Maternal And Child Health Practice Test Part 1- By Rnpedia

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  • 1/50 Questions

    When assessing the adequacy of sperm for conception to occur, which of the following is the most useful criterion?

    • Sperm count
    • Sperm motility
    • Sperm maturity
    • Semen volume
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Maternal And Child Health Practice Test Part 1- By Rnpedia - Quiz

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  • 2. 

    A couple who wants to conceive but has been unsuccessful during the last 2 years has undergone many diagnostic procedures. When discussing the situation with the nurse, one partner states, “We know several friends in our age group and all of them have their own child already, Why can’t we have one?”. Which of the following would be the most pertinent nursing diagnosis for this couple?

    • Fear related to the unknown

    • Pain related to numerous procedures.

    • Ineffective family coping related to infertility.

    • Self-esteem disturbance related to infertility.

    Correct Answer
    A. Self-esteem disturbance related to infertility.
    Explanation
    Based on the partner’s statement, the couple is verbalizing feelings of inadequacy and negative feelings about themselves and their capabilities. Thus, the nursing diagnosis of self-esteem disturbance is most appropriate. Fear, pain, and ineffective family coping also may be present but as secondary nursing diagnoses.

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  • 3. 

    Which of the following urinary symptoms does the pregnant woman most frequently experience during the first trimester?

    • Dysuria

    • Frequency

    • Incontinence

    • Burning

    Correct Answer
    A. Frequency
    Explanation
    Pressure and irritation of the bladder by the growing uterus during the first trimester is responsible for causing urinary frequency. Dysuria, incontinence, and burning are symptoms associated with urinary tract infections.

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  • 4. 

    Heartburn and flatulence, common in the second trimester, are most likely the result of which of the following?

    • Increased plasma HCG levels

    • Decreased intestinal motility

    • Decreased gastric acidity

    • Elevated estrogen levels

    Correct Answer
    A. Decreased gastric acidity
    Explanation
    During the second trimester, the reduction in gastric acidity in conjunction with pressure from the growing uterus and smooth muscle relaxation, can cause heartburn and flatulence. HCG levels increase in the first, not the second, trimester. Decrease intestinal motility would most likely be the cause of constipation and bloating. Estrogen levels decrease in the second trimester.

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  • 5. 

    On which of the following areas would the nurse expect to observe chloasma?

    • Breast, areola, and nipples

    • Chest, neck, arms, and legs

    • Abdomen, breast, and thighs

    • Cheeks, forehead, and nose

    Correct Answer
    A. Cheeks, forehead, and nose
    Explanation
    Chloasma, also called the mask of pregnancy, is an irregular hyperpigmented area found on the face. It is not seen on the breasts, areola, nipples, chest, neck, arms, legs, abdomen, or thighs.

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  • 6. 

    A pregnant client states that she “waddles” when she walks. The nurse’s explanation is based on which of the following as the cause?

    • The large size of the newborn

    • Pressure on the pelvic muscles

    • Relaxation of the pelvic joints

    • Excessive weight gain

    Correct Answer
    A. Relaxation of the pelvic joints
    Explanation
    During pregnancy, hormonal changes cause relaxation of the pelvic joints, resulting in the typical “waddling” gait. Changes in posture are related to the growing fetus. Pressure on the surrounding muscles causing discomfort is due to the growing uterus. Weight gain has no effect on gait.

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  • 7. 

    Which of the following represents the average amount of weight gained during pregnancy?

    • 12 to 22 lb

    • 15 to 25 lb

    • 24 to 30 lb

    • 25 to 40 lb

    Correct Answer
    A. 24 to 30 lb
    Explanation
    The average amount of weight gained during pregnancy is 24 to 30 lb. This weight gain consists of the following: fetus – 7.5 lb; placenta and membrane – 1.5 lb; amniotic fluid – 2 lb; uterus – 2.5 lb; breasts – 3 lb; and increased blood volume – 2 to 4 lb; extravascular fluid and fat – 4 to 9 lb. A gain of 12 to 22 lb is insufficient, whereas a weight gain of 15 to 25 lb is marginal. A weight gain of 25 to 40 lb is considered excessive.

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  • 8. 

