IEC/Core QC Test
Cancel
-
+
QC Prep Questions
- 1.What are the three primarily prescribed Standardized Field Sobriety Tests (SFST) on FAFB?
- A.
Walk and turn, one leg stand, finger to nose
- B.
One leg stand, finger to nose, Romberg Balance
- C.
Horizontal gaze nystagmus, finger to nose, Romberg Balance
- D.
Walk and turn, one leg stand, horizontal gaze nystagmus
- 2.How many visual cues are there for detecting impaired drivers?
- A.
15
- B.
25
- C.
30
- D.
20
- E.
32
- 3.When advance notice is recieved for a Secure Holding Area, the SFCC (Desk) will contact DSWA and request what information?
- A.
Convoy Commander's name, ID card number, estimated time of arrival, nature of the problem
- B.
Convoy Commander's name and the nature of the problem
- C.
Estimated arrival time and the nature of problem
- D.
Convoy Commander's name, ID card number and route of travel
- 4.Suspect actions and behavior (when dealing with a suspected DUI) are documented on ____________.
- A.
AF Form 1361
- B.
DD Form 1920
- C.
DD Form 2501
- D.
AF Form 3545
- 5.What gates may a DOE Safe Secure Transport use when departing the installation?
- A.
Post 1 or Post 2
- B.
Post 2 or McFarlin Gate
- C.
Thorpe and Rambo or Post 2
- D.
Only Post 2
- 6.What is the DD Form 4 and can it be used to gain access to a military installation?
- A.
Reserve Dependent Card, Yes
- B.
Delayed Entry Program (DEP) Identification Card, Yes
- C.
Delayed Entry Program (DEP) Identification Card, No
- D.
Uniformed Services Identification and Privilege Care, Yes
- 7.What is a DD Form 2574?
- A.
Reserve Geneva Conventions ID Card/Active Duty
- B.
U.S. Government Identification Card (DECA)
- C.
Armed Forces Exchange Services ID and Privelege Card
- D.
Base Visitor Pass/ Contractor Pass
- 8.________ is defined as " the entire process of identifying and gathering evidence to determine whether or not a suspect should be apprehended for a DUI violation."
- A.
Detection
- B.
Detention
- C.
DUI Procedures
- D.
DUI Determination
- 9.Personal recogonition, signature and credential check, entry authority list (EAL) and telephone/radio verification are supporting techniques for the Single Badge System.
- A.
True
- B.
False
- 10.There are three separate, distinct phases of a typical DUI Detection, what are they?
- A.
Challenging, contact, apprehension
- B.
Vehicle in motion, personal contact, detainment
- C.
Personal contact,pre-arrest screening, apprehension
- D.
Vehicle in motion, personal contact, pre-arrest screening
- 11.When performing the one leg stand during a standard field sobriety test (SFST) how long should you time the suspect once the test has begun?
- A.
15 secs
- B.
20 secs
- C.
25 secs
- D.
30 secs
- 12.What is the Wing Commander's call sign?
- A.
Alpha
- B.
Tiger
- C.
Cobra
- D.
Charlie
- 13.A Chaiplain's pass allows local religious bodies not associated with Fairchild AFB to do what:
- A.
Enter the installation to visit the club for religious ceremonies only
- B.
Enter the installation to visit the Chapel only
- C.
Enter the installation to visit parishioners that reside in base housing
- D.
Enter the installation and have access to all locations
- 14.If the intoxolizer 5000 fails, where would you transport the suspect for completion of the test?
- A.
Airway Heights Police Department only
- B.
Spokane Valley Police Department only
- C.
Medical Lake Police Department only
- D.
Airway Heights or Medical Lake Police Departments
- 15.During a suspected DUI stop where the suspects vehicle poses a traffic hazard/obstruction, what action would you take to move the vehicle out of the flow of traffic?
- A.
Ask the driver to move the vehicle to a safe location
- B.
Call your Flight Sergeant/Leader and have them move the vehicle
- C.
Have a responding patrol move the vehicle
- D.
Ask the vehicle owner for permission to move the vehicle
- 16.When you confiscate an ID card that s a duplicate, expired, mutilated or not properly completed, you need to notify the SFC for a blotter and entry and accomplish a:
- A.
AF Form 52
- B.
DD Form 52
- C.
AF Form 1168
- D.
AF Form 3545
- 17.Horizontal Gaze Nystagmus (HGN) is defined as:
- A.
An involuntary jerking of the eyes as the gaze toward the sky
- B.
An involuntary jerking of the eyes as they gaze towards the ground
- C.
An involuntary jerking of the eyes as they gaze to the side
- D.
A voluntary jerking of the eyes as they gaze towards the side
- 18.Honary Commanders are required to obtain a vehicle pass before entering the installation.
- A.
True
- B.
False
- 19.The on-coming security member ensures discrepancies noted during the shift are briefed to who?
- A.
Flight Sergeant
- B.
Police Unit
- C.
Security Forces Control Center (SFCC)
- D.
Security Forces Control Center (SFCC) and On-coming Flight Sergeant
- 20.When removed from storage facility (family quarters or SF Armory) POW's and ammunition will be transported
- A.
