Ma / LPN Test

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Ma / LPN Test - Quiz

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Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    Vital signs consist of ...

    • A.

      Temperature, pulse, respiration and blood pressure

    • B.

      Height, weight, temperature and pulse

    • C.

      Heart beats per minute and amount of breaths per minute

    Correct Answer
    A. Temperature, pulse, respiration and blood pressure
    Explanation
    Vital signs are important indicators of a person's overall health and well-being. Temperature, pulse, respiration, and blood pressure are commonly used vital signs that healthcare professionals monitor to assess a patient's condition. Temperature reflects the body's internal balance, pulse measures the heart rate, respiration indicates the breathing rate, and blood pressure measures the force of blood against the walls of the arteries. Monitoring these vital signs allows healthcare providers to detect any abnormalities or changes, helping them make informed decisions about a patient's treatment and care.

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  • 2. 

    The abbreviation MMR stands for measles, mumps, and rabies.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    The given statement is false. The abbreviation MMR stands for measles, mumps, and rubella (not rabies). Measles, mumps, and rubella are three separate viral infections, and the MMR vaccine is a combination vaccine that protects against all three diseases.

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  • 3. 

    Bradycardia is a __________ heartbeat.

    • A.

      Fast

    • B.

      Medium

    • C.

      Slow

    Correct Answer
    C. Slow
    Explanation
    Bradycardia is a term used to describe a slow heartbeat. It is characterized by a heart rate that is lower than the normal range, typically less than 60 beats per minute. This can be caused by various factors such as certain medications, underlying medical conditions, or an imbalance in the electrical signals that regulate the heart's rhythm. Slow heartbeat can lead to symptoms like fatigue, dizziness, and shortness of breath. Treatment options for bradycardia depend on the underlying cause and severity of symptoms, and may include lifestyle changes, medications, or in some cases, implantation of a pacemaker.

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  • 4. 

    Tachycardia is a ____________ heartbeat.

    • A.

      Fast and regular

    • B.

      Fast and irregular

    • C.

      Slow and irregular

    Correct Answer
    A. Fast and regular
    Explanation
    Tachycardia is a condition characterized by a fast and regular heartbeat. This means that the heart is beating at a rapid pace, but the rhythm of the beats remains consistent.

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  • 5. 

    Finger sticks are most often used to monitor...

    • A.

      Glucose

    • B.

      Red blood cells

    • C.

      PT

    Correct Answer
    A. Glucose
    Explanation
    Finger sticks are most often used to monitor glucose levels. This is because finger sticks provide a quick and convenient way to obtain a small blood sample, which can then be tested for glucose levels. Monitoring glucose levels is important for individuals with conditions such as diabetes, as it helps them manage their blood sugar levels and make necessary adjustments to their medication or diet. Finger sticks are not typically used to monitor red blood cells or PT (prothrombin time), which is a measure of blood clotting.

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  • 6. 

    A speculum is used in what type of procedure?

    • A.

      Pap smear

    • B.

      Colonoscopy

    • C.

      MRI

    Correct Answer
    A. Pap smear
    Explanation
    A speculum is a medical instrument used to hold open the walls of the vagina during a pap smear. During a pap smear, a healthcare provider collects cells from the cervix to screen for cervical cancer or other abnormalities. The speculum allows the provider to visualize and access the cervix easily. It is not used in colonoscopy or MRI procedures.

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  • 7. 

    Spirometry testing is used to measure lung capacity.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Spirometry testing is a commonly used diagnostic tool to assess lung function and measure lung capacity. It involves the use of a spirometer, which measures the volume of air that a person can inhale and exhale, as well as the rate at which they can do so. By analyzing the results of spirometry testing, healthcare professionals can evaluate lung health, diagnose respiratory conditions such as asthma or chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), and monitor the effectiveness of treatment interventions. Therefore, the statement that spirometry testing is used to measure lung capacity is true.

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  • 8. 

    A normal O2 level is what?

    • A.

      60% - 70%

    • B.

      92% - 98%

    • C.

      78% - 88%

    Correct Answer
    B. 92% - 98%
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 92% - 98%. This range represents the normal oxygen saturation level in the blood, which indicates how well the lungs are functioning. Oxygen saturation levels below 92% can indicate a potential respiratory problem or inadequate oxygen supply to the body. Therefore, a range of 92% - 98% is considered normal for healthy individuals.

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  • 9. 

    What does SIG stand for?

    • A.

      Signature

    • B.

      How a medication is taken

    • C.

