ITIL - Practice Exam

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  • 1/205 Questions

    What is RACI model used for?

    • Definig role and rspnsibilities
    • Monitoring services
    • Performance analysis
    • Recording Configuration Items
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ITIL Quizzes & Trivia
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Select the correct choice for each of the following questions and score a perfect!

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  • 2. 

    Which of the following in NOT an example of Self-Help capabilities?

    • Requirement to always call the service desk for service request

    • Menu-driven range of self help and service requests

    • Web front-end

    • A direct interface into the back end procoes handling software

    Correct Answer
    A. Requirement to always call the service desk for service request
    Explanation
    The requirement to always call the service desk for service requests is not an example of self-help capabilities because it does not allow users to independently resolve their issues or make service requests without assistance. Self-help capabilities typically involve menu-driven options, web front-ends, or direct interfaces into the backend processes handling software, which empower users to find solutions or make requests without relying on external support.

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  • 3. 

    Which of the following statements in INCORRECT?

    • The SKMS is part of the Configuration Management System (CMS)

    • The SKMS can include data on the performance of the organization

    • The Service Knowledge Management System(SKMS) includes Configuration Management Databases (CMDB)

    • The SKMS can include user skills levels

    Correct Answer
    A. The SKMS is part of the Configuration Management System (CMS)
    Explanation
    The given statement is incorrect because the SKMS (Service Knowledge Management System) is not a part of the Configuration Management System (CMS). The SKMS is a separate system that includes various components like the Configuration Management Database (CMDB), data on the performance of the organization, and user skill levels. The CMS, on the other hand, focuses specifically on managing and controlling the configurations of an organization's IT systems and infrastructure.

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  • 4. 

    The group that authorizes changes that must be installed faster than then mornal process is called the?

    • Emergency CAB (ECAB)

    • Urgent Change Authority (UCA)

    • Urgent Change Board (UCB)

    • CAB Emergency Committee (CAB/EC)

    Correct Answer
    A. Emergency CAB (ECAB)
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Emergency CAB (ECAB). In organizations, there may be situations where changes need to be implemented urgently due to critical issues or emergencies. The Emergency CAB (ECAB) is a group that authorizes and oversees these urgent changes, ensuring that they are implemented quickly and efficiently. This group is responsible for evaluating the risks and impacts of the changes and making decisions on their implementation. The ECAB is separate from the regular Change Advisory Board (CAB) to expedite the decision-making process and prioritize urgent changes.

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  • 5. 

    In which core publication can you find detailed descriptions of Service Level Management, Availability Management, Supplier Management and IT Service Continuity Managment?

    • Service Transition

    • Service Design

    • Service Strategy

    • Serivce Operation

    Correct Answer
    A. Service Design
    Explanation
    Service Design is the correct answer because it is one of the core publications in ITIL (Information Technology Infrastructure Library) that provides detailed descriptions of Service Level Management, Availability Management, Supplier Management, and IT Service Continuity Management. Service Design focuses on designing and developing IT services that align with the organization's overall business objectives and requirements. It provides guidance on how to design and manage the various aspects of IT services, including service level agreements, availability, suppliers, and continuity.

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  • 6. 

    Which of these statements about Service Desk Staff is CORRECT?

    • Service Desk staff should be recruited from people who have high levels of technical skill to minimise the cost of training them.

    • The Service Desk can oftern be used as a stepping stone for staff to move into other more technical or supervisory roles

    • The Service Desk should try to have a high level of staff turnover as the training requirements are low and this helps to minimise salaries

    • Service Desk staff should be discourage from applying for other roles as it is more cost effective to keep them inthe role where they have been trained

    Correct Answer
    A. The Service Desk can oftern be used as a stepping stone for staff to move into other more technical or supervisory roles
    Explanation
    The correct answer is that the Service Desk can often be used as a stepping stone for staff to move into other more technical or supervisory roles. This means that working at the Service Desk can provide employees with valuable experience and skills that can be used to advance their careers within the organization. It suggests that the Service Desk is seen as a starting point for employees to gain knowledge and expertise before moving on to higher-level positions.

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  • 7. 

    Whcih of the following statements in INCORRECT?

