Ibt Practice Notes

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Ibt Practice Notes - Quiz

Everything and anything I felt the need to highlight and study for the IBT test


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    At the time of initialimmunization of non-mil personnel, a DDform 2766 is established. Which other form can be used to document the imunization?

    • A.

      ICVP-international caertificate of vaccine or prophylaxis

    • B.

      Form 600

    • C.

      AF-1206

    Correct Answer
    A. ICVP-international caertificate of vaccine or prophylaxis
    Explanation
    The correct answer is ICVP - international certificate of vaccine or prophylaxis. This form can be used to document the immunization of non-military personnel during the initial immunization process. It serves as a record of the vaccines or prophylaxis received by an individual, providing documentation of their immunization history. The other forms mentioned, Form 600 and AF-1206, do not specifically pertain to immunization documentation and are not relevant in this context.

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  • 2. 

    What type of vaccines contain long chains of sugar molecules that make up the surface of some bacteria

    • A.

      Polysaccharide

    • B.

      Live virus

    • C.

      HPV

    Correct Answer
    A. Polysaccharide
    Explanation
    Polysaccharide vaccines contain long chains of sugar molecules that make up the surface of some bacteria. These vaccines stimulate the immune system to produce antibodies against the specific polysaccharide, providing protection against the bacteria. By targeting the surface molecules, polysaccharide vaccines can prevent bacterial infections and their associated diseases.

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  • 3. 

    What part of the active ingridient, are used to assist the vaccine to stimulate the production of antibodies

    • A.

      Adjuvants

    • B.

      Polysaccharide

    • C.

      Antigents

    Correct Answer
    A. Adjuvants
    Explanation
    Adjuvants are substances that are added to vaccines to enhance the immune response and stimulate the production of antibodies. They work by enhancing the body's immune response to the vaccine's active ingredient, helping to increase the effectiveness of the vaccine. Adjuvants can be made up of various substances, such as proteins or polysaccharides, and are carefully selected to ensure they are safe and effective in stimulating the immune system.

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  • 4. 

    Any vaccine that is milky or opalescent is likely to have what?

    • A.

      Adjuvants

    • B.

      Polysaccharide

    • C.

      Antigents

    Correct Answer
    A. Adjuvants
    Explanation
    Milky or opalescent appearance in a vaccine indicates the presence of adjuvants. Adjuvants are substances added to vaccines to enhance the immune response and improve their effectiveness. They help in stimulating the immune system, increasing the production of antibodies, and providing longer-lasting immunity. The milky or opalescent appearance is due to the suspension of adjuvants in the vaccine, which helps in their proper distribution and delivery to the immune cells.

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  • 5. 

    Vaccine components not involved in prompting or enhancing the immune responses are called what?

    • A.

      Active ingredients

    • B.

      Inactive ingredients

    • C.

      Antigents

    Correct Answer
    B. Inactive ingredients
    Explanation
    Inactive ingredients are the components in a vaccine that do not play a role in stimulating or enhancing the immune responses. These ingredients are typically added for various purposes such as stabilizing the vaccine, improving its shelf life, or enhancing its appearance or taste. While active ingredients are responsible for triggering an immune response, inactive ingredients are inert substances that do not have any direct impact on the immune system.

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  • 6. 

    What helps the vaccine  retain potency, even when subjected to unfavorable conditions such as light, heat, acidity, vibration,& humidity?

    • A.

      Bacteria

    • B.

      Antigents

    • C.

      Stabilizers

    Correct Answer
    C. Stabilizers
    Explanation
    Stabilizers help the vaccine retain potency even when subjected to unfavorable conditions such as light, heat, acidity, vibration, and humidity. Stabilizers are substances added to vaccines to maintain their stability and prevent degradation. They help protect the vaccine from the harmful effects of external factors and ensure that it remains effective and potent.

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  • 7. 

    What percentage of patients are potential candidates for allergic reactions?

    • A.

      Less than 1%

    • B.

      4%

    • C.

      More than 10%

    Correct Answer
    A. Less than 1%
    Explanation
    Less than 1% of patients are potential candidates for allergic reactions. This suggests that the likelihood of patients experiencing allergic reactions is very low.