    When talking with a pregnant client who is experiencing aching swollen, leg veins, the nurse would explain that this is most probably the result of which of the following?

    • Thrombophlebitis

    • Pregnancy-induced hypertension

    • Pressure on blood vessels from the enlarging uterus

    • The force of gravity pulling down on the uterus

    Correct Answer
    A. Pressure on blood vessels from the enlarging uterus
    Explanation
    Pressure of the growing uterus on blood vessels results in an increased risk for venous stasis in the lower extremities. Subsequently, edema and varicose vein formation may occur. Thrombophlebitis is an inflammation of the veins due to thrombus formation. Pregnancy-induced hypertension is not associated with these symptoms. Gravity plays only a minor role with these symptoms.

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  • 9. 

    Cervical softening and uterine souffle are classified as which of the following?

    • Diagnostic signs

    • Presumptive signs

    • Probable signs

    • Positive signs

    Correct Answer
    A. Probable signs
    Explanation
    Cervical softening (Goodell sign) and uterine soufflé are two probable signs of pregnancy. Probable signs are objective findings that strongly suggest pregnancy. Other probable signs include Hegar sign, which is softening of the lower uterine segment; Piskacek sign, which is enlargement and softening of the uterus; serum laboratory tests; changes in skin pigmentation; and ultrasonic evidence of a gestational sac. Presumptive signs are subjective signs and include amenorrhea; nausea and vomiting; urinary frequency; breast tenderness and changes; excessive fatigue; uterine enlargement; and quickening.

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  • 10. 

    Which of the following would the nurse identify as a presumptive sign of pregnancy?

    • Hegar sign

    • Nausea and vomiting

    • Skin pigmentation changes

    • Positive serum pregnancy test

    Correct Answer
    A. Nausea and vomiting
    Explanation
    Presumptive signs of pregnancy are subjective signs. Of the signs listed, only nausea and vomiting are presumptive signs. Hegar sign,skin pigmentation changes, and a positive serum pregnancy test are considered probably signs, which are strongly suggestive of pregnancy.

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  • 11. 

     Which of the following common emotional reactions to pregnancy would the nurse expect to occur during the first trimester?

    • Introversion, egocentrism, narcissism

    • Awkwardness, clumsiness, and unattractiveness

    • Anxiety, passivity, extroversion

    • Ambivalence, fear, fantasies

    Correct Answer
    A. Ambivalence, fear, fantasies
    Explanation
    During the first trimester, common emotional reactions include ambivalence, fear, fantasies, or anxiety. The second trimester is a period of well-being accompanied by the increased need to learn about fetal growth and development. Common emotional reactions during this trimester include narcissism, passivity, or introversion. At times the woman may seem egocentric and self-centered. During the third trimester, the woman typically feels awkward, clumsy, and unattractive, often becoming more introverted or reflective of her own childhood.

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  • 12. 

    During which of the following would the focus of classes be mainly on physiologic changes, fetal development, sexuality, during pregnancy, and nutrition?

    • Prepregnant period

    • First trimester

    • Second trimester

    • Third trimester

    Correct Answer
    A. First trimester
    Explanation
    First-trimester classes commonly focus on such issues as early physiologic changes, fetal development, sexuality during pregnancy, and nutrition. Some early classes may include pregnant couples. Second and third trimester classes may focus on preparation for birth, parenting, and newborn care.

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  • 13. 

    Which of the following would be disadvantage of breast feeding?

    • Involution occurs more rapidly

    • The incidence of allergies increases due to maternal antibodies

    • The father may resent the infant’s demands on the mother’s body

    • There is a greater chance for error during preparation

    Correct Answer
    A. The father may resent the infant’s demands on the mother’s body
    Explanation
    With breast feeding, the father’s body is not capable of providing the milk for the newborn, which may interfere with feeding the newborn, providing fewer chances for bonding, or he may be jealous of the infant’s demands on his wife’s time and body. Breast feeding is advantageous because uterine involution occurs more rapidly, thus minimizing blood loss. The presence of maternal antibodies in breast milk helps decrease the incidence of allergies in the newborn. A greater chance for error is associated with bottle feeding. No preparation is required for breast feeding.

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  • 14. 

    Which of the following would cause a false-positive result on a pregnancy test?

