Maternal And Child Health Practice Test Part 1 (Practice Mode)

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Maternal And Child Health Practice Test Part 1 (Practice Mode) - Quiz

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Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    When assessing the adequacy of sperm for conception to occur, which of the following is the most useful criterion?
    • A. 

      Sperm count

    • B. 

      Sperm motility

    • C. 

      Sperm maturity

    • D. 

      Semen volume

  • 2. 
    A couple who wants to conceive but has been unsuccessful during the last 2 years has undergone many diagnostic procedures. When discussing the situation with the nurse, one partner states, “We know several friends in our age group and all of them have their own child already, Why can’t we have one?”. Which of the following would be the most pertinent nursing diagnosis for this couple?
    • A. 

      Fear related to the unknown

    • B. 

      Pain related to numerous procedures.

    • C. 

      Ineffective family coping related to infertility.

    • D. 

      Self-esteem disturbance related to infertility.

  • 3. 
    Which of the following urinary symptoms does the pregnant woman most frequently experience during the first trimester?
    • A. 

      Dysuria

    • B. 

      Frequency

    • C. 

      Incontinence

    • D. 

      Burning

  • 4. 
    Heartburn and flatulence, common in the second trimester, are most likely the result of which of the following?
    • A. 

      Increased plasma HCG levels

    • B. 

      Decreased intestinal motility

    • C. 

      Decreased gastric acidity

    • D. 

      Elevated estrogen levels

  • 5. 
    On which of the following areas would the nurse expect to observe chloasma?
    • A. 

      Breast, areola, and nipples

    • B. 

      Chest, neck, arms, and legs

    • C. 

      Abdomen, breast, and thighs

    • D. 

      Cheeks, forehead, and nose

  • 6. 
    A pregnant client states that she “waddles” when she walks. The nurse’s explanation is based on which of the following as the cause?
    • A. 

      The large size of the newborn

    • B. 

      Pressure on the pelvic muscles

    • C. 

      Relaxation of the pelvic joints

    • D. 

      Excessive weight gain

  • 7. 
    Which of the following represents the average amount of weight gained during pregnancy?
    • A. 

      12 to 22 lb

    • B. 

      15 to 25 lb

    • C. 

      24 to 30 lb

    • D. 

      25 to 40 lb

  • 8. 
    When talking with a pregnant client who is experiencing aching swollen, leg veins, the nurse would explain that this is most probably the result of which of the following?
    • A. 

      Thrombophlebitis

    • B. 

      Pregnancy-induced hypertension

    • C. 

      Pressure on blood vessels from the enlarging uterus

    • D. 

      The force of gravity pulling down on the uterus

  • 9. 
    Cervical softening and uterine souffle are classified as which of the following?
    • A. 

      Diagnostic signs

    • B. 

      Presumptive signs

    • C. 

      Probable signs

    • D. 

      Positive signs

  • 10. 
    Which of the following would the nurse identify as a presumptive sign of pregnancy?
    • A. 

      Hegar sign

    • B. 

      Nausea and vomiting

    • C. 

      Skin pigmentation changes

    • D. 

      Positive serum pregnancy test

  • 11. 
     Which of the following common emotional reactions to pregnancy would the nurse expect to occur during the first trimester?
    • A. 

      Introversion, egocentrism, narcissism

    • B. 

      Awkwardness, clumsiness, and unattractiveness

    • C. 

      Anxiety, passivity, extroversion

    • D. 

      Ambivalence, fear, fantasies

  • 12. 
    During which of the following would the focus of classes be mainly on physiologic changes, fetal development, sexuality, during pregnancy, and nutrition?
    • A. 

      Prepregnant period

    • B. 

      First trimester

    • C. 

      Second trimester

    • D. 

      Third trimester

  • 13. 
    Which of the following would be disadvantage of breast feeding?
    • A. 

      Involution occurs more rapidly

    • B. 

      The incidence of allergies increases due to maternal antibodies

    • C. 

      The father may resent the infant’s demands on the mother’s body

    • D. 

      There is a greater chance for error during preparation

  • 14. 
    Which of the following would cause a false-positive result on a pregnancy test?
    • A. 

      The test was performed less than 10 days after an abortion

    • B. 

      The test was performed too early or too late in the pregnancy

    • C. 

      The urine sample was stored too long at room temperature

    • D. 

      A spontaneous abortion or a missed abortion is impending

  • 15. 
    FHR can be auscultated with a fetoscope as early as which of the following?
    • A. 

      5 weeks gestation

    • B. 

      10 weeks gestation

    • C. 

      15 weeks gestation

    • D. 

      20 weeks gestation

  • 16. 
    A client LMP began July 5. Her EDD should be which of the following?
    • A. 

      January 2

    • B. 

      March 28

    • C. 

      April 12

    • D. 

      October 12

  • 17. 
    Which of the following fundal heights indicates less than 12 weeks’ gestation when the date of the LMP is unknown?
    • A. 

      Uterus in the pelvis

    • B. 

      Uterus at the xiphoid

    • C. 

      Uterus in the abdomen

    • D. 

      Uterus at the umbilicus

  • 18. 
    Which of the following danger signs should be reported promptly during the antepartum period?
    • A. 

      Constipation

    • B. 

      Breast tenderness

    • C. 

      Nasal stuffiness

    • D. 

      Leaking amniotic fluid

  • 19. 
    Which of the following prenatal laboratory test values would the nurse consider as significant?
    • A. 

      Hematocrit 33.5%

    • B. 

      Rubella titer less than 1:8

    • C. 

      White blood cells 8,000/mm3

    • D. 

      One hour glucose challenge test 110 g/dL

  • 20. 
    Which of the following characteristics of contractions would the nurse expect to find in a client experiencing true labor?
    • A. 

      Occurring at irregular intervals

    • B. 

      Starting mainly in the abdomen

    • C. 

      Gradually increasing intervals

    • D. 

      Increasing intensity with walking

  • 21. 
    During which of the following stages of labor would the nurse assess “crowning”?
    • A. 

      First stage

    • B. 

      Second stage

    • C. 

      Third stage

    • D. 

      Fourth stage

  • 22. 
    Barbiturates are usually not given for pain relief during active labor for which of the following reasons?
    • A. 

      The neonatal effects include hypotonia, hypothermia, generalized drowsiness, and reluctance to feed for the first few days.

    • B. 

      These drugs readily cross the placental barrier, causing depressive effects in the newborn 2 to 3 hours after intramuscular injection.

    • C. 

      They rapidly transfer across the placenta, and lack of an antagonist make them generally inappropriate during labor.

    • D. 

      Adverse reactions may include maternal hypotension, allergic or toxic reaction or partial or total respiratory failure

  • 23. 
    Which of the following nursing interventions would the nurse perform during the third stage of labor?
    • A. 

      Obtain a urine specimen and other laboratory tests.

    • B. 

      Assess uterine contractions every 30 minutes.

    • C. 

      Coach for effective client pushing

    • D. 

      Promote parent-newborn interaction.

  • 24. 
    Which of the following actions demonstrates the nurse’s understanding about the newborn’s thermoregulatory ability?
    • A. 

      Placing the newborn under a radiant warmer.

    • B. 

      Suctioning with a bulb syringe

    • C. 

      Obtaining an Apgar score

    • D. 

      Inspecting the newborn’s umbilical cord

  • 25. 
    Immediately before expulsion, which of the following cardinal movements occur?
    • A. 

      Descent

    • B. 

      Flexion

    • C. 

      Extension

    • D. 

      External rotation

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