenger), uterus (powers), pelvis (passage), or psyche. Nutritional, environment, and medical factors may contribute to the mechanical factors that cause dystocia.

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26. During which of the following stages of labor would the nurse assess “crowning”?

Explanation

Crowing, which occurs when the newborn’s head or presenting part appears at the vaginal opening, occurs during the second stage of labor. During the first stage of labor, cervical dilation and effacement occur. During the third stage of labor, the newborn and placenta are delivered. The fourth stage of labor lasts from 1 to 4 hours after birth, during which time the mother and newborn recover from the physical process of birth and the mother’s organs undergo the initial readjustment to the nonpregnant state.

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27. Which of the following would the nurse identify as a classic sign of PIH?

Explanation

Edema of the hands and face is a classic sign of PIH. Many healthy pregnant woman experience foot and ankle edema. A weight gain of 2 lb or more per week indicates a problem. Early morning headache is not a classic sign of PIH.

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28. Which of the following would the nurse assess in a client experiencing abruptio placenta?

Explanation

A client with abruptio placentae may exhibit concealed or dark red bleeding, possibly reporting sudden intense localized uterine pain. The uterus is typically firm to boardlike, and the fetal presenting part may be engaged. Bright red, painless vaginal bleeding, a palpable fetal outline and a soft nontender abdomen are manifestations of placenta previa.

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29. Which of the following factors would the nurse suspect as predisposing a client to placenta previa?

Explanation

Multiple gestation is one of the predisposing factors that may cause placenta previa. Uterine anomalies abdominal trauma, and renal or vascular disease may predispose a client to abruptio placentae.

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30. When preparing a client for cesarean delivery, which of the following key concepts should be considered when implementing nursing care?


Explanation

A key point to consider when preparing the client for a cesarean delivery is to modify the preoperative teaching to meet the needs of either a planned or emergency cesarean birth, the depth and breadth of instruction will depend on circumstances and time available. Allowing the mother’s support person to remain with her as much as possible is an important concept, although doing so depends on many variables. Arranging for necessary explanations by various staff members to be involved with the client’s care is a nursing responsibility. The nurse is responsible for reinforcing the explanations about the surgery, expected outcome, and type of anesthetic to be used. The obstetrician is responsible for explaining about the surgery and outcome and the anesthesiology staff is responsible for explanations about the type of anesthesia to be used.

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31. When assessing the adequacy of sperm for conception to occur, which of the following is the most useful criterion?

Explanation

Although all of the factors listed are important, sperm motility is the most significant criterion when assessing male infertility. Sperm count, sperm maturity, and semen volume are all significant, but they are not as significant sperm motility.

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32. Which of the following represents the average amount of weight gained during pregnancy?


Explanation

The average amount of weight gained during pregnancy is 24 to 30 lb. This weight gain consists of the following: fetus – 7.5 lb; placenta and membrane – 1.5 lb; amniotic fluid – 2 lb; uterus – 2.5 lb; breasts – 3 lb; and increased blood volume – 2 to 4 lb; extravascular fluid and fat – 4 to 9 lb. A gain of 12 to 22 lb is insufficient, whereas a weight gain of 15 to 25 lb is marginal. A weight gain of 25 to 40 lb is considered excessive.

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33. When talking with a pregnant client who is experiencing aching swollen, leg veins, the nurse would explain that this is most probably the result of which of the following?

Explanation

Pressure of the growing uterus on blood vessels results in an increased risk for venous stasis in the lower extremities. Subsequently, edema and varicose vein formation may occur. Thrombophlebitis is an inflammation of the veins due to thrombus formation. Pregnancy-induced hypertension is not associated with these symptoms. Gravity plays only a minor role with these symptoms.

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34. Which of the following prenatal laboratory test values would the nurse consider as significant?

Explanation

A rubella titer should be 1:8 or greater. Thurs, a finding of a titer less than 1:8 is significant, indicating that the client may not possess immunity to rubella. A hematocrit of 33.5% a white blood cell count of 8,000/mm3, and a 1 hour glucose challenge test of 110 g/dl are with normal parameters.

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35. Which of the following characteristics of contractions would the nurse expect to find in a client experiencing true labor?

Explanation

With true labor, contractions increase in intensity with walking. In addition, true labor contractions occur at regular intervals, usually starting in the back and sweeping around to the abdomen. The interval of true labor contractions gradually shortens.

