IBM I 6.1 Certified Administrator

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IBM I 6.1 Certified Administrator - Quiz

Test 000-976: IBM i 6.1 Certified Administrator
NOTE: his certification has been replaced by IBM Certified Academic Associate: IBM i 7.1 Administration

Test information: Number of questions: 87 Time allowed in minutes: 105 Required passing score: 55% Test languages: English
Note: There are 87 scored items and 6 unscored items.
(by Rafael Gomez)


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    What is the correct communication object type and attribute for creating an Enterprise Extender connection to another System?

    • A.

      A controller type *EE.

    • B.

      A controller type *HPR.

    • C.

      A virtual device type *EE.

    • D.

      A virtual device type *HPR.

    Correct Answer
    B. A controller type *HPR.
    Explanation
    The correct communication object type and attribute for creating an Enterprise Extender connection to another System is a controller type *HPR. This type of controller is specifically designed for Enterprise Extender connections. The other options, including controller type *EE, virtual device type *EE, and virtual device type *HPR, are not the correct choices for establishing this type of connection.

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  • 2. 

    A customer has a Power 520, serial number 10-12345. It is one of several systems managed by an HMC running Version 7 firmware at TCP/IP address 10.0.0.100. Which of the following describes how to produce a system plan for this system in file MYPLAN.sysplan?

    • A.

      Select system plans from left panel, then select Create System Plan. In the pop-up window, fill in system plan name and description, click OK.

    • B.

      Select 'Service Applications' on the HMC and click the Create System Plan option. In the pop-up window, click the line with 9406-520*1012345, and specify file MYPLAN in the file name prompt.

    • C.

      Launch SPT and click 'Create New Plan.' On the next panel, click the 'Open an Existing System Plan.' In the file prompt, specify https://10.0.0.100/sysplan. After the system plan is loaded from the HMC, save to file MYPLAN.

    • D.

      Select 'System Plans' on the HMC, and then click the 'Import...' button. On the pop-up window, click the line with 9406-520*1012345. When the import completes, click the 'Save...' button and specify file MYPLAN in the file name prompt.

    Correct Answer
    A. Select system plans from left panel, then select Create System Plan. In the pop-up window, fill in system plan name and description, click OK.
    Explanation
    To produce a system plan for the Power 520 system with serial number 10-12345, the correct procedure is to select system plans from the left panel and then select Create System Plan. In the pop-up window, the user should fill in the system plan name and description, and then click OK. This will create a system plan for the specified system, which can be saved in the file MYPLAN.sysplan.

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  • 3. 

    An administrator has been directed to create a new DNS server instance named 'ABC' on an IBM i 6.1 partition. Which of the following overviews correctly describe how to do this?

    • A.

      Open a browser to IBM Systems Director Navigator for IBMi on the partition. Navigate to Network > Server > DNS. Select the 'create' action and follow the prompts.

    • B.

      From a command line, run the CRTTCPDNS command to create the ABC instance definition. Use SEU to edit QUSRSYS/QDNSTBL(ABC) to edit the DNS records for the instance.

    • C.

      In System i Navigator, under the system to host the DNS, navigate to Network > Servers > DNS. Right-click on DNS, then select 'New Name Server'. Follow the prompts.

    • D.

      From a command line, use STRQSH to start the PASE command prompt. Run the script: crdns -n ABC. Use the Edit File (EDTF) command on IFS file /QIBM/UserData/OS400/DNS/ABC.TBL to enter the new DNS records.

    Correct Answer
    C. In System i Navigator, under the system to host the DNS, navigate to Network > Servers > DNS. Right-click on DNS, then select 'New Name Server'. Follow the prompts.
  • 4. 

    Which of the following recovery limit settings allows a communications line to make infinite recovery attempts?

    • A.

      Recovery limit attempts (0), Time interval in minutes (1)

    • B.

      Recovery limit attempts (1), Time interval in minutes (0)

    • C.

      Recovery limit attempts (*NOMAX), Time interval in minutes (0)

    • D.

      Recovery limit attempts (0), Time interval in minutes (*NOMAX)

    Correct Answer
    B. Recovery limit attempts (1), Time interval in minutes (0)
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Recovery limit attempts (1), Time interval in minutes (0)". This setting allows a communications line to make only one recovery attempt without any time interval between attempts.

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  • 5. 

    Which of the following parameters on the SAV command can be used to save the Integrated File System directory /temp/files and all subordinate objects?

    • A.

      OBJ(('/temp/files/') PATTERN(('*')) SUBTREE(*DIR)

    • B.

      OBJ(('/temp/files/*') PATTERN(('*')) SUBTREE(*ALL)

    • C.

      OBJ(('/temp/files/') PATTERN(('*ALL')) SUBTREE(*DIR)

    • D.

      OBJ(('/temp/files/*') PATTERN(('*ANY')) SUBTREE(*ALL)

    Correct Answer
    B. OBJ(('/temp/files/*') PATTERN(('*')) SUBTREE(*ALL)
    Explanation
    The correct answer is OBJ(('/temp/files/*') PATTERN(('*')) SUBTREE(*ALL). This parameter combination specifies that the SAV command should save the directory /temp/files and all of its subordinate objects, using the * pattern to include all objects within the directory. The SUBTREE(*ALL) parameter ensures that all subordinate objects are saved, including directories, files, and symbolic links.

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  • 6. 

    A user's library list contains PRODLIB LIBD. A user typed the following sequence of commands: CHGCURLIB CURLIB(LIBA) ADDLIBLE LIB(LIBB) POSITION(*FIRST) CHGSYSLIBL LIB(LIBC) OPTION(*ADD) All libraries contain a program named PGMUSR which is different in each library. Which program will run if the user types the command CALL PGMUSR?