    • The Service Knowledge Management System (SKMS) includes Configuration Management Databases (CMDB)

    • The SKMS is part of the Configuration Management System ( CMS )

    • The SKMS can include data on the performance of the organization

    • The SKMS can include user skill levels

    Correct Answer
    A. The SKMS is part of the Configuration Management System ( CMS )
    Explanation
    The given answer is correct because it states that "The SKMS is part of the Configuration Management System (CMS)" which is incorrect. The Service Knowledge Management System (SKMS) is not a part of the Configuration Management System (CMS). The SKMS is a broader concept that includes various databases, tools, and systems used to manage knowledge and information related to IT services. The CMS, on the other hand, specifically focuses on managing the configuration items and their relationships within the IT infrastructure.

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  • 8. 

    Service Assets are used to create value. Which of the following are the MAJOR types of Service Asset?

    • Services and Infrastructure

    • Applications and Infrastructure

    • Resources and Capabilites

    • Utility and Warranty

    Correct Answer
    A. Resources and Capabilites
    Explanation
    The major types of Service Assets are Resources and Capabilities. Resources refer to the tangible and intangible assets that are used to deliver services, such as hardware, software, facilities, and data. Capabilities, on the other hand, refer to the skills, knowledge, and expertise of the service provider in managing and delivering services. Together, resources and capabilities enable the creation of value for the customers by providing the necessary means and skills to deliver high-quality services.

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  • 9. 

    Whcih of the following is NOT one of the five individual aspects of Service Design?

    • The design of the Service Portfolio, including the Service Catalogue

    • The design of Market Spaces

    • The design of new or changed services

    • The design of the technology architecture and manangment systems

    Correct Answer
    A. The design of Market Spaces
    Explanation
    The design of Market Spaces is not one of the five individual aspects of Service Design. The five individual aspects of Service Design include the design of the Service Portfolio, including the Service Catalogue; the design of new or changed services; and the design of the technology architecture and management systems. The design of Market Spaces is not mentioned as one of the aspects of Service Design.

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  • 10. 

    Which of the following in NOT the responsibility of the Service Catalogue Manager?

    • Ensuring the all operational services are recorded in the Service Catalogue

    • Ensuring the information in the Service Catalogue is accurate

    • Ensuring that information in the Service Catalugue is consistent with information in the Service Portfolio

    • Ensuring that information within the Service Pipeline is accurate

    Correct Answer
    A. Ensuring that information within the Service Pipeline is accurate
    Explanation
    The responsibility of the Service Catalogue Manager is to ensure that all operational services are recorded in the Service Catalogue, ensure the information in the Service Catalogue is accurate, and ensure that information in the Service Catalogue is consistent with information in the Service Portfolio. However, the responsibility of ensuring that information within the Service Pipeline is accurate does not fall under the role of the Service Catalogue Manager.

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  • 11. 

    Which role would you MOST expect to be involved in the management of Underpinning Contracts?

    • Service Catalogue Manager

    • IT Designer/Architect

    • Process Manager

    • Supplier Manager

    Correct Answer
    A. Supplier Manager
    Explanation
    A Supplier Manager is responsible for managing the relationships and contracts with external suppliers. Underpinning Contracts are agreements between an organization and its suppliers that ensure the delivery of goods or services required to support the organization's IT services. Therefore, it is most likely that a Supplier Manager would be involved in the management of Underpinning Contracts. They would negotiate and monitor the contracts, ensuring that the suppliers deliver the agreed-upon services and meet the organization's requirements.

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  • 12. 

    A plan for managing the end of a supplier contract should be created when?

    • The contract is being negotiated

    • The contract is about to be ended

    • The Supplier Manager decides that there is a risk the contract might need to end soon

    • The contract has been agreed

    Correct Answer
    A. The contract is being negotiated
    Explanation
    When a contract is being negotiated, it is important to create a plan for managing the end of the supplier contract. This ensures that both parties are aware of the potential outcomes and have a clear understanding of how the contract will be terminated if necessary. By addressing this issue during the negotiation phase, any potential risks or issues can be identified and mitigated early on, leading to a smoother and more efficient contract termination process if it becomes necessary.

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  • 13. 

    Which of the following sentences BEST describes a Standard Change?

    • A change to the service provider's established policies and guidelines

    • A pre-authorised change that has an accepted and established procedure

    • A change that is made as the result of an audit

    • A change that correctly follows the required change process

    Correct Answer
    A. A pre-authorised change that has an accepted and established procedure
    Explanation
    A Standard Change refers to a pre-authorised change that has a well-defined and accepted procedure. This means that the change has already been approved and documented, and it follows a set process that is established and recognized within the organization. This type of change is typically low risk and can be implemented without the need for further approval or extensive change management activities.