      A diagnosis

    Correct Answer
    B. How a medication is taken
    Explanation
    SIG stands for "Signa" which is a Latin term used in medical prescriptions to indicate how a medication should be taken. It provides instructions on dosage, frequency, and route of administration. Therefore, SIG refers to the specific instructions regarding the administration of a medication.

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  • 10. 

    PT stands for...

    • A.

      Prothrombin time

    • B.

      Part time

    • C.

      Per thousand

    Correct Answer
    A. Prothrombin time
    Explanation
    PT stands for prothrombin time, which is a medical test used to measure the time it takes for blood to clot. It is an important test in monitoring the effectiveness of blood thinning medications, such as warfarin, and in diagnosing bleeding disorders. By measuring the time it takes for blood to clot, PT helps assess the clotting ability of the blood and can indicate if there are any abnormalities or deficiencies in the clotting factors.

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  • 11. 

    The B1 lead is attached at the 4th intercostal space at the right sternal border.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    The statement is true because the B1 lead is indeed attached at the 4th intercostal space at the right sternal border. This is a specific location on the chest where the lead is placed to accurately measure the electrical activity of the heart.

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  • 12. 

    OT stands for ...

    • A.

      Out of time

    • B.

      Occupational therapy

    • C.

      Over the counter

    Correct Answer
    B. Occupational therapy
    Explanation
    OT stands for occupational therapy. Occupational therapy is a healthcare profession that helps people of all ages to overcome physical, mental, or emotional challenges and improve their ability to perform daily activities. Occupational therapists work with individuals to develop or regain skills needed for daily living, such as dressing, eating, and working. They also provide support and strategies for individuals with disabilities or injuries to participate in meaningful activities and achieve their goals.

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  • 13. 

    What does it mean when a doctor gives an impression?

    • A.

      How a patient looks

    • B.

      The diagnosis of a patient

    • C.

      A prescription dosage

    Correct Answer
    B. The diagnosis of a patient
    Explanation
    When a doctor gives an impression, it means that they are providing their professional opinion or diagnosis of a patient's condition. This could involve evaluating the patient's symptoms, conducting tests or examinations, and considering their medical history. The doctor's impression helps to guide further treatment and determine the appropriate course of action for the patient's healthcare.

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  • 14. 

    What is a normal glucose level?

    • A.

      78-99

    • B.

      140-188

    • C.

      59-68

    Correct Answer
    A. 78-99
    Explanation
    A normal glucose level refers to the range of blood sugar levels that are considered healthy. The range of 78-99 is commonly accepted as the normal range for fasting blood glucose levels. This means that a person's blood sugar level should typically fall between 78 and 99 milligrams per deciliter (mg/dL) after an overnight fast. Glucose levels outside of this range may indicate abnormal glucose metabolism and could be a sign of diabetes or other health conditions.

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  • 15. 

    What is a normal blood pressure?

    • A.

      110/76

    • B.

      130/90

    • C.

      95/65

    Correct Answer
    A. 110/76
    Explanation
    A normal blood pressure is typically around 120/80 mmHg. The given answer of 110/76 falls within this range, indicating a normal blood pressure reading. The first number, 110, represents the systolic pressure, which is the pressure in the arteries when the heart beats and pumps blood. The second number, 76, represents the diastolic pressure, which is the pressure in the arteries when the heart is at rest between beats. This blood pressure reading suggests that the individual has a healthy blood pressure level.

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  • 16. 

    The chart used during eye exams is called  a smellen.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    The instrument used during an eye exam is snellen.

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  • 17. 

    The average rectal temperature is...

    • A.

      98.6

    • B.

      99.6

    • C.

      97.6

    Correct Answer
    B. 99.6
    Explanation
    The average rectal temperature is 99.6. This is the typical temperature measured in the rectum, which is considered to be the most accurate method for measuring core body temperature.

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  • 18. 

    The most effective 1:10 solution to use when cleaning equipment and counter tops is what?

    • A.

      1 part bleach and 10 parts water

    • B.

      1 part alcohol and 10 parts water

    • C.

      1 part water and 10 parts bleach

    Correct Answer
    A. 1 part bleach and 10 parts water
    Explanation
    The most effective 1:10 solution to use when cleaning equipment and countertops is 1 part bleach and 10 parts water. Bleach is a powerful disinfectant that can kill a wide range of bacteria, viruses, and fungi. By diluting it with water, it becomes safe to use on surfaces without causing damage. This solution is commonly recommended by health authorities for sanitizing surfaces and reducing the spread of germs. Alcohol may also have some disinfectant properties, but it is not as effective as bleach for killing certain types of pathogens.