    • A.

      LIBA/PGMUSR

    • B.

      LIBB/PGMUSR

    • C.

      LIBC/PGMUSR

    • D.

      LIBD/PGMUSR

    Correct Answer
    C. LIBC/PGMUSR
    Explanation
    The user's current library is changed to LIBA using the CHGCURLIB command. Then, the library LIBB is added to the library list using the ADDLIBLE command with the POSITION(*FIRST) parameter, which means that LIBB will be the first library in the library list. Next, the system library list is changed to include LIBC using the CHGSYSLIBL command with the OPTION(*ADD) parameter. This means that LIBC will be added to the end of the system library list. Therefore, when the user types the command CALL PGMUSR, the program PGMUSR in LIBC will run.

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  • 7. 

    Ansystem running IBM i 6.1 has a fibre attached IBM TS3500 (3584). Management has instituted a policy that any tape leaving the data center with application data must be encrypted. Which of the following tape encryption modes is supported?

    • A.

      System Managed

    • B.

      Library Managed

    • C.

      Software Managed

    • D.

      Application Managed

    Correct Answer
    B. Library Managed
    Explanation
    Library Managed tape encryption mode is supported in this scenario. This mode allows the tape library to handle the encryption process. The encryption keys are managed by the library itself, ensuring that any tape leaving the data center with application data is encrypted. This mode provides a centralized and efficient way to enforce the encryption policy without relying on individual systems or applications.

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  • 8. 

    Assuming the appropriate PTF is installed, what is the minimum release level of IBM i Access to support Microsoft Windows 7?

    • A.

      6.1

    • B.

      7.1

    • C.

      5.4

    • D.

      5.4.5

    Correct Answer
    A. 6.1
    Explanation
    The minimum release level of IBM i Access to support Microsoft Windows 7 is 6.1.

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  • 9. 

    The system value QCRTOBJAUD is set to *USRPRF. When are entries sent to the audit journal if a new directory is created with the parameter CRTOBJAUD(*SYSVAL)?

    • A.

      When it is used or changed by the user who created it.

    • B.

      When it is used or changed by a user who is currently being audited.

    • C.

      When it is used or changed by a member of the group profile of the user who is currently being audited.

    • D.

      When it is used or changed by a program adopting the authority of the user who is currently being audited.

    Correct Answer
    B. When it is used or changed by a user who is currently being audited.
    Explanation
    When the system value QCRTOBJAUD is set to *USRPRF, entries are sent to the audit journal if a new directory is created with the parameter CRTOBJAUD(*SYSVAL) when it is used or changed by a user who is currently being audited. This means that any actions performed on the directory by a user who is currently being audited will be recorded in the audit journal.

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  • 10. 

    A software vendor has suggested a limit of 20% average busy on all disk arms to avoid performance-related problems with the software. Which of the following will allow the administrator to monitor the disk performance and send out an alert when the performance recommendation is exceeded?

    • A.

      Create a system monitor in Management Central measuring disk arm utilization and set a threshold trigger to fire.

    • B.

      In System i Navigator, create a monitor job in Collection Services measuring disk arm utilization and set a threshold trigger to fire.

    • C.

      Use Management Central Collection Services and set an I/O subsystem monitor. Include all disk units in the monitor and set the alarm at 20%.

    • D.

      In System i Navigator, Configuration and Services -> Hardware -> Disk units, set a monitor job up for the disk units and create a trigger to fire at 20% utilization.

    Correct Answer
    A. Create a system monitor in Management Central measuring disk arm utilization and set a threshold trigger to fire.
    Explanation
    The correct answer suggests creating a system monitor in Management Central to measure disk arm utilization and set a threshold trigger to fire. This will allow the administrator to monitor the disk performance and receive an alert when the performance recommendation of 20% average busy on all disk arms is exceeded. Management Central provides a centralized platform for monitoring and managing system resources, making it the most suitable option for this scenario.

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  • 11. 

    Which of the following commands will allow the administrator to override the QQRYTIMLMT system value for a job?

    • A.

      CHGJOB

    • B.

      CHGQRYA

    • C.

      CHGJOBA

    • D.

      CHGQRYRUNA

    Correct Answer
    B. CHGQRYA
    Explanation
    The CHGQRYA command allows the administrator to override the QQRYTIMLMT system value for a job. This command is used to change the query attributes for a query, and one of the attributes that can be changed is the query time limit. By using this command, the administrator can modify the time limit for a specific job, overriding the system value set for query time limit.

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  • 12. 

    A customer at V5R2 of i5/OS, wants to upgrade to IBM i 6.1. Which of the following describes the steps needed to perform the upgrade?

    • A.

      Upgrade directly to IBMi 6.1 using automatic upgrade, and run STROBJCVN to re-encapsulate all programs for 6.1.

    • B.

      Upgrade to V5R4 of i5/OS,then run ANZOBJCVN to identify programs that will not upgrade to 6.1 before upgrading to 6.1.

    • C.

      Run ANZOBJCVN on the current release to identify programs that will not upgrade to 6.1, then upgrade to V5R4 and run STROBJCVN on those programs.

    • D.

      Upgrade first to V5R4, run STROBJCVN on all programs in user libraries, and then upgrade directly to IBMi 6.1.

    Correct Answer
    B. Upgrade to V5R4 of i5/OS,then run ANZOBJCVN to identify programs that will not upgrade to 6.1 before upgrading to 6.1.
    Explanation
    The correct answer suggests that the customer should first upgrade to V5R4 of i5/OS. After the upgrade, they should run ANZOBJCVN to identify programs that will not be able to upgrade to IBM i 6.1. This step is crucial as it allows the customer to identify any compatibility issues with their existing programs before proceeding with the upgrade. Once the incompatible programs are identified, the customer can then take appropriate actions to resolve the issues and ensure a smooth upgrade to IBM i 6.1.