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  • 14. 

    The BEST description of the purpose of Service Operation is?

    • To decide how IT will engage with suppliers during the Service Management Lifecycle

    • To proactively prevent all outages to IT Services

    • To deliver and support IT Services at agreed levels to business users and customers

    • To design and build processes that will meet business needs

    Correct Answer
    A. To deliver and support IT Services at agreed levels to business users and customers
    Explanation
    Service Operation is a stage in the Service Management Lifecycle that focuses on delivering and supporting IT Services to business users and customers. It ensures that the agreed levels of service are provided efficiently and effectively. This includes activities such as incident management, problem management, request fulfillment, and access management. The purpose of Service Operation is to ensure that IT Services are delivered and supported in a way that meets the needs of the business and its users, ultimately contributing to the overall success of the organization.

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  • 15. 

    Which of these statements about Service Desk staff is CORRECT?

    • Service Desk staff should be recruited from people who have high levels of technical skill to minimise the cost of training them

    • Service Desk staff should be discouraged from applying for other roles as it is more cost effective to keep them in the role where they have been trained

    • The Service Desk can often be used as a stepping stone for staff to move into other more technical or supervisory roles

    • He Service Desk should try to have a high level of staff turnover as the training requirements are low and this helps to minimise salaries

    Correct Answer
    A. The Service Desk can often be used as a stepping stone for staff to move into other more technical or supervisory roles
    Explanation
    The correct answer is that the Service Desk can often be used as a stepping stone for staff to move into other more technical or supervisory roles. This means that working in the Service Desk can provide employees with opportunities to gain experience and skills that can help them advance in their careers within the organization. It suggests that the Service Desk is not just a temporary role, but rather a valuable starting point for career growth within the company.

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  • 16. 

    Which of the following questions does Service Strategy help answer with its guidance? 1. How do we prioritize investments across a portfolio? 2. What services to offer and to whom? 3. What are the Patterns of Business Activity (PBA)?

    • 3 Only

    • 1 Only

    • 2 Only

    • All of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. All of the above
    Explanation
    Service Strategy helps answer all of the above questions with its guidance. It provides guidance on how to prioritize investments across a portfolio, determine what services to offer and to whom, and identify the Patterns of Business Activity (PBA). By following the principles and practices outlined in Service Strategy, organizations can make informed decisions about resource allocation, service offerings, and understanding customer needs and demands.

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  • 17. 

    Effective release and deployment management enables the service provider to add value to the business by?

    • Ensuring that all assets are accounted for

    • Ensures that the fastest servers are purchased

    • Delivering change, faster and at optimum cost and minimized risk

    • Verifying the accuracy of all items in the configuration management database

    Correct Answer
    A. Delivering change, faster and at optimum cost and minimized risk
    Explanation
    Effective release and deployment management enables the service provider to deliver change faster, at optimum cost and minimized risk. This means that the organization can implement and deploy new releases or updates to their services or products in a timely manner, ensuring that they stay competitive in the market. By doing so, they can also minimize the costs associated with the release and deployment process, while mitigating any potential risks that may arise during the implementation. This ultimately adds value to the business by allowing them to adapt and respond quickly to customer demands and market changes.

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  • 18. 

    How many times should each stage of the Plan, Do, Check, Act (PDCA) cycle be visited?

    • Each stage should be carried out once in the order Plan-Do-Check-Act

    • There should be a singlePlan,then the Do-Check-Act cycle should be repeated multiple times to implement Continual Improvement

    • There should be a single Plan andDo,then Check and Act should be carried out multiple times to implement Continual Improvement

    • The entire cycle should be repeated multiple times to implement Continual Improvement

    Correct Answer
    A. The entire cycle should be repeated multiple times to implement Continual Improvement
    Explanation
    The PDCA cycle is a continuous improvement process that involves four stages: Plan, Do, Check, and Act. Each stage should be visited at least once in the order of Plan-Do-Check-Act. However, to implement continual improvement, the entire cycle should be repeated multiple times. This ensures that the organization can assess the effectiveness of their actions, make necessary adjustments, and continuously improve their processes.

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  • 19. 

    Within the Continual Service Improvement (CSI) 7 step improvement process, data needs to be gathered and analysed from which other area of the lifecycle in order to answer the question "Did we get there?"?

