IBM I 6.1 Certified Administrator

1. What happens when the system ASP reaches the threshold set in SST?

No new jobs may enter the active state.

All job queues are placed on hold status.

The system attention light is illuminated.

Messages are sent to the QSYSOPR message queue.

When the system ASP reaches the threshold set in SST, messages are sent to the QSYSOPR message queue.

Explanation

When the system ASP reaches the threshold set in SST, messages are sent to the QSYSOPR message queue.

2. Which of the following system values controls the amount of time until an idle user will automatically be logged off or disconnected from the system?

QIDLELMT

QINACTITV

QDSCJOBTIM

QENDJOBLMT

The correct answer is QINACTITV. QINACTITV is a system value in IBM i that controls the amount of time until an idle user will automatically be logged off or disconnected from the system. This value is specified in minutes and can be set to any value between 1 and 9999. When the user remains idle for the specified time period, the system will initiate the logoff or disconnect process.

Explanation

The correct answer is QINACTITV. QINACTITV is a system value in IBM i that controls the amount of time until an idle user will automatically be logged off or disconnected from the system. This value is specified in minutes and can be set to any value between 1 and 9999. When the user remains idle for the specified time period, the system will initiate the logoff or disconnect process.

3. What is the minimum security level at which resource security and integrity protection are enforced?

20

30

40

50

The minimum security level at which resource security and integrity protection are enforced is 40. This means that at a security level of 40 or higher, measures are in place to ensure the security and integrity of resources. It implies that any security level below 40 may not have the necessary safeguards to protect resources and maintain their integrity.

Explanation

The minimum security level at which resource security and integrity protection are enforced is 40. This means that at a security level of 40 or higher, measures are in place to ensure the security and integrity of resources. It implies that any security level below 40 may not have the necessary safeguards to protect resources and maintain their integrity.

4. An administrator wants to distribute image catalogs with PTFs between systems. How can this be accomplished?

FTP the *IMGCLG objects in QUSRSYS.

FTP the QPTF library entries to the target system.

FTP the IFS objects to the target system.Copy the *IMGCLG objects in QUSRSYS to the target system.

Create a save file and save the contents of the QPTF library. FTP the save file to the target system and restore the QPTF library.

To distribute image catalogs with PTFs between systems, the administrator should FTP the IFS objects to the target system and copy the *IMGCLG objects in QUSRSYS to the target system. This means transferring the necessary files from the Integrated File System (IFS) to the target system and also copying the image catalog objects from the QUSRSYS library. This ensures that both the files and the image catalogs are successfully distributed to the target system.

Explanation

To distribute image catalogs with PTFs between systems, the administrator should FTP the IFS objects to the target system and copy the *IMGCLG objects in QUSRSYS to the target system. This means transferring the necessary files from the Integrated File System (IFS) to the target system and also copying the image catalog objects from the QUSRSYS library. This ensures that both the files and the image catalogs are successfully distributed to the target system.

5. A system has the system value QTSEPOOL set to *BASE and interactive jobs are moved to *BASE pool when they reach time slice end. Which pool activity level will be used by the interactive jobs moved to *BASE pool?

The interactive jobs will use the *BASE pool activity level.

The interactive jobs will use the activity level of the *MACHINE system pool.

The interactive jobs will use the activity level of the *INTERACT system pool.

The interactive jobs will use the activity level of the pool which they come from.

The system value QTSEPOOL is set to *BASE, which means that interactive jobs are moved to the *BASE pool when they reach the time slice end. Therefore, the interactive jobs moved to the *BASE pool will use the activity level of the *BASE pool.

Explanation

The system value QTSEPOOL is set to *BASE, which means that interactive jobs are moved to the *BASE pool when they reach the time slice end. Therefore, the interactive jobs moved to the *BASE pool will use the activity level of the *BASE pool.

6. Which system value controls the number of days the system retains unused spooled file storage?

QRCLSPLSTG

QRLSSPLSTG

QDLTSPLSTG

QRTNSPLSTG

The correct answer is QRCLSPLSTG. This system value controls the number of days the system retains unused spooled file storage.

Explanation

The correct answer is QRCLSPLSTG. This system value controls the number of days the system retains unused spooled file storage.

7. A developer accidentally cleared a physical file with the CLRPFM command. The file is being journalled with IMAGE(*BOTH). How can the corrupted field be recovered?

Use the ROLLBACK function to undo the CLRPFM action.

Use the RMVJRNCHG command to remove the one entry that cleared the file member.

Use the RMVJRNCHG command to roll back the changed to before the file was cleared.

Restore the file from the backup and use the APYJRNCHG to reapply the changes up to just prior to the file being cleared.

The correct answer is to restore the file from the backup and use the APYJRNCHG command to reapply the changes up to just prior to the file being cleared. This is because the file is being journalled with IMAGE(*BOTH), which means that both the before and after images of the file changes are recorded in the journal. By restoring the file from the backup and using APYJRNCHG, the changes recorded in the journal can be reapplied, effectively recovering the corrupted field.

Explanation

The correct answer is to restore the file from the backup and use the APYJRNCHG command to reapply the changes up to just prior to the file being cleared. This is because the file is being journalled with IMAGE(*BOTH), which means that both the before and after images of the file changes are recorded in the journal. By restoring the file from the backup and using APYJRNCHG, the changes recorded in the journal can be reapplied, effectively recovering the corrupted field.

8. When the FSP logs an error to IBM i, where can the detailed information about that error be found?

In the QHST log

In SST 'Service Action Log'

In the IBMi system operator message queue

In DST 'Product Activity log' option 2 (processor)

The detailed information about the error logged by the FSP can be found in the SST 'Service Action Log'.

Explanation

The detailed information about the error logged by the FSP can be found in the SST 'Service Action Log'.

9. After an IBM i upgrade, both QUSRSYS and QGPL have a status of *BACKLEVEL when you do a display of licensed programs. How can this be fixed?

In a restricted state, load the distribution media B29xx_01, and re-install QUSRSYS and QGPL.

Bring down just QINTER, and use the upgrade image catalogue to re-install both QUSRSYS and QGPL.

With everyone on the system, load the distribution media B29xx_01, and re-install QUSRSYS and QGPL.

In a restricted state, perform a RSTLIB of QGPL and QUSRSYS from the distribution media, using ALWOBJDIF(*ALL).

After an IBM i upgrade, if both QUSRSYS and QGPL have a status of *BACKLEVEL when displaying licensed programs, the issue can be fixed by loading the distribution media B29xx_01 and re-installing QUSRSYS and QGPL in a restricted state. This ensures that the necessary libraries are updated and brought up to the correct level after the upgrade.

Explanation

After an IBM i upgrade, if both QUSRSYS and QGPL have a status of *BACKLEVEL when displaying licensed programs, the issue can be fixed by loading the distribution media B29xx_01 and re-installing QUSRSYS and QGPL in a restricted state. This ensures that the necessary libraries are updated and brought up to the correct level after the upgrade.

10. What happens when a journal receiver created with MNGRCV(*USER) reaches its maximum size?

A new receiver is created in the job's current library.

Database writes are prohibited and jobs receive error messages.

All new journal entries are placed in the QDFTJRN journal receiver.

A new receiver is created in the QSYS library for new journal entries.

When a journal receiver created with MNGRCV(*USER) reaches its maximum size, database writes are prohibited and jobs receive error messages. This means that any attempt to write data to the database will be denied and jobs running in the system will receive error messages indicating that the journal receiver is full. This is because the journal receiver cannot accommodate any more journal entries, and therefore, the system prevents any further database writes to avoid potential data loss or corruption.

Explanation

When a journal receiver created with MNGRCV(*USER) reaches its maximum size, database writes are prohibited and jobs receive error messages. This means that any attempt to write data to the database will be denied and jobs running in the system will receive error messages indicating that the journal receiver is full. This is because the journal receiver cannot accommodate any more journal entries, and therefore, the system prevents any further database writes to avoid potential data loss or corruption.

11. An IBM i 6.1 customer wants to be notified when average CPU utilization remains above 80% for more than 5 minutes. What must be done to support the requirement?

Use the STRMONSYS command to monitor the QSYSOPR message queue in *BREAK mode.

Create a job watcher definition in System Director Navigator for i to send a notification when CPU exceeds 80%.

Define a CPU monitor in Management Central to trigger a message when the CPU remains over 80% for a 5 minute interval.

Create a notification program and a job watcher definition. Then use the STRJW command to start the collection and monitoring.

To support the requirement of being notified when average CPU utilization remains above 80% for more than 5 minutes, a CPU monitor needs to be defined in Management Central. This monitor will trigger a message when the CPU remains over 80% for a 5-minute interval. This will allow the customer to receive notifications and take appropriate actions to address the high CPU utilization.

Explanation

To support the requirement of being notified when average CPU utilization remains above 80% for more than 5 minutes, a CPU monitor needs to be defined in Management Central. This monitor will trigger a message when the CPU remains over 80% for a 5-minute interval. This will allow the customer to receive notifications and take appropriate actions to address the high CPU utilization.

12. A customer has a 3 partition system with 2 switchable tape drives. The second tape drive is not currently assigned to any partition, and is not defined in the profile for the third partition. The customer needs to restore data using the second tape drive to the third partition. What is the simplest method to restore the data to the third partition?

Dynamically add the drive to the third partition. Restore the data.

Dynamically add the drive to the third partition. Shut down the partition and restart it. Restore the data.

Dynamically add the drive to one of the other partitions. Use the DUPTAP command to copy the data to the first tape drive. Restore the data to the third partition.

Dynamically add the drive to one of the other partitions. Use the DUPTAP command to copy the data to an image catalog. FTP the catalog to the desired partition. Restore the data.

The simplest method to restore the data to the third partition is to dynamically add the drive to the third partition and then restore the data. This means that the second tape drive, which is not currently assigned to any partition, will be added to the third partition. By doing so, the drive will be available for use in restoring the data to the third partition.

Explanation

The simplest method to restore the data to the third partition is to dynamically add the drive to the third partition and then restore the data. This means that the second tape drive, which is not currently assigned to any partition, will be added to the third partition. By doing so, the drive will be available for use in restoring the data to the third partition.

13. Assuming the appropriate PTF is installed, what is the minimum release level of IBM i Access to support Microsoft Windows 7?

6.1

7.1

5.4

5.4.5

The minimum release level of IBM i Access to support Microsoft Windows 7 is 6.1.

Explanation

The minimum release level of IBM i Access to support Microsoft Windows 7 is 6.1.

14. Which of the following commands will allow the administrator to override the QQRYTIMLMT system value for a job?

CHGJOB

CHGQRYA

CHGJOBA

CHGQRYRUNA

The CHGQRYA command allows the administrator to override the QQRYTIMLMT system value for a job. This command is used to change the query attributes for a query, and one of the attributes that can be changed is the query time limit. By using this command, the administrator can modify the time limit for a specific job, overriding the system value set for query time limit.

Explanation

The CHGQRYA command allows the administrator to override the QQRYTIMLMT system value for a job. This command is used to change the query attributes for a query, and one of the attributes that can be changed is the query time limit. By using this command, the administrator can modify the time limit for a specific job, overriding the system value set for query time limit.

15. An administrator has been directed to create a new DNS server instance named 'ABC' on an IBM i 6.1 partition. Which of the following overviews correctly describe how to do this?

Open a browser to IBM Systems Director Navigator for IBMi on the partition. Navigate to Network > Server > DNS. Select the 'create' action and follow the prompts.