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  • 13. 

    A system has the system value QTSEPOOL set to *BASE and interactive jobs are moved to *BASE pool when they reach time slice end. Which pool activity level will be used by the interactive jobs moved to *BASE pool?

    • A.

      The interactive jobs will use the *BASE pool activity level.

    • B.

      The interactive jobs will use the activity level of the *MACHINE system pool.

    • C.

      The interactive jobs will use the activity level of the *INTERACT system pool.

    • D.

      The interactive jobs will use the activity level of the pool which they come from.

    Correct Answer
    A. The interactive jobs will use the *BASE pool activity level.
    Explanation
    The system value QTSEPOOL is set to *BASE, which means that interactive jobs are moved to the *BASE pool when they reach the time slice end. Therefore, the interactive jobs moved to the *BASE pool will use the activity level of the *BASE pool.

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  • 14. 

    What happens when an operator issues the CHGMSGQ MSGQ(QSYSOPR) DLVRY(*DFT) command?

    • A.

      The message queue is changed to its default state specified by the CRTMSGQ command at the queue creation.

    • B.

      Messages requiring replies are answered with their default reply and the replies go to a default message queue.

    • C.

      Messages requiring replies are answered with their default reply and no messages are added to the message queue.

    • D.

      Messages requiring replies are answered with their default reply and the other messages are added to the message queue.

    Correct Answer
    D. Messages requiring replies are answered with their default reply and the other messages are added to the message queue.
    Explanation
    When an operator issues the CHGMSGQ MSGQ(QSYSOPR) DLVRY(*DFT) command, messages requiring replies are answered with their default reply and the other messages are added to the message queue. This means that any messages that do not require a reply will be added to the message queue, while messages that do require a reply will be automatically answered with their default reply. This command does not change the message queue to its default state specified by the CRTMSGQ command at the queue creation.

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  • 15. 

    An independent ASP requires a reclaim storage. In addition to 'Available' which of the following is a state in which reclaim storage for an independent ASP will succeed?

    • A.

      Active

    • B.

      Failed

    • C.

      Varied On

    • D.

      Recovery Pending

    Correct Answer
    B. Failed
    Explanation
    When an independent ASP requires a reclaim storage, it means that there is a need to free up storage space. In this context, the state in which reclaim storage will succeed is "Failed." This suggests that when the ASP has failed, it is no longer actively in use and can be reclaimed for storage purposes. The other options, such as "Active," "Varied On," and "Recovery Pending," do not indicate a state where the storage can be reclaimed successfully.

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  • 16. 

    When do changes to the 'Maximum Processor' setting in an LPAR definition take effect?

    • A.

      When the partition is re-activated after a complete power down

    • B.

      When the partition is restarted with PWRDWNSYS RESTART(*YES)

    • C.

      When all partitions and the managed system are shut down and restarted

    • D.

      When all partitions in the shared processor pool are powered down and restarted

    Correct Answer
    A. When the partition is re-activated after a complete power down
    Explanation
    When the partition is re-activated after a complete power down, the changes to the 'Maximum Processor' setting in an LPAR definition take effect. This means that when the partition is completely powered off and then turned back on, the new 'Maximum Processor' setting will be applied. It is important to note that simply restarting the partition or shutting down and restarting the managed system or all partitions in the shared processor pool will not trigger the changes to take effect.

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  • 17. 

    Which system value controls the number of days the system retains unused spooled file storage?

    • A.

      QRCLSPLSTG

    • B.

      QRLSSPLSTG

    • C.

      QDLTSPLSTG

    • D.

      QRTNSPLSTG

    Correct Answer
    A. QRCLSPLSTG
    Explanation
    The correct answer is QRCLSPLSTG. This system value controls the number of days the system retains unused spooled file storage.

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  • 18. 

    An administrator attempts to change a journal so that the receivers are deleted by the system. When he attempts to change the value DLTRCV(*YES). He receives the message 'CPF70E3 : The journal receiver directory must only have attached receivers in it when DLTRCV(*YES) is specified' Which of the following procedures should be used to resolve this error?

    • A.

      Use the DLTJRNRCV command with the option *UNATTACHED to remove all receivers not attached to a journal.

    • B.

      Use the ENDJRN command to end journaling and delete all receivers. Change the value toDLTRCV(*YES)and restart journaling.

    • C.

      Use the CHGJRNA command on the journal and then press the F17 function key to work with the receiver directory. Delete all receivers not currently attached to the journal.

    • D.

      Use the WRKJRNA command on the journal and then press the F15 function key to work with the receiver directory. Delete all receivers not currently attached to the journal.

    Correct Answer
    D. Use the WRKJRNA command on the journal and then press the F15 function key to work with the receiver directory. Delete all receivers not currently attached to the journal.
    Explanation
    To resolve the error, the administrator should use the WRKJRNA command on the journal and then press the F15 function key to work with the receiver directory. This will allow them to access the receiver directory and delete all receivers that are not currently attached to the journal. By doing so, they will be able to comply with the requirement specified in the error message and successfully change the value DLTRCV(*YES) for the journal.

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  • 19. 

    Which of the following are saved using the Save System Information (SAVSYSINF) command?

    • A.

      *CMD and *MSGF objects in QSYS changed since the last SAVSYS

    • B.

      *PGM and *SRVPGM objects in QSYS changed since the last SAVSYS

    • C.

      *USRPRF and *TBL objects in QSYS changed since the last SAVSYS

    • D.