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  • 8. 

    What are the three most common ways EPI is supplied

    • A.

      Pre filled, tubex, ampule, auto injector

    • B.

      Auto injector, orally, rectal

    • C.

      Natural response, self injector, sublingual

    Correct Answer
    A. Pre filled, tubex, ampule, auto injector
    Explanation
    The correct answer is pre filled, tubex, ampule, auto injector. These are the three most common ways that EPI (epinephrine) is supplied. Pre filled syringes are pre-loaded with a specific dose of epinephrine and are ready to use. Tubex is a type of syringe that is designed to hold epinephrine and can be manually filled. Ampules are small glass containers that hold a single dose of epinephrine and are typically broken open to extract the medication. Auto injectors are devices that automatically inject a pre-measured dose of epinephrine when activated.

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  • 9. 

    What is the most common post injection adverse event?

    • A.

      Tachycardia

    • B.

      Anaphylactic reaction

    • C.

      Syncope

    Correct Answer
    C. Syncope
    Explanation
    Syncope is the most common post-injection adverse event. Syncope refers to temporary loss of consciousness caused by a sudden drop in blood pressure. It can occur after an injection due to factors such as anxiety, pain, or a vasovagal response. Tachycardia refers to an abnormally fast heart rate, and anaphylactic reaction is a severe allergic reaction. However, syncope is the most common adverse event experienced after an injection.

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  • 10. 

    Where is the volume within a syringe measured?

    • A.

      Point leading to rubber stopper parallel to the desired callibration

    • B.

      Bottom of the rubber stopper parallel to the desired callibration

    • C.

      Middle of the rubber stopper parallel to the desired callibration

    Correct Answer
    A. Point leading to rubber stopper parallel to the desired callibration
    Explanation
    The volume within a syringe is measured at the point leading to the rubber stopper parallel to the desired calibration. This means that the measurement is taken at the point where the liquid reaches within the syringe, just before it reaches the rubber stopper. This ensures accurate measurement of the volume of liquid present in the syringe.

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  • 11. 

    What angle do you inject a needle for intradermal

    • A.

      20 degrees

    • B.

      15 degrees

    • C.

      45 degrees

    Correct Answer
    B. 15 degrees
    Explanation
    The correct angle to inject a needle for intradermal is 15 degrees. This angle is used because it allows the needle to be inserted just below the surface of the skin, into the dermis layer. Injecting at a steeper angle could result in the needle going too deep and causing injury or not reaching the desired layer. Injecting at a shallower angle may not deliver the medication or substance effectively. Therefore, a 15-degree angle is the most appropriate for intradermal injections.

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  • 12. 

    What angle do you inject a needle for  Sub-Q

    • A.

      90 degrees

    • B.

      15 degrees

    • C.

      45 degrees

    Correct Answer
    C. 45 degrees
    Explanation
    When injecting a needle for Sub-Q (subcutaneous) administration, it is recommended to inject at a 45-degree angle. This angle allows for proper delivery of the medication into the subcutaneous tissue, which is the fatty layer just below the skin. Injecting at a 45-degree angle helps ensure that the medication is absorbed effectively and avoids any potential damage to underlying muscles or blood vessels.

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  • 13. 

    What angle do you inject a needle for  IM

    • A.

      90 degrees

    • B.

      15 degrees

    • C.

      45 degrees

    Correct Answer
    A. 90 degrees
    Explanation
    When administering an intramuscular (IM) injection, the needle should be inserted at a 90-degree angle. This angle allows for the needle to penetrate deep enough into the muscle tissue to ensure proper absorption of the medication. Injecting at a 90-degree angle helps to minimize the risk of injecting the medication into subcutaneous tissue, which could lead to slower absorption and potentially less effective results.

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  • 14. 

    A suspension of killed or live-attenuated(weakened) microorganisms is referred to as?

    • A.

      Medication

    • B.

      Vaccine

    • C.

      Live virus

    Correct Answer
    B. Vaccine
    Explanation
    A suspension of killed or live-attenuated microorganisms is referred to as a vaccine. Vaccines are used to stimulate the immune system and provide immunity against specific diseases. They can contain either killed or weakened forms of the microorganism, which help the body recognize and fight off the actual disease-causing agent in the future.