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36. In which of the following types of spontaneous abortions would the nurse assess dark brown vaginal discharge and a negative pregnancy tests?

Explanation

In a missed abortion, there is early fetal intrauterine death, and products of conception are not expelled. The cervix remains closed; there may be a dark brown vaginal discharge, negative pregnancy test, and cessation of uterine growth and breast tenderness. A threatened abortion is evidenced with cramping and vaginal bleeding in early pregnancy, with no cervical dilation. An incomplete abortion presents with bleeding, cramping, and cervical dilation. An incomplete abortion involves only expulsion of part of the products of conception and bleeding occurs with cervical dilation.

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37. Which of the following nursing interventions would the nurse perform during the third stage of labor?

Explanation

During the third stage of labor, which begins with the delivery of the newborn, the nurse would promote parent-newborn interaction by placing the newborn on the mother’s abdomen and encouraging the parents to touch the newborn. Collecting a urine specimen and other laboratory tests is done on admission during the first stage of labor. Assessing uterine contractions every 30 minutes is performed during the latent phase of the first stage of labor. Coaching the client to push effectively is appropriate during the second stage of labor.

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38. FHR can be auscultated with a fetoscope as early as which of the following?

Explanation

The FHR can be auscultated with a fetoscope at about 20 week’s gestation. FHR usually is ausculatated at the midline suprapubic region with Doppler ultrasound transducer at 10 to 12 week’s gestation. FHR, cannot be heard any earlier than 10 weeks’ gestation.

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39. When PROM occurs, which of the following provides evidence of the nurse’s understanding of the client’s immediate needs?

Explanation

PROM can precipitate many potential and actual problems; one of the most serious is the fetus loss of an effective defense against infection. This is the client’s most immediate need at this time. Typically, PROM occurs about 1 hour, not 4 hours, before labor begins. Fetal viability and gestational age are less immediate considerations that affect the plan of care. Malpresentation and an incompetent cervix may be causes of PROM.

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40. Which of the following are the most commonly assessed findings in cystitis?

Explanation

Manifestations of cystitis include, frequency, urgency, dysuria, hematuria nocturia, fever, and suprapubic pain. Dehydration, hypertension, and chills are not typically associated with cystitis. High fever chills, flank pain, nausea, vomiting, dysuria, and frequency are associated with pvelonephritis.

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41. Which of the following would cause a false-positive result on a pregnancy test?

Explanation

A false-positive reaction can occur if the pregnancy test is performed less than 10 days after an abortion. Performing the tests too early or too late in the pregnancy, storing the urine sample too long at room temperature, or having a spontaneous or missed abortion impending can all produce false-negative results.

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42. When assessing the newborn’s heart rate, which of the following ranges would be considered normal if the newborn were sleeping?

Explanation

The normal heart rate for a newborn that is sleeping is approximately 100 beats per minute. If the newborn was awake, the normal heart rate would range from 120 to 160 beats per minute.

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43. Which of the following is the nurse’s initial action when umbilical cord prolapse occurs?

Explanation

The immediate priority is to minimize pressure on the cord. Thus the nurse’s initial action involves placing the client on bed rest and then placing the client in a knee-chest position or lowering the head of the bed, and elevating the maternal hips on a pillow to minimize the pressure on the cord. Monitoring maternal vital signs and FHR, notifying the physician and preparing the client for delivery, and wrapping the cord with sterile saline soaked warm gauze are important. But these actions have no effect on minimizing the pressure on the cord.

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44. Which of the following best describes thrombophlebitis?


Explanation

Thrombophlebitis refers to an inflammation of the vascular endothelium with clot formation on the wall of the vessel. Blood components combining to form an aggregate body describe a thrombus or thrombosis. Clots lodging in the pulmonary vasculature refers to pulmonary embolism; in the femoral vein, femoral thrombophlebitis.

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45. Which of the following is true regarding the fontanels of the newborn?


Explanation

The anterior fontanel is larger in size than the posterior fontanel. Additionally, the anterior fontanel, which is diamond shaped, closes at 18 months, whereas the posterior fontanel, which is triangular shaped, closes at 8 to 12 weeks. Neither fontanel should appear bulging, which may indicate increased intracranial pressure, or sunken, which may indicate dehydration.

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46. Which of the following when present in the urine may cause a reddish stain on the diaper of a newborn?

Explanation

Uric acid crystals in the urine may produce the reddish “brick dust” stain on the diaper. Mucus would not produce a stain. Bilirubin and iron are from hepatic adaptation.