      *DTAARA and *FILE objects in QSYS changed since the last SAVSYS

    Correct Answer
    A. *CMD and *MSGF objects in QSYS changed since the last SAVSYS
    Explanation
    The Save System Information (SAVSYSINF) command is used to save information about system objects that have changed since the last system save (SAVSYS) operation. This includes *CMD and *MSGF objects in the QSYS library that have been modified. The command does not save *PGM and *SRVPGM objects, *USRPRF and *TBL objects, or *DTAARA and *FILE objects. Therefore, the correct answer is *CMD and *MSGF objects in QSYS changed since the last SAVSYS.

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  • 20. 

    A system is using an HMC for the console. An administrator wants to start an Option 21 save from their laptop at the office before leaving and check on the job later that evening from home. How should the console session be started to start the save operation?

    • A.

      Start a shared console session from the administrator's laptop.

    • B.

      Start a dedicated console session from the administrator's laptop.

    • C.

      Start a shared console session from the HMC and the administrator's laptop.

    • D.

      Start a dedicated console session from the HMC, and a shared console session from the administrator's laptop.

    Correct Answer
    C. Start a shared console session from the HMC and the administrator's laptop.
    Explanation
    In order to start an Option 21 save from the administrator's laptop at the office and be able to check on the job later from home, a shared console session should be started from both the HMC and the administrator's laptop. This will allow the administrator to access and control the console from their laptop remotely, ensuring they can start the save operation and monitor it from home. Starting a dedicated console session from either the administrator's laptop or the HMC alone would not provide the necessary remote access and control capabilities.

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  • 21. 

    An IBM i 6.1 system has the system value QFRCCVNRST set to 1. The administrator has restored an application library from a V5R4 system. The application is now running very slowly. Which of the following is the most likely cause of the problem?

    • A.

      The restored objects are being converted at first use.

    • B.

      The QFRCOBJCVN system value must be set to at least 4 for V5R4 objects.

    • C.

      The restored objects are using the V5R4 template, which runs more slowly on a 6.1 system.

    • D.

      The programs were compiled to a previous release which causes a performance problem at 6.1

    Correct Answer
    A. The restored objects are being converted at first use.
    Explanation
    The restored objects are being converted at first use because the system value QFRCCVNRST is set to 1. This means that when an object is accessed for the first time after being restored, it will be converted to the current release level of the system. This conversion process can cause a delay and result in the application running slowly.

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  • 22. 

    A customer does a GO SAVE, OPTION 21, every night. Every day when the system starts, each LAN printer writer goes to the MSGW (Message Waiting) state and requires a reply for the Message ID CPA3394 'Load form type '&4' device &5 writer &1.' Which of the following will fix this problem?

    • A.

      CHGWTR WTR(*ALL) FORMTYPE(*SAME *NOMSG)

    • B.

      CHGWTR WTR(*ALL) FORMTYPE(*SAME) INQMSGRPY(CPA3394) RPY(G)

    • C.

      ADDRPYLE SEQNBR(140) MSGID(CPA3394) CMPDTA(*NONE *NONE) RPY(G)

    • D.

      ADDRPYLE SEQNBR(140) MSGID(CPA3394) CMPDTA(*NONE *NONE) RPY(C)

    Correct Answer
    C. ADDRPYLE SEQNBR(140) MSGID(CPA3394) CMPDTA(*NONE *NONE) RPY(G)
    Explanation
    The correct answer is ADDRPYLE SEQNBR(140) MSGID(CPA3394) CMPDTA(*NONE *NONE) RPY(G). This command adds a reply entry to the reply list for message CPA3394 with a sequence number of 140. The CMPDTA parameter specifies the comparison data for the reply, which in this case is set to *NONE *NONE. The RPY parameter is set to 'G', indicating that a generic reply will be sent. This will fix the problem by providing a reply to the message ID and allowing the LAN printer writer to continue processing without going into MSGW state.

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  • 23. 

    How can the system administrator set the expiration date for a tape?

    • A.

      Use the command SETEXPDATE on the tape volume.

    • B.

      Use the EXPDATE parameter of the SAVxxx command.

    • C.

      Use the EXPDATE parameter of the INZTAP command.

    • D.

      Use the SETLIBEXP command with the external tape library.

    Correct Answer
    B. Use the EXPDATE parameter of the SAVxxx command.
    Explanation
    The system administrator can set the expiration date for a tape by using the EXPDATE parameter of the SAVxxx command. This command allows the administrator to specify the desired expiration date for the tape, ensuring that it is not used beyond that date. By setting the expiration date using this parameter, the administrator can effectively manage the lifecycle of the tape and ensure that it is properly retired and replaced as necessary.

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  • 24. 

    An administrator has been directed to establish redundancy for their network links which use TCP/IP traffic. They have connected three gigabit-Ethernet lines to three different network switches. Which of the following is required to meet their goal?

    • A.

      Enable IP datagram forwarding.

    • B.

      Set the REDUNDANT(*YES) parameter on each of the Ethernet lines.

    • C.

      Define *DFTROUTE entries with preferred binding interfaces for each interface.

    • D.

      Create indirect routes to the local network for each of the three Ethernet lines.

    Correct Answer
    D. Create indirect routes to the local network for each of the three Ethernet lines.
    Explanation
    Creating indirect routes to the local network for each of the three Ethernet lines is required to establish redundancy for the network links. This means that if one link fails, traffic can be rerouted through the other available links, ensuring continuous connectivity. By creating indirect routes, the administrator can specify alternative paths for the traffic to reach its destination, increasing network reliability and redundancy.

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  • 25. 

    How can a user specify the name of an auxiliary storage pool (ASP) group to be included in the library name space of the subsystem monitor job?

    • A.

      Use the command SETASPGRP.