    • The test was performed less than 10 days after an abortion

    • The test was performed too early or too late in the pregnancy

    • The urine sample was stored too long at room temperature

    • A spontaneous abortion or a missed abortion is impending

    Correct Answer
    A. The test was performed less than 10 days after an abortion
    Explanation
    A false-positive reaction can occur if the pregnancy test is performed less than 10 days after an abortion. Performing the tests too early or too late in the pregnancy, storing the urine sample too long at room temperature, or having a spontaneous or missed abortion impending can all produce false-negative results.

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  • 15. 

    FHR can be auscultated with a fetoscope as early as which of the following?

    • 5 weeks gestation

    • 10 weeks gestation

    • 15 weeks gestation

    • 20 weeks gestation

    Correct Answer
    A. 20 weeks gestation
    Explanation
    The FHR can be auscultated with a fetoscope at about 20 week’s gestation. FHR usually is ausculatated at the midline suprapubic region with Doppler ultrasound transducer at 10 to 12 week’s gestation. FHR, cannot be heard any earlier than 10 weeks’ gestation.

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  • 16. 

    A client LMP began July 5. Her EDD should be which of the following?

    • January 2

    • March 28

    • April 12

    • October 12

    Correct Answer
    A. April 12
    Explanation
    To determine the EDD when the date of the client’s LMP is known use Nagele rule. To the first day of the LMP, add 7 days, subtract 3 months, and add 1 year (if applicable) to arrive at the EDD as follows: 5 + 7 = 12 (July) minus 3 = 4 (April). Therefore, the client’s EDD is April 12.

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  • 17. 

    Which of the following fundal heights indicates less than 12 weeks’ gestation when the date of the LMP is unknown?

    • Uterus in the pelvis

    • Uterus at the xiphoid

    • Uterus in the abdomen

    • Uterus at the umbilicus

    Correct Answer
    A. Uterus in the pelvis
    Explanation
    When the LMP is unknown, the gestational age of the fetus is estimated by uterine size or position (fundal height). The presence of the uterus in the pelvis indicates less than 12 weeks’ gestation. At approximately 12 to 14 weeks, the fundus is out of the pelvis above the symphysis pubis. The fundus is at the level of the umbilicus at approximately 20 weeks’ gestation and reaches the xiphoid at term or 40 weeks.

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  • 18. 

    Which of the following danger signs should be reported promptly during the antepartum period?

    • Constipation

    • Breast tenderness

    • Nasal stuffiness

    • Leaking amniotic fluid

    Correct Answer
    A. Leaking amniotic fluid
    Explanation
    Danger signs that require prompt reporting leaking of amniotic fluid, vaginal bleeding, blurred vision, rapid weight gain, and elevated blood pressure. Constipation, breast tenderness, and nasal stuffiness are common discomforts associated with pregnancy.

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  • 19. 

    Which of the following prenatal laboratory test values would the nurse consider as significant?

    • Hematocrit 33.5%

    • Rubella titer less than 1:8

    • White blood cells 8,000/mm3

    • One hour glucose challenge test 110 g/dL

    Correct Answer
    A. Rubella titer less than 1:8
    Explanation
    A rubella titer should be 1:8 or greater. Thurs, a finding of a titer less than 1:8 is significant, indicating that the client may not possess immunity to rubella. A hematocrit of 33.5% a white blood cell count of 8,000/mm3, and a 1 hour glucose challenge test of 110 g/dl are with normal parameters.

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  • 20. 

    Which of the following characteristics of contractions would the nurse expect to find in a client experiencing true labor?

    • Occurring at irregular intervals

    • Starting mainly in the abdomen

    • Gradually increasing intervals

    • Increasing intensity with walking

    Correct Answer
    A. Increasing intensity with walking
    Explanation
    With true labor, contractions increase in intensity with walking. In addition, true labor contractions occur at regular intervals, usually starting in the back and sweeping around to the abdomen. The interval of true labor contractions gradually shortens.

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  • 21. 

    During which of the following stages of labor would the nurse assess “crowning”?