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  • 19. 

    Renal failure means what?

    • A.

      Kidney stones

    • B.

      Liver failure

    • C.

      Kidney failure

    Correct Answer
    C. Kidney failure
    Explanation
    Renal failure refers to the condition where the kidneys are unable to properly filter waste products and excess fluids from the blood. This can lead to a buildup of toxins and fluid in the body, causing various health complications. Kidney failure is the correct answer because it accurately describes the condition where the kidneys are no longer able to function properly. Kidney stones and liver failure are incorrect options as they refer to different medical conditions unrelated to renal failure.

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  • 20. 

    You should always reach across a sterile field.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    You should never reach across a sterile field.

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  • 21. 

    Reflux refers to...

    • A.

      Backward or return flow

    • B.

      Hyperextending of limb

    • C.

      Indigestion

    Correct Answer
    A. Backward or return flow
    Explanation
    Reflux refers to the backward or return flow of a substance, typically referring to the movement of fluids in the body. It can occur in various contexts, such as the reflux of stomach acid into the esophagus (gastroesophageal reflux), the reflux of urine from the bladder into the kidneys (vesicoureteral reflux), or the reflux of blood in the veins (venous reflux). This term is used to describe the abnormal movement of substances in a direction opposite to their normal flow.

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  • 22. 

    An auxiliary temperature is taken where?

    • A.

      Under the tongue

    • B.

      Under the armpit

    • C.

      In the rectum

    Correct Answer
    B. Under the armpit
    Explanation
    An auxiliary temperature is taken under the armpit because it is a convenient and non-invasive method. The armpit provides a good approximation of the body's core temperature and is easily accessible. This method is commonly used for quick and simple temperature measurements, especially in children or individuals who may not be able to cooperate for other methods such as oral or rectal temperature measurements.

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  • 23. 

    What are common side effects that children may experience after receiving immunizations?

    • A.

      High fever, swelling at the sight, headaches, breathing difficulties

    • B.

      Increase in appetite

    • C.

      Sleeplessness

    Correct Answer
    A. High fever, swelling at the sight, headaches, breathing difficulties
    Explanation
    Common side effects that children may experience after receiving immunizations include high fever, swelling at the site of injection, headaches, and breathing difficulties. These side effects are often temporary and can be managed with appropriate care. It is important to monitor children after immunizations and seek medical attention if any severe or persistent symptoms occur.

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  • 24. 

    Conjunctivitis is also known as...

    • A.

      An inflammation of the scalp

    • B.

      An inflammation of the joint

    • C.

      Pink eye

    Correct Answer
    C. Pink eye
    Explanation
    Conjunctivitis is commonly referred to as pink eye, which is an inflammation of the conjunctiva, the thin membrane that covers the white part of the eye and the inner surface of the eyelids. This condition causes the eye to become red, itchy, and swollen, and can also result in discharge and blurred vision. The term "pink eye" is widely used to describe this specific type of eye infection, making it the correct answer in this case.

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  • 25. 

    It is ok to call a patient that has received test results and tell them that their tests showed a mass that needs futher testing.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    Never tell a patient pertinent information. Inform them that they need to come in to speak with a physician.

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  • 26. 

    What does a bone scan show?

    • A.

      Any broken or fracture

    • B.

      If you are pregnant

    • C.

      If you have a blood disorder

    Correct Answer
    A. Any broken or fracture
    Explanation
    A bone scan is a medical imaging test that uses a small amount of radioactive material injected into the bloodstream to detect areas of abnormal bone growth or damage. It is primarily used to identify fractures, tumors, infections, or bone diseases such as osteoporosis. Therefore, a bone scan can show any broken or fractured bones, along with other conditions affecting the bones.

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  • 27. 

    The abbreviation AC stands for...

    • A.

      Before meals

    • B.

      After meals

    • C.

      Before bedtime

    Correct Answer
    A. Before meals
    Explanation
    The abbreviation AC stands for "before meals." This means that it is referring to something that should be done or taken before eating a meal. It is commonly used in medical contexts to indicate the timing of medication or other treatments that should be taken prior to having a meal.

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  • 28. 

    The abbreviation D/C stands for...

    • A.

      Discontinue

    • B.

      Discharge

    • C.