    • Service Strategy

    • Service Design

    • Service Operation

    • Servie Transition

    Correct Answer
    A. Service Operation
    Explanation
    Within the Continual Service Improvement (CSI) 7 step improvement process, data needs to be gathered and analyzed from the Service Operation phase of the lifecycle in order to answer the question "Did we get there?". This is because Service Operation is responsible for the ongoing management of the services in operation and can provide valuable insights into the performance and effectiveness of the services. By analyzing data from Service Operation, organizations can assess whether they have achieved their desired outcomes and identify areas for improvement.

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  • 20. 

    Which of the following are responsibilities of a Service Level Manager? 1. Agreeing targets in Service Level Agreements 2. Designing the service so it can meet the targets 3. Ensuring all needed contracts and agreements are in place

    • 1 and 3 only

    • All of the above

    • 2 and 3 only

    • 1 and 2 only

    Correct Answer
    A. 1 and 3 only
    Explanation
    The responsibilities of a Service Level Manager include agreeing targets in Service Level Agreements and ensuring all needed contracts and agreements are in place. Designing the service to meet the targets is not specifically mentioned as a responsibility of the Service Level Manager. Therefore, the correct answer is 1 and 3 only.

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  • 21. 

    Which of the following combinations covers all the roles in Service Asset and Configuration Management?

    • Configuration Administrator/Librarian; Configuration Manager; Service Desk Manager; Configuration Analyst; CMS/tools Administrator

    • Configuration Administrator/Librarian; Service Asset Manager; Configuration Manager; Configuration Analyst; Configuration control board; CMS/tools Administrator

    • Configuration Manager; Configuration Analyst; CMS/tools Administrator; Librarian; Change Manager

    • Configuration Administrator/Librarian; Configuration Manager; Configuration Analyst; Configuration control board; CMS/tools Administrator; Financial Asset Manager

    Correct Answer
    A. Configuration Administrator/Librarian; Service Asset Manager; Configuration Manager; Configuration Analyst; Configuration control board; CMS/tools Administrator
    Explanation
    The correct combination covers all the roles in Service Asset and Configuration Management, including the Configuration Administrator/Librarian, Service Asset Manager, Configuration Manager, Configuration Analyst, Configuration control board, and CMS/tools Administrator. Each role plays a crucial part in managing and maintaining the configuration items and assets within the organization. The Configuration Administrator/Librarian is responsible for managing the configuration items and maintaining the configuration management database. The Service Asset Manager oversees the management of all assets, including configuration items. The Configuration Manager is responsible for the overall management and coordination of the configuration management process. The Configuration Analyst analyzes and evaluates the configuration items and their relationships. The Configuration control board is responsible for reviewing and approving changes to the configuration items. Finally, the CMS/tools Administrator is responsible for the administration and maintenance of the configuration management tools and systems.

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  • 22. 

    In many  organisation the role of Incident Manager is assigned to the Service Desk It is important that the Incident Manager is giver the aurthority to:

    • Only manage incidents effectively through 1st and 2nd line

    • Only manage incidents effectively through the 1st line

    • Only manage incidents effectively through the 3rd line

    • Manage Incidents effectively 1st, 2nd and 3rd line

    Correct Answer
    A. Manage Incidents effectively 1st, 2nd and 3rd line
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Manage Incidents effectively 1st, 2nd and 3rd line". This means that the Incident Manager should have the authority to handle incidents at all levels, including the 1st, 2nd, and 3rd lines of support. This ensures that the Incident Manager can effectively coordinate and resolve incidents across the organization, regardless of the level of complexity or severity. By having authority over all lines of support, the Incident Manager can ensure a streamlined and efficient incident management process.

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  • 23. 

    Which of the following statements is CORRECT?

    • The CMS is part of the Configuration Management Data Base (CMDB)

    • The KEDB and the CMS form part of the larger SKMS

    • The Service Knowledge Management System (SKMS) is part of the CMS

    • The Configuration Management System (CMS) is part of the Known Error Data Base (KEDB)

    Correct Answer
    A. The KEDB and the CMS form part of the larger SKMS
    Explanation
    The correct answer is that the KEDB and the CMS form part of the larger SKMS. This means that the Known Error Data Base (KEDB) and the Configuration Management System (CMS) are components of the Service Knowledge Management System (SKMS). The SKMS is a larger system that encompasses various databases and tools used in managing and storing knowledge related to the services provided by an organization.