    • First stage

    • Second stage

    • Third stage

    • Fourth stage

    Correct Answer
    A. Second stage
    Explanation
    Crowing, which occurs when the newborn’s head or presenting part appears at the vaginal opening, occurs during the second stage of labor. During the first stage of labor, cervical dilation and effacement occur. During the third stage of labor, the newborn and placenta are delivered. The fourth stage of labor lasts from 1 to 4 hours after birth, during which time the mother and newborn recover from the physical process of birth and the mother’s organs undergo the initial readjustment to the nonpregnant state.

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  • 22. 

    Barbiturates are usually not given for pain relief during active labor for which of the following reasons?

    • The neonatal effects include hypotonia, hypothermia, generalized drowsiness, and reluctance to feed for the first few days.

    • These drugs readily cross the placental barrier, causing depressive effects in the newborn 2 to 3 hours after intramuscular injection.

    • They rapidly transfer across the placenta, and lack of an antagonist make them generally inappropriate during labor.

    • Adverse reactions may include maternal hypotension, allergic or toxic reaction or partial or total respiratory failure

    Correct Answer
    A. They rapidly transfer across the placenta, and lack of an antagonist make them generally inappropriate during labor.
    Explanation
    Barbiturates are rapidly transferred across the placental barrier, and lack of an antagonist makes them generally inappropriate during active labor. Neonatal side effects of barbiturates include central nervous system depression, prolonged drowsiness, delayed establishment of feeding (e.g. due to poor sucking reflex or poor sucking pressure). Tranquilizers are associated with neonatal effects such as hypotonia, hypothermia, generalized drowsiness, and reluctance to feed for the first few days. Narcotic analgesic readily cross the placental barrier, causing depressive effects in the newborn 2 to 3 hours after intramuscular injection. Regional anesthesia is associated with adverse reactions such as maternal hypotension, allergic or toxic reaction, or partial or total respiratory failure.

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  • 23. 

    Which of the following nursing interventions would the nurse perform during the third stage of labor?

    • Obtain a urine specimen and other laboratory tests.

    • Assess uterine contractions every 30 minutes.

    • Coach for effective client pushing

    • Promote parent-newborn interaction.

    Correct Answer
    A. Promote parent-newborn interaction.
    Explanation
    During the third stage of labor, which begins with the delivery of the newborn, the nurse would promote parent-newborn interaction by placing the newborn on the mother’s abdomen and encouraging the parents to touch the newborn. Collecting a urine specimen and other laboratory tests is done on admission during the first stage of labor. Assessing uterine contractions every 30 minutes is performed during the latent phase of the first stage of labor. Coaching the client to push effectively is appropriate during the second stage of labor.

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  • 24. 

    Which of the following actions demonstrates the nurse’s understanding about the newborn’s thermoregulatory ability?

    • Placing the newborn under a radiant warmer.

    • Suctioning with a bulb syringe

    • Obtaining an Apgar score

    • Inspecting the newborn’s umbilical cord

    Correct Answer
    A. Placing the newborn under a radiant warmer.
    Explanation
    The newborn’s ability to regulate body temperature is poor. Therefore, placing the newborn under a radiant warmer aids in maintaining his or her body temperature. Suctioning with a bulb syringe helps maintain a patent airway. Obtaining an Apgar score measures the newborn’s immediate adjustment to extrauterine life. Inspecting the umbilical cord aids in detecting cord anomalies.

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  • 25. 

    Immediately before expulsion, which of the following cardinal movements occur?

    • Descent

    • Flexion

    • Extension

    • External rotation

    Correct Answer
    A. External rotation
    Explanation
    Immediately before expulsion or birth of the rest of the body, the cardinal movement of external rotation occurs. Descent flexion, internal rotation, extension, and restitution (in this order) occur before external rotation.

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  • 26. 

    Before birth, which of the following structures connects the right and left auricles of the heart?

    • Umbilical vein

    • Foramen ovale

    • Ductus arteriosus

    • Ductus venosus

    Correct Answer
    A. Foramen ovale
    Explanation
    The foramen ovale is an opening between the right and left auricles (atria) that should close shortly after birth so the newborn will not have a murmur or mixed blood traveling through the vascular system. The umbilical vein, ductus arteriosus, and ductus venosus are obliterated at birth.

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  • 27. 

    Which of the following when present in the urine may cause a reddish stain on the diaper of a newborn?