From a command line, run the CRTTCPDNS command to create the ABC instance definition. Use SEU to edit QUSRSYS/QDNSTBL(ABC) to edit the DNS records for the instance.

In System i Navigator, under the system to host the DNS, navigate to Network > Servers > DNS. Right-click on DNS, then select 'New Name Server'. Follow the prompts.

From a command line, use STRQSH to start the PASE command prompt.Run the script: crdns -n ABC. Use the Edit File (EDTF) command on IFS file /QIBM/UserData/OS400/DNS/ABC.TBL to enter the new DNS records.

not-available-via-ai

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

16. An IBM i 6.1 system has the system value QFRCCVNRST set to 1. The administrator has restored an application library from a V5R4 system. The application is now running very slowly. Which of the following is the most likely cause of the problem?

The restored objects are being converted at first use.

The QFRCOBJCVN system value must be set to at least 4 for V5R4 objects.

The restored objects are using the V5R4 template, which runs more slowly on a 6.1 system.

The programs were compiled to a previous release which causes a performance problem at 6.1

The restored objects are being converted at first use because the system value QFRCCVNRST is set to 1. This means that when an object is accessed for the first time after being restored, it will be converted to the current release level of the system. This conversion process can cause a delay and result in the application running slowly.

Explanation

The restored objects are being converted at first use because the system value QFRCCVNRST is set to 1. This means that when an object is accessed for the first time after being restored, it will be converted to the current release level of the system. This conversion process can cause a delay and result in the application running slowly.

17. An IBM i partition is operating normally for most tasks. Performance reports show that interactive response times are acceptable and batch run times are normal. System status and disk status show normal paging and I/O rates for this system. However, users are complaining of intermittent response for interactive tasks, slow ODBC access and FTP transfers taking much longer than normal. What is a likely cause of this problem?

The QSYSWRK subsystem has insufficient main storage so TCP/IP cannot run reliably.

The Ethernet switch is configured for half duplex and the IBM i Ethernet line is configured for full duplex.

The 'TCP maximum retransmit time' setting is too high, so the system waits too long when a frame is dropped.

The TCP/IP Attribute ARP Cache Timeout has been set too low and the system must perform ARP discovery too often.

The likely cause of the problem is that the Ethernet switch is configured for half duplex and the IBM i Ethernet line is configured for full duplex. This configuration mismatch can cause collisions and delays in data transmission, resulting in intermittent response for interactive tasks and slower ODBC access and FTP transfers.

Explanation

The likely cause of the problem is that the Ethernet switch is configured for half duplex and the IBM i Ethernet line is configured for full duplex. This configuration mismatch can cause collisions and delays in data transmission, resulting in intermittent response for interactive tasks and slower ODBC access and FTP transfers.

18. Which of the following parameters on the SAV command can be used to save the Integrated File System directory /temp/files and all subordinate objects?

OBJ(('/temp/files/') PATTERN(('*')) SUBTREE(*DIR)

OBJ(('/temp/files/*') PATTERN(('*')) SUBTREE(*ALL)

OBJ(('/temp/files/') PATTERN(('*ALL')) SUBTREE(*DIR)

OBJ(('/temp/files/*') PATTERN(('*ANY')) SUBTREE(*ALL)

The correct answer is OBJ(('/temp/files/*') PATTERN(('*')) SUBTREE(*ALL). This parameter combination specifies that the SAV command should save the directory /temp/files and all of its subordinate objects, using the * pattern to include all objects within the directory. The SUBTREE(*ALL) parameter ensures that all subordinate objects are saved, including directories, files, and symbolic links.

Explanation

The correct answer is OBJ(('/temp/files/*') PATTERN(('*')) SUBTREE(*ALL). This parameter combination specifies that the SAV command should save the directory /temp/files and all of its subordinate objects, using the * pattern to include all objects within the directory. The SUBTREE(*ALL) parameter ensures that all subordinate objects are saved, including directories, files, and symbolic links.

19. The system value QCRTOBJAUD is set to *USRPRF. When are entries sent to the audit journal if a new directory is created with the parameter CRTOBJAUD(*SYSVAL)?

When it is used or changed by the user who created it.

When it is used or changed by a user who is currently being audited.

When it is used or changed by a member of the group profile of the user who is currently being audited.

When it is used or changed by a program adopting the authority of the user who is currently being audited.

When the system value QCRTOBJAUD is set to *USRPRF, entries are sent to the audit journal if a new directory is created with the parameter CRTOBJAUD(*SYSVAL) when it is used or changed by a user who is currently being audited. This means that any actions performed on the directory by a user who is currently being audited will be recorded in the audit journal.

Explanation

When the system value QCRTOBJAUD is set to *USRPRF, entries are sent to the audit journal if a new directory is created with the parameter CRTOBJAUD(*SYSVAL) when it is used or changed by a user who is currently being audited. This means that any actions performed on the directory by a user who is currently being audited will be recorded in the audit journal.

20. Which of the following are saved using the Save System Information (SAVSYSINF) command?

*CMD and *MSGF objects in QSYS changed since the last SAVSYS

*PGM and *SRVPGM objects in QSYS changed since the last SAVSYS

*USRPRF and *TBL objects in QSYS changed since the last SAVSYS

*DTAARA and *FILE objects in QSYS changed since the last SAVSYS

The Save System Information (SAVSYSINF) command is used to save information about system objects that have changed since the last system save (SAVSYS) operation. This includes *CMD and *MSGF objects in the QSYS library that have been modified. The command does not save *PGM and *SRVPGM objects, *USRPRF and *TBL objects, or *DTAARA and *FILE objects. Therefore, the correct answer is *CMD and *MSGF objects in QSYS changed since the last SAVSYS.

Explanation

The Save System Information (SAVSYSINF) command is used to save information about system objects that have changed since the last system save (SAVSYS) operation. This includes *CMD and *MSGF objects in the QSYS library that have been modified. The command does not save *PGM and *SRVPGM objects, *USRPRF and *TBL objects, or *DTAARA and *FILE objects. Therefore, the correct answer is *CMD and *MSGF objects in QSYS changed since the last SAVSYS.

21. A user must restore libraries LIBA and LIBB. LIBA contains logical files that are dependent on physical files in LIBB. Both libraries were saved using a SAVLIB(*NONSYS) command. Which command, or group of commands, will complete the restore operation in one pass through the tape even though the physical files are restored after the logical files?

RSTLIB SAVLIB(LIBB LIBA) DEV(TAP01)

RSTLIB SAVLIB(LIBA LIBB) DEV(TAP01) DFRID(ABC)

RSTLIB SAVLIB(LIBA LIBB) DEV(TAP01) DFRID(ABC) RMVDFRID DFRID(ABC)

RSTLIB SAVLIB(LIBA LIBB) DEV(TAP01) DFRID(ABC) RSTDFROBJ DFRID(ABC)

The correct answer is "RSTLIB SAVLIB(LIBA LIBB) DEV(TAP01) DFRID(ABC) RSTDFROBJ DFRID(ABC)". This command will complete the restore operation in one pass through the tape because it specifies both libraries to be restored, LIBA and LIBB, and includes the DFRID parameter with the value of ABC. The DFRID parameter is used to restore dependent objects, such as logical files that are dependent on physical files. The RSTDFROBJ command is used to restore dependent objects based on the DFRID value. Therefore, this command sequence ensures that both libraries are restored and any dependent objects are also restored in the correct order.

Explanation

The correct answer is "RSTLIB SAVLIB(LIBA LIBB) DEV(TAP01) DFRID(ABC) RSTDFROBJ DFRID(ABC)". This command will complete the restore operation in one pass through the tape because it specifies both libraries to be restored, LIBA and LIBB, and includes the DFRID parameter with the value of ABC. The DFRID parameter is used to restore dependent objects, such as logical files that are dependent on physical files. The RSTDFROBJ command is used to restore dependent objects based on the DFRID value. Therefore, this command sequence ensures that both libraries are restored and any dependent objects are also restored in the correct order.

22. Management has directed an administrator to set up system auditing in IBM i 6.1. When the administrator tries to display the auditing system values, '*NOTAVL' is displayed. What does this mean?

Journal QAUDJRN has not been created in library QSYS.

Journal QSYS/QAUDJRN has public authority '*EXCLUDE'.

The journal receivers for journal QAUDJRN have public authority '*EXCLUDE'.

The profile the administrator is using does not have '*AUDIT' special authority.

The correct answer is that the profile the administrator is using does not have '*AUDIT' special authority. This means that the administrator does not have the necessary privileges to access and display the auditing system values.

Explanation

The correct answer is that the profile the administrator is using does not have '*AUDIT' special authority. This means that the administrator does not have the necessary privileges to access and display the auditing system values.

23. An administrator is restoring a library from SYSTEMA to SYSTEMB. The administrator knows that the library is owned by a different user on SYSTEMB. Which of the following parameters of the RSTLIB command will restore the library and set the owner of the library to the current owner of the library on SYSTEMB?

ALWOBJDIF(*SAME)

ALWOBJDIF(*OWNER)

ALWOBJDIF(*DFTOWN)

ALWOBJDIF(*CURRENT)

The correct answer is ALWOBJDIF(*OWNER). This parameter of the RSTLIB command will restore the library and set the owner of the library to the current owner of the library on SYSTEMB. By specifying *OWNER, the administrator ensures that the ownership of the library is preserved during the restoration process.

Explanation

The correct answer is ALWOBJDIF(*OWNER). This parameter of the RSTLIB command will restore the library and set the owner of the library to the current owner of the library on SYSTEMB. By specifying *OWNER, the administrator ensures that the ownership of the library is preserved during the restoration process.

24. Which of the following commands displays the server firmware and assists in identifying the firmware related PTFs installed for a non-HMC managed system?

DSPFMWSTS

DSPFMWLVL

DSPSRVFRM

DSPFMWPTF

The correct answer is DSPFMWSTS. This command displays the server firmware and assists in identifying the firmware related PTFs installed for a non-HMC managed system.

Explanation

The correct answer is DSPFMWSTS. This command displays the server firmware and assists in identifying the firmware related PTFs installed for a non-HMC managed system.

25. A customer is moving from a Power 550 running V5R3 to a Power 750 running IBM i 6.1.1. The V5R3 system was migrated to IBM i 6.1 using the 'Migration from prior supported release' (SLIP) method. During testing, none of the DDM files to remote systems function. The system value QRETSVRSEC (Retain server security data) is set to '1' (enabled). Which of the following is the most likely cause of the problem?

The SNADS directory entries for the remote systems were removed when migrating to IBM i 6.1

The host table entries for the remote systems were not migrated using the 'SLIP' migration.

The authentication entries in the user profile(s) used for DDM are removed when migrating to IBMi 6.1.

The *LOCAL relational database name entry on the remote system does not match the value on the new system.

During the migration process, the *LOCAL relational database name entry on the remote system was not updated to match the value on the new system. This mismatch in the database name would cause the DDM files to remote systems to not function properly.

Explanation

During the migration process, the *LOCAL relational database name entry on the remote system was not updated to match the value on the new system. This mismatch in the database name would cause the DDM files to remote systems to not function properly.