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  • 24. 

    The MAIN purpose of the Service Portfolio is to describe services in terms of?

    • Business Value

    • Functionality

    • IT Assets

    • Service Level Requirements

    Correct Answer
    A. Business Value
    Explanation
    The main purpose of the Service Portfolio is to describe services in terms of their business value. This means that the Service Portfolio focuses on understanding and articulating the benefits and outcomes that the services provide to the organization and its customers. It helps to prioritize and align services with the strategic objectives of the business, ensuring that resources are allocated effectively and that the services deliver value. By describing services in terms of their business value, the Service Portfolio enables better decision-making and investment planning for the organization.

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  • 25. 

    Application Management plays a role in all applications. One of the key decisions to which they contribute is?

    • Whether to buy an application or build it

    • Should application development be outsourced

    • Who the vendor of the storage devices will be

    • Where the vendor of an application is located

    Correct Answer
    A. Whether to buy an application or build it
    Explanation
    Application management is responsible for making key decisions regarding applications. One of these decisions is whether to buy an application or build it. This decision involves considering factors such as cost, time, resources, and specific requirements of the organization. Application management evaluates the pros and cons of both options and determines the best course of action for the organization.

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  • 26. 

    What is the entry point or the first level of the V model

    • Service Solution

    • Customer / Business Needs

    • Service Release

    • Service Requirements

    Correct Answer
    A. Customer / Business Needs
    Explanation
    The first level of the V model is the Customer / Business Needs. This is the starting point where the requirements and needs of the customer or business are identified. It is important to understand the customer's goals and objectives in order to develop a service solution that meets their needs. This level sets the foundation for the rest of the V model, guiding the development and implementation of the service requirements, service release, and ultimately the final service solution.

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  • 27. 

    Service Acceptance criteria are used to?

    • Ensure the design stage of the Lifecycle

    • Ensure Portfolio Management is in place

    • Ensure delivery and support of a service

    • Ensure service Key Performance Indicators (KPIs) are reported

    Correct Answer
    A. Ensure delivery and support of a service
    Explanation
    Service acceptance criteria are used to ensure the successful delivery and support of a service. These criteria define the specific requirements and standards that must be met for the service to be considered acceptable. By setting these criteria, organizations can ensure that the service meets the needs and expectations of the customers and stakeholders. This includes criteria related to functionality, performance, reliability, security, and other aspects of the service. By adhering to these criteria, organizations can ensure that the service is delivered and supported effectively, leading to customer satisfaction and business success.

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  • 28. 

    Contracts relating to an outsourced Data Centre would be managed by?

    • Service Desk

    • Facilities Management

    • Technical Management

    • IT Operations Control

    Correct Answer
    A. Facilities Management
    Explanation
    Contracts relating to an outsourced Data Centre would be managed by Facilities Management. This is because Facilities Management is responsible for overseeing and managing the physical infrastructure of a facility, including the management of contracts for services such as maintenance, security, and other facility-related functions. In the case of an outsourced Data Centre, Facilities Management would be responsible for managing the contract with the service provider to ensure that the facility is properly maintained and operated according to the agreed-upon terms and conditions.

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  • 29. 

    Which of the following are Service Desk organisational structures? 1. Local Service Desk 2. Virtual Service Desk 3. IT Help Desk 4. Follow the Sun

    • 2, 3 and 4 only

    • 1, 2 and 4 only

    • 1, 2 and 3 only

    • 1, 3 and 4 only

    Correct Answer
    A. 1, 2 and 4 only
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 1, 2 and 4 only. This is because a Local Service Desk, Virtual Service Desk, and Follow the Sun are all examples of different Service Desk organizational structures. The IT Help Desk is not specifically mentioned as a Service Desk organizational structure in the given options.

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  • 30. 

    Service Management is a set of specialised organisational capabilities for providing value to customers in the form of services". These specialised organisational capabilities include which of the following?

    • Markets and Customers

    • Functions and Processes

    • People, products and technology

    • Applications and Infrastructure

    Correct Answer
    A. Functions and Processes
    Explanation
    Service Management involves the use of functions and processes to provide value to customers in the form of services. Functions refer to the different roles and responsibilities within an organization that contribute to the delivery of services. Processes, on the other hand, are a series of activities that are performed in a coordinated manner to achieve specific objectives. By utilizing functions and processes effectively, organizations can ensure the successful delivery of services to their customers. Therefore, functions and processes are considered to be specialized organizational capabilities in the context of Service Management.