    • Mucus

    • Uric acid crystals

    • Bilirubin

    • Excess iron

    Correct Answer
    A. Uric acid crystals
    Explanation
    Uric acid crystals in the urine may produce the reddish “brick dust” stain on the diaper. Mucus would not produce a stain. Bilirubin and iron are from hepatic adaptation.

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  • 28. 

    When assessing the newborn’s heart rate, which of the following ranges would be considered normal if the newborn were sleeping?

    • 80 beats per minute

    • 100 beats per minute

    • 120 beats per minute

    • 140 beats per minute

    Correct Answer
    A. 100 beats per minute
    Explanation
    The normal heart rate for a newborn that is sleeping is approximately 100 beats per minute. If the newborn was awake, the normal heart rate would range from 120 to 160 beats per minute.

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  • 29. 

    Which of the following is true regarding the fontanels of the newborn?

    • The anterior is triangular shaped; the posterior is diamond shaped.

    • The posterior closes at 18 months; the anterior closes at 8 to 12 weeks.

    • The anterior is large in size when compared to the posterior fontanel.

    • The anterior is bulging; the posterior appears sunken.

    Correct Answer
    A. The anterior is large in size when compared to the posterior fontanel.
    Explanation
    The anterior fontanel is larger in size than the posterior fontanel. Additionally, the anterior fontanel, which is diamond shaped, closes at 18 months, whereas the posterior fontanel, which is triangular shaped, closes at 8 to 12 weeks. Neither fontanel should appear bulging, which may indicate increased intracranial pressure, or sunken, which may indicate dehydration.

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  • 30. 

    Which of the following groups of newborn reflexes below are present at birth and remain unchanged through adulthood?

    • Blink, cough, rooting, and gag

    • Blink, cough, sneeze, gag

    • Rooting, sneeze, swallowing, and cough

    • Stepping, blink, cough, and sneeze

    Correct Answer
    A. Blink, cough, sneeze, gag
    Explanation
    Blink, cough, sneeze, swallowing and gag reflexes are all present at birth and remain unchanged through adulthood. Reflexes such as rooting and stepping subside within the first year.

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  • 31. 

    Which of the following describes the Babinski reflex?

    • The newborn’s toes will hyperextend and fan apart from dorsiflexion of the big toe when one side of foot is stroked upward from the ball of the heel and across the ball of the foot.

    • The newborn abducts and flexes all extremities and may begin to cry when exposed to sudden movement or loud noise.

    • The newborn turns the head in the direction of stimulus, opens the mouth, and begins to suck when cheek, lip, or corner of mouth is touched.

    • The newborn will attempt to crawl forward with both arms and legs when he is placed on his abdomen on a flat surface

    Correct Answer
    A. The newborn’s toes will hyperextend and fan apart from dorsiflexion of the big toe when one side of foot is stroked upward from the ball of the heel and across the ball of the foot.
    Explanation
    With the babinski reflex, the newborn’s toes hyperextend and fan apart from dorsiflexion of the big toe when one side of foot is stroked upward form the heel and across the ball of the foot. With the startle reflex, the newborn abducts and flexes all extremities and may begin to cry when exposed to sudden movement of loud noise. With the rooting and sucking reflex, the newborn turns his head in the direction of stimulus, opens the mouth, and begins to suck when the cheeks, lip, or corner of mouth is touched. With the crawl reflex, the newborn will attempt to crawl forward with both arms and legs when he is placed on his abdomen on a flat surface.

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  • 32. 

    Which of the following statements best describes hyperemesis gravidarum?

    • Severe anemia leading to electrolyte, metabolic, and nutritional imbalances in the absence of other medical problems.

    • Severe nausea and vomiting leading to electrolyte, metabolic, and nutritional imbalances in the absence of other medical problems.

    • Loss of appetite and continuous vomiting that commonly results in dehydration and ultimately decreasing maternal nutrients

    • Severe nausea and diarrhea that can cause gastrointestinal irritation and possibly internal bleeding

    Correct Answer
    A. Severe nausea and vomiting leading to electrolyte, metabolic, and nutritional imbalances in the absence of other medical problems.
    Explanation
    The description of hyperemesis gravidarum includes severe nausea and vomiting, leading to electrolyte, metabolic, and nutritional imbalances in the absence of other medical problems. Hyperemesis is not a form of anemia. Loss of appetite may occur secondary to the nausea and vomiting of hyperemesis, which, if it continues, can deplete the nutrients transported to the fetus. Diarrhea does not occur with hyperemesis.