26. File XYZ is secured as follows: > An authority list, ABC, is attached to file XYZ. > Primary Group of file XYZ is set to PRIGRP, which has *CHANGE authority > File XYZ is owned by profile APPOWN > User AUSER has *EXCLUDE authority Authority list ABC specifies: *PUBLIC authority is: *USE Group Profile FILEACC has *ALL authority User profile AUSER has group profile FILEACC and PRIGRP as supplemental groups. What authority will AUSER have to file XYZ?

*USE

*ALL

*CHANGE

*EXCLUDE

User AUSER will have *EXCLUDE authority to file XYZ. This is because the authority list ABC specifies that *PUBLIC authority is *USE, and AUSER is not a member of the PRIGRP primary group of file XYZ. Additionally, AUSER does not have any explicit authority specified in the authority list ABC. Therefore, the highest authority that AUSER can have is *EXCLUDE, as specified in the default authority of the file.

Explanation

User AUSER will have *EXCLUDE authority to file XYZ. This is because the authority list ABC specifies that *PUBLIC authority is *USE, and AUSER is not a member of the PRIGRP primary group of file XYZ. Additionally, AUSER does not have any explicit authority specified in the authority list ABC. Therefore, the highest authority that AUSER can have is *EXCLUDE, as specified in the default authority of the file.

27. Which of the following is true regarding journal receivers?

Data can be journalled to only 1 receiver in the system ASP.

Data can be journalled to 2 local receivers if one is in an iASP.

Data can be journalled to 2 journal receivers, one local and one remote.

Data can be journalled to 2 local journal receivers both in the system ASP.

Data can be journalled to 2 journal receivers, one local and one remote. This means that the system can create two separate journal receivers to record the journal entries. One receiver is local, meaning it is stored on the same system, while the other receiver is remote, meaning it is stored on a different system. This allows for redundancy and backup of the journal entries in case of system failure or data loss.

Explanation

Data can be journalled to 2 journal receivers, one local and one remote. This means that the system can create two separate journal receivers to record the journal entries. One receiver is local, meaning it is stored on the same system, while the other receiver is remote, meaning it is stored on a different system. This allows for redundancy and backup of the journal entries in case of system failure or data loss.

28. How can the system administrator set the expiration date for a tape?

Use the command SETEXPDATE on the tape volume.

Use the EXPDATE parameter of the SAVxxx command.

Use the EXPDATE parameter of the INZTAP command.

Use the SETLIBEXP command with the external tape library.

The system administrator can set the expiration date for a tape by using the EXPDATE parameter of the SAVxxx command. This command allows the administrator to specify the desired expiration date for the tape, ensuring that it is not used beyond that date. By setting the expiration date using this parameter, the administrator can effectively manage the lifecycle of the tape and ensure that it is properly retired and replaced as necessary.

Explanation

The system administrator can set the expiration date for a tape by using the EXPDATE parameter of the SAVxxx command. This command allows the administrator to specify the desired expiration date for the tape, ensuring that it is not used beyond that date. By setting the expiration date using this parameter, the administrator can effectively manage the lifecycle of the tape and ensure that it is properly retired and replaced as necessary.

29. Which of the following commands will show the names of all objects that a user is specifically authorized to use and the specific authorities that a user has to each object?

WRKOBJPVT USRPRF(USERNAME)

WRKOBJOWN USRPRF(USERNAME)

DSPPVTAUT USRPRF(USERNAME) TYPE(*OBJ)

DSPUSRPRF USRPRF(USERNAME) TYPE(*OBJAUT)

The command "DSPUSRPRF USRPRF(USERNAME) TYPE(*OBJAUT)" will show the names of all objects that a user is specifically authorized to use and the specific authorities that a user has to each object.

Explanation

The command "DSPUSRPRF USRPRF(USERNAME) TYPE(*OBJAUT)" will show the names of all objects that a user is specifically authorized to use and the specific authorities that a user has to each object.

30. A system administrator wants to display the defined users for System Service Tools (SST). Which of the following commands is appropriate?

DSPUSRPRF TYPE(*SST)

DSPSSTUSR USRID(*ALL)

DSPUSRPRF TYPE(*DST)

DSPDSTUSR USRID(*ALL)

The correct answer is "DSPSSTUSR USRID(*ALL)". This command is appropriate for displaying the defined users for System Service Tools (SST). The "DSPSSTUSR" command is specifically designed for displaying SST users, and the "USRID(*ALL)" parameter ensures that all users are included in the display. The other commands, "DSPUSRPRF TYPE(*SST)" and "DSPUSRPRF TYPE(*DST)", are not specifically tailored for displaying SST users and may not provide the desired information. The "DSPDSTUSR USRID(*ALL)" command is unrelated to SST users and is not appropriate for this task.

Explanation

The correct answer is "DSPSSTUSR USRID(*ALL)". This command is appropriate for displaying the defined users for System Service Tools (SST). The "DSPSSTUSR" command is specifically designed for displaying SST users, and the "USRID(*ALL)" parameter ensures that all users are included in the display. The other commands, "DSPUSRPRF TYPE(*SST)" and "DSPUSRPRF TYPE(*DST)", are not specifically tailored for displaying SST users and may not provide the desired information. The "DSPDSTUSR USRID(*ALL)" command is unrelated to SST users and is not appropriate for this task.

31. A customer has a Power 520, serial number 10-12345. It is one of several systems managed by an HMC running Version 7 firmware at TCP/IP address 10.0.0.100. Which of the following describes how to produce a system plan for this system in file MYPLAN.sysplan?

Select system plans from left panel, then select Create System Plan. In the pop-up window, fill in system plan name and description, click OK.

Select 'Service Applications' on the HMC and click the Create System Plan option. In the pop-up window, click the line with 9406-520*1012345, and specify file MYPLAN in the file name prompt.

Launch SPT and click 'Create New Plan.' On the next panel, click the 'Open an Existing System Plan.' In the file prompt, specify https://10.0.0.100/sysplan. After the system plan is loaded from the HMC, save to file MYPLAN.

Select 'System Plans' on the HMC, and then click the 'Import...' button. On the pop-up window, click the line with 9406-520*1012345. When the import completes, click the 'Save...' button and specify file MYPLAN in the file name prompt.

To produce a system plan for the Power 520 system with serial number 10-12345, the correct procedure is to select system plans from the left panel and then select Create System Plan. In the pop-up window, the user should fill in the system plan name and description, and then click OK. This will create a system plan for the specified system, which can be saved in the file MYPLAN.sysplan.

Explanation

To produce a system plan for the Power 520 system with serial number 10-12345, the correct procedure is to select system plans from the left panel and then select Create System Plan. In the pop-up window, the user should fill in the system plan name and description, and then click OK. This will create a system plan for the specified system, which can be saved in the file MYPLAN.sysplan.

32. A user's library list contains PRODLIB LIBD. A user typed the following sequence of commands: CHGCURLIB CURLIB(LIBA) ADDLIBLE LIB(LIBB) POSITION(*FIRST) CHGSYSLIBL LIB(LIBC) OPTION(*ADD) All libraries contain a program named PGMUSR which is different in each library. Which program will run if the user types the command CALL PGMUSR?

LIBA/PGMUSR

LIBB/PGMUSR

LIBC/PGMUSR

LIBD/PGMUSR

The user's current library is changed to LIBA using the CHGCURLIB command. Then, the library LIBB is added to the library list using the ADDLIBLE command with the POSITION(*FIRST) parameter, which means that LIBB will be the first library in the library list. Next, the system library list is changed to include LIBC using the CHGSYSLIBL command with the OPTION(*ADD) parameter. This means that LIBC will be added to the end of the system library list. Therefore, when the user types the command CALL PGMUSR, the program PGMUSR in LIBC will run.

Explanation

The user's current library is changed to LIBA using the CHGCURLIB command. Then, the library LIBB is added to the library list using the ADDLIBLE command with the POSITION(*FIRST) parameter, which means that LIBB will be the first library in the library list. Next, the system library list is changed to include LIBC using the CHGSYSLIBL command with the OPTION(*ADD) parameter. This means that LIBC will be added to the end of the system library list. Therefore, when the user types the command CALL PGMUSR, the program PGMUSR in LIBC will run.

33. Internal audit is planning a security audit next month. The system administrator has been directed to prepare the system for the audit. Which of the following commands is used to set security features to the IBM recommended values?

SETSYSSEC

CFGSYSSEC

WRKSYSAUD

SETSYSAUD

CFGSYSSEC is the correct answer because it is the command used to configure system security settings to the recommended values by IBM. This command allows the system administrator to set various security features and parameters to ensure that the system meets the required security standards for the upcoming audit.

Explanation

CFGSYSSEC is the correct answer because it is the command used to configure system security settings to the recommended values by IBM. This command allows the system administrator to set various security features and parameters to ensure that the system meets the required security standards for the upcoming audit.

34. After a complete restore, the job log shows several logical files that have not been restored. Which of the following will complete the restore?

RSTLIB LIB(*NEW) PVTAUT(*NO)

RSTLIB(*ALL) OPTION(*NEW) PVTAUT(*YES)

RSTOBJ OBJ(*NEW) LIB(*ANY) PVTAUT(*YES)

RSTOBJ OBJ(*ALL) LIB(*ANY) OPTION(*NEW) PVTAUT(*YES)

The correct answer is RSTOBJ OBJ(*ALL) LIB(*ANY) OPTION(*NEW) PVTAUT(*YES). This command will restore all objects in all libraries, including logical files, with a new option and private authorities enabled.

Explanation

The correct answer is RSTOBJ OBJ(*ALL) LIB(*ANY) OPTION(*NEW) PVTAUT(*YES). This command will restore all objects in all libraries, including logical files, with a new option and private authorities enabled.

35. An administrator is investigating poor performance of some applications. Several physical files have large numbers of associated logical files. Many of these logical files are used only during month-end processing. How can the administrator improve the application performance?

Change month-end logical files to maintenance *DLY.

Change the logical file description to OPTIMIZE (*WRITE)

Edit Rebuild Access Path (EDTRBDAP) and change the rebuild option on the month-end files to *IPL.

Change the logical files so they point to an inactive library. Change them back to the production library just before month end jobs run.

By changing the month-end logical files to maintenance *DLY, the administrator can improve application performance. This is because the logical files will only be used during month-end processing, so changing them to maintenance *DLY means they will be optimized for daily maintenance tasks rather than being active all the time. This can help reduce the workload and improve overall performance for the applications.

Explanation

By changing the month-end logical files to maintenance *DLY, the administrator can improve application performance. This is because the logical files will only be used during month-end processing, so changing them to maintenance *DLY means they will be optimized for daily maintenance tasks rather than being active all the time. This can help reduce the workload and improve overall performance for the applications.

36. How are IBM i FTP activities logged permanently for auditing?

By using an exit point application

By setting the QFTPAUD system value to '*QHST'

By setting the TCP attribute 'Log FTP' to 'Yes'

By activating the system audit journal (QAUDJRN)

IBM i FTP activities can be logged permanently for auditing by using an exit point application. Exit points are customizable points in the IBM i operating system where user-defined programs can be invoked to perform specific actions. In this case, an exit point application can be used to capture and log FTP activities, providing a permanent record for auditing purposes. This allows organizations to track and monitor FTP activities for security and compliance reasons.

Explanation

IBM i FTP activities can be logged permanently for auditing by using an exit point application. Exit points are customizable points in the IBM i operating system where user-defined programs can be invoked to perform specific actions. In this case, an exit point application can be used to capture and log FTP activities, providing a permanent record for auditing purposes. This allows organizations to track and monitor FTP activities for security and compliance reasons.