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  • 31. 

    Which of the following is NOT a valid objective of Request Fulfilment?

    • To provide a channel for users to request and receive standard services

    • To update the Service Catalogue with services that may be requested through the Service Desk

    • To provide information to users about what services are available and how to request them

    • To source and deliver the components of standardservicesthat have been requested

    Correct Answer
    A. To update the Service Catalogue with services that may be requested through the Service Desk
  • 32. 

    Effective release and deployment management enables the service provider to add value to the business by?

    • Ensures that the fastest servers are purchased

    • Delivering change, faster and at optimum cost and minimized risk

    • Verifying the accuracy of all items in the configuration management database

    • Ensuring that all assets are accounted for

    Correct Answer
    A. Delivering change, faster and at optimum cost and minimized risk
    Explanation
    Effective release and deployment management enables the service provider to deliver change faster, at optimum cost, and with minimized risk. This means that the organization can implement changes and updates to their services or products more efficiently, reducing the time it takes to bring new features or improvements to customers. By optimizing costs, the service provider can ensure that resources are used effectively and efficiently during the release and deployment process. Minimizing risk is crucial to avoid any potential negative impacts on the business or its customers during the release and deployment of changes.

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  • 33. 

    Which process is responsible for discussing reports with customers showing whether services have met their targets?

    • Availability Management

    • Service Level Management

    • Continual Service Improvement

    • Business Relationship Management

    Correct Answer
    A. Service Level Management
    Explanation
    Service Level Management is the process responsible for discussing reports with customers showing whether services have met their targets. This process is focused on ensuring that agreed service levels are achieved and maintained, and it involves monitoring and reporting on service performance to customers. By discussing reports with customers, Service Level Management can assess whether the services provided have met the agreed-upon targets and make any necessary improvements or adjustments.

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  • 34. 

    What are the three Service Provider business models?

    • Internal Service provider, External Service provider, Outsourced 3rd Party

    • Internal Service Operations provider, External Service Operations provider, Shared Service Unit

    • Internal Service provider, Outsourced 3rd party and Off-shore party

    • Internal Service provider, External Service provider, Shared Service Provider

    Correct Answer
    A. Internal Service provider, External Service provider, Shared Service Provider
    Explanation
    The three Service Provider business models are Internal Service provider, External Service provider, and Shared Service Provider. Internal Service providers are departments within an organization that provide services to other departments. External Service providers are independent organizations that provide services to other organizations. Shared Service Providers are centralized units within an organization that provide services to multiple departments or business units within the same organization. These models represent different ways in which services can be provided within an organization or between organizations.

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  • 35. 

    Which of the following CANNOT be stored and managed by a tool?

    • Data

    • Knowledge

    • Wisdom

    • Information

    Correct Answer
    A. Wisdom
    Explanation
    Wisdom is a higher level of understanding that involves the ability to apply knowledge and experience to make good judgments and decisions. It is a subjective and personal attribute that cannot be stored and managed by a tool. Tools can store and manage data, information, and even knowledge, but wisdom requires human judgment and cannot be automated or stored in a tool.

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  • 36. 

    Which process is responsible for frequently occurring changes where risk and cost are low?

    • Incident Management

    • Requestfulfilment

    • Release and Deployment Management

    • Access management

    Correct Answer
    A. Requestfulfilment
    Explanation
    Request fulfilment is the process responsible for frequently occurring changes where risk and cost are low. This process handles and fulfils service requests from users, such as password resets, access to applications, or hardware/software installations. These types of changes are typically routine and low-risk, and the request fulfilment process ensures that they are handled efficiently and effectively. It focuses on providing a quick and standardized way to fulfil user requests, minimizing disruption and keeping costs low.

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  • 37. 

    Which of the following statements is CORRECT? 1. The only phase of the Service Management Lifecycle where value can be measured is Service Operation 2. All of the phases of the lifecycle are concerned with the value of IT services

    • Both of the above

    • Neither of the above

    • 2 only

    • 1 only

    Correct Answer
    A. 2 only
    Explanation
    All of the phases of the lifecycle are concerned with the value of IT services. This statement implies that each phase of the Service Management Lifecycle, including Service Operation, is focused on delivering value through IT services.