    • B.

      Specify the desired value for the 'ASP group' parameter on the STRSBS command.

    • C.

      Specify the desired value for the 'ASP group' parameter on the CRTSBSD or CHGSBSD commands.

    • D.

      Specify the desired value for the 'Initial ASP group' parameter for the subsystem monitor job description.

    Correct Answer
    C. Specify the desired value for the 'ASP group' parameter on the CRTSBSD or CHGSBSD commands.
    Explanation
    To include the name of an auxiliary storage pool (ASP) group in the library name space of the subsystem monitor job, the user needs to specify the desired value for the 'ASP group' parameter on the CRTSBSD or CHGSBSD commands. These commands allow the user to create or change subsystem descriptions, and by specifying the ASP group parameter, the user can ensure that the desired ASP group is included in the library name space of the subsystem monitor job.

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  • 26. 

    An administrator has a local twinax interactive job in the QINTER subsystem. They transfer the interactive job to QCTL using the command TFRJOB JOBQ(QCTL) and then entered the ENDSYS *IMMED command. What will be the result?

    • A.

      The system will successfully enter a restricted condition.

    • B.

      The system will enter a restricted condition but the workstation job will end.

    • C.

      The system will issue an error indicating that the job must have started in the controlling subsystem.

    • D.

      The system will issue an error indicating the ENDSYS *IMMED command must be run from the system console.

    Correct Answer
    C. The system will issue an error indicating that the job must have started in the controlling subsystem.
    Explanation
    When the administrator transfers the interactive job to QCTL using the TFRJOB command and then enters the ENDSYS *IMMED command, the system will issue an error indicating that the job must have started in the controlling subsystem. This means that the job cannot be ended using the ENDSYS command because it was not started in the controlling subsystem. The administrator would need to start the job in the controlling subsystem before being able to end it using the ENDSYS command.

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  • 27. 

    An administrator is running V5R3 on a model 270 with four 8GB disk drives. They have just purchased a new Power 520. To make the migration easier, the administrator wants to bring the model 270 up to the same release as the new Power 520. Which of the following is a requirement?

    • A.

      Upgrade the 270 to 17GB drives.

    • B.

      Upgrade the model 270 to IBMi 6.1

    • C.

      Load V5R4M0 SLIC on the POWER6 520.

    • D.

      Order the 5799-CMP compatibility PRPQ for the POWER6 520.

    Correct Answer
    A. Upgrade the 270 to 17GB drives.
    Explanation
    The requirement to make the migration easier is to upgrade the 270 to 17GB drives. This is because the new Power 520 may have different hardware specifications and compatibility requirements compared to the model 270. By upgrading the disk drives to 17GB, the administrator ensures that the storage capacity and hardware configuration of the model 270 align with the new Power 520, facilitating a smoother migration process.

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  • 28. 

    Which of the following port(s) and protocol(s) must be open through a NAT firewall for IBM i IPSec to function?

    • A.

      UDP on port 500

    • B.

      TCP on port 4500

    • C.

      UDP on ports 500 and 4500

    • D.

      TCP on ports 500 and 4500

    Correct Answer
    C. UDP on ports 500 and 4500
    Explanation
    In order for IBM i IPSec to function, both UDP and TCP protocols need to be open. UDP on port 500 and TCP on port 4500 are the specific ports that must be open through a NAT firewall. These ports allow the necessary communication for IPSec to operate effectively.

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  • 29. 

    Which of the following commands identifies the correct resource name used for a network server description when an IBM i partition hosts storage for a new AIX or LINUX partition?

    • A.

      WRKHDWRSC *CMN

    • B.

      WRKHDWRSC *STG

    • C.

      WRKNWSCFG *HOST

    • D.

      WRKNWSSTG *GUEST

    Correct Answer
    A. WRKHDWRSC *CMN
    Explanation
    The command WRKHDWRSC *CMN identifies the correct resource name used for a network server description when an IBM i partition hosts storage for a new AIX or LINUX partition. This command allows users to work with the hardware resources on the system, including network server descriptions. The *CMN parameter specifies that the command should display common resource names, which are used for network server descriptions. By using this command, users can easily identify the correct resource name for a network server description in this specific scenario.

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  • 30. 

    What happens when the system ASP reaches the threshold set in SST?

    • A.

      No new jobs may enter the active state.

    • B.

      All job queues are placed on hold status.

    • C.

      The system attention light is illuminated.

    • D.

      Messages are sent to the QSYSOPR message queue.

    Correct Answer
    D. Messages are sent to the QSYSOPR message queue.
    Explanation
    When the system ASP reaches the threshold set in SST, messages are sent to the QSYSOPR message queue.

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  • 31. 

    Which of the following upgrade situations requires increasing the size of the Licensed Internal Code space?

    • A.

      Upgrading from V5R3M0 to V5R4M5

    • B.

      Upgrading from V5R4M0 to V5R4M5

    • C.

      Upgrading directly from V5R2 to 6.1

    • D.

      Doing a SLIP install of the same release

    Correct Answer
    A. Upgrading from V5R3M0 to V5R4M5
  • 32. 

    What is the minimum security level at which resource security and integrity protection are enforced?

    • A.

      20

    • B.

      30

    • C.

      40

    • D.

      50

    Correct Answer
    C. 40
    Explanation
    The minimum security level at which resource security and integrity protection are enforced is 40. This means that at a security level of 40 or higher, measures are in place to ensure the security and integrity of resources. It implies that any security level below 40 may not have the necessary safeguards to protect resources and maintain their integrity.

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  • 33. 

    An administrator needs to recover an HMC due to a failed disk. The disk has been replaced. Backups of both the HMC Data and Upgrade Data are available. After reloading the HMC with the Recovery DVDs, what are the next steps to restore the HMC configuration?