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  • 33. 

    Which of the following would the nurse identify as a classic sign of PIH?

    • Edema of the feet and ankles

    • Edema of the hands and face

    • Weight gain of 1 lb/week

    • Early morning headache

    Correct Answer
    A. Edema of the hands and face
    Explanation
    Edema of the hands and face is a classic sign of PIH. Many healthy pregnant woman experience foot and ankle edema. A weight gain of 2 lb or more per week indicates a problem. Early morning headache is not a classic sign of PIH.

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  • 34. 

    In which of the following types of spontaneous abortions would the nurse assess dark brown vaginal discharge and a negative pregnancy tests?

    • Threatened

    • Imminent

    • Missed

    • Incomplete

    Correct Answer
    A. Missed
    Explanation
    In a missed abortion, there is early fetal intrauterine death, and products of conception are not expelled. The cervix remains closed; there may be a dark brown vaginal discharge, negative pregnancy test, and cessation of uterine growth and breast tenderness. A threatened abortion is evidenced with cramping and vaginal bleeding in early pregnancy, with no cervical dilation. An incomplete abortion presents with bleeding, cramping, and cervical dilation. An incomplete abortion involves only expulsion of part of the products of conception and bleeding occurs with cervical dilation.

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  • 35. 

    Which of the following factors would the nurse suspect as predisposing a client to placenta previa?

    • Multiple gestation

    • Uterine anomalies

    • Abdominal trauma

    • Renal or vascular disease

    Correct Answer
    A. Multiple gestation
    Explanation
    Multiple gestation is one of the predisposing factors that may cause placenta previa. Uterine anomalies abdominal trauma, and renal or vascular disease may predispose a client to abruptio placentae.

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  • 36. 

    Which of the following would the nurse assess in a client experiencing abruptio placenta?

    • Bright red, painless vaginal bleeding

    • Concealed or external dark red bleeding

    • Palpable fetal outline

    • Soft and nontender abdomen

    Correct Answer
    A. Concealed or external dark red bleeding
    Explanation
    A client with abruptio placentae may exhibit concealed or dark red bleeding, possibly reporting sudden intense localized uterine pain. The uterus is typically firm to boardlike, and the fetal presenting part may be engaged. Bright red, painless vaginal bleeding, a palpable fetal outline and a soft nontender abdomen are manifestations of placenta previa.

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  • 37. 

    Which of the following is described as premature separation of a normally implanted placenta during the second half of pregnancy, usually with severe hemorrhage?

    • Placenta previa

    • Ectopic pregnancy

    • Incompetent cervix

    • Abruptio placentae

    Correct Answer
    A. Abruptio placentae
    Explanation
    Abruptio placentae is described as premature separation of a normally implanted placenta during the second half of pregnancy, usually with severe hemorrhage. Placenta previa refers to implantation of the placenta in the lower uterine segment, causing painless bleeding in the third trimester of pregnancy. Ectopic pregnancy refers to the implantation of the products of conception in a site other than the endometrium. Incompetent cervix is a conduction characterized by painful dilation of the cervical os without uterine contractions.

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  • 38. 

    Which of the following may happen if the uterus becomes overstimulated by oxytocin during the induction of labor?

    • Weak contraction prolonged to more than 70 seconds

    • Tetanic contractions prolonged to more than 90 seconds

    • Increased pain with bright red vaginal bleeding

    • Increased restlessness and anxiety

    Correct Answer
    A. Tetanic contractions prolonged to more than 90 seconds
    Explanation
    Hyperstimulation of the uterus such as with oxytocin during the induction of labor may result in tetanic contractions prolonged to more than 90seconds, which could lead to such complications as fetal distress, abruptio placentae, amniotic fluid embolism, laceration of the cervix, and uterine rupture. Weak contractions would not occur. Pain, bright red vaginal bleeding, and increased restlessness and anxiety are not associated with hyperstimulation.