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  • 38. 

    The BEST description of the purpose of Service Operation is?

    • To design and build processes that will meet business needs

    • To deliver and support IT Services at agreed levels to business users and customers

    • To decide how IT will engage with suppliers during the Service Management Lifecycle

    • To proactively prevent all outages to IT Services

    Correct Answer
    A. To deliver and support IT Services at agreed levels to business users and customers
    Explanation
    Service Operation is a phase in the Service Management Lifecycle that focuses on delivering and supporting IT Services at agreed levels to business users and customers. It is responsible for ensuring that the services are available, performing efficiently, and meeting the agreed-upon service levels. This includes activities such as incident management, problem management, request fulfillment, and access management. The purpose of Service Operation is to ensure that the delivered services are meeting the needs of the business and providing value to the customers.

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  • 39. 

    Which of the following is NOT an aim of the Change Management process?

    • Overall business risk is optimised

    • Standardised methods and procedures are used for efficient and prompt handling of all Changes

    • All budgets and expenditures are accounted for

    • All changes to Service Assets and Configuration Items (CIs) are recorded in the Configuration Management system

    Correct Answer
    A. All budgets and expenditures are accounted for
    Explanation
    The aim of the Change Management process is to ensure that all changes to Service Assets and Configuration Items (CIs) are recorded in the Configuration Management system, to use standardized methods and procedures for efficient and prompt handling of all changes, and to optimize overall business risk. However, accounting for all budgets and expenditures is not specifically mentioned as an aim of the Change Management process.

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  • 40. 

    How does Problem Management work with Change Management?

    • By installing changes to fix problems

    • By negotiating with Incident Management for changes in IT for Problem resolution

    • By issuing RFCs for permanent solutions

    • By working with users to change their IT configurations

    Correct Answer
    A. By issuing RFCs for permanent solutions
    Explanation
    Problem Management and Change Management work together by issuing RFCs (Request for Change) for permanent solutions. Problem Management identifies and analyzes recurring issues and incidents to determine the underlying cause. Once the root cause is identified, Change Management is responsible for implementing the necessary changes to prevent future occurrences of the problem. This is done by issuing RFCs, which outline the proposed changes and their impact on the IT environment. By following this process, organizations can ensure that permanent solutions are implemented to address problems and prevent their reoccurrence.

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  • 41. 

    Which of the following statements is CORRECT?

    • The CMS is part of the Configuration Management Data Base (CMDB)

    • The Configuration Management System (CMS) is part of the Known Error Data Base (KEDB)

    • The Service Knowledge Management System (SKMS) is part of the CMS

    • The KEDB and the CMS form part of the larger SKMS

    Correct Answer
    A. The KEDB and the CMS form part of the larger SKMS
    Explanation
    The correct answer is that the Known Error Data Base (KEDB) and the Configuration Management System (CMS) form part of the larger Service Knowledge Management System (SKMS). This means that the KEDB and CMS are components or subsets of the SKMS, which is a broader system that encompasses various knowledge management processes and databases within the service management framework.

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  • 42. 

    Understanding customer usage of services and how this varies over the Business Lifecycle is part of which process?

    • Service Portfolio Management

    • Service Level Management

    • Component Capacity Management

    • Demand Management

    Correct Answer
    A. Demand Management
    Explanation
    Demand Management involves understanding customer usage of services and how it varies over the Business Lifecycle. This process focuses on forecasting and managing customer demand for services, ensuring that the right resources are available to meet customer needs. By analyzing customer usage patterns, organizations can better align their service offerings and capacity planning to meet customer demands effectively. Therefore, understanding customer usage and its variations over the Business Lifecycle is an integral part of Demand Management.

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  • 43. 

    Which is NOT a purpose of Service Transition?

    • Ensure that a service can be managed, operated and supported.

    • Provide quality knowledge of Change, Release and Deployment Mgmt.

    • Plan and manage the capacity and resource requirements to manage a release.

    • Provide training and certification in project management.

    Correct Answer
    A. Provide training and certification in project management.
    Explanation
    The purpose of Service Transition is to ensure that a service can be managed, operated, and supported. It also aims to provide quality knowledge of Change, Release, and Deployment Management, as well as plan and manage the capacity and resource requirements to manage a release. However, providing training and certification in project management is not a purpose of Service Transition.

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  • 44. 

    Which of the following is the BEST definition of an Incident?