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47. Which of the following best reflects the frequency of reported postpartum “blues”?

Explanation

According to statistical reports, between 50% and 80% of all new mothers report some form of postpartum blues. The ranges of 10% to 40%, 30% to 50%, and 25% to 70% are incorrect.

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48. A pregnant client states that she “waddles” when she walks. The nurse’s explanation is based on which of the following as the cause?

Explanation

During pregnancy, hormonal changes cause relaxation of the pelvic joints, resulting in the typical “waddling” gait. Changes in posture are related to the growing fetus. Pressure on the surrounding muscles causing discomfort is due to the growing uterus. Weight gain has no effect on gait.

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49. Heartburn and flatulence, common in the second trimester, are most likely the result of which of the following?

Explanation

During the second trimester, the reduction in gastric acidity in conjunction with pressure from the growing uterus and smooth muscle relaxation, can cause heartburn and flatulence. HCG levels increase in the first, not the second, trimester. Decrease intestinal motility would most likely be the cause of constipation and bloating. Estrogen levels decrease in the second trimester.

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50. Barbiturates are usually not given for pain relief during active labor for which of the following reasons?

Explanation

Barbiturates are rapidly transferred across the placental barrier, and lack of an antagonist makes them generally inappropriate during active labor. Neonatal side effects of barbiturates include central nervous system depression, prolonged drowsiness, delayed establishment of feeding (e.g. due to poor sucking reflex or poor sucking pressure). Tranquilizers are associated with neonatal effects such as hypotonia, hypothermia, generalized drowsiness, and reluctance to feed for the first few days. Narcotic analgesic readily cross the placental barrier, causing depressive effects in the newborn 2 to 3 hours after intramuscular injection. Regional anesthesia is associated with adverse reactions such as maternal hypotension, allergic or toxic reaction, or partial or total respiratory failure.

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A client LMP began July 5. Her EDD should be which of the following?
Which of the following danger signs should be reported promptly during...
Which of the following actions demonstrates the nurse’s...
Which of the following urinary symptoms does the pregnant woman most...
Which of the following describes the Babinski reflex?
Which of the following statements best describes hyperemesis...
Which of the following amounts of blood loss following birth marks the...
Which of the following is the primary predisposing factor related to...
Which of the following would the nurse identify as a presumptive sign...
Which of the following is described as premature separation of a ...
When uterine rupture occurs, which of the following would be the...
Which of the following groups of newborn reflexes below are present at...
Which of the following may happen if the uterus becomes overstimulated...
Which of the following assessment findings would the nurse expect if...
 Which of the following common emotional reactions to pregnancy...
On which of the following areas would the nurse expect to observe...
Immediately before expulsion, which of the following cardinal...
Which of the following best describes preterm labor?
A couple who wants to conceive but has been unsuccessful during the ...
During which of the following would the focus of classes be mainly ...
Which of the following would be disadvantage of breast feeding?
Which of the following fundal heights indicates less than 12 weeks’...
Cervical softening and uterine souffle are classified as which of the...
Before birth, which of the following structures connects the right and...
Which of the following factors is the underlying cause of dystocia?
During which of the following stages of labor would the nurse assess...
Which of the following would the nurse identify as a classic sign of...
Which of the following would the nurse assess in a client experiencing...
Which of the following factors would the nurse suspect as predisposing...
When preparing a client for cesarean delivery, which of the ...
When assessing the adequacy of sperm for conception to occur, which of...
Which of the following represents the average amount of weight gained...
When talking with a pregnant client who is experiencing aching ...
Which of the following prenatal laboratory test values would the nurse...
Which of the following characteristics of contractions would the nurse...
In which of the following types of spontaneous abortions would the ...
Which of the following nursing interventions would the nurse perform...
FHR can be auscultated with a fetoscope as early as which of the...
When PROM occurs, which of the following provides evidence of the...
Which of the following are the most commonly assessed findings in...
Which of the following would cause a false-positive result on a...
When assessing the newborn’s heart rate, which of the following ...
Which of the following is the nurse’s initial action when umbilical...
Which of the following best describes thrombophlebitis?
Which of the following is true regarding the fontanels of the newborn?
Which of the following when present in the urine may cause a reddish...
Which of the following best reflects the frequency of reported...
A pregnant client states that she “waddles” when she walks. The ...
Heartburn and flatulence, common in the second trimester, are most...
Barbiturates are usually not given for pain relief during active labor...
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