    • A.

      Use the 'HMC Management > Restore HMC Data' option to first restore just the HMC Data.

    • B.

      Use the 'HMC Management > Restore Upgrade Data' option to first restore just the Upgrade Data.

    • C.

      Use the 'HMC Management > Restore HMC Data' option to first restore the HMC Data and then the Upgrade Data.

    • D.

      Use the 'HMC Management > Restore Upgrade Data' option to first restore the Upgrade Data, and then the HMC Data.

    Correct Answer
    A. Use the 'HMC Management > Restore HMC Data' option to first restore just the HMC Data.
    Explanation
    After reloading the HMC with the Recovery DVDs, the next step to restore the HMC configuration is to use the 'HMC Management > Restore HMC Data' option to first restore just the HMC Data. This will ensure that the HMC's configuration is restored to its previous state before the disk failure occurred. Once the HMC Data is restored, further steps can be taken to restore the Upgrade Data if necessary.

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  • 34. 

    In a typical Apache server configuration, which of the following user profiles processes server requests?

    • A.

      QHTTPSVR

    • B.

      QHTTPBAS

    • C.

      QTMHHTTP

    • D.

      QTMHTTPS

    Correct Answer
    C. QTMHHTTP
    Explanation
    In a typical Apache server configuration, the user profile "QTMHHTTP" processes server requests.

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  • 35. 

    A user must restore libraries LIBA and LIBB. LIBA contains logical files that are dependent on physical files in LIBB. Both libraries were saved using a SAVLIB(*NONSYS) command. Which command, or group of commands, will complete the restore operation in one pass through the tape even though the physical files are restored after the logical files?

    • A.

      RSTLIB SAVLIB(LIBB LIBA) DEV(TAP01)

    • B.

      RSTLIB SAVLIB(LIBA LIBB) DEV(TAP01) DFRID(ABC)

    • C.

      RSTLIB SAVLIB(LIBA LIBB) DEV(TAP01) DFRID(ABC) RMVDFRID DFRID(ABC)

    • D.

      RSTLIB SAVLIB(LIBA LIBB) DEV(TAP01) DFRID(ABC) RSTDFROBJ DFRID(ABC)

    Correct Answer
    D. RSTLIB SAVLIB(LIBA LIBB) DEV(TAP01) DFRID(ABC) RSTDFROBJ DFRID(ABC)
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "RSTLIB SAVLIB(LIBA LIBB) DEV(TAP01) DFRID(ABC) RSTDFROBJ DFRID(ABC)". This command will complete the restore operation in one pass through the tape because it specifies both libraries to be restored, LIBA and LIBB, and includes the DFRID parameter with the value of ABC. The DFRID parameter is used to restore dependent objects, such as logical files that are dependent on physical files. The RSTDFROBJ command is used to restore dependent objects based on the DFRID value. Therefore, this command sequence ensures that both libraries are restored and any dependent objects are also restored in the correct order.

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  • 36. 

    An administrator is attempting to use Management Central from a remote location. The signon times out. All other System i Navigator functions operate normally. Which of the following is the most likely cause of the problem?

    • A.

      The digital certificate used by Management Central for SSL has expired.

    • B.

      The administrator's workstation IP address is no longer in the host's LAN segment.

    • C.

      The TCP/IP traffic is traversing a NAT firewall. Management Central cannot establish a session from IBM i outbound to the administrator's PC.

    • D.

      The administrator's workstation is traversing a Masquerading NAT firewall. The Management Central server properties do not have 'NAT Enabled' property set.

    Correct Answer
    C. The TCP/IP traffic is traversing a NAT firewall. Management Central cannot establish a session from IBM i outbound to the administrator's PC.
    Explanation
    The most likely cause of the problem is that the TCP/IP traffic is traversing a NAT firewall. This means that Management Central is unable to establish a session from the IBM i outbound to the administrator's PC. This is a common issue when using remote access, as the NAT firewall can interfere with the connection and prevent the signon from being successful.

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  • 37. 

    Management has directed an administrator to set up system auditing in IBM i 6.1. When the administrator tries to display the auditing system values, '*NOTAVL' is displayed. What does this mean?

    • A.

      Journal QAUDJRN has not been created in library QSYS.

    • B.

      Journal QSYS/QAUDJRN has public authority '*EXCLUDE'.

    • C.

      The journal receivers for journal QAUDJRN have public authority '*EXCLUDE'.

    • D.

      The profile the administrator is using does not have '*AUDIT' special authority.

    Correct Answer
    D. The profile the administrator is using does not have '*AUDIT' special authority.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is that the profile the administrator is using does not have '*AUDIT' special authority. This means that the administrator does not have the necessary privileges to access and display the auditing system values.

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  • 38. 

    After a complete restore, the job log shows several logical files that have not been restored. Which of the following will complete the restore?

    • A.

      RSTLIB LIB(*NEW) PVTAUT(*NO)

    • B.

      RSTLIB(*ALL) OPTION(*NEW) PVTAUT(*YES)

    • C.

      RSTOBJ OBJ(*NEW) LIB(*ANY) PVTAUT(*YES)

    • D.

      RSTOBJ OBJ(*ALL) LIB(*ANY) OPTION(*NEW) PVTAUT(*YES)

    Correct Answer
    D. RSTOBJ OBJ(*ALL) LIB(*ANY) OPTION(*NEW) PVTAUT(*YES)
    Explanation
    The correct answer is RSTOBJ OBJ(*ALL) LIB(*ANY) OPTION(*NEW) PVTAUT(*YES). This command will restore all objects in all libraries, including logical files, with a new option and private authorities enabled.

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  • 39. 