37. Which of the following user classes by default assigns system auditing capabilities to a user profile at all security levels?

*PGMR

*SECOFR

*SECADM

*SYSOPR

The SECOFR user class, by default, assigns system auditing capabilities to a user profile at all security levels. This means that users with the SECOFR user class have the ability to monitor and track system activities, ensuring security and compliance with auditing requirements.

Explanation

The SECOFR user class, by default, assigns system auditing capabilities to a user profile at all security levels. This means that users with the SECOFR user class have the ability to monitor and track system activities, ensuring security and compliance with auditing requirements.

38. Ansystem running IBM i 6.1 has a fibre attached IBM TS3500 (3584). Management has instituted a policy that any tape leaving the data center with application data must be encrypted. Which of the following tape encryption modes is supported?

System Managed

Library Managed

Software Managed

Application Managed

Library Managed tape encryption mode is supported in this scenario. This mode allows the tape library to handle the encryption process. The encryption keys are managed by the library itself, ensuring that any tape leaving the data center with application data is encrypted. This mode provides a centralized and efficient way to enforce the encryption policy without relying on individual systems or applications.

Explanation

Library Managed tape encryption mode is supported in this scenario. This mode allows the tape library to handle the encryption process. The encryption keys are managed by the library itself, ensuring that any tape leaving the data center with application data is encrypted. This mode provides a centralized and efficient way to enforce the encryption policy without relying on individual systems or applications.

39. When do changes to the 'Maximum Processor' setting in an LPAR definition take effect?

When the partition is re-activated after a complete power down

When the partition is restarted with PWRDWNSYS RESTART(*YES)

When all partitions and the managed system are shut down and restarted

When all partitions in the shared processor pool are powered down and restarted

When the partition is re-activated after a complete power down, the changes to the 'Maximum Processor' setting in an LPAR definition take effect. This means that when the partition is completely powered off and then turned back on, the new 'Maximum Processor' setting will be applied. It is important to note that simply restarting the partition or shutting down and restarting the managed system or all partitions in the shared processor pool will not trigger the changes to take effect.

Explanation

When the partition is re-activated after a complete power down, the changes to the 'Maximum Processor' setting in an LPAR definition take effect. This means that when the partition is completely powered off and then turned back on, the new 'Maximum Processor' setting will be applied. It is important to note that simply restarting the partition or shutting down and restarting the managed system or all partitions in the shared processor pool will not trigger the changes to take effect.

40. A system is using an HMC for the console. An administrator wants to start an Option 21 save from their laptop at the office before leaving and check on the job later that evening from home. How should the console session be started to start the save operation?

Start a shared console session from the administrator's laptop.

Start a dedicated console session from the administrator's laptop.

Start a shared console session from the HMC and the administrator's laptop.

Start a dedicated console session from the HMC, and a shared console session from the administrator's laptop.

In order to start an Option 21 save from the administrator's laptop at the office and be able to check on the job later from home, a shared console session should be started from both the HMC and the administrator's laptop. This will allow the administrator to access and control the console from their laptop remotely, ensuring they can start the save operation and monitor it from home. Starting a dedicated console session from either the administrator's laptop or the HMC alone would not provide the necessary remote access and control capabilities.

Explanation

In order to start an Option 21 save from the administrator's laptop at the office and be able to check on the job later from home, a shared console session should be started from both the HMC and the administrator's laptop. This will allow the administrator to access and control the console from their laptop remotely, ensuring they can start the save operation and monitor it from home. Starting a dedicated console session from either the administrator's laptop or the HMC alone would not provide the necessary remote access and control capabilities.

41. A customer does a GO SAVE, OPTION 21, every night. Every day when the system starts, each LAN printer writer goes to the MSGW (Message Waiting) state and requires a reply for the Message ID CPA3394 'Load form type '&4' device &5 writer &1.' Which of the following will fix this problem?

CHGWTR WTR(*ALL) FORMTYPE(*SAME *NOMSG)

CHGWTR WTR(*ALL) FORMTYPE(*SAME) INQMSGRPY(CPA3394) RPY(G)

ADDRPYLE SEQNBR(140) MSGID(CPA3394) CMPDTA(*NONE *NONE) RPY(G)

ADDRPYLE SEQNBR(140) MSGID(CPA3394) CMPDTA(*NONE *NONE) RPY(C)

The correct answer is ADDRPYLE SEQNBR(140) MSGID(CPA3394) CMPDTA(*NONE *NONE) RPY(G). This command adds a reply entry to the reply list for message CPA3394 with a sequence number of 140. The CMPDTA parameter specifies the comparison data for the reply, which in this case is set to *NONE *NONE. The RPY parameter is set to 'G', indicating that a generic reply will be sent. This will fix the problem by providing a reply to the message ID and allowing the LAN printer writer to continue processing without going into MSGW state.

Explanation

The correct answer is ADDRPYLE SEQNBR(140) MSGID(CPA3394) CMPDTA(*NONE *NONE) RPY(G). This command adds a reply entry to the reply list for message CPA3394 with a sequence number of 140. The CMPDTA parameter specifies the comparison data for the reply, which in this case is set to *NONE *NONE. The RPY parameter is set to 'G', indicating that a generic reply will be sent. This will fix the problem by providing a reply to the message ID and allowing the LAN printer writer to continue processing without going into MSGW state.

42. An administrator must manually start the Apache servers after an IPL on SYSTEMA. The administrator notices that the Apache servers 'Autostart' parameter is set to *GLOBAL. Which action will automatically start all Apache servers after an IPL?

Change the QHTTPSVR system value QGLOBAL parameter to *YES.

Add the command STRHTTPSVR GLOBAL(*YES) to the systems startup program.

Using the IBM Web Administration for i web page, select the Advanced tab then click on 'Global Server Settings'. Set the Autostart parameter to 'Yes'.

Using Systemi Navigator expand My Connections > SYSTEMA > Network. Select TCP/IP then Right click 'HTTP Administration' and select properties. Check the 'Start HTTP Servers' check box.

not-available-via-ai

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

43. An administrator notices that certain long-running CPU intensive batch jobs cause numerous short-running batch jobs to have excessive wait times. Changing batch job priorities is unacceptable since the numerous short batch jobs consume all the CPU needed by the longrunning jobs. What would permit the short batch jobs access to the CPU while permitting the longrunning batch jobs to run at an equal priority?

Shorten the wait time in the batch job class.

Shorten the time slice value in the batch job class.

Raise the maximum number of active jobs in the memory pool that runs batch jobs.

Use a subsystem routing entry to run the long-running batch jobs in a dedicated memory pool.

Shortening the time slice value in the batch job class would allow the short batch jobs to have more frequent access to the CPU, while still allowing the long-running jobs to run at an equal priority. By reducing the time slice, the CPU will switch between different jobs more frequently, giving the short batch jobs a chance to run without excessive wait times. This solution does not require changing batch job priorities or allocating dedicated memory pools, making it a suitable option in this scenario.

Explanation

Shortening the time slice value in the batch job class would allow the short batch jobs to have more frequent access to the CPU, while still allowing the long-running jobs to run at an equal priority. By reducing the time slice, the CPU will switch between different jobs more frequently, giving the short batch jobs a chance to run without excessive wait times. This solution does not require changing batch job priorities or allocating dedicated memory pools, making it a suitable option in this scenario.

44. An administrator attempts to change a journal so that the receivers are deleted by the system. When he attempts to change the value DLTRCV(*YES). He receives the message 'CPF70E3 : The journal receiver directory must only have attached receivers in it when DLTRCV(*YES) is specified' Which of the following procedures should be used to resolve this error?

Use the DLTJRNRCV command with the option *UNATTACHED to remove all receivers not attached to a journal.

Use the ENDJRN command to end journaling and delete all receivers. Change the value toDLTRCV(*YES)and restart journaling.

Use the CHGJRNA command on the journal and then press the F17 function key to work with the receiver directory. Delete all receivers not currently attached to the journal.

Use the WRKJRNA command on the journal and then press the F15 function key to work with the receiver directory. Delete all receivers not currently attached to the journal.

To resolve the error, the administrator should use the WRKJRNA command on the journal and then press the F15 function key to work with the receiver directory. This will allow them to access the receiver directory and delete all receivers that are not currently attached to the journal. By doing so, they will be able to comply with the requirement specified in the error message and successfully change the value DLTRCV(*YES) for the journal.

Explanation

To resolve the error, the administrator should use the WRKJRNA command on the journal and then press the F15 function key to work with the receiver directory. This will allow them to access the receiver directory and delete all receivers that are not currently attached to the journal. By doing so, they will be able to comply with the requirement specified in the error message and successfully change the value DLTRCV(*YES) for the journal.

45. When changing most ASMI profile passwords, which of the following must be known?

The ASMI HMC profile password

The ASMI ADMIN profile password

The ASMI GENERAL profile password

The existing password for the profile being changed

To change most ASMI profile passwords, it is necessary to know the ASMI ADMIN profile password. This password is specifically required to access and modify the profiles in the ASMI system. It serves as a security measure to ensure that only authorized individuals with knowledge of the ASMI ADMIN password can make changes to the profiles.

Explanation

To change most ASMI profile passwords, it is necessary to know the ASMI ADMIN profile password. This password is specifically required to access and modify the profiles in the ASMI system. It serves as a security measure to ensure that only authorized individuals with knowledge of the ASMI ADMIN password can make changes to the profiles.

46. An administrator has been asked to assist in defining a detailed recovery plan for objects in IFS directories that are journalled. The goal is to be able to completely reload the system with minimal intervention. Which of the following represents the correct order to restore objects?

Journal receivers, IFS objects, journals

IFS objects, journals, journal receivers

Journal receivers, journals, IFS objects

Journals, journal receivers, IFS objects

The correct order to restore objects in order to completely reload the system with minimal intervention is to restore the journals first, followed by the journal receivers, and then the IFS objects. This is because the journals contain the transactional data and changes made to the objects, the journal receivers store the journal entries, and the IFS objects are the actual objects stored in the IFS directories. By restoring them in this order, the system can be fully recovered with minimal data loss and intervention.

Explanation

The correct order to restore objects in order to completely reload the system with minimal intervention is to restore the journals first, followed by the journal receivers, and then the IFS objects. This is because the journals contain the transactional data and changes made to the objects, the journal receivers store the journal entries, and the IFS objects are the actual objects stored in the IFS directories. By restoring them in this order, the system can be fully recovered with minimal data loss and intervention.

47. A customer at V5R2 of i5/OS, wants to upgrade to IBM i 6.1. Which of the following describes the steps needed to perform the upgrade?

Upgrade directly to IBMi 6.1 using automatic upgrade, and run STROBJCVN to re-encapsulate all programs for 6.1.

Upgrade to V5R4 of i5/OS,then run ANZOBJCVN to identify programs that will not upgrade to 6.1 before upgrading to 6.1.

Run ANZOBJCVN on the current release to identify programs that will not upgrade to 6.1, then upgrade to V5R4 and run STROBJCVN on those programs.

Upgrade first to V5R4, run STROBJCVN on all programs in user libraries, and then upgrade directly to IBMi 6.1.

The correct answer suggests that the customer should first upgrade to V5R4 of i5/OS. After the upgrade, they should run ANZOBJCVN to identify programs that will not be able to upgrade to IBM i 6.1. This step is crucial as it allows the customer to identify any compatibility issues with their existing programs before proceeding with the upgrade. Once the incompatible programs are identified, the customer can then take appropriate actions to resolve the issues and ensure a smooth upgrade to IBM i 6.1.