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  • 15. 

    What is the most dangerous aspect of a vasovagal episode

    • A.

      Bradycardia

    • B.

      Injuries obtained from the fall

    • C.

      Tachycardia

    Correct Answer
    B. Injuries obtained from the fall
    Explanation
    The most dangerous aspect of a vasovagal episode is the potential for injuries obtained from the fall. During a vasovagal episode, there is a sudden drop in blood pressure and heart rate, leading to dizziness and loss of consciousness. This can cause the person to fall and potentially sustain injuries such as fractures, head trauma, or internal bleeding. Therefore, the risk of injuries from falling is the most concerning aspect of a vasovagal episode.

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  • 16. 

    Epinephrine is referred to as adrenaline & causes

    • A.

      Vasodilation/ bronchoconstriction

    • B.

      Vasoconstriction/ bronchodilation

    • C.

      Anaphylatic shock

    Correct Answer
    B. Vasoconstriction/ bronchodilation
    Explanation
    Epinephrine, also known as adrenaline, causes vasoconstriction and bronchodilation. Vasoconstriction refers to the narrowing of blood vessels, which increases blood pressure and reduces blood flow to certain areas of the body. Bronchodilation, on the other hand, refers to the relaxation and widening of the airways in the lungs, allowing for easier breathing. These effects of epinephrine are beneficial in emergency situations such as anaphylactic shock, where it helps to improve blood flow and open up the airways to prevent respiratory distress.

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  • 17. 

    Occurs through the administration of a vaccine that contains an antigen

    • A.

      Artificially aquired active immunity

    • B.

      Naturally aquired active immunity

    • C.

      Naturally aquired passive immunity

    Correct Answer
    A. Artificially aquired active immunity
    Explanation
    Artificially acquired active immunity occurs when a person is vaccinated with a vaccine that contains an antigen. The vaccine stimulates the immune system to produce an immune response, including the production of antibodies. This type of immunity is considered active because the person's immune system is actively involved in producing the immune response. It is acquired artificially because it is induced through the administration of a vaccine, rather than through natural exposure to the pathogen.

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  • 18. 

    Occurs when the person is exposed to a live pathogen, develops the disease and becomes immune

    • A.

      Artificially aquired active immunity

    • B.

      Naturally aquired active immunity

    • C.

      Naturally aquired passive immunity

    Correct Answer
    B. Naturally aquired active immunity
    Explanation
    Naturally acquired active immunity occurs when a person is exposed to a live pathogen, develops the disease, and subsequently becomes immune. This means that the person's immune system recognizes the pathogen and produces an immune response, including the production of antibodies. As a result, the person becomes immune to the disease and is protected from future infections. This type of immunity is different from artificially acquired active immunity, which is achieved through vaccination, and naturally acquired passive immunity, which is obtained through the transfer of antibodies from another person or animal.

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  • 19. 

    What type of needle is used when administering smallpox?

    • A.

      Wide tip

    • B.

      Blunt tip

    • C.

      Bifurcated

    Correct Answer
    C. Bifurcated
    Explanation
    A bifurcated needle is used when administering smallpox. This type of needle has two prongs that allow for multiple punctures in the skin, which is necessary for the successful delivery of the smallpox vaccine. The bifurcated needle is specifically designed to create a small, shallow wound that enables the vaccine to be absorbed effectively by the body.

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  • 20. 

    how large of an area do you make for smallpox

    • A.

      3mm

    • B.

      15 mm

    • C.

      5mm

    Correct Answer
    C. 5mm
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 5mm. This suggests that when making an area for smallpox, it should be 5mm in size. This could refer to creating a specific size of a lesion or marking a certain area for vaccination or examination purposes.

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  • 21. 

    There are 2 types of syringe tips. What are they?

    • A.

      Plain and locking

    • B.

      Bevealed and blunt

    • C.

      Retractive safety and plain exposed

    Correct Answer
    A. Plain and locking
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Plain and locking." This answer suggests that there are two types of syringe tips: plain tips and locking tips. Plain tips are likely simple, standard tips that do not have any additional features or mechanisms. Locking tips, on the other hand, may have a locking mechanism that helps secure the needle in place during use.