      Disconnect

    Correct Answer
    A. Discontinue
    Explanation
    The abbreviation D/C stands for "discontinue." This term is commonly used in medical settings to indicate the cessation or stopping of a treatment, medication, or procedure. It implies that a particular course of action or intervention is being halted or ended. It is important to use this abbreviation accurately and appropriately in medical documentation to ensure clear communication among healthcare professionals.

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  • 29. 

    The abbreviation H stands for...

    • A.

      Hour

    • B.

      Horse

    • C.

      Hormone

    Correct Answer
    A. Hour
    Explanation
    The abbreviation "H" commonly stands for "hour" in various contexts, such as indicating time or duration. It is a unit of measurement used to divide a day into 24 equal parts. In this case, "H" is an abbreviation for "hour" and not for "horse" or "hormone."

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  • 30. 

    The abbreviation NPO stands for...

    • A.

      Nothing by mouth

    • B.

      Not per order

    • C.

      No patient observed

    Correct Answer
    A. Nothing by mouth
    Explanation
    The abbreviation NPO stands for "nothing by mouth." This term is commonly used in medical settings to indicate that a patient should not consume any food or drink orally. It is often prescribed before certain medical procedures or surgeries to ensure that the patient's stomach is empty. By not eating or drinking, the risk of complications during the procedure can be reduced.

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  • 31. 

    The abbreviation OD stands for...

    • A.

      Right eye

    • B.

      Over dose

    • C.

      Order discontinued

    Correct Answer
    A. Right eye
    Explanation
    The abbreviation OD stands for "right eye" in the medical field. It is derived from the Latin term "oculus dexter." In medical documentation, the abbreviation OD is used to indicate the right eye when referring to diagnoses, treatments, or prescriptions. This helps to differentiate between the right and left eye in medical records and ensures accurate communication between healthcare professionals.

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  • 32. 

    The abbreviation OS stands for...

    • A.

      Left eye

    • B.

      Left leg

    • C.

      Left arm

    Correct Answer
    A. Left eye
    Explanation
    The abbreviation OS stands for "oculus sinister" in Latin, which translates to "left eye" in English. In medical terminology, OS is commonly used to refer to the left eye when prescribing medications or documenting eye-related conditions.

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  • 33. 

    The abbreviation OU stands for...

    • A.

      Both eyes

    • B.

      Both legs

    • C.

      Both arms

    Correct Answer
    A. Both eyes
    Explanation
    The abbreviation OU stands for "both eyes" in medical terminology. This abbreviation is commonly used in ophthalmology to indicate that a condition or treatment applies to both eyes. It is important to specify this in medical records and prescriptions to ensure accurate communication and treatment.

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  • 34. 

    The abbreviation HX stands for...

    • A.

      History

    • B.

      Hormone

    • C.

      High blood pressure

    Correct Answer
    A. History
    Explanation
    The abbreviation HX stands for history. This term is commonly used in medical and healthcare settings to refer to a patient's medical history, including past illnesses, surgeries, medications, and other relevant information. It helps healthcare professionals gain a better understanding of a patient's health status and make informed decisions about their care.

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  • 35. 

    The abbreviation PRN stands for...

    • A.

      As needed

    • B.

      Not necessary

    • C.

      Whenever possible

    Correct Answer
    A. As needed
    Explanation
    The abbreviation PRN stands for "as needed". This term is commonly used in medical contexts to indicate that a medication or treatment should be administered when necessary, rather than on a fixed schedule. It allows healthcare professionals to provide care that is tailored to the individual needs of the patient, adjusting the frequency or dosage of the treatment as required.

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  • 36. 

    The abbreviation ASA stands for...

    • A.

      Aspirin

    • B.

      As soon as

    • C.

      American Surgical Association

    Correct Answer
    A. Aspirin
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "aspirin" because ASA is commonly used as an abbreviation for acetylsalicylic acid, which is the active ingredient in aspirin. Aspirin is a widely used medication for pain relief, reducing inflammation, and preventing blood clotting. Therefore, ASA is most likely referring to aspirin in this context.

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  • 37. 

    AFEBRILE is the abbreviation for without fever.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    The given answer is true because "afebrile" is a medical term that is used to describe a person who does not have a fever. The prefix "a-" means "without" and "febrile" refers to fever. Therefore, "afebrile" means "without fever" and is commonly used in medical contexts to indicate the absence of a fever in a patient.

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  • 38. 

    DX is the abbreviation for prescription.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    The abbreviation, DX, stands for diagnosis.

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  • 39. 

    IM is the abbreviation for internal medicine.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    The abbriviation IM stands for intramuscular.

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Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

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  • Mar 21, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
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  • Apr 05, 2010
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