Explanation

The correct answer suggests that the customer should first upgrade to V5R4 of i5/OS. After the upgrade, they should run ANZOBJCVN to identify programs that will not be able to upgrade to IBM i 6.1. This step is crucial as it allows the customer to identify any compatibility issues with their existing programs before proceeding with the upgrade. Once the incompatible programs are identified, the customer can then take appropriate actions to resolve the issues and ensure a smooth upgrade to IBM i 6.1.

48. An administrator is configuring virtual storage which will be owned by VIOS and used by IBM i. Which of the following correctly describes the sector size?

512-byte sector AIX LUNs

528-byte sector VIOS LUNs

520-byte sector IBMi LUNs

522-byte sector IBMi LUNs with compression

The correct answer is 512-byte sector AIX LUNs. This means that the AIX LUNs, which are being configured for virtual storage, will have a sector size of 512 bytes.

Explanation

The correct answer is 512-byte sector AIX LUNs. This means that the AIX LUNs, which are being configured for virtual storage, will have a sector size of 512 bytes.

49. An administrator must copy production data to a new system for high availability. How can System Reply Lists, System Values, Job and Subsystem Descriptions be restored from tape?

Restore the libraries QGPL and QUSRSYS.

Perform a Manual IPL to DST, select Change Install Options on the Install the Operation System display. Select the Message Reply List, System information, Job and Subsystem Descriptions.

Perform a Manual IPL to DST, select Change Install Options on the Install the Operating System display. Select the Restore option 1=Restore programs and language objects from current media set. Select the Message Reply List, System information, Job and Subsystem Descriptions.

Perform a Manual IPL to DST, select Change Install Options on the Install the Operating System display. Select the Restore option 4=Restore only language objects from a different media set using the current install device. Select the Message Reply List, System information, Job and Subsystem Descriptions.

To restore the System Reply Lists, System Values, Job and Subsystem Descriptions from tape, the administrator should perform a Manual IPL to DST and select Change Install Options on the Install the Operating System display. Then, they should choose the Restore option 1=Restore programs and language objects from the current media set. Finally, they need to select the Message Reply List, System information, Job and Subsystem Descriptions. This process will ensure that the necessary data is restored for high availability on the new system.

Explanation

To restore the System Reply Lists, System Values, Job and Subsystem Descriptions from tape, the administrator should perform a Manual IPL to DST and select Change Install Options on the Install the Operating System display. Then, they should choose the Restore option 1=Restore programs and language objects from the current media set. Finally, they need to select the Message Reply List, System information, Job and Subsystem Descriptions. This process will ensure that the necessary data is restored for high availability on the new system.

50. A system is configured with all user profiles set with Limit capabilities (LMTCPB) *YES. Management has directed the administrator to allow use of selected commands for all users without other changes to user security. Which of the following describe how this is accomplished?

Modify user profiles to specify LMTCPB(*PARTIAL).

For each command in the list, change the *PUBLIC authority specify IBM authority list QALWLMTCMD.

For each command in the list, use the Change Command (CHGCMD) command with parameter ALWLMTUSR(*YES).

Modify user profiles to reference a new group profile. For each command in the list, grant the new group profile *EXECUTE authority.

To allow selected commands for all users without changing user security, the administrator needs to use the Change Command (CHGCMD) command with the parameter ALWLMTUSR(*YES) for each command in the list. This parameter will allow all users to execute the specified commands without any limitations imposed by the user profiles' Limit capabilities setting.

Explanation

To allow selected commands for all users without changing user security, the administrator needs to use the Change Command (CHGCMD) command with the parameter ALWLMTUSR(*YES) for each command in the list. This parameter will allow all users to execute the specified commands without any limitations imposed by the user profiles' Limit capabilities setting.

51. A customer has installed a POWER6 machine to handle some workload from their current POWER5 machine. The POWER5 system is running V5R4M5. On the POWER6 system, they have loaded IBM i 6.1 SLIC media into the alternate IPL device and IPLed to DST, and selected the alternate install device with the save media. The IPL fails. Which of following describes the problem?

The CD and the tape are different LIC levels

The tape is missing PTFs required for POWER6

The V5R4 interoperability PTFs for i6.1 are missing.

The tape drive must be configured as the Alternate IPL device in order to IPL V5R4.

The customer has loaded IBM i 6.1 SLIC media into the alternate IPL device and selected the alternate install device with the save media. However, the CD and the tape have different LIC (Licensed Internal Code) levels. This means that the LIC levels of the CD and the tape are not compatible, causing the IPL to fail.

Explanation

The customer has loaded IBM i 6.1 SLIC media into the alternate IPL device and selected the alternate install device with the save media. However, the CD and the tape have different LIC (Licensed Internal Code) levels. This means that the LIC levels of the CD and the tape are not compatible, causing the IPL to fail.

52. The system values QSYSLIBL and QUSRLIBL are set as follows: QSYSLIBL: QSYS, QSYS2, QUSRSYS, QHLPSYS QUSRLIBL: QGPL, QTEMP, UTILITES Job Description AJOBD has the value User Library List set as follows: APPLIB, QTEMP When a job enters the system using the job description AJOBD, what will its library list be?

QGPL, QTEMP, UTILITES, APPLIB

QSYS, QSYS2, QUSRSYS, QHLPSYS, APPLIB, QTEMP

QSYS, QSYS2, QUSRSYS, QHLPSYS, QGPL, QTEMP, UTILITES

QSYS, QSYS2, QUSRSYS, QHLPSYS, QGPL, QTEMP, UTILITES, APPLIB

When a job enters the system using the job description AJOBD, its library list will include the values from both QSYSLIBL and QUSRLIBL, as well as the value set in the AJOBD job description. Therefore, the library list will be QSYS, QSYS2, QUSRSYS, QHLPSYS, APPLIB, QTEMP.

Explanation

When a job enters the system using the job description AJOBD, its library list will include the values from both QSYSLIBL and QUSRLIBL, as well as the value set in the AJOBD job description. Therefore, the library list will be QSYS, QSYS2, QUSRSYS, QHLPSYS, APPLIB, QTEMP.

53. How can a user specify more than 300 library names on the SAVLIB command when the save operation is performed on a tape media device?

Use the Additional Library (ADDLIB) parameter of the SAVLIB command.

Specify the library names on the LIB parameter of the SAVLIB command.

Use SAVLIB LIB(*USRSPC) to save to a save file, then CYPSAVF to tape.

Use the command SAVLIB LIB(*USRSPC) DEV(TAP01) VOL(*MOUNTED) CMDUSRSPC(QGPL/USRSPC).

The correct answer suggests using the SAVLIB command with the LIB(*USRSPC) parameter, the DEV(TAP01) parameter, the VOL(*MOUNTED) parameter, and the CMDUSRSPC(QGPL/USRSPC) parameter. This combination of parameters allows the user to specify more than 300 library names on the SAVLIB command when performing a save operation on a tape media device.

Explanation

The correct answer suggests using the SAVLIB command with the LIB(*USRSPC) parameter, the DEV(TAP01) parameter, the VOL(*MOUNTED) parameter, and the CMDUSRSPC(QGPL/USRSPC) parameter. This combination of parameters allows the user to specify more than 300 library names on the SAVLIB command when performing a save operation on a tape media device.

54. A system has 4 partitions configured. Electronic Service Agent is configured to report problems to IBM using VPN using the PROD partition. When the 3 remaining partitions attempt to report problems the connection fails. What action must be performed to allow the other partitions to send problem reports to IBM through the PROD partition?

Use the CHGSRVAGT command on the other partitions and set the IBMID parameter to the IP address or host name of the PROD partition.

Use the CHGSRVCFG command on the other partitions and set the RMTSYS parameter to the IP address or host name of the PROD partition.

Use the CHGSRVA command on the other partitions and set the RPTSRVPVD parameter to the IP address or host name of the PROD partition.

Use the CHGNETA command on the other partitions and set the NETSERVER parameter to the IP address or host name of the PROD partition.

To allow the other partitions to send problem reports to IBM through the PROD partition, the RMTSYS parameter needs to be set on the other partitions. This can be done using the CHGSRVCFG command, which allows the configuration of server attributes. By setting the RMTSYS parameter to the IP address or host name of the PROD partition, the other partitions will be able to establish a connection and send problem reports to IBM.

Explanation

To allow the other partitions to send problem reports to IBM through the PROD partition, the RMTSYS parameter needs to be set on the other partitions. This can be done using the CHGSRVCFG command, which allows the configuration of server attributes. By setting the RMTSYS parameter to the IP address or host name of the PROD partition, the other partitions will be able to establish a connection and send problem reports to IBM.

55. Which of the following recovery limit settings allows a communications line to make infinite recovery attempts?

Recovery limit attempts (0), Time interval in minutes (1)

Recovery limit attempts (1), Time interval in minutes (0)

Recovery limit attempts (*NOMAX), Time interval in minutes (0)

Recovery limit attempts (0), Time interval in minutes (*NOMAX)

The correct answer is "Recovery limit attempts (1), Time interval in minutes (0)". This setting allows a communications line to make only one recovery attempt without any time interval between attempts.

Explanation

The correct answer is "Recovery limit attempts (1), Time interval in minutes (0)". This setting allows a communications line to make only one recovery attempt without any time interval between attempts.

56. Which of the following port(s) and protocol(s) must be open through a NAT firewall for IBM i IPSec to function?

UDP on port 500

TCP on port 4500

UDP on ports 500 and 4500

TCP on ports 500 and 4500

In order for IBM i IPSec to function, both UDP and TCP protocols need to be open. UDP on port 500 and TCP on port 4500 are the specific ports that must be open through a NAT firewall. These ports allow the necessary communication for IPSec to operate effectively.

Explanation

In order for IBM i IPSec to function, both UDP and TCP protocols need to be open. UDP on port 500 and TCP on port 4500 are the specific ports that must be open through a NAT firewall. These ports allow the necessary communication for IPSec to operate effectively.

57. Which of the following commands identifies the correct resource name used for a network server description when an IBM i partition hosts storage for a new AIX or LINUX partition?

WRKHDWRSC *CMN

WRKHDWRSC *STG

WRKNWSCFG *HOST

WRKNWSSTG *GUEST

The command WRKHDWRSC *CMN identifies the correct resource name used for a network server description when an IBM i partition hosts storage for a new AIX or LINUX partition. This command allows users to work with the hardware resources on the system, including network server descriptions. The *CMN parameter specifies that the command should display common resource names, which are used for network server descriptions. By using this command, users can easily identify the correct resource name for a network server description in this specific scenario.

Explanation

The command WRKHDWRSC *CMN identifies the correct resource name used for a network server description when an IBM i partition hosts storage for a new AIX or LINUX partition. This command allows users to work with the hardware resources on the system, including network server descriptions. The *CMN parameter specifies that the command should display common resource names, which are used for network server descriptions. By using this command, users can easily identify the correct resource name for a network server description in this specific scenario.

58. In a typical Apache server configuration, which of the following user profiles processes server requests?

QHTTPSVR

QHTTPBAS

QTMHHTTP

QTMHTTPS

In a typical Apache server configuration, the user profile "QTMHHTTP" processes server requests.

Explanation

In a typical Apache server configuration, the user profile "QTMHHTTP" processes server requests.