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  • 22. 

    The most accurate size syringe is the

    • A.

      5ml

    • B.

      10 ml

    • C.

      1 ml

    Correct Answer
    C. 1 ml
    Explanation
    The most accurate size syringe is 1 ml because it has the smallest increment markings on the barrel, allowing for precise measurements of small volumes. This makes it ideal for situations where accuracy is crucial, such as administering medication in small doses or conducting laboratory experiments that require precise measurements. The larger syringes, 5 ml and 10 ml, have larger increment markings and are better suited for larger volumes.

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  • 23. 

    What are the benefits of prepackaged units

    • A.

      Guaranteed accuracy

    • B.

      Convienient for normal use

    • C.

      Especially convenient for emergency situation

    • D.

      All of the above

    Correct Answer
    D. All of the above
    Explanation
    Prepackaged units offer several benefits. Firstly, they guarantee accuracy, ensuring that the correct amount or dosage is provided. Additionally, they are convenient for normal use, as they are ready-to-use and save time. Moreover, prepackaged units are particularly useful in emergency situations, where quick and easy access to necessary items is crucial. Therefore, the correct answer is "All of the above" as it encompasses all the mentioned benefits of prepackaged units.

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  • 24. 

    The guage of a needle is an inverse measurement of the diameter. As the diameter increases, the guage decreases

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    • C.

      Only true for IV needles

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    The statement is true because the gauge of a needle is indeed an inverse measurement of the diameter. In other words, as the diameter of a needle increases, the gauge of the needle decreases. This relationship holds true for all types of needles, not just limited to IV needles.

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  • 25. 

    When preparing a syringe for vaccine administration you notice the package is partially opened. What should you do?

    • A.

      Use it someone accidently opened it

    • B.

      Inspect it and use only if you can tell that it hasn't been used

    • C.

      Throw it away and open a new one

    Correct Answer
    C. Throw it away and open a new one
    Explanation
    If the package of the syringe is partially opened, it is important to prioritize patient safety. Using a syringe that has been partially opened poses a risk of contamination or tampering. Therefore, the correct action is to discard the opened syringe and open a new, sealed one to ensure the integrity and safety of the vaccine administration.

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  • 26. 

    When reconstituting a multi-dose vaccine you should

    • A.

      Leave it on the counter for someone to use up the rest

    • B.

      Label vial with date and time mixed

    • C.

      Throw away what is left to avoid nosocomial infections

    Correct Answer
    B. Label vial with date and time mixed
    Explanation
    When reconstituting a multi-dose vaccine, it is important to label the vial with the date and time mixed. This is necessary to keep track of the expiration date and ensure that the vaccine is used within the recommended time frame. By labeling the vial, healthcare professionals can easily identify when the vaccine was mixed and avoid administering expired or ineffective doses to patients. This practice helps maintain patient safety and ensures the effectiveness of the vaccine.

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  • 27. 

    What is the most commonly used area for the adminstration on intradermal injections?

    • A.

      Ventral surface of forearm

    • B.

      Tricep

    • C.

      Gluteal

    Correct Answer
    A. Ventral surface of forearm
    Explanation
    The most commonly used area for the administration of intradermal injections is the ventral surface of the forearm. This area is preferred because it has a thin layer of skin and a good blood supply, which allows for accurate placement of the injection and easy visualization of any potential reactions or side effects. Additionally, the ventral surface of the forearm is easily accessible and convenient for both the healthcare provider and the patient.

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  • 28. 

    What is the most common site for sub-Q injections

    • A.

      Ventral surface of forearm

    • B.

      Tricep

    • C.

      Gluteal

    Correct Answer
    B. Tricep
    Explanation
    The tricep is the most common site for subcutaneous (sub-Q) injections. This is because the tricep muscle has a good amount of subcutaneous tissue, which allows for easy and safe injection. Additionally, the tricep is easily accessible and provides a large area for injection, making it a convenient site for administering medication.

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  • 29. 

    Which intramuscular injection site presents the most risk because of proximity to the large sciatic nerve

    • A.