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  • 39. 

    When preparing a client for cesarean delivery, which of the following key concepts should be considered when implementing nursing care?

    • Instruct the mother’s support person to remain in the family lounge until after the delivery

    • Arrange for a staff member of the anesthesia department to explain what to expect postoperatively

    • Modify preoperative teaching to meet the needs of either a planned or emergency cesarean birth

    • Explain the surgery, expected outcome, and kind of anesthetics

    Correct Answer
    A. Modify preoperative teaching to meet the needs of either a planned or emergency cesarean birth
    Explanation
    A key point to consider when preparing the client for a cesarean delivery is to modify the preoperative teaching to meet the needs of either a planned or emergency cesarean birth, the depth and breadth of instruction will depend on circumstances and time available. Allowing the mother’s support person to remain with her as much as possible is an important concept, although doing so depends on many variables. Arranging for necessary explanations by various staff members to be involved with the client’s care is a nursing responsibility. The nurse is responsible for reinforcing the explanations about the surgery, expected outcome, and type of anesthetic to be used. The obstetrician is responsible for explaining about the surgery and outcome and the anesthesiology staff is responsible for explanations about the type of anesthesia to be used.

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  • 40. 

    Which of the following best describes preterm labor?

    • Labor that begins after 20 weeks gestation and before 37 weeks gestation

    • Labor that begins after 15 weeks gestation and before 37 weeks gestation

    • Labor that begins after 24 weeks gestation and before 28 weeks gestation

    • Labor that begins after 28 weeks gestation and before 40 weeks gestation

    Correct Answer
    A. Labor that begins after 20 weeks gestation and before 37 weeks gestation
    Explanation
    Preterm labor is best described as labor that begins after 20 weeks’ gestation and before 37 weeks’ gestation. The other time periods are inaccurate.

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  • 41. 

    When PROM occurs, which of the following provides evidence of the nurse’s understanding of the client’s immediate needs?

    • The chorion and amnion rupture 4 hours before the onset of labor.

    • PROM removes the fetus most effective defense against infection

    • Nursing care is based on fetal viability and gestational age.

    • PROM is associated with malpresentation and possibly incompetent cervix

    Correct Answer
    A. PROM removes the fetus most effective defense against infection
    Explanation
    PROM can precipitate many potential and actual problems; one of the most serious is the fetus loss of an effective defense against infection. This is the client’s most immediate need at this time. Typically, PROM occurs about 1 hour, not 4 hours, before labor begins. Fetal viability and gestational age are less immediate considerations that affect the plan of care. Malpresentation and an incompetent cervix may be causes of PROM.

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  • 42. 

    Which of the following factors is the underlying cause of dystocia?

    • Nurtional

    • Mechanical

    • Environmental

    • Medical

    Correct Answer
    A. Mechanical
    Explanation
    Dystocia is difficult, painful, prolonged labor due to mechanical factors involving the fetus (passenger), uterus (powers), pelvis (passage), or psyche. Nutritional, environment, and medical factors may contribute to the mechanical factors that cause dystocia.

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  • 43. 

    When uterine rupture occurs, which of the following would be the priority?

    • Limiting hypovolemic shock

    • Obtaining blood specimens

    • Instituting complete bed rest

    • Inserting a urinary catheter

    Correct Answer
    A. Limiting hypovolemic shock
    Explanation
    With uterine rupture, the client is at risk for hypovolemic shock. Therefore, the priority is to prevent and limit hypovolemic shock. Immediate steps should include giving oxygen, replacing lost fluids, providing drug therapy as needed, evaluating fetal responses and preparing for surgery. Obtaining blood specimens, instituting complete bed rest, and inserting a urinary catheter are necessary in preparation for surgery to remedy the rupture.

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  • 44. 

    Which of the following is the nurse’s initial action when umbilical cord prolapse occurs?