59. An administrator is signed on to SysA and is trying to access the IFS of SysB through QFileSvr.400. The administrator is able to telnet between systems but when the WRKLNK '/QFileSvr.400/SysB' command is used an 'object not found' error is received for the directory. What must be done to correct the problem?

Start the QFileSvr.400 server onSysB.

Add a RDB directory table entry onSysA with the name SysB and its IP address.

Correct the administrator's User ID and password onSysB to be the same as it is on SysA.

Use the CD command to change the directory to QFileSvr.400 and then use the MKDIR command to create the directorySysB.

The correct answer suggests that the administrator should use the CD command to change the directory to QFileSvr.400 and then use the MKDIR command to create the directory SysB. This implies that the directory SysB does not currently exist on SysB, causing the "object not found" error. By creating the directory, the administrator will be able to access the IFS of SysB through QFileSvr.400.

Explanation

The correct answer suggests that the administrator should use the CD command to change the directory to QFileSvr.400 and then use the MKDIR command to create the directory SysB. This implies that the directory SysB does not currently exist on SysB, causing the "object not found" error. By creating the directory, the administrator will be able to access the IFS of SysB through QFileSvr.400.

60. A customer is preparing to upgrade from IBM i 5.4 to 6.1. WebSphere 6.1 ND (WAS) is installed. How can the current WebSphere service level that is active be determined prior to the upgrade?

Use IBM i command STRQSH. Run script /QIBM/WAS/bin/querywasinstalls. The installed WAS components and fix levels will be displayed.

Use IBM i command DSPGRPPTF. Select the WebSphere group PTF. The active WAS fix level will be displayed in the header of the PTF list.

Sign on to the HTTP administrator instance with a browser. Select 'All Application Servers'. The active service level will be shown in the header of the list with WAS instance status.

Use IBM i command DSPPTF for program product 5733-W61. Display the details in the highest numbered PTF in 'Temporarily applied' or 'Permanently applied' status. On the resulting display, use option 7 'Symptom Strings'. The WAS service level will be listed.

The correct answer suggests that the current WebSphere service level can be determined by using the IBM i command STRQSH and running the script /QIBM/WAS/bin/querywasinstalls. This script will display the installed WAS components and their respective fix levels.

Explanation

The correct answer suggests that the current WebSphere service level can be determined by using the IBM i command STRQSH and running the script /QIBM/WAS/bin/querywasinstalls. This script will display the installed WAS components and their respective fix levels.

61. A system has 15 identical SCSI disks connected to a controller. The system has RAID-5 protection, and there are three RAID-5 parity sets containing 5 disks each. After ending RAID, how can the system administrator reconfigure the parity sets in order to get the maximum available storage?

Select the option 'Start device parity with Hot Spare'.

First configure the ASPs and then start the parity protection.

Change the parity optimization level from Performance to Capacity using the iSeries Navigator.

Specify the desired parity sets number when the parity protection is started using the iSeries Navigator.

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Explanation

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62. An administrator has noticed that 8 of his 30 disk units are busier than others. They are all 70GB 15k rpm disk units, but are in different RAID-5 arrays. What explains why some are much busier than others?

The administrator has not run RCLSTG and there are many fragmented files on these 8 disks.

The system has journalled database files and has selected these 8 disks to hold the journals.

These 8 disk units contain the operating system and the QSYS library objects have not been decompressed yet.

The cache batteries on the controller for these 8 disk units have failed and the controller is writing directly to the disks.

The reason why some of the disk units are busier than others is because the system has journalled database files and has chosen these 8 disks to store the journals. Journaling is a process in which changes made to a database are recorded in a separate file called a journal, which helps ensure data integrity and recoverability. Since these 8 disks are designated to hold the journals, they will experience higher activity and usage compared to the other disks.

Explanation

The reason why some of the disk units are busier than others is because the system has journalled database files and has chosen these 8 disks to store the journals. Journaling is a process in which changes made to a database are recorded in a separate file called a journal, which helps ensure data integrity and recoverability. Since these 8 disks are designated to hold the journals, they will experience higher activity and usage compared to the other disks.

63. When attempting to report problems to IBM using Electronic Customer Support (ECS) and Electronic Service Agent the system administrator receives an error that the connection did not properly complete. Which command will verify the communications configuration?

VFYCMM

VFYSRVAGT

CHKSRVCFG

VFYSRVCFG

The correct answer is VFYSRVCFG. This command will verify the communications configuration.

Explanation

The correct answer is VFYSRVCFG. This command will verify the communications configuration.

64. Users without *ALLOBJ authority create many IFS files using an SAP application and store them into the /SAP directory. The company policy requires changing the IFS file authorities to READ ONLY for all users immediately after the file is created, even though the users are the owners of the IFS files. How can this be accomplished?

Set the users authority to *R for the /SAP parent directory. The IFS newly created file will inherit this authority.

Set the users authority to *USE for the /SAP parent directory. The IFS newly created file will inherit this authority.

Start journaling for the /SAP directory. Write a program which uses the RCVJRNE command to detect file creation and set authority to company policy.

Write a program that uses the RCVOBJAUT command to detect the current file authorities and then uses the EDTOBJAUT command to implement the new policy.

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Explanation

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65. A system administrator has installed a new application with a large number of logical files. All files in the new application database library are journaled. During testing of large batch update jobs, 10 of the system's 100 disk units are three times busier than the remaining disk units. Which of the following is the likely problem?

The journal receiver size threshold is set too small.

The 10 disk units are smaller capacity and are working harder due to their size.

The 10 disk units are a faster type and the system is prioritizing work to them.

The logical files which are being updated have the access path size set to *MAX4GB.

The likely problem in this scenario is that the journal receiver size threshold is set too small. This means that the journal receivers, which are used to record changes made to the logical files, are filling up quickly and causing the system to slow down. As a result, the 10 disk units that are busier are likely handling more journaling activity, while the remaining disk units are not as affected. Increasing the size threshold of the journal receivers would allow for more data to be stored, reducing the strain on the busy disk units and improving overall system performance.

Explanation

The likely problem in this scenario is that the journal receiver size threshold is set too small. This means that the journal receivers, which are used to record changes made to the logical files, are filling up quickly and causing the system to slow down. As a result, the 10 disk units that are busier are likely handling more journaling activity, while the remaining disk units are not as affected. Increasing the size threshold of the journal receivers would allow for more data to be stored, reducing the strain on the busy disk units and improving overall system performance.

66. An administrator has been directed to configure SYSTEMA to use Enterprise Extenders to SYSTEMB. SYSTEMB is already running Enterprise Extenders. A controller type *HPRIP has been successfully configured on both systems, but an error occurs when the controller on SYSTEMA is varied on. Which of the following is the most likely cause of the problem?

The default SNA mode must be set to 'HPRIP'.

The virtual *HPRIP APPC line must be varied on.

The 'AllowAnyNet' network attribute must be set to '*ALWHPRIP'.

The 'Allow High Performance Routing' network attribute must be set to '*YES'

The most likely cause of the problem is that the 'Allow High Performance Routing' network attribute must be set to '*YES'. This attribute needs to be enabled in order for the controller on SYSTEMA to be varied on successfully.

Explanation

The most likely cause of the problem is that the 'Allow High Performance Routing' network attribute must be set to '*YES'. This attribute needs to be enabled in order for the controller on SYSTEMA to be varied on successfully.

67. An independent ASP requires a reclaim storage. In addition to 'Available' which of the following is a state in which reclaim storage for an independent ASP will succeed?

Active

Failed

Varied On

Recovery Pending

When an independent ASP requires a reclaim storage, it means that there is a need to free up storage space. In this context, the state in which reclaim storage will succeed is "Failed." This suggests that when the ASP has failed, it is no longer actively in use and can be reclaimed for storage purposes. The other options, such as "Active," "Varied On," and "Recovery Pending," do not indicate a state where the storage can be reclaimed successfully.

Explanation

When an independent ASP requires a reclaim storage, it means that there is a need to free up storage space. In this context, the state in which reclaim storage will succeed is "Failed." This suggests that when the ASP has failed, it is no longer actively in use and can be reclaimed for storage purposes. The other options, such as "Active," "Varied On," and "Recovery Pending," do not indicate a state where the storage can be reclaimed successfully.

68. An administrator is attempting to use Management Central from a remote location. The signon times out. All other System i Navigator functions operate normally. Which of the following is the most likely cause of the problem?

The digital certificate used by Management Central for SSL has expired.

The administrator's workstation IP address is no longer in the host's LAN segment.

The TCP/IP traffic is traversing a NAT firewall. Management Central cannot establish a session from IBM i outbound to the administrator's PC.

The administrator's workstation is traversing a Masquerading NAT firewall. The Management Central server properties do not have 'NAT Enabled' property set.

The most likely cause of the problem is that the TCP/IP traffic is traversing a NAT firewall. This means that Management Central is unable to establish a session from the IBM i outbound to the administrator's PC. This is a common issue when using remote access, as the NAT firewall can interfere with the connection and prevent the signon from being successful.

Explanation

The most likely cause of the problem is that the TCP/IP traffic is traversing a NAT firewall. This means that Management Central is unable to establish a session from the IBM i outbound to the administrator's PC. This is a common issue when using remote access, as the NAT firewall can interfere with the connection and prevent the signon from being successful.

69. Some of the master keys on a system have become corrupted and must be restored. Which of the following correctly describes the restore process?

Use the RSTMSTKEY command to retrieve the keys from a SAVSYS backup.

Run an abbreviated IBMi install. Change the install options to reload the master keys from backup media.

Run the RSTOBJ command for QUSRBRM/Q1AKEYFILE. Then use the Translate Master Key Store File command (TRNCKMKSF) with the *SAVRST option to translate the master key to the system.

Check that the Save/Restore master key matches to the value at the time the keys were saved. Use the Add Master Part and Set Master Key (SETMSTKEY) commands to set the *SAVRST master key if needed.

The correct answer is to check that the Save/Restore master key matches the value at the time the keys were saved. If needed, the Add Master Part and Set Master Key commands should be used to set the *SAVRST master key. This ensures that the corrupted master keys are restored correctly and the system can function properly.

Explanation

The correct answer is to check that the Save/Restore master key matches the value at the time the keys were saved. If needed, the Add Master Part and Set Master Key commands should be used to set the *SAVRST master key. This ensures that the corrupted master keys are restored correctly and the system can function properly.

70. How can a user specify the name of an auxiliary storage pool (ASP) group to be included in the library name space of the subsystem monitor job?

Use the command SETASPGRP.

Specify the desired value for the 'ASP group' parameter on the STRSBS command.

Specify the desired value for the 'ASP group' parameter on the CRTSBSD or CHGSBSD commands.

Specify the desired value for the 'Initial ASP group' parameter for the subsystem monitor job description.

To include the name of an auxiliary storage pool (ASP) group in the library name space of the subsystem monitor job, the user needs to specify the desired value for the 'ASP group' parameter on the CRTSBSD or CHGSBSD commands. These commands allow the user to create or change subsystem descriptions, and by specifying the ASP group parameter, the user can ensure that the desired ASP group is included in the library name space of the subsystem monitor job.

Explanation

To include the name of an auxiliary storage pool (ASP) group in the library name space of the subsystem monitor job, the user needs to specify the desired value for the 'ASP group' parameter on the CRTSBSD or CHGSBSD commands. These commands allow the user to create or change subsystem descriptions, and by specifying the ASP group parameter, the user can ensure that the desired ASP group is included in the library name space of the subsystem monitor job.