      Ventral surface of forearm

    • B.

      Tricep

    • C.

      Gluteal

    Correct Answer
    C. Gluteal
    Explanation
    The gluteal injection site presents the most risk because of its proximity to the large sciatic nerve. The sciatic nerve is the largest nerve in the body and runs down the back of the leg, passing through or near the gluteal region. If an injection is not properly administered in this area, there is a possibility of accidentally hitting or damaging the sciatic nerve, which can result in severe pain, numbness, or even paralysis in the leg. Therefore, extra caution should be taken when administering injections in the gluteal region to avoid any potential harm to the sciatic nerve.

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  • 30. 

    Vaccines can be given in the gluteal area to pedi patients

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    • C.

      Only with permission from the parent

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    False. Vaccines should not be given in the gluteal area to pediatric patients. The gluteal area is not recommended for vaccine administration in children due to the risk of injury to the sciatic nerve and other underlying structures. Instead, vaccines are typically administered in the deltoid muscle of the upper arm or the anterolateral thigh.

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  • 31. 

    Artificially acquired passive immunity results from the administration of a specific

    • A.

      Bacteria

    • B.

      Live virus

    • C.

      Antigen

    • D.

      Antibodies

    Correct Answer
    C. Antigen
    Explanation
    Artificial passive immunity is conferred by the injection of antibodies generated by a different person or animal, or artificially in the laboratory, into an individual. These antibody-containing preparations are termed antisera and are used as a therapeutic treatment when there is a risk of some infections.

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  • 32. 

    The recommended booster dose for the Anthrax vaccine is

    • A.

      Twice a year if continued immunity is needed

    • B.

      Once a month if continued immunity is needed

    • C.

      One a year if continued immunity is needed

    Correct Answer
    C. One a year if continued immunity is needed
    Explanation
    The recommended booster dose for the Anthrax vaccine is one a year if continued immunity is needed. This means that individuals who require ongoing protection against Anthrax should receive a booster shot once every year to maintain their immunity. Regular boosters are necessary because the effectiveness of the vaccine may decrease over time, and a yearly dose helps to ensure that the individual remains protected against the disease.

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  • 33. 

    Bacilus of Calmette and Guerin or BCG is also known as

    • A.

      Guillain-Barre syndrome

    • B.

      Tuberculosis vaccine

    • C.

      Cholera vaccine

    Correct Answer
    B. Tuberculosis vaccine
    Explanation
    BCG, or Bacillus Calmette-Guérin, is a vaccine used to prevent tuberculosis. It is named after the French scientists Albert Calmette and Camille Guérin, who developed it in the early 20th century. BCG is made from a weakened strain of Mycobacterium bovis, a bacterium closely related to the bacteria that cause tuberculosis. When administered, BCG stimulates the immune system to produce a protective response against tuberculosis. It is primarily used in countries with a high incidence of tuberculosis to protect against severe forms of the disease, particularly in children.

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  • 34. 

    PPD stands for

    • A.

      Pneumococcal polysaccharide diploid

    • B.

      Purified protein derivative

    • C.

      Protien polysaccharide diphtheria

    Correct Answer
    B. Purified protein derivative
    Explanation
    PPD stands for purified protein derivative. PPD is a substance that is used in a tuberculin skin test to diagnose tuberculosis. It is derived from the Mycobacterium tuberculosis bacteria and contains various proteins. When injected into the skin, PPD elicits an immune response in individuals who have been exposed to tuberculosis, causing a raised bump or redness at the injection site. By measuring the reaction, healthcare professionals can determine if a person has been infected with tuberculosis.

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  • 35. 

    What helps to Identify any important new safety concerns and therby assist in ensuring that the benefits of vaccines continue to be far greater than the risk

    • A.

      VAERS

    • B.

      LAIV

    • C.

      FDA

    Correct Answer
    A. VAERS
    Explanation
    VAERS, which stands for Vaccine Adverse Event Reporting System, helps to identify any important new safety concerns related to vaccines. It is a national system in the United States that collects and analyzes information about adverse events that occur after vaccination. By monitoring and reporting adverse events, VAERS plays a crucial role in ensuring that the benefits of vaccines outweigh the risks. It helps in tracking and investigating any potential safety issues, allowing for prompt action to be taken to protect public health.

