LAW Objective Questions Test

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1/8 Questions

2. The Indian Evidence Act deals with—
- A) ‘presumptio juris’ only
- B) ‘presumptio huminis’ only
- C) None of the above
- D) Both (A) and (B)

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Sample Test Paper for Law Exams by https://uppcsj. Blogspot. Com/

2.

3. In context of the exception of grave and sudden provocation, which of the following is correct
- A) Provocation should not be voluntarily provoked by the offender
- B) Lawful exercise of the right of private defence does not give provocation
- C)Lawful exercise of powers by a public servant in obedience to the law does not amount to provocation
- D) all the above
Correct Answer

A. D) all the above

Explanation

The correct answer is D) all the above. This means that all of the statements A), B), and C) are correct in the context of the exception of grave and sudden provocation. Statement A) states that the provocation should not be voluntarily provoked by the offender. Statement B) states that the lawful exercise of the right of private defence does not give provocation. Statement C) states that the lawful exercise of powers by a public servant in obedience to the law does not amount to provocation.

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3.

5. Under Section 30 of the Hindu Succession Act, 1956, a Hindu can dispose of his interest in a Mitakshara Coparcenary property by-
- A) Will
- B) Gift
- C)Sale
- D)None of the above
Correct Answer

A. A) Will

Explanation

Under Section 30 of the Hindu Succession Act, 1956, a Hindu can dispose of his interest in a Mitakshara Coparcenary property by making a will. This means that a Hindu individual has the legal right to transfer their share in the ancestral property through a will, allowing them to determine who will inherit their portion after their death. This provision gives Hindus the freedom to distribute their property according to their wishes and ensures that their share in the coparcenary property can be passed on to their chosen beneficiaries.

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4.

7. निम्नलिखित में से कौन सामान्यत: अपराध का तत्व है ?
- १ . दुराशय
- २ . चेष्टा
- ३ . हेतु
- ४ . इच्छा
Correct Answer

A. १ . दुराशय

Explanation

The correct answer is 1. दुराशय. In the given options, दुराशय is the only term that can be associated with criminal intent or bad intention. It implies a wrongful desire or intention to commit a crime. The other options, चेष्टा (effort), हेतु (cause), and इच्छा (desire), do not necessarily imply criminal intent.

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2
5.

4. Waging a war ,attempt to wage war, against Indian Govt or abetment to wage war is punishable
- A)Under Sec 120 IPC
- B) Under Sec 121 IPC
- C)Under Sec 122 IPC
- D)Under Sec 123 IPC
Correct Answer

A. B) Under Sec 121 IPC

Explanation

Waging a war, attempting to wage war, or abetting the waging of war against the Indian Government is punishable under Section 121 of the Indian Penal Code (IPC). This section specifically deals with offenses related to waging or attempting to wage war against the Government of India. It outlines the punishment for such acts, which can include imprisonment for life or even the death penalty. Therefore, the correct answer is B) Under Sec 121 IPC.

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6.

6. उच्च न्यायालय के न्यायाधीश की नियुक्ति के लिए कौन सी अर्हता नहीं है -
- A) वह भारत का नागरिक होना चाहिए .
- B) उच्च न्यायालय में कम से कम १० वर्ष तक अधिवक्ता के रूप में अनुभव हो .
- C) उसने ३५ वर्ष की आयु प्राप्त कर ली हो.
- D)उसने भारत में कम से कम 10 वर्ष तक न्यायिक पद धारर्ण किया हो.
Correct Answer

A. D)उसने भारत में कम से कम 10 वर्ष तक न्यायिक पद धारर्ण किया हो.

Explanation

The eligibility criteria for the appointment of a judge in the High Court include being a citizen of India, having a minimum of 10 years of experience as an advocate in the High Court, and having attained the age of 35 years. However, the option D states that the candidate should have held a judicial office in India for at least 10 years. This condition is not a requirement for the appointment of a judge in the High Court.

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1
7.

निम्नलिखित में से कौन सामान्यत: अपराध का तत्व नहीं है ?
- हेतु
- दुराशय
- मानव
- आपराधिक कृत्य
Correct Answer

A. हेतु

Explanation

The correct answer is "हेतु" because it means "cause" or "reason" and is not typically associated with criminal activities.

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8.

1. Which Section of the Indian Evidence Act is related with doctrine of ‘Res ipsa loquitor’ ?
- A) Section 102
- B) Section 104
- C) Section 106
- D) Section 108
Correct Answer

A. C) Section 106

Explanation

Section 106 of the Indian Evidence Act is related to the doctrine of 'Res ipsa loquitor'. Res ipsa loquitor is a Latin term that means "the thing speaks for itself". It is a legal doctrine that allows a plaintiff to establish a presumption of negligence on the part of the defendant based on the occurrence of an accident or injury. In other words, if an accident or injury occurs under circumstances that are not normal or expected, the doctrine of res ipsa loquitor allows the plaintiff to shift the burden of proof to the defendant to show that they were not negligent.

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Mar 22, 2023

Quiz Edited by
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Aug 21, 2011

Quiz Created by
Kmtiwari

Law Objective Questions Test

2. The Indian Evidence Act deals with—

Quiz Preview

3. In context of the exception of grave and sudden provocation, which of the following is correct

5. Under Section 30 of the Hindu Succession Act, 1956, a Hindu can dispose of his interest in a Mitakshara Coparcenary property by-

7. निम्नलिखित में से कौन सामान्यत: अपराध का तत्व है ?

4. Waging a war ,attempt to wage war, against Indian Govt or abetment to wage war is punishable

6. उच्च न्यायालय के न्यायाधीश की नियुक्ति के लिए कौन सी अर्हता नहीं है -

निम्नलिखित में से कौन सामान्यत: अपराध का तत्व नहीं है ?

1. Which Section of the Indian Evidence Act is related with doctrine of ‘Res ipsa loquitor’ ?