    • Begin monitoring maternal vital signs and FHR

    • Place the client in a knee-chest position in bed

    • Notify the physician and prepare the client for delivery

    • Apply a sterile warm saline dressing to the exposed cord

    Correct Answer
    A. Place the client in a knee-chest position in bed
    Explanation
    The immediate priority is to minimize pressure on the cord. Thus the nurse’s initial action involves placing the client on bed rest and then placing the client in a knee-chest position or lowering the head of the bed, and elevating the maternal hips on a pillow to minimize the pressure on the cord. Monitoring maternal vital signs and FHR, notifying the physician and preparing the client for delivery, and wrapping the cord with sterile saline soaked warm gauze are important. But these actions have no effect on minimizing the pressure on the cord.

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  • 45. 

    Which of the following amounts of blood loss following birth marks the criterion for describing postpartum hemorrhage?

    • More than 200 ml

    • More than 300 ml

    • More than 400 ml

    • More than 500 ml

    Correct Answer
    A. More than 500 ml
    Explanation
    Postpartum hemorrhage is defined as blood loss of more than 500 ml following birth. Any amount less than this not considered postpartum hemorrhage.

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  • 46. 

    Which of the following is the primary predisposing factor related to mastitis?

    • Epidemic infection from nosocomial sources localizing in the lactiferous glands and ducts

    • Endemic infection occurring randomly and localizing in the periglandular connective tissue

    • Temporary urinary retention due to decreased perception of the urge to avoid

    • Breast injury caused by overdistention, stasis, and cracking of the nipples

    Correct Answer
    A. Breast injury caused by overdistention, stasis, and cracking of the nipples
    Explanation
    With mastitis, injury to the breast, such as overdistention, stasis, and cracking of the nipples, is the primary predisposing factor. Epidemic and endemic infections are probable sources of infection for mastitis. Temporary urinary retention due to decreased perception of the urge to void is a contributory factor to the development of urinary tract infection, not mastitis.

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  • 47. 

    Which of the following best describes thrombophlebitis?

    • Inflammation and clot formation that result when blood components combine to form an aggregate body

    • Inflammation and blood clots that eventually become lodged within the pulmonary blood vessels

    • Inflammation and blood clots that eventually become lodged within the femoral vein

    • Inflammation of the vascular endothelium with clot formation on the vessel wall

    Correct Answer
    A. Inflammation of the vascular endothelium with clot formation on the vessel wall
    Explanation
    Thrombophlebitis refers to an inflammation of the vascular endothelium with clot formation on the wall of the vessel. Blood components combining to form an aggregate body describe a thrombus or thrombosis. Clots lodging in the pulmonary vasculature refers to pulmonary embolism; in the femoral vein, femoral thrombophlebitis.

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  • 48. 

    Which of the following assessment findings would the nurse expect if the client develops DVT?

    • Midcalf pain, tenderness and redness along the vein

    • Chills, fever, malaise, occurring 2 weeks after delivery

    • Muscle pain the presence of Homans sign, and swelling in the affected limb

    • Chills, fever, stiffness, and pain occurring 10 to 14 days after delivery

    Correct Answer
    A. Muscle pain the presence of Homans sign, and swelling in the affected limb
    Explanation
    Classic symptoms of DVT include muscle pain, the presence of Homans sign, and swelling of the affected limb. Midcalf pain, tenderness, and redness, along the vein reflect superficial thrombophlebitis. Chills, fever and malaise occurring 2 weeks after delivery reflect pelvic thrombophlebitis. Chills, fever, stiffness and pain occurring 10 to 14 days after delivery suggest femoral thrombophlebitis.

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  • 49. 

    Which of the following are the most commonly assessed findings in cystitis?

    • Frequency, urgency, dehydration, nausea, chills, and flank pain

    • Nocturia, frequency, urgency dysuria, hematuria, fever and suprapubic pain

    • Dehydration, hypertension, dysuria, suprapubic pain, chills, and fever

    • High fever, chills, flank pain nausea, vomiting, dysuria, and frequency

    Correct Answer
    A. Nocturia, frequency, urgency dysuria, hematuria, fever and suprapubic pain
    Explanation
    Manifestations of cystitis include, frequency, urgency, dysuria, hematuria nocturia, fever, and suprapubic pain. Dehydration, hypertension, and chills are not typically associated with cystitis. High fever chills, flank pain, nausea, vomiting, dysuria, and frequency are associated with pvelonephritis.

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  • Mar 22, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
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  • Aug 25, 2010
    Quiz Created by
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