71. Which of the following is required for an HMC and/or VIOS to permit IBM i generated shell commands to run in the HMC/VIOS command shell?

Remote command execution must be allowed.

Port 2301 in the HMC/VIOS firewall must be open.

5250 support must be enabled in the HMC/VIOS partition.

The service processor must allow remote command relay in the partition definition.

To permit IBM i generated shell commands to run in the HMC/VIOS command shell, remote command execution must be allowed. This means that the system must be configured to allow commands to be executed remotely from another system. Without enabling remote command execution, the HMC/VIOS will not accept and execute the shell commands generated by the IBM i system.

Explanation

To permit IBM i generated shell commands to run in the HMC/VIOS command shell, remote command execution must be allowed. This means that the system must be configured to allow commands to be executed remotely from another system. Without enabling remote command execution, the HMC/VIOS will not accept and execute the shell commands generated by the IBM i system.

72. An administrator is running V5R3 on a model 270 with four 8GB disk drives. They have just purchased a new Power 520. To make the migration easier, the administrator wants to bring the model 270 up to the same release as the new Power 520. Which of the following is a requirement?

Upgrade the 270 to 17GB drives.

Upgrade the model 270 to IBMi 6.1

Load V5R4M0 SLIC on the POWER6 520.

Order the 5799-CMP compatibility PRPQ for the POWER6 520.

The requirement to make the migration easier is to upgrade the 270 to 17GB drives. This is because the new Power 520 may have different hardware specifications and compatibility requirements compared to the model 270. By upgrading the disk drives to 17GB, the administrator ensures that the storage capacity and hardware configuration of the model 270 align with the new Power 520, facilitating a smoother migration process.

Explanation

The requirement to make the migration easier is to upgrade the 270 to 17GB drives. This is because the new Power 520 may have different hardware specifications and compatibility requirements compared to the model 270. By upgrading the disk drives to 17GB, the administrator ensures that the storage capacity and hardware configuration of the model 270 align with the new Power 520, facilitating a smoother migration process.

73. A system administrator is attempting to use LAN console to access a system. When the connection is attempted, the administrator can sign on to the DST session, but it shows 'Take over console' as 'No'. This connection has been used successfully in the past. Which of the following is the most likely cause of the error?

Another PC console session is open.

The console device used by the administrator is disabled.

The administrator has another 5205 console session open to the same partition.

The administrator's 5250 session is set to allow 27x132 screenemulation, the currently active session is 24x80.

The most likely cause of the error is that the administrator's 5250 session is set to allow 27x132 screen emulation, while the currently active session is set to 24x80. This mismatch in screen emulation settings prevents the administrator from taking over the console.

Explanation

The most likely cause of the error is that the administrator's 5250 session is set to allow 27x132 screen emulation, while the currently active session is set to 24x80. This mismatch in screen emulation settings prevents the administrator from taking over the console.

74. Every Saturday night, BRMS is scheduled to perform a full system backup of a production IBM i partition and then IPL. Due to time constraints for system availability, management has directed the administrator to eliminate the IPL and bring the system up immediately after the backup completes. The administrator modified the BRMS system policy IPL controls to prevent the IPL from occurring. However, after Saturday's backup, the system IPLs in spite of the change. What is the cause of this unplanned IPL, and how can the problem be corrected?

The system value QIPLTYPE is set to perform an Unattended IPL. Modify the system value appropriately.

The backup policy can override the system policy and start an IPL. Change the appropriate backup policy parameters to defer to the system policy.

The backup policy can override the system policy and start an IPL. Change the appropriate control group parameters to defer to the system policy.

The system policy IPL controls are dependent on the BRMS console monitor. Start the BRMS console monitor and ensure the System Policy Control parameter is set to *YES.

The backup policy can override the system policy and start an IPL. This means that even though the administrator modified the BRMS system policy IPL controls to prevent the IPL, the backup policy still initiated the IPL. To correct this problem, the administrator needs to change the appropriate backup policy parameters to defer to the system policy. This will ensure that the backup policy follows the system policy and does not initiate an IPL after the backup completes.

Explanation

The backup policy can override the system policy and start an IPL. This means that even though the administrator modified the BRMS system policy IPL controls to prevent the IPL, the backup policy still initiated the IPL. To correct this problem, the administrator needs to change the appropriate backup policy parameters to defer to the system policy. This will ensure that the backup policy follows the system policy and does not initiate an IPL after the backup completes.

75. An administrator has a local twinax interactive job in the QINTER subsystem. They transfer the interactive job to QCTL using the command TFRJOB JOBQ(QCTL) and then entered the ENDSYS *IMMED command. What will be the result?

The system will successfully enter a restricted condition.

The system will enter a restricted condition but the workstation job will end.

The system will issue an error indicating that the job must have started in the controlling subsystem.

The system will issue an error indicating the ENDSYS *IMMED command must be run from the system console.

When the administrator transfers the interactive job to QCTL using the TFRJOB command and then enters the ENDSYS *IMMED command, the system will issue an error indicating that the job must have started in the controlling subsystem. This means that the job cannot be ended using the ENDSYS command because it was not started in the controlling subsystem. The administrator would need to start the job in the controlling subsystem before being able to end it using the ENDSYS command.

Explanation

When the administrator transfers the interactive job to QCTL using the TFRJOB command and then enters the ENDSYS *IMMED command, the system will issue an error indicating that the job must have started in the controlling subsystem. This means that the job cannot be ended using the ENDSYS command because it was not started in the controlling subsystem. The administrator would need to start the job in the controlling subsystem before being able to end it using the ENDSYS command.

76. A customer has created an image catalog with multiple virtual tapes and uses it to perform their nightly backup. They are attempting to duplicate the images, using the DUPTAP command, to physical tape but they are getting errors. Which of the following is the most likely issue?

Virtual images must be saved to tape using the SAV command.

The tape images are different capacity than the physical tape.

The tape images and physical tape have incompatible block sizes.

Virtual images must be copied to tape using the CPYTOTAP command.

The most likely issue is that the tape images and physical tape have incompatible block sizes. This means that the data on the virtual tapes cannot be properly transferred to the physical tape due to a mismatch in their block sizes.

Explanation

The most likely issue is that the tape images and physical tape have incompatible block sizes. This means that the data on the virtual tapes cannot be properly transferred to the physical tape due to a mismatch in their block sizes.

77. An administrator wants to create a new SQL Performance monitor over a table in LIBA on SYSTEMA. After expanding My Connections -> SYSTEMA in System i Navigator, which of the following options will accomplish this task?

Right-click Databases and select SQL Performance Monitors and select 'New'.

Expand Databases -> LIBA.In the window on the right, right-click SQL Performance Monitors and select 'New'.

Expand Databases and select the database where the table resides.In the window on the right, right-click SQL Performance Monitors and select 'New'.

Expand Databases -> LIBA -> Tables. In the window on the right, right-click the table to be monitored and select SQL Performance Monitors and then 'New'.

To create a new SQL Performance monitor over a table in LIBA on SYSTEMA, the administrator should first expand Databases and select the database where the table resides. Then, in the window on the right, they should right-click SQL Performance Monitors and select 'New'. This will allow them to set up the monitor for the specific table they want to monitor.

Explanation

To create a new SQL Performance monitor over a table in LIBA on SYSTEMA, the administrator should first expand Databases and select the database where the table resides. Then, in the window on the right, they should right-click SQL Performance Monitors and select 'New'. This will allow them to set up the monitor for the specific table they want to monitor.

78. What happens when an operator issues the CHGMSGQ MSGQ(QSYSOPR) DLVRY(*DFT) command?

The message queue is changed to its default state specified by the CRTMSGQ command at the queue creation.

Messages requiring replies are answered with their default reply and the replies go to a default message queue.

Messages requiring replies are answered with their default reply and no messages are added to the message queue.

Messages requiring replies are answered with their default reply and the other messages are added to the message queue.

When an operator issues the CHGMSGQ MSGQ(QSYSOPR) DLVRY(*DFT) command, messages requiring replies are answered with their default reply and the other messages are added to the message queue. This means that any messages that do not require a reply will be added to the message queue, while messages that do require a reply will be automatically answered with their default reply. This command does not change the message queue to its default state specified by the CRTMSGQ command at the queue creation.

Explanation

When an operator issues the CHGMSGQ MSGQ(QSYSOPR) DLVRY(*DFT) command, messages requiring replies are answered with their default reply and the other messages are added to the message queue. This means that any messages that do not require a reply will be added to the message queue, while messages that do require a reply will be automatically answered with their default reply. This command does not change the message queue to its default state specified by the CRTMSGQ command at the queue creation.

79. Due to a merger, a company is consolidating data centers. Each center has a Power Systems server running IBM i and a TS3200 with LTO-4 drives. Tapes are managed at both sites with BRMS using non-overlapping bar-codes. One site uses hardware encryption, the other does not. An IBM TS3500 (3594) is being acquired to consolidate all tape support for both data centers. Management requires the following: 1) The new data center must be able to exchange tapes with the existing data centers during the migration and consolidation 2) The new tape library must have the fewest drives possible. 3) Human intervention must be minimal. Which of the following solutions meet these requirements?

Define a tape library partition for each IBM i instance. Use library mode encryption on the partition for the system with encryption enabled.

Define a tape library partition shared by both IBM i instances. Use system mode encryption on the partition for the system with encryption enabled.

Define a tape library partition shared by both IBM i instances. Configure BRMS to use control application mode encryption in the tape library partition for the system with encryption enabled.

Define a tape library partition shared by both IBM i instances. Use library mode encryption with Barcode Encryption Policy (BEP) set to enable encryption to recognize tapes that must be encrypted.

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80. When prompting STRSQL one of the parameters allowed is ALWCPYDTA. If this is set to *OPTIMIZE, which of the following will occur on all subsequent queries?

The database manager will create an index based on the current key to the file.

The database manager may create a copy of the data to reduce the length of time the query will run.

The database manager will find an index best matching the current key to reduce the overall retrieval time.

The database manager may create a copy of the data prior to returning the first row which will increase the length of time before the first result.

When the ALWCPYDTA parameter is set to *OPTIMIZE in STRSQL, the database manager may create a copy of the data before returning the first row. This is done to improve performance by reducing the time it takes to retrieve the first result. However, creating this copy may increase the overall time it takes to get the first result.

Explanation

When the ALWCPYDTA parameter is set to *OPTIMIZE in STRSQL, the database manager may create a copy of the data before returning the first row. This is done to improve performance by reducing the time it takes to retrieve the first result. However, creating this copy may increase the overall time it takes to get the first result.

81. Which of the following upgrade situations requires increasing the size of the Licensed Internal Code space?

Upgrading from V5R3M0 to V5R4M5

Upgrading from V5R4M0 to V5R4M5

Upgrading directly from V5R2 to 6.1

Doing a SLIP install of the same release

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Explanation

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82. A customer has a single partition Power 520. The system administrator has been asked to implement WebSphere Application Server Express in order to implement additional functionality of an installed ERP package. Which of the following must be done to ensure proper performance of the WAS server?

Run the CHGJOBD QDFTSVRPRIORITY(20) command.

Assign the subsystem running WebSphere a dedicated memory pool of 512MB.

Assign the subsystem running WebSphere a shared memory pool, ensure the paging option in WRKSHRPOOL is set to *FIXED.