    • Loss of ability to operate to specification, or to deliver the required output

    • A change of state which has significance for the management of a Configuration Item or IT Service

    • A warning that a threshold has been reached, something has changed, or a failure has occurred

    • An unplanned interruption to an IT service or reduction in the quality of an IT service

    Correct Answer
    A. An unplanned interruption to an IT service or reduction in the quality of an IT service
    Explanation
    An incident is defined as an unplanned interruption to an IT service or a reduction in the quality of an IT service. This means that an incident refers to any unexpected event that disrupts the normal functioning of an IT service or causes a decrease in its performance. It could be a system failure, a software glitch, a network outage, or any other issue that hinders the delivery of the required output or the ability to operate to specification. The incident may result in a complete service outage or a partial reduction in service quality.

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  • 45. 

    The BEST description of the guidance provided by Service Design is?

    • The design and development of new services

    • The design and development of service improvements

    • The design and development of services and service management processes

    • The day-to-day operation and support of services

    Correct Answer
    A. The design and development of services and service management processes
    Explanation
    Service Design provides guidance for the design and development of services and service management processes. This means that it focuses on creating new services and improving existing ones, while also considering the necessary processes for managing these services effectively. It involves the identification of customer needs, the creation of service blueprints, and the development of service strategies and plans. Service Design aims to ensure that services are designed in a way that meets customer requirements and aligns with the overall business objectives.

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  • 46. 

    To add value to the business, what are the four reasons to monitor and measure?

    • Validate; Direct; Justify; Improve

    • Evaluate; Diagnose; Justify; Intervene

    • Validate; Direct; Justify; Intervene

    • Evaluate; Direct; Justify; Improve

    Correct Answer
    A. Validate; Direct; Justify; Intervene
    Explanation
    Monitoring and measuring are important in adding value to a business for several reasons. Firstly, validation ensures that the business is on the right track and that its actions and decisions are aligned with its goals. Secondly, direction helps in guiding the business towards its objectives by identifying areas that need improvement or adjustment. Thirdly, justification provides evidence and reasoning for the decisions made and the resources allocated. Lastly, intervention allows for timely and appropriate actions to be taken in order to address any issues or challenges that may arise. Overall, these four reasons help in assessing the performance of the business and making informed decisions to enhance its value.

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  • 47. 

    Before embarking on the 7-step Continual Service Improvement (CSI) process, which of the following items need to be identified?

    • Business Objectives,IT Objectives, Process Metrics

    • Process Models, Goals and Objectives

    • Vision and Strategy, Tactical Goals and Operational Goals

    • Business and IT Strategy and Process Definitions

    Correct Answer
    A. Vision and Strategy, Tactical Goals and Operational Goals
    Explanation
    The 7-step Continual Service Improvement (CSI) process requires the identification of Vision and Strategy, Tactical Goals and Operational Goals. This is because before starting the CSI process, it is important to have a clear understanding of the organization's vision and strategy, as well as the goals and objectives at both the tactical and operational levels. This information will guide the improvement efforts and ensure that they are aligned with the overall direction and objectives of the organization.

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  • 48. 

    Which of the following statements is CORRECT for every process? 1. It delivers its primary results to a customer or stakeholder 2. It defines activities that are executed by a single function

    • 2 only

    • 1 only

    • Neither of the above

    • Both of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. 1 only
    Explanation
    Every process delivers its primary results to a customer or stakeholder. This means that the purpose of a process is to produce a specific outcome or deliverable that is valuable to someone outside of the process itself. This could be a product, a service, or any other tangible or intangible result. The second statement, on the other hand, is incorrect. A process may involve multiple functions or departments working together to complete the activities required to achieve the desired outcome.

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  • 49. 

    What is the definition of an Alert?

    • An error message to the user of an application

    • A warning that a threshold has been reached or that something has changed

    • A type of Incident

    • An audit report that indicates areas where IT is not performing according to agreed procedures

    Correct Answer
    A. A warning that a threshold has been reached or that something has changed
    Explanation
    An alert is defined as a warning that a threshold has been reached or that something has changed. It is a notification that is triggered when certain conditions or criteria are met, indicating a potential issue or change in a system or process. It serves to draw attention to the situation and prompt appropriate action or investigation to address the issue or monitor the change.

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Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Jun 23, 2024 +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Jun 23, 2024
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Mar 06, 2012
    Quiz Created by
    KarenBoreland

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