Weapon in the passenger seat and ammo in the trunk or rearmost compartment of the vehicle
- B.
Ammo in the passenger seat and weapons in the trunk or rearmost compartment of the vehicle
- C.
Weapons and ammo in the trunk or rearmost compartment of the vehicle
- D.
Weapons and ammo anywhere in the vehicle as long as the two items are separated
- 21.What is a Secure Holding Area defined as?
- A.
An unscheduled arrival of a DOE shipment
- B.
A hostile stop of a DOE shipment
- C.
A non-hostile stop of a DOE shipment
- D.
A scheduled arrival of a DOE shipment
- 22.What gives Security Forces the authority to apprehend any persons subject to the UCMJ regardless of rank?
- A.
OPLAN 8010
- B.
Article 31
- C.
RCM 302c article 7b UCMJ
- D.
SFI 31-101
- 23.Driving under the influence (DUI) is described as the operation ar attempted operation of a motor vehicle by a person with a blood alcohol concentration greater th an or equal to __ but less than __ percent.
- A.
.04/.08
- B.
.05/.08
- C.
.06/.08
- D.
.07/.10
- 24.Notification of a Secure Holding Area Arrival may come from who?
- A.
- 25.Who has the responsibility to respond to a off base DOE Secure Holding Area?
- A.
Security Forces
- B.
Air Force OSI
- C.
Civil Authorities
- D.
U.S. Marines
- 26.If hostile elements are in pursuit where would you direct a DOE Secure holding Area convoy to?
- A.
Parade Grounds
- B.
MSA Entry Control Point
- C.
Hot Cargo Pad
- D.
Security Forces Parking Lot
- 27.When a DOE Secure Holding Area is departing from the installation, what gates may be used?
- A.
Post1 or Post2
- B.
Thorpe and Rambo or Post 2
- C.
Post 2 or McFarlin Gate
- D.
Only Post 2
- 28.What actions will you take with traffic at the gate when a Secure Holding Area has entered the base?
- A.
Hold all outgoing traffic and conduct stop check and pass on the inbound vehicles
- B.
Hold all incoming traffic and conduct stop check and pass on the outbound lanes until instructed otherwise
- C.
Hold all incoming traffic and allow outbound traffic to flow normally
- D.
Hold all outbound traffic and allow inbound traffic to flow normally
- 29.The Flight Sergeant/Leader will provide an escort for the convoy to the CSA during a Non-Scheduled, Hostile Secure Holding Area when ___________?
- A.
Requested
- B.
Possible
- C.
Directed
- D.
Annotated in the AL Form 150
- 30.Before administering a breath test, how long must you observe a suspect to ensure they do not ingest any alcoholic beverages or other fluids, regurgitate, vomit, eat, smoke, or chew gum?
- A.
15 minutes
- B.
20 minutes
- C.
25 minutes
- D.
30 minutes
- 31.When a small demonstration or picket line happens at an Installation Entry Control Point, IEC must report details of the demonstration and news media to the SFCC (Desk). What additional actions will the posted IEC perform?
- A.
Remain calm and continue to observe activity
- B.
Initiate a report with media if available
- C.
Allow people to loiter around the entry control point
- D.
Expedite entry of authorized people onto the installation
- 32.What form must be completed as soon as possible after a prisoner escape?
- A.
DD Form 1361
- B.
AF Form 1360
- C.
AF Form 1361
- D.
DD Form 1360
- 33.Who's responsibility is it to immediately conduct an inquiry to determine the reason for loss of control after a prisoner escape?
- A.
CSF
- B.
SFM
- C.
SFOS
- D.
SFOI
- 34.What form will be accomplished when there is a notification of a military member who has been arrested or is in civilian custody for a DUI offense off the installation?
- A.
AF Form 3545 and blotter entry
- B.
DD Form 3545 and blotter entry
- C.
AF Form 1369 and blotter entry
- D.
DD Form 1369 and blotter entry
- 35.During a suspected DUI stop and the suspects vehicle poses a traffic hazard what actions would you take to move the vehicle outof the flow of traffic?
- A.
Ask the driver to move the vehicle to safe location
- B.
Ask the vehicle owner for permission to move the vehicle
- C.
Call your Flight Sergeant/Leader and have them move the vehicle
- D.
Have a responding patrol movethe vehicle
- 36.What actions will be taken by IEC if there is a prisoner escape?
- A.
Initiate stop check and pass procedures on all outbound and inbound lanes
- B.
Initiate stop check and pass procedures on all inbound lanes only
- C.
Initiate stop check and pass procedures on all outbound lanes only
- D.
Continue normal day to day procedures
- 37.How many visual cues are there for detecting impaired drivers?
- A.
15
- B.
20
- C.
25
- D.
30
- E.
35
- 38.When and by whom will testing of the Pop-up barrier and Tire Shredder at Rambo gate be conducted?
- A.
At the begining of shift by the ranking Posted IEC
- B.
The barrier and tire shredder system will be tested between 2200 and 0400 each night by the Flight Sergeant or Senior Patrol
- C.