    An administrator is configuring virtual storage which will be owned by VIOS and used by IBM i. Which of the following correctly describes the sector size?

    • A.

      512-byte sector AIX LUNs

    • B.

      528-byte sector VIOS LUNs

    • C.

      520-byte sector IBMi LUNs

    • D.

      522-byte sector IBMi LUNs with compression

    Correct Answer
    A. 512-byte sector AIX LUNs
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 512-byte sector AIX LUNs. This means that the AIX LUNs, which are being configured for virtual storage, will have a sector size of 512 bytes.

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  • 40. 

    Some of the master keys on a system have become corrupted and must be restored. Which of the following correctly describes the restore process?

    • A.

      Use the RSTMSTKEY command to retrieve the keys from a SAVSYS backup.

    • B.

      Run an abbreviated IBMi install. Change the install options to reload the master keys from backup media.

    • C.

      Run the RSTOBJ command for QUSRBRM/Q1AKEYFILE. Then use the Translate Master Key Store File command (TRNCKMKSF) with the *SAVRST option to translate the master key to the system.

    • D.

      Check that the Save/Restore master key matches to the value at the time the keys were saved. Use the Add Master Part and Set Master Key (SETMSTKEY) commands to set the *SAVRST master key if needed.

    Correct Answer
    D. Check that the Save/Restore master key matches to the value at the time the keys were saved. Use the Add Master Part and Set Master Key (SETMSTKEY) commands to set the *SAVRST master key if needed.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is to check that the Save/Restore master key matches the value at the time the keys were saved. If needed, the Add Master Part and Set Master Key commands should be used to set the *SAVRST master key. This ensures that the corrupted master keys are restored correctly and the system can function properly.

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  • 41. 

    When the FSP logs an error to IBM i, where can the detailed information about that error be found?

    • A.

      In the QHST log

    • B.

      In SST 'Service Action Log'

    • C.

      In the IBMi system operator message queue

    • D.

      In DST 'Product Activity log' option 2 (processor)

    Correct Answer
    B. In SST 'Service Action Log'
    Explanation
    The detailed information about the error logged by the FSP can be found in the SST 'Service Action Log'.

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  • 42. 

    An administrator must copy production data to a new system for high availability. How can System Reply Lists, System Values, Job and Subsystem Descriptions be restored from tape?

    • A.

      Restore the libraries QGPL and QUSRSYS.

    • B.

      Perform a Manual IPL to DST, select Change Install Options on the Install the Operation System display. Select the Message Reply List, System information, Job and Subsystem Descriptions.

    • C.

      Perform a Manual IPL to DST, select Change Install Options on the Install the Operating System display. Select the Restore option 1=Restore programs and language objects from current media set. Select the Message Reply List, System information, Job and Subsystem Descriptions.

    • D.

      Perform a Manual IPL to DST, select Change Install Options on the Install the Operating System display. Select the Restore option 4=Restore only language objects from a different media set using the current install device. Select the Message Reply List, System information, Job and Subsystem Descriptions.

    Correct Answer
    C. Perform a Manual IPL to DST, select Change Install Options on the Install the Operating System display. Select the Restore option 1=Restore programs and language objects from current media set. Select the Message Reply List, System information, Job and Subsystem Descriptions.
    Explanation
    To restore the System Reply Lists, System Values, Job and Subsystem Descriptions from tape, the administrator should perform a Manual IPL to DST and select Change Install Options on the Install the Operating System display. Then, they should choose the Restore option 1=Restore programs and language objects from the current media set. Finally, they need to select the Message Reply List, System information, Job and Subsystem Descriptions. This process will ensure that the necessary data is restored for high availability on the new system.

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  • 43. 

    An administrator is restoring a library from SYSTEMA to SYSTEMB. The administrator knows that the library is owned by a different user on SYSTEMB. Which of the following parameters of the RSTLIB command will restore the library and set the owner of the library to the current owner of the library on SYSTEMB?

    • A.

      ALWOBJDIF(*SAME)

    • B.

      ALWOBJDIF(*OWNER)

    • C.

      ALWOBJDIF(*DFTOWN)

    • D.

      ALWOBJDIF(*CURRENT)

    Correct Answer
    B. ALWOBJDIF(*OWNER)
    Explanation
    The correct answer is ALWOBJDIF(*OWNER). This parameter of the RSTLIB command will restore the library and set the owner of the library to the current owner of the library on SYSTEMB. By specifying *OWNER, the administrator ensures that the ownership of the library is preserved during the restoration process.

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  • 44. 

    An administrator is signed on to SysA and is trying to access the IFS of SysB through QFileSvr.400. The administrator is able to telnet between systems but when the WRKLNK '/QFileSvr.400/SysB' command is used an 'object not found' error is received for the directory. What must be done to correct the problem?

    • A.

      Start the QFileSvr.400 server onSysB.

    • B.

      Add a RDB directory table entry onSysA with the name SysB and its IP address.

    • C.

      Correct the administrator's User ID and password onSysB to be the same as it is on SysA.

    • D.

      Use the CD command to change the directory to QFileSvr.400 and then use the MKDIR command to create the directorySysB.

    Correct Answer
    D. Use the CD command to change the directory to QFileSvr.400 and then use the MKDIR command to create the directorySysB.
    Explanation
    The correct answer suggests that the administrator should use the CD command to change the directory to QFileSvr.400 and then use the MKDIR command to create the directory SysB. This implies that the directory SysB does not currently exist on SysB, causing the "object not found" error. By creating the directory, the administrator will be able to access the IFS of SysB through QFileSvr.400.

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  • 45. 

    A developer accidentally cleared a physical file with the CLRPFM command. The file is being journalled with IMAGE(*BOTH). How can the corrupted field be recovered?