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  • 36. 

    What are the parts of the Syringe?

    • A.

      Plastic, numbers and, rubber stopper

    • B.

      Barrel, plunger, and tip

    • C.

      Barrel, plunger, and needle hub

    Correct Answer
    B. Barrel, plunger, and tip
    Explanation
    The correct answer is barrel, plunger, and tip. A syringe typically consists of three main parts: the barrel, plunger, and tip. The barrel is a cylindrical tube where the medication is stored. The plunger is a rod-like structure that fits inside the barrel and is used to push the medication out of the syringe. The tip is the end of the syringe where the needle is attached. These three parts work together to allow for the accurate measurement and administration of medication.

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  • 37. 

    Smallpox vaccine is administered by what route.

    • A.

      Sub-Q

    • B.

      Intradermal

    • C.

      Percutaneous

    Correct Answer
    C. Percutaneous
    Explanation
    The smallpox vaccine is administered through the percutaneous route. This means that it is administered by puncturing the skin and delivering the vaccine directly into the layers beneath the skin. This method allows for the vaccine to be absorbed quickly and stimulates an immune response against the smallpox virus. Other routes such as subcutaneous (Sub-Q) or intradermal may be used for other vaccines, but for smallpox, percutaneous administration is the correct method.

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  • 38. 

    Smallpox vaccine is administered by how many jabs of the needle

    • A.

      12

    • B.

      15

    • C.

      17

    Correct Answer
    B. 15
    Explanation
    The smallpox vaccine is administered through two jabs of the needle, one for each dose. Each dose is given by inserting the needle into the skin of the upper arm. Therefore, the correct answer is 15, as it represents the total number of jabs required to administer the complete smallpox vaccine.

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  • 39. 

    Which of the following should be considered when selecting a needle for injections

    • A.

      Size of the muscle

    • B.

      Thickness of the adipose tissue at injection site

    • C.

      Volume of material to be administered

    • D.

      All of the above

    Correct Answer
    D. All of the above
    Explanation
    When selecting a needle for injections, several factors should be considered. The size of the muscle is important because it determines the length of the needle needed to reach the desired depth. The thickness of the adipose tissue at the injection site is also crucial as it affects the needle gauge selection. A thicker adipose layer may require a longer or wider needle to ensure proper medication delivery. Additionally, the volume of material to be administered plays a role in needle selection. Larger volumes may require a larger needle to facilitate efficient and timely administration. Therefore, considering all of these factors is essential for selecting the appropriate needle for injections.

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  • 40. 

    Only the purpose and characteristics of the vaccine determine the route of administration

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    • C.

      I don't know

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    The purpose and characteristics of a vaccine do not solely determine the route of administration. While these factors are important, other considerations such as the target population, the vaccine's stability, and the desired immune response also play a role in determining the route of administration. Therefore, it is incorrect to say that only the purpose and characteristics of the vaccine determine the route of administration.

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  • 41. 

    Of the different  sites available for intramuscluar injection for an adult, which site has the best blood supply and the most rapid response

    • A.

      Gluteal

    • B.

      Deltoid

    • C.

      Rectus Femoris

    • D.

      Vastus Lateralis

    Correct Answer
    B. Deltoid
    Explanation
    The deltoid muscle is the correct answer because it has a rich blood supply and a rapid response to intramuscular injections. The deltoid muscle is located in the shoulder area and is easily accessible for injections. Its proximity to major blood vessels allows for efficient absorption of the injected medication into the bloodstream, resulting in a quicker response compared to other injection sites.

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  • 42. 

    Individual receives antibodies manufactured in the bodies of other humans or animals. Inherited through Mother's milk or transplacentally or injected is a form of

    • A.

      Acquired immunity

    • B.

      Passive immunity

    • C.

      Innate Immunity

    Correct Answer
    B. Passive immunity
    Explanation
    Passive immunity refers to the transfer of antibodies from one individual to another, either through mother's milk, transplacentally or through injection. This form of immunity does not involve the individual's own immune system producing antibodies, but rather relies on the antibodies acquired from another source. Therefore, the correct answer is passive immunity.