In the middle of each shift by CSF
- D.
When there is a free moment during the shift by any SF troop
- 39.What form is used to document all suspect actions and behavior when dealing with suspected DUI?
- A.
AF Form 1920
- B.
DD Form 1290
- C.
DD Form 1920
- D.
AF Form 1290
- 40.What process has been made to facilitate emergency entry into restricted/controlled areas?
- A.
Sign/Countersign only
- B.
DRC only
- C.
Emergency entry word
- D.
Sign/Countersign and DRC
- 41.An AF Form 1109 is a ____________.
- A.
Restricted Area Badge
- B.
Visitor/Vehicle Pass
- C.
Visitor Register Log
- D.
Contractor's Pass
- 42.What is the purpose of the Security Reporting and Alerting System?
- A.
Sends reports of unusual incidents involving PL 1,2 and 3 resources up and down the chain of command
- B.
Sends reports of unusual incidents involving PL 1,2 and 3 resources up the chain of command
- C.
Sends reports of unusual incidents involving any resources up and down the chain of command
- D.
Sends reports of unusual incidents involving PL 1,2 and 3 resources down the chain of command
- 43.Do not drive closer than ____ feet to any part of an aircraft unless engaged in loading, unloading or servicing as directed by tech data
- A.
10
- B.
15
- C.
20
- D.
25
- 44.How many pairs of polyethylene gloves must Security Forces Members carry while on duty?
- A.
1 pair
- B.
3 pair
- C.
They dont need any
- D.
2 pair
- 45.Article 2 of the UCMJ states:
- A.
Who is subject to the UCMJ
- B.
Where is subject to the UCMJ
- C.
What is subject to the UCMJ
- D.
The origin of the UCMJ
- 46.During an Alert KLAXXON where does the generation area SRT respond to for administering the sign/countersign?
- A.
Echo 1
- B.
Taxiway Hotel
- C.
Echo 2
- D.
Taxiway Golf and Gate 23 Road
- 47.When Collecting evidence that is possibly contaminated, place the item in a container and seal the container. On the outside of the container identify the contents and clearly label it?
- A.
HAZARD
- B.
UNK-HIV/HBV
- C.
CONTAMINATED-UNK HIV/HBV HAZARD
- D.
HAZARD-UNK HIV/HBV CONTAMINATED
- 48.What Form is used to release a military member charged with Drunken Operation of Vehicle or DVI?
- A.
AF Form 2708
- B.
DD Form 2708
- C.
AF Form 1168
- D.
AF Form 1361
- 49.Individuals carrying classified material off the installation need to possess what form?
- A.
AF Form 2501
- B.
DD Form 2501
- C.
DD Form 2708
- D.
DD Form 2574
- 50.What is a Checklist 1000?
- A.
Radio Duress
- B.
Telephoned duress
- C.
Radio Frequency comprimised
- D.
Radio jamming
- 51.Visitors requesting access to the installation will need to process through ESF to obtain what form?
- A.
AF Form 75
- B.
DD Form 75
- C.
AF Form 1168
- D.
AF Form 1297
- 52.Which of the following are PL 3 resources at Fairchild AFB?
- A.
92 ARW KC-135 aircraft
- B.
336 Training Helicopters
- C.
Wing Intel Vault
- D.
All of the above are PL3 Resources
- 53.What is a DD Form 2701?
- A.
Reciept for Inamte or Detained Person
- B.
Initial Information for Victims and Witness's of Crimes
- C.
Authority to Search and Seize
- D.
Accident Report
- 54.Terrorists groups are:
- A.
Trained individuals in a paramilitary force committing an overt or covert act for political gain
- B.
Personnel seeking publicity for their activities which could include penetration of a restricted area. They may use selective, non-lethal, malicious destruction or sabotage
- C.
Personnel whose goal is profit and who desire anonymity and secrecy in the planning phase of their operations
- D.
Personnel requiring anonymity and secrecy to attain their objective. They normally avoid violence or any other act that may compromise their identity or mission
- 55.Political Activists and Demonstrators are:
- A.
Trained individuals in a paramilitary force committing an overt or covert act for political gain
- B.
Personnel seeking publicity for their activities which could include penetration of a restricted area. They may use selective, non-lethal, malicious destruction or sabotage
- C.
Personnel whose goal is profit and who desire anonymity and secrecy in the planning phase of their operations
- D.
Personnel requiring anonymity and secrecy to attain their objective. They normally avoid violence or any other act that may compromise their identity or mission
- 56.What is the speed limit when passing a troop formation?
- A.
5 MPH
- B.
10 MPH
- C.
15 MPH
- D.
20 MPH
- 57.What is the purpose of the Security Reporting and Alerting System?
- A.
To defend against local, coordinated threats to PL 1, 2 or 3 resources
- B.
To defend against widespread, uncoordinated threats to PL 1, 2 or 3 resources
- C.
To defend against widespread, coordinated threats to PL 4 resources
- D.
To defend against widespread, coordinated threats to PL 1, 2 or 3 resources
Back to top