    • A.

      Use the ROLLBACK function to undo the CLRPFM action.

    • B.

      Use the RMVJRNCHG command to remove the one entry that cleared the file member.

    • C.

      Use the RMVJRNCHG command to roll back the changed to before the file was cleared.

    • D.

      Restore the file from the backup and use the APYJRNCHG to reapply the changes up to just prior to the file being cleared.

    Correct Answer
    D. Restore the file from the backup and use the APYJRNCHG to reapply the changes up to just prior to the file being cleared.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is to restore the file from the backup and use the APYJRNCHG command to reapply the changes up to just prior to the file being cleared. This is because the file is being journalled with IMAGE(*BOTH), which means that both the before and after images of the file changes are recorded in the journal. By restoring the file from the backup and using APYJRNCHG, the changes recorded in the journal can be reapplied, effectively recovering the corrupted field.

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  • 46. 

    An IBM i partition hosts storage for an AIX partition using a network storage description. The system administrator found out that the AIX partition has access to the IBM i an optical device (OPT01) which prevents the IBM i administrator from using OPT01. Which of the following will restrict AIX from accessing the optical device OPT01?

    • A.

      Change the Read, Write and Execute permissions for OPT01.

    • B.

      Change the Network server configuration file for the AIX partition to not define the optical device.

    • C.

      Change the network server description to restrict the AIX partition from accessing the optical device.

    • D.

      Change the device description for OPT01 to restrict the AIX partition from accessing the optical device.

    Correct Answer
    C. Change the network server description to restrict the AIX partition from accessing the optical device.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is to change the network server description to restrict the AIX partition from accessing the optical device. By modifying the network server description, the system administrator can specify which devices are accessible to the AIX partition. This will allow them to restrict access to the optical device OPT01, preventing the AIX partition from using it and allowing the IBM i administrator to regain control over OPT01.

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  • 47. 

    A prestart job started under the QUSER user profile is handling a remote program start request which uses the USRRMT user profile. How is the authority checked against the USRRMT user after the prestart job swaps the user profile from QUSER to USRRMT?

    • A.

      The job will use only the QUSER user private authorities.

    • B.

      The job will use only the USRRMT user private authorities.

    • C.

      The job will use the QUSER private authorities and adopt the authorities of USRRMT.

    • D.

      The job will use the USRRMT user private authorities, current library (CURLIB) and initial program (INLPGM).

    Correct Answer
    B. The job will use only the USRRMT user private authorities.
    Explanation
    After the prestart job swaps the user profile from QUSER to USRRMT, the job will use only the USRRMT user's private authorities. This means that the job will have access to the resources and objects that are authorized for the USRRMT user profile. It will not have access to the QUSER user's private authorities or any other authorities.

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  • 48. 

    A customer is moving from a Power 550 running V5R3 to a Power 750 running IBM i 6.1.1. The V5R3 system was migrated to IBM i 6.1 using the 'Migration from prior supported release' (SLIP) method. During testing, none of the DDM files to remote systems function. The system value QRETSVRSEC (Retain server security data) is set to '1' (enabled). Which of the following is the most likely cause of the problem?

    • A.

      The SNADS directory entries for the remote systems were removed when migrating to IBM i 6.1

    • B.

      The host table entries for the remote systems were not migrated using the 'SLIP' migration.

    • C.

      The authentication entries in the user profile(s) used for DDM are removed when migrating to IBMi 6.1.

    • D.

      The *LOCAL relational database name entry on the remote system does not match the value on the new system.

    Correct Answer
    D. The *LOCAL relational database name entry on the remote system does not match the value on the new system.
    Explanation
    During the migration process, the *LOCAL relational database name entry on the remote system was not updated to match the value on the new system. This mismatch in the database name would cause the DDM files to remote systems to not function properly.

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  • 49. 

    After an IBM i upgrade, both QUSRSYS and QGPL have a status of *BACKLEVEL when you do a display of licensed programs. How can this be fixed?

    • A.

      In a restricted state, load the distribution media B29xx_01, and re-install QUSRSYS and QGPL.

    • B.

      Bring down just QINTER, and use the upgrade image catalogue to re-install both QUSRSYS and QGPL.

    • C.

      With everyone on the system, load the distribution media B29xx_01, and re-install QUSRSYS and QGPL.

    • D.

      In a restricted state, perform a RSTLIB of QGPL and QUSRSYS from the distribution media, using ALWOBJDIF(*ALL).

    Correct Answer
    A. In a restricted state, load the distribution media B29xx_01, and re-install QUSRSYS and QGPL.
    Explanation
    After an IBM i upgrade, if both QUSRSYS and QGPL have a status of *BACKLEVEL when displaying licensed programs, the issue can be fixed by loading the distribution media B29xx_01 and re-installing QUSRSYS and QGPL in a restricted state. This ensures that the necessary libraries are updated and brought up to the correct level after the upgrade.

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  • 50. 

    A customer has created an image catalog with multiple virtual tapes and uses it to perform their nightly backup. They are attempting to duplicate the images, using the DUPTAP command, to physical tape but they are getting errors. Which of the following is the most likely issue?

    • A.

      Virtual images must be saved to tape using the SAV command.

    • B.

      The tape images are different capacity than the physical tape.

    • C.

      The tape images and physical tape have incompatible block sizes.

    • D.

      Virtual images must be copied to tape using the CPYTOTAP command.

    Correct Answer
    C. The tape images and physical tape have incompatible block sizes.
    Explanation
    The most likely issue is that the tape images and physical tape have incompatible block sizes. This means that the data on the virtual tapes cannot be properly transferred to the physical tape due to a mismatch in their block sizes.

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