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  • 43. 

    Monosodium Glutamate (MSG) is used in some vaccines such as Varicella as a

    • A.

      Inactive antigent

    • B.

      Stabilizer

    • C.

      Preservative

    Correct Answer
    B. Stabilizer
    Explanation
    MSG is used as a stabilizer in some vaccines such as Varicella. Stabilizers are substances that help maintain the stability and effectiveness of vaccines by preventing degradation or denaturation of the antigens. By acting as a stabilizer, MSG helps to ensure that the vaccine remains potent and effective throughout its shelf life.

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  • 44. 

    Thimerosal also known as Merthiolate is used as a _________ in vaccines

    • A.

      Inactive antigent

    • B.

      Stabilizer

    • C.

      Preservative

    Correct Answer
    C. Preservative
    Explanation
    Thimerosal, also known as Merthiolate, is used as a preservative in vaccines. Preservatives are added to vaccines to prevent the growth of bacteria and fungi, ensuring the vaccine remains safe and effective throughout its shelf life. Thimerosal contains mercury and has been used in vaccines for decades, although its use has significantly decreased in recent years. It helps to prevent contamination and maintain the integrity of the vaccine, allowing it to be stored and administered safely.

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  • 45. 

    This table is used as a quick reference for daily operations

    • A.

      IAW AFJI 48-110

    • B.

      IAW AFJI 36-09

    • C.

      IAW AFJI 2766 -C

    Correct Answer
    A. IAW AFJI 48-110
    Explanation
    This answer suggests that the table is used as a quick reference for daily operations in accordance with AFJI 48-110. This specific Air Force Joint Instruction provides guidelines and procedures for daily operations, and the table mentioned is likely a tool or resource that helps personnel quickly access the information they need to carry out their daily tasks effectively.

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  • 46. 

    International health threat assesments are conducted by

    • A.

      AFMIC

    • B.

      AAP

    • C.

      FCC

    Correct Answer
    A. AFMIC
    Explanation
    International health threat assessments are conducted by AFMIC (Armed Forces Medical Intelligence Center).

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  • 47. 

    Can waivers for religious reasons be revoked if the mission is compromised?

    • A.

      Yes

    • B.

      No

    • C.

      Only with the consent of the Patient

    Correct Answer
    A. Yes
    Explanation
    Yes, waivers for religious reasons can be revoked if the mission is compromised. This means that if the purpose or objective of the mission is at risk or in danger, the waiver granted for religious reasons can be taken away. This suggests that the need to fulfill the mission or the importance of the mission takes precedence over religious considerations in certain situations.

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  • 48. 

    Who has the responsibility for ensuring that military and nonmilitary personnel who are subject to rapid deployment, receive all required immunizations?

    • A.

      Immediate supervisor

    • B.

      First sargeant

    • C.

      Commander

    Correct Answer
    C. Commander
    Explanation
    The commander has the responsibility for ensuring that military and nonmilitary personnel who are subject to rapid deployment receive all required immunizations. As the highest-ranking officer in charge, the commander has the authority and oversight to ensure the health and well-being of their personnel. They are responsible for making sure that all necessary immunizations are administered to protect the individuals from potential health risks during rapid deployment situations.

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  • 49. 

    When annotating immunizations records, using a signature stamp is authorized

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    • C.

      I don't know

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    Using a signature stamp is not authorized when annotating immunization records. This is because a signature stamp does not provide the necessary authenticity and verification required for such important medical documentation. It is important to have a handwritten signature to ensure the accuracy and legitimacy of the immunization records.

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  • 50. 

    When transcribing an adults immunization record only transcribe immunizations that are

    • A.

      Once in a lifetime

    • B.

      Current

    • C.

      In a series

    • D.

      All of the above

    Correct Answer
    D. All of the above
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "all of the above" because when transcribing an adult's immunization record, all immunizations that are once in a lifetime, current, and in a series should be transcribed. This means that any immunizations that are given only once in a person's lifetime, those that are currently recommended or required, and those that are part of a series or multiple doses should all be included in the transcription of the record.

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