Assign the subsystem running WebSphere a dedicated shared pool, ensure the paging option in WRKSHRPOOL is set to *CALC.

To ensure proper performance of the WebSphere Application Server (WAS) on the Power 520 system, the subsystem running WebSphere should be assigned a shared memory pool. This allows multiple jobs to share the same memory pool, optimizing memory utilization. Additionally, the paging option in WRKSHRPOOL should be set to *FIXED, which means that the memory allocated to the shared pool will not be paged out. This ensures that the memory remains readily available for the WAS server, preventing any delays caused by paging operations.

Explanation

To ensure proper performance of the WebSphere Application Server (WAS) on the Power 520 system, the subsystem running WebSphere should be assigned a shared memory pool. This allows multiple jobs to share the same memory pool, optimizing memory utilization. Additionally, the paging option in WRKSHRPOOL should be set to *FIXED, which means that the memory allocated to the shared pool will not be paged out. This ensures that the memory remains readily available for the WAS server, preventing any delays caused by paging operations.

83. What is the correct communication object type and attribute for creating an Enterprise Extender connection to another System?

A controller type *EE.

A controller type *HPR.

A virtual device type *EE.

A virtual device type *HPR.

The correct communication object type and attribute for creating an Enterprise Extender connection to another System is a controller type *HPR. This type of controller is specifically designed for Enterprise Extender connections. The other options, including controller type *EE, virtual device type *EE, and virtual device type *HPR, are not the correct choices for establishing this type of connection.

Explanation

The correct communication object type and attribute for creating an Enterprise Extender connection to another System is a controller type *HPR. This type of controller is specifically designed for Enterprise Extender connections. The other options, including controller type *EE, virtual device type *EE, and virtual device type *HPR, are not the correct choices for establishing this type of connection.

84. A software vendor has suggested a limit of 20% average busy on all disk arms to avoid performance-related problems with the software. Which of the following will allow the administrator to monitor the disk performance and send out an alert when the performance recommendation is exceeded?

Create a system monitor in Management Central measuring disk arm utilization and set a threshold trigger to fire.

In System i Navigator, create a monitor job in Collection Services measuring disk arm utilization and set a threshold trigger to fire.

Use Management Central Collection Services and set an I/O subsystem monitor. Include all disk units in the monitor and set the alarm at 20%.

In System i Navigator, Configuration and Services -> Hardware -> Disk units, set a monitor job up for the disk units and create a trigger to fire at 20% utilization.

The correct answer suggests creating a system monitor in Management Central to measure disk arm utilization and set a threshold trigger to fire. This will allow the administrator to monitor the disk performance and receive an alert when the performance recommendation of 20% average busy on all disk arms is exceeded. Management Central provides a centralized platform for monitoring and managing system resources, making it the most suitable option for this scenario.

Explanation

The correct answer suggests creating a system monitor in Management Central to measure disk arm utilization and set a threshold trigger to fire. This will allow the administrator to monitor the disk performance and receive an alert when the performance recommendation of 20% average busy on all disk arms is exceeded. Management Central provides a centralized platform for monitoring and managing system resources, making it the most suitable option for this scenario.

85. A Power 520 has the firmware update policy set to HMC managed and is running firmware 01_SF240_320. After looking at the IBM website for the latest server firmware, the administrator downloads 01_SF240_368_332. Which of the following describes the type of install and why?

Since 01_SF240_320 is less than 01_SF240_368, the installation will be disruptive.

Since the downloaded server firmware has a 332 at the end, which is greater than 320, the firmware installation will be concurrent.

Since the downloaded server firmware has a 332 at the end, which is greater than 320, the firmware installation will be disruptive.

Since the version of the server firmware is 01_SF240 on the server and the new firmware to be installed, the update will be concurrent.

The given answer is correct because it states that the firmware installation will be concurrent. This is because the version of the server firmware on the Power 520 is 01_SF240, and the new firmware to be installed is also 01_SF240. Since the versions match, the installation can be done concurrently, which means that the server does not need to be taken offline during the update process.

Explanation

The given answer is correct because it states that the firmware installation will be concurrent. This is because the version of the server firmware on the Power 520 is 01_SF240, and the new firmware to be installed is also 01_SF240. Since the versions match, the installation can be done concurrently, which means that the server does not need to be taken offline during the update process.

86. A prestart job started under the QUSER user profile is handling a remote program start request which uses the USRRMT user profile. How is the authority checked against the USRRMT user after the prestart job swaps the user profile from QUSER to USRRMT?

The job will use only the QUSER user private authorities.

The job will use only the USRRMT user private authorities.

The job will use the QUSER private authorities and adopt the authorities of USRRMT.

The job will use the USRRMT user private authorities, current library (CURLIB) and initial program (INLPGM).

After the prestart job swaps the user profile from QUSER to USRRMT, the job will use only the USRRMT user's private authorities. This means that the job will have access to the resources and objects that are authorized for the USRRMT user profile. It will not have access to the QUSER user's private authorities or any other authorities.

Explanation

After the prestart job swaps the user profile from QUSER to USRRMT, the job will use only the USRRMT user's private authorities. This means that the job will have access to the resources and objects that are authorized for the USRRMT user profile. It will not have access to the QUSER user's private authorities or any other authorities.

87. An administrator needs to recover an HMC due to a failed disk. The disk has been replaced. Backups of both the HMC Data and Upgrade Data are available. After reloading the HMC with the Recovery DVDs, what are the next steps to restore the HMC configuration?

Use the 'HMC Management > Restore HMC Data' option to first restore just the HMC Data.

Use the 'HMC Management > Restore Upgrade Data' option to first restore just the Upgrade Data.

Use the 'HMC Management > Restore HMC Data' option to first restore the HMC Data and then the Upgrade Data.

Use the 'HMC Management > Restore Upgrade Data' option to first restore the Upgrade Data, and then the HMC Data.

After reloading the HMC with the Recovery DVDs, the next step to restore the HMC configuration is to use the 'HMC Management > Restore HMC Data' option to first restore just the HMC Data. This will ensure that the HMC's configuration is restored to its previous state before the disk failure occurred. Once the HMC Data is restored, further steps can be taken to restore the Upgrade Data if necessary.

Explanation

After reloading the HMC with the Recovery DVDs, the next step to restore the HMC configuration is to use the 'HMC Management > Restore HMC Data' option to first restore just the HMC Data. This will ensure that the HMC's configuration is restored to its previous state before the disk failure occurred. Once the HMC Data is restored, further steps can be taken to restore the Upgrade Data if necessary.

88. An administrator has been directed to establish redundancy for their network links which use TCP/IP traffic. They have connected three gigabit-Ethernet lines to three different network switches. Which of the following is required to meet their goal?

Enable IP datagram forwarding.

Set the REDUNDANT(*YES) parameter on each of the Ethernet lines.

Define *DFTROUTE entries with preferred binding interfaces for each interface.

Create indirect routes to the local network for each of the three Ethernet lines.

Creating indirect routes to the local network for each of the three Ethernet lines is required to establish redundancy for the network links. This means that if one link fails, traffic can be rerouted through the other available links, ensuring continuous connectivity. By creating indirect routes, the administrator can specify alternative paths for the traffic to reach its destination, increasing network reliability and redundancy.

Explanation

Creating indirect routes to the local network for each of the three Ethernet lines is required to establish redundancy for the network links. This means that if one link fails, traffic can be rerouted through the other available links, ensuring continuous connectivity. By creating indirect routes, the administrator can specify alternative paths for the traffic to reach its destination, increasing network reliability and redundancy.

89. An IBM i partition hosts storage for an AIX partition using a network storage description. The system administrator found out that the AIX partition has access to the IBM i an optical device (OPT01) which prevents the IBM i administrator from using OPT01. Which of the following will restrict AIX from accessing the optical device OPT01?

Change the Read, Write and Execute permissions for OPT01.

Change the Network server configuration file for the AIX partition to not define the optical device.

Change the network server description to restrict the AIX partition from accessing the optical device.

Change the device description for OPT01 to restrict the AIX partition from accessing the optical device.

The correct answer is to change the network server description to restrict the AIX partition from accessing the optical device. By modifying the network server description, the system administrator can specify which devices are accessible to the AIX partition. This will allow them to restrict access to the optical device OPT01, preventing the AIX partition from using it and allowing the IBM i administrator to regain control over OPT01.

Explanation

The correct answer is to change the network server description to restrict the AIX partition from accessing the optical device. By modifying the network server description, the system administrator can specify which devices are accessible to the AIX partition. This will allow them to restrict access to the optical device OPT01, preventing the AIX partition from using it and allowing the IBM i administrator to regain control over OPT01.

90. A system administrator has loaded VIO Server on a POWER blade and has defined an IBM i partition. The partition is IPLing in manual mode from the DVD in the media tray, however the LAN console will not connect and the partition stops with system reference code A9005008 (console not found). Which of the following is the likely problem?

The QCONSOLE device ID is disabled in VIOS.

The incorrect type of console is selected in the partition definition in VIOS.

The BladeCenter Advanced Management Module must be configured to allow 5250 connections.

The Virtual LAN adapters used between VIOS and IBM i are not bridged to the external LAN.

The likely problem in this scenario is that the Virtual LAN adapters used between VIO Server (VIOS) and IBM i are not bridged to the external LAN. This means that the LAN console cannot connect to the partition, resulting in the system reference code A9005008 (console not found). By bridging the Virtual LAN adapters to the external LAN, the LAN console will be able to establish a connection and the partition will be able to proceed with the IPL process.

Explanation

The likely problem in this scenario is that the Virtual LAN adapters used between VIO Server (VIOS) and IBM i are not bridged to the external LAN. This means that the LAN console cannot connect to the partition, resulting in the system reference code A9005008 (console not found). By bridging the Virtual LAN adapters to the external LAN, the LAN console will be able to establish a connection and the partition will be able to proceed with the IPL process.

91. Which of the following is the minimum requirement to configure RAID Hot Spare for SCSI disks on the load source IOA?

Have one non-configured disk unit of equal or larger size attached to the IOA

Have one configured disk unit of equal size attached to the IOA in a valid Load Source capable position

Have one non-configured disk unit of equal size attached to the IOA located in a valid Load Source capable position

Have one configured disk unit of equal size attached to the IOA and the IOA must be designated as the 'Alternate IPL Devices'

To configure RAID Hot Spare for SCSI disks on the load source IOA, it is necessary to have one non-configured disk unit of equal size attached to the IOA located in a valid Load Source capable position. This means that the disk unit should not have any existing configurations or data, and it should be of the same size as the other disks in the RAID configuration. Additionally, it should be physically connected to the IOA in a position that supports being a load source.

Explanation

To configure RAID Hot Spare for SCSI disks on the load source IOA, it is necessary to have one non-configured disk unit of equal size attached to the IOA located in a valid Load Source capable position. This means that the disk unit should not have any existing configurations or data, and it should be of the same size as the other disks in the RAID configuration. Additionally, it should be physically connected to the IOA in a position that supports being a load source.

92. The user JSMITH receives a 'Not authorized . . .' error on a program that is secured by the authority list ALLPGM. Upon viewing the authority list, JSMITH has *USE authority. Since JSMITH is authorized to use the program in the ALLPGM authority list, why is he getting the error?

JSMITH has limited capabilities.

The user needs *CHANGE authority in the authority list.

Security for JSMITH is listed as *EXCLUDE on the program object.

The library in which the program object resides has only PUBLIC *READ authority.

